BUZZWORDS PHYSIOLOGY. CELL PHYSIOLOGY 1 Which of the following does NOT have membrane-bound...

BUZZWORDS PHYSIOLOGY

CELL PHYSIOLOGY

1Which of the following does NOT have

membrane-bound organelles?a.) Prokaryoteb.) Eukaryote

EUKARYOTES

2

Give two examples of prokaryotes.

Bacteria and Archea

3

Human cells are eukaryotic cells. YES or NO?

4

What are the parts of the Cell Cycle?

G0, G1, D, G2, M (P,M,A,T)

5Let’s discuss the functions of the different

parts of the Prokaryotic Cell. What are the three components and functions of

the Cell Envelope?

1. Capsule – antiphagocytic 2. Cell Wall – protection

against osmotic pressure3. Cell Membrane –

permeability barrier, acts as the mitochondria

6

How about plasmids?

Encodes for EXOtoxin, antibiotic-resistance

7

How about Pili?

For attachment AND bacterial

CONJUGATION

8

Differentiate Prokaryotic Nucleoid Body from Eukaryotic Nucleus:

Nucleoid body – 1 bacterial chromosome, CIRCULAR, no

nuclear DNA

9

Differentiate Prokaryotic Ribosome from Eukaryotic Ribosome:

Prokaryotic Ribosome – 30, 50s, 70s

10Let’s discuss the parts of the eukaryotic

cell. Differentiate DNA, Histones, Nucleosome, Nucleofilaments,

Chromosomes, Nucleus:

B, S, P DNA DNA + Histone Nucleosome nucleofilament chromosome 46

chromosome inside the nucleus

11

What is the function of the mitochondria?

Powerhouse of the cell

12

What are the Buzzwords associated with the mitochondria?

3 Parts: Outer Mitochondrial Membrane, Inner Mitochondrial

Membrane, Mitochondiral Matrix. Mitochondrial DNA, Does NOT follow the genertic

code, Leber’s Optic Degeneration

13

What is the function of the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?

Detoxification, Fatty Acid and Cholesterol

Formation

14

What are the two types of ribosomes?

1. RER Ribosomes2. Free-floating

Ribosomes

15Which ribosome produces proteins bound

for the mitochondria(e.g. Krebs cycle enzymes)?

Free-floating ribosomes


for the cytoplasm(e.g. Glycolysis enzymes)?

Free-floating ribosomes


for the cell membrane, lysosomes, and the outside of the cell(e.g. hormones)?

RER ribosomes

18

What is the buzzword associated with the Golgi Apparatus?

Packaging

19

What are the SPECIFIC functions of the Golgi Apparatus?

20

What is the composition of the cell membrane?

Phospholipid bilayer, cholesterol, glycolipid,

glycoprotein, water

21

The cell membrane is permeable to NON-POLAR molecules – TRUE or FALSE?

22

The cell membrane is permeable to LIPID-SOLUBLE substances – TRUE or FALSE?

23Let’s discuss water transport. What’s the most common compound in your body?

(60% of your body weight)

24

Very Good. =) What’s the most common protein in your body?

Collagen

25

Very Good uli. =) What’s the most common amino acid in your body?

Glycine

26Ang galing!!! =) Tell me what happens to

the ECF in the following situations… Infusion of plain NSS to a patient –

Increase or Decrease?

Increases

27

Diarrhea – Increase or Decrease?

Decreases

28

Seawater Ingestion – Increase or Decrease?

Increases

29

Sweating– Increase or Decrease?

Decreases

30

Fever – Increase or Decrease?

Decreases

31

Diabetes Insipidus – Increase or Decrease?

Decreases

32

SIADH – Increase or Decrease?

Increases

33

Adrenal Insufficiency – Increase or Decrease?

Decreases

34Let’s discuss INTERcellular transport.

Which of the following are used to transport solutes – Tight junctions or Gap

junctions?

Tight Junctions

35Which of the following are used for intercellular communication – Tight

junctions or Gap junctions?

Gap Junctions

36Which of the following are found in

Cardiac muscle cells – Tight junctions or Gap junctions?

Gap Junctions

37Which of the following are found in

Smooth muscle cells – Tight junctions or Gap junctions?

Gap Junctions

38Let’s discuss transport mechanisms.

Which transport mechanism is used by oxygen, nitrogen and lipid-soluble

hormones to enter the cell?

Simple Diffusion

39

Non-carrier mediated, “downhill”?

Simple Diffusion

40

Carrier-mediated, used ATP:

Primary Active Transport

41

Na-K-ATPase pump:

Primary Active Transport

42

Na-K-2Cl pump:

Secondary Active Transport

43

Carrier-mediated, uses Na instead of ATP, indirectly relies on Na-K-ATPase pump

44

Carrier-mediated, “downhill”, does NOT use ATP

Facilitated Diffusion

45

Absorption of glucose into the muscle and adipose tissues:

Facilitated Diffusion

46

Absorption of glucose into the small intestinal cells:

47Stereospecificity, Saturation and

Competition are Hallmarks of carrier- or non-carrier mediated transport?

Carrier-Mediated Transport

48

What’s the difference between osmosis and diffusion?

1. Osmosis – movement of water

2. Diffusion – movement of solutes

49

Let’s discuss nerve action potential. What causes depolarization?

Sodium entry due to opening of Sodium ACTIVATION gates

50

Which is responsible for REpolarization?

1. Prevention of sodium entry – closure of Na Inactivation Gates

2. Potassium exit – opening of potassium gated channels

51

What is the normal nerve resting membrane potential?

-70 mV

52

What is the threshold?

-30 mV

52

What is the membrane potential during depolarization?

+40 mV

53

No further action potentials can be elicited – ARP or ERP?

54

More inward current needed to generate action potentials – ARP or ERP?

NEURO PHYSIOLOGY

55

What are the three main parts of a neuron?

Cell Body, Axons, Dendrites

56Let’s discuss neurotransmitters. Which neutrotransmitter is found in the pre-

ganglionic and neuro-muscular junction?

Acetylcholine

57

VMA is the waste product:

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

58

Found in post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons:

Norepinephrine

59

Main secretion of the adrenal medulla:

Epinephrine

60

Parkinson’s Disease:

Dopamine

61

Schizophrenia:

Dopamine

62

Main Excitatory Neurotransmitter of the brain:

Glutamate

63

Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the brain:

64

Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the Spinal Cord:

Glycine

65

Phenylalanine and Tyrosine would yield which neurotransmitters?

Dopamine, Norepinephrine,

Epinephrine

66Let’s discuss the brain. Tell me which part

of the brain is responsible for the following… Hearing and balance?

Temporal Lobe

67

Vision?

Occipital Lobe

68

Judgment, calculation, personality:

Frontal Lobe

69

Motor:

Frontal Lobe

70

Sensory:

Parietal Lobe

71

Sex, Thirst, Appetite, Body Clock (circadian rhythm), Temperature:

Hypothalamus

72

Coughing, Vomiting, Swallowing:

Medulla

73

Apneustic and Pneumotaxic Centers:

74

Micturition:

Midbrain

75

Emotions:

Limbic System

76

Broca’s Area:

Inferior Frontal Lobe

77

Wernicke’s Area:

Superior Temporal Lobe

78

Balance:

Cerebellum

79

Basic EEG naman. What waves are found in those who are alert?

Beta wave

80

Sleeping?

Delta/slow waves

81

Relaxed individuals:

Alpha waves

82Let’s discuss parts of the hypothalamus.

Which part is responsible for ADH secretion?

Supraoptic Nuclei

83

Which part is responsible for oxytocin secretion?

Paraventricular Nuclei

84

Which part is responsible for appetite?

Lateral Nucleus

85

Which part is responsible for satiety?

Ventromedial Nucleus

86

Differentiate anterior vs posterior nuclei of the hypothalamus

Anterior – dissipation of heat. Posterior –

conservation of heat

87

What is the main mechanism for heat loss?

Radiation

88

What is the main mechanism for heat conservation?

Shivering

89

Give at least three buzzwords for malignant hyperthermia:

Succinylcholine, halothane, dantrolene,

calcium channel blocker, not responsive

to NSAIDs

90

Give the parts of the basal ganglia:

Striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic

nuclei

91

Crosses the midline immediately, pain and temperature: ALS or DC?

92

Light touch: ALS or DC?

Both ALS and DC

93The following are correctly matched, EXCEPT:a.) Pacinian corpuscle – onion-like, vibrationb.) Meissner’s Corpuscle – velocityc. ) Ruffini’s Corpuscle – positiond.) Merkel’s disk - tapping

Merkel’s disk - location

94How do I correct for the following: myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism,

presbyopia?

Biconcave, convex, cylindrical, convex

lens

95

Maximal loudness allowed in the workplace for 8 hours:

85-90 dB

96

Level of Loudness that can cause pain:

120 dB

97

Part of the vestibular system responsible for linear acceleration:

Utricle and saccule

98Let’s discuss cranial nerves. Which cranial

nerve is responsible for opening of the eyelids?

Cranial Nerve III

99

Closing of the eyelids?

Cranial Nerve VII

100

Pupillary constriction?

Cranial Nerve III

101

Smiling?

Cranial Nerve VII

102

Facial Sensation?

Cranial Nerve V

103

Sticking out the tongue?

Cranial Nerve XII

104

Taste, Anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Cranial Nerve VII

105

General Sensation, Pain, Anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Cranial Nerve V

106

Longest cranial nerve of the body:

Cranial Nerve X

107Let’s move on to the ANS. Identify if

sympathetic, parasympathetic or both. Uses acetylcholine:

108

Sweating:

Sympathetic

109

Uses norepinephrine:

Sympathetic

110

Salivation:

111

Increased heart rate:

Sympathetic

112

Bronchoconstriction

Parasympathetic

113

Mydriasis:

Sympathetic

114

Uterine contraction:

Sympathetic

115

Uterine relaxation:

Sympathetic

116

Reuptake of norepinephrine:

Sympathetic

Muscle Physiology

117

Identify if Skeletal, Smooth or Cardiac… voluntary:

Skeletal Muscle

118

Uses MLCK, calmodulin:

Smooth Muscle

119

Has Gap junctions

Cardiac AND smooth Muscle

120

Most number of sarcoplasmic reticulum:

Skeletal Muscle

121

Does NOT have T-tubules

Smooth Muscle

122

Does NOT have surface membrane calcium channels:

Skeletal Muscle

123

Has no sarcomeres, no striations, no troponin:

Smooth Muscle

124Identify if Fast-twitch (white-muscle fiber) or slow-twitch (red-muscle fiber) muscle

fiber… larger:

Fast-twitch muscle fiber

125

More enzymes for phosphagen and glycogen-lactic acid system:

126

Has more mitochondria, myoglobin, capillaries:

Slow-twitch muscle fiber

127

Gastrocnemius is an example:

128

Which part of the sarcomere SHORTENS during muscle contraction?

H-zone, I-band

129What muscle reflex is characterized by

ipsilateral flexion and contralateral extension?

Flexor-Withdrawal Reflex

RESPIRATORY PHYSIOLOGY

130

What type of bronchiole is capable of gas exchange?

Respiratory Bronchiole

131

What is our mnemonic for Lung Volumes?

132

IRV + TV = ________

Inspiratory Capacity

133

ERV + RV = _______

Functional Residual Capacity

134

So what are the volumes that compose the Vital Capacity?

IRV, TV, ERV

135

What Lung Volume maintains oxygenation whenever one holds his breath?

Residual Volume

136

Differentiate anatomic dead space, alveoli dead space and physiologic space.

Physiologic dead space = anatomic dead space + alveoli dead space

137

What happens to recoil force and intrapleural pressure during inspiration?

Recoil force increases, intrapleural pressure decreases

138Which of the following stimulates

inspiration – apneustic center, pneumotaxic center?

Apneustic Center

139What type of gas stimulates the central

chemoreceptors to increase the respiratory rate?

Carbon Dioxide (CSF H+)

140

What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?

141

What is the normal V/Q ratio?

142

What happens to FEV1/FVC ratio in Obstructive Lung Disease?

Decreases

143

Give an example of obstructive lung disease

Asthma, COPD, polio

144

In obstructive lung disease, what happens to PCO2 – increase or decrease?

Increases

Problem in the…

pO2 pCO2

pH Cause

Restrictive lung diseasesigns of :dyspnea, and tachypneapresenting as SOB & weakness

Interstitial Can’t breath in

Everything elseVirus, fungus, etc…

Obstructive lung diseaseincreased respiratory rate dyspnea and tachypneapresenting as SOB & weakness

Airway Can’t breath out

Normal

Bacterial Infections → Mucus Plugs

145

What is Laplace Law?

P = 2T/r

146

Let’s talk about surfactant. What type of alveolar cell produces surfactant?

Type II

147

What week does it mature?

Week 35

148

What do we give to those less than 35 weeks AOG?

Dexamethasone

149

What is the L:S ratio that is indicative of mature levels?

150

What are the diseases associated with deficiency of surfactant?

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RLD),

Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (OLD)

151Let’s discuss Hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curves. An increase in _______ will lead

to a shift to the left

Carbon Monoxide (CO)

152

An increase in temperature will lead to a shift to the ________.

153

An increase in 2,3 BPG will lead to a shift to the ________.

154

An increase in pH will lead to a shift to the _______.

155What do you call the phenomenon

associated with unloading of oxygen secondary to increased H+?

Bohr Effect

156What do you call the phenomenon

associated with unloading of carbon dioxide secondary to increased oxygen?

Haldane Effect

157

Differentiate carboxyhemoglobin with carbaminohemoglobin.

Carboxyhemoglobin – Carbon monoxide. Carbaminohemoglobin – Carbon dioxide

158

What is the most ventilated area of the lung?

159

What is the most perfused area of the lung?

160

What area of the lung has the highest ventilation-perfusion ratio?

161

What happens to arterial PO2 and PCO2 during exercise?

No change

162

What happens to venous PCO2 during exercise?

Increases

163

What happens to ventilation-perfusion ratio during exercise?

more evenly distributed

164

What happens to arterial pH in high altitude?

Increases

165

What happens to 2,3 BPH in high altitude?

Increases

166

What happens to Hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curve in high altitude?

Shift to the right

RENAL PHYSIOLOGY

167

Where is erythroipoietin produced?

Peritubular capillaries of the kidney

168

What enzyme is present in the kidney to convert Vitamin D to its active form?

1 alpha hydroxylase

169

What is the net gain of water per day?

Total Fluid Gains and Losses

Water Gain• Liquids – 1500ml• Solid foods – 800ml• Water of oxidation

(metabolism waste product) – 300ml

• Total daily fluid gain: 2.6L

Water Loss• Skin – 600ml• Lungs – 400ml• Kidneys – 1500ml• Intestines – 100ml• Total daily fluid loss:

2.6L

170

What is the normal protein content of urine?

171

What is the normal glucose content of urine?

172

Mild glucosuria maybe normal in _______.

Pregnant patients

173

What is the most vascular part of the kidney? – cortex, medulla, pelvis, capsule?

Renal Cortex

174

Choose between cortical or juxtamedullary nephron. Predominant:

Cortical Nephron

175

Contains vasa recta:

Juxtamedullary Nephron

176

Longer loops of Henle:

Juxtamedullary nephron

177

Peritubular capillaries:

178

What is the usual daily urine output?

720-1440 ml

179

What bladder muscle is responsible for urination?

Detrusor Muscle

180Let’s discuss the RAA system. Before the RAA system is activated, what neurologic

mechanism is activated to increase the HR and consequently the BP?

Baroreceptor reflex

181If the baroreceptor reflex does not work,

RAAS kicks in. What renal cells senses changes in BP?

Macula densa of the JGA

182What substance would be secreted in

response to changes in BP by the JG cells of the afferent arteriole?

183

What is the action of renin?

Converts angiotensinogen

(from the liver) to angiotensin I

184

What happens next?

Angiotensin I is converted to

Angiotensin II in the lungs by ACE

185

What is the other effect of ACE?

Inhibition of bradykinin

186What is the effect of angiotensin II on

sympathetic activity – increase or decrease?

Increases

187

What is the effect of angiotensin II on arterioles?

Vasoconstriction

188

What is the effect of angiotensin II on ADH secretion?

increases

189

What is the effect of angiotensin II on aldosterone secretion?

increases

190

Where is aldosterone produced specifically?

Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

191What is the effect of aldosterone on

PLASMA levels of sodium, potassium and hydrogen?

Increase, decrease, decrease

192What is the effect of the baroreceptor

reflex, ADH, angiotensin II and aldosterone on blood pressure?

Increases BP

193

What are side effects of high aldosterone levels?

Metabolic ALKALOSIS, hypokalemia

194

What are the two main parts of the Nephron?

Renal Corpuscle and the Tubular System

195

What is the specific action of ADH on the kidney?

Causes insertion of aquaporin/water

channels on the distal tubules

196

Describe what happens to inulin based on filtration, reabsorption, secretion:

It is filtered but NOT reabsorbed, NOT

secreted

197

Describe what happens to PAH in terms of filtration, reabsorption, secretion:

It is filtered and secreted but NOT reabsorbed

198Describe what happens to glucose in terms of filtration, reabsorption and

secretion

It is filtered and reabsorbed but NOT

secreted

199Between PAH, inulin, glucose and

albumin, which of them has the highest clearance?

200

What happens to GFR when I dilate my afferent arteriole – increase or decrease?

Increase

201

What happens to GFR when I constrict my efferent arteriole – increase or decrease?

Increase

202The clearance of _______ is used to estimate renal blood flow and renal

plasma flow.

203

The clearance of _______ is used to estimate GFR.

Inulin

204

What is the renal threshold for glucose?

180mg/dl

205

The descending LH is impermeable to water or electrolytes?

electrolytes

206

The ascending LH is impermeable to water or electrolytes?

207

What is the countercurrent multiplier of the kidney?

Loop of Henle

208

What is the countercurrent exchanger of the kidney?

Peritubular capillaries

209

What are the three urinary buffers?

NaHCO3, NaHPO4, NH4

210Let’s discuss acid-base abnormalities.

Identify based on the buzzword. Hyperventilation is the respiratory

compensation:

Metabolic acidosis

211

Characterized by decreased respiratory rate and has renal compensation:

Respiratory acidosis

212

Diarrhea, RTA, Chronic renal failure:

Metabolic acidosis

213

Vomiting, hyperaldosteronism, loop or thiazide diuretics:

Metabolic alkalosis

214Pneumonia, pulmonary embolus, high

altitude, psychogenic, salicylate intoxication:

Respiratory alkalosis

215

GBS, polio, ALS, MS, Airway obstruction:

Respiratory acidosis

CARDIOVASCULAR PHYSIOLOGY

216Where will you find the ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale in

the fetus?

Liver, pulmonary artery-aorta, L-R atrium

217

How many umbilical veins are found in the fetus?

218

What coronary artery is most susceptible to atherosclerosis?

Left Anterior Descending (LAD)

219

What organ is the most efficient extractor of oxygen?

220

What is the site of highest resistance in the circulatory system?

Medium-sized arterioles

221

Reservoir of blood in the circulatory system:

222What would happen to the Reynold’s number if there is decreased blood

viscosity or increased blood velocity – increase or decrease?

Increase

223

What is the significance of a high Reynold’s number?

Higher possibility of turbulence

224Which has greater

capacitance/compliance – arteries or veins?

225

Herring’s nerve or carotid sinus nerve is actually cranial nerve ___.

226

What is the hormone that counteracts the effect of aldosterone and ADH?

227

The plateau in cardiac action potential is found in what phase?

Phase 2

228

What causes phase 2 in cardiac action potential?

Entry of calcium (opening of calcium channels)

AND closure of potassium voltage-

gated channels

229

What causes depolarization in pacemaker action potential?

Calcium entry

230

Differentiate chronotrophic vs dromotrophic effect:

Chronotrophic – change in heart rate.

Dromotrophic – change in conduction velocity.

231

What is the normal ejection fraction?

232

What happens to heart rate when preload is increased?

Increases

233

What happens to heart contractility when afterload is decreased?

Increases

234

What happens to cardiac output when heart rate slows down?

decreases

234

What is the other name for preload?

Venous return

235Local control of blood flow is best

explained by which of the following – myogenic or metabolic hypothesis?

Metabolic hypothesis

236

Which prostaglandins act as vasoconstrictors?

PGF, TXA/PGA2

237

Midsystolic click:

238

“Opening snap”:

MS, TS

239

Fixed, wide S2 splitting:

240

What is the most common cause of S4?

Hypertension

241

What happens to BP and HR whenever you stand from a sitting position?

Decrease, increase

242

What happens to TPR during exercise – increase or decrease?

Decreases

243

What happens to venous blood volume during hemorrhage?

Decreases

GASTROINTESTINAL PHYSIOLOGY

244

Function of Auerbach’s plexus:

Motility

245

What is the location of the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone?

Roof of the 4th Ventricle

246

The upper 1/3 of the esophagus contains smooth or skeletal muscles?

Skeletal Muscles

247

Slow waves are generated by what type of pacemaker cells?

Interstitial Cells of Cajal

248

The “migrating myoelectric complex” is mediated by what hormone?

Motilin

249Increasing the intra-abdominal pressure

against a closed glottis is otherwise known as:

Valsalva Maneuver

250

What is the specific site of production of gastrin?

G cells of the gastric antrum

251What is the effect of CCK on the

gallbladder and sphincter of Oddi – relax or contract?

GB contraction, Sphincter of Oddi

Relaxation

252

What is the effect of Secretin?

Counteracts HCl

253

What GI hormone stimulates insulin release?

254

Buzzwords associated with saliva:

Hypotonic, high in potassium, high in bicarbonate, both sympathetic and parasympathetic

255

What is the innervation of the parotid gland?

Cranial Nerve IX

256True or False. The following are associated with duodenal ulcers:

hyperacidity:

257

More associated with H.pylori

258

NOT relieved by food intake

259Associated with Blood Type O, MEN I, ZES,

Cirrhosis, COPD:

260

What enzyme converts pancreatic trypsinogen to trypsin?

Enterokinase

261

Give two examples of primary bile acids:

Cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic

acid

262

What is the main site of iron absorption?

Duodenum

263

What is the main site of carbohydrate, protein and fat absorption?

Jejenum

264

What is the main site of Vitamin B12, Vitamin ADEK, IF, Bile acid absorption?

ENDOCRINE PHYSIOLOGY

265

What is the 2nd messenger system for thyroid hormone?

266

What is the 2nd messenger system for glucagon?

267

What is the 2nd messenger system for insulin?

Tyrosine Kinase

268Cortisol attaches to which of the following

– cytoplasmic receptor or nuclear membrane receptor?

Cytoplasmic Receptor

269

What is the effect of somatostatin on Growth Hormone – increase or decrease?

Decreases

270

What is the Effect of PIF/Dopamine on Prolactin – increase or decrease?

Decreases

271If the pituitary stalk is damaged, all pituitary hormones would decrease

EXCEPT _______.

Prolactin

272

Is Growth Hormone catabolic or anabolic?

273

How does GH increase growth?

Through IGF production

274

What hormone is responsible for milk production?

Prolactin

275

Where is ADH synthesized and stored?

Hypothalamus, Posterior Pituitary

276

Where will you find your thyroglobulin – thyroid gland or plasma?

Thyroid Gland

277

Which of the following is predominant in the plasma – T4 or T3?

278

Is thyroid hormone anabolic or catabolic?

279

What is the effect of thyroid hormone on the CNS?

Causes maturation during the perinatal

period

280

What is the effect of Thyroid Hormone on vitamins?

Converts carotene to Vitamin A

281

What is the specific site of production of cortisol?

Zona Fasciculata of the Adrenal Cortex

282

Chronic High Cortisol levels may cause diabetes and HPN. True or False?

283

Addison’s disease is due to high levels of aldosterone. True or false?

284

21B Hydroxylase Deficiency causes virilization. True or False?

285Which protein serves as a marker for

endogenously released insulin when a Pt is given insulin exogenously?

C-peptide

286What is the effect of PTH on the plasma

levels of the following – vitamin D, calcium, Phosphate

Increase, increase, decrease

287

What is the active form of vitamin D?

1,25 dihydroxycholecalcif

erol

288

Which cells produces testosterone – Leydig Cells or Sertoli Cells?

Leydig Cells

289How many degree Celcius cooler is the

testes compared to the abdominal cavity?

290

Main hormone involved in the follicular phase:

Estrogen

291

How does prolactin inhibit ovulation?

Inhibition of GnRH

292What is the Strength per square

centimeter of x-sec area for both men and women?

3-4 kg/cm2

293

During exercise, when is power maximal?

During the first 8-10 seconds

294

Muscles undergo which of the following – hypertrophy or hyperplasia?

Hypertrophy

295

What is the cardiac reserve?

296

What is the effect of testosterone on athletic performance?

Increases muscle size, muscle strength and

aggression

297

What is the effect of cocaine on athletic performance?

298

Acute effects of hypoxia begin at _______ feet.

12,000

299

Seizures begin at _______ feet.

18,000

300Naturally acclimatized people have

_______ hearts, _______ chest, _______ body mass

Larger, larger, smaller

301

Maximum Positive G force before you lose consciousness:

302

Effect of weightlessness on the bones:

Loss of calcium and phosphate

303

First symptom at 120 feet below sea level:

Joviality

304

Most common symptom of decompression sickness:

“bends”

305

Used as a substitute for nitrogen in deep dives:

Helium

Thank You Very Much! Study Well! =)

BUZZWORDS PHYSIOLOGY. CELL PHYSIOLOGY 1 Which of the following does NOT have membrane-bound...

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