U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – Limited ......Aug 21, 2019  · Chief...

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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Q601 General Subjects (Sample Examination) Page 1 of 29 Q601 General Subjects 8/20/2020

Transcript of U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – Limited ......Aug 21, 2019  · Chief...

Page 1: U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – Limited ......Aug 21, 2019  · Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 . Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice

National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

Chief Engineer-Limited

Q601 General Subjects

(Sample Examination)

Page 1 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

8/20/2020

Page 2: U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – Limited ......Aug 21, 2019  · Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 . Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice

Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

1. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.

o (A) cause the system to vibrate o (B) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system o (C) be successful every time • (D) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

2. Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint __________.

o (A) can cause rusting of internal parts • (B) can clog filters and promote component leakage o (C) solidifies and causes cracked lines o (D) breaks down hydraulic fluid

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

3. Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by __________.

o (A) insufficient external pump slippage o (B) fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations o (C) an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers • (D) continuous leakage through the pressure relief valve

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

4. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which of the following problems will occur?

• (A) The internal parts of the pump and hydraulic motor will wear excessively. o (B) The sheathing on the hydraulic lines will fracture. o (C) The lifting capacity of the crane will be immediately reduced by 70%. o (D) All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

5. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______. Illustration GS-0175

o (A) processed water outlet line o (B) oily bilge water inlet line o (C) waste oil discharge line • (D) clean water inlet line

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 6. The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the __________.

Illustration GS-0153

• (A) inlet weir and inlet baffle o (B) second stage oil separator and drip pan o (C) first stage oil separator and drip pan o (D) outlet weir and outlet baffle

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

7. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

o (A) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure. o (B) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode. • (C) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges. o (D) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

8. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.

• (A) 33 CFR Section 159 o (B) 33 CFR Section 153 o (C) 33 CFR Section 155 o (D) 33 CFR Section 156

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

9. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.

o (A) increase water flow through the system o (B) provide a higher pressure in the system than the pump can deliver • (C) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump o (D) prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

10. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?

o (A) Instability o (B) Deadband • (C) Feedback o (D) Gain

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 11. Suppose a temperature transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and an output

range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response pattern, what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature is 40 degrees Celsius?

o (A) 6.40 mA • (B) 10.40 mA o (C) 13.60 mA o (D) 16.00 mA

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

12. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by gain?

o (A) The progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component. o (B) The undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant

or increasing amplitude. • (C) The ratio of the amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of the

input signal. o (D) The signal in a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled

value from the setpoint.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

13. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration. Illustration GS-0180

o (A) Difference Signal Processor. o (B) High Select Signal Processor. • (C) Low Select Signal Processor. o (D) Integral Processor.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

14. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the setpoint. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. setpoint?

o (A) By decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. setpoint after an upset. o (B) By decreasing gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. setpoint after an

upset. o (C) By increasing gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. setpoint after an upset. • (D) By decreasing gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response to

system's upsets vs. the setpoint.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 15. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an

emergency?

• (A) Master of the vessel o (B) Chief mate o (C) Coast Guard o (D) Chief engineer

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

16. The unlicensed crew requirements listed on the Certificate of Inspection reads as follows: 3 firemen/water tenders; 3 oilers. The vessel is about to depart on a foreign voyage, and has in the crew: 3 firemen/water tenders, 2 oilers, and one man, whose merchant mariner's document is endorsed QMED, any rating. You should __________.

o (A) call the port captain and request another oiler o (B) request a waiver from the Coast Guard o (C) check if any of the firemen have enough time for an oiler's endorsement • (D) sail because your crew requirements are filled

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

17. A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.

o (A) immediately after they have received training o (B) after they have observed the skill demonstrated once • (C) after they have received training and personally practiced the skill o (D) before they have received training

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

18. A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration should sign off when __________.

• (A) the entire practical demonstration has been successfully completed and personally observed by the licensed officer

o (B) the pre-brief with the trainee has been completed o (C) the majority of any portion of the skill has been demonstrated o (D) another licensed officer has witnessed the performance of the demonstration

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11

19. In the illustrated schematic, the device used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older type steering gears, is the component labeled as __________. Illustration GS-0123

• (A) "A" o (B) "B" o (C) "F" o (D) "H"

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

20. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________. Illustration GS-0123

• (A) be in motion with a null input o (B) not be in motion, thus a null input o (C) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump on maximum stroke o (D) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump at null stroke

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

21. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the pedestal-mounted controller?

• (A) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.

o (B) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation, but the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.

o (C) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of rotation, but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.

o (D) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

22. As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?

• (A) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

o (B) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

o (C) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

o (D) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 23. Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?

• (A) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.

o (B) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.

o (C) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.

o (D) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

24. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration RA-0042

o (A) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

o (B) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

• (C) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

o (D) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

25. In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? Illustration RA-0009

• (A) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is closed, and vice versa.

o (B) The exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same degree for all operating conditions.

o (C) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is closed, and vice versa.

o (D) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is closed, and vice versa.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11

26. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?

o (A) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.

o (B) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.

o (C) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.

• (D) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected coil.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

27. Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry bulb temperature of 60oF and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain, and the off-coil temperature is now 80oF. What is off-coil relative humidity? Illustration RA-0022

o (A) 19% • (B) 27% o (C) 55% o (D) 70%

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

28. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?

o (A) Small-group meeting • (B) One-on-one, face-to-face o (C) Large-group meeting o (D) Telephone conversation

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11

29. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?

o (A) Conversing with the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of the desk from you.

o (B) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard to being interrupted.

• (C) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured. o (D) Conversing with the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite

side of the desk from you.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

30. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a ________.

o (A) jack screw • (B) split washer or backup ring o (C) split die o (D) ring gage

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

31. As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning, generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.

• (A) reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings o (B) maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings o (C) adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil o (D) installing oil rings on the ball bearings

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

32. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?

• (A) They are well adapted to variable speed operation. o (B) They have a relatively high power loss due to friction. o (C) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention. o (D) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11

33. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?

o (A) Transformational leadership style. • (B) Structured, autocratic leadership style. o (C) Developmental leadership style. o (D) Supportive, participative leadership style.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

34. During the "storming" phase of group development, conflicts generally arise over goals, task behaviors, and leadership roles. If these conflicts are not successfully resolved, what may result?

o (A) The group will nevertheless successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust and cooperation, resulting in successful accomplishment of the group's mission.

• (B) The group may not successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust and cooperation, and this probably will interfere with successful accomplishment of the group's mission.

o (C) The group will nevertheless successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust and cooperation, but this probably will interfere with successful accomplishment of the group's mission.

o (D) The group may not successfully develop teamwork, group cohesion, mutual trust and cooperation, but this should not interfere with successful accomplishment of the group's mission.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

35. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques represents a strategy where everyone wins?

o (A) Struggle and victory of one side over the other. • (B) Joint problem solving by both sides. o (C) Compromise by both sides. o (D) Voluntary submission of one side.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

36. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?

o (A) Station bill o (B) Pre-fire plan o (C) Fire control plan • (D) Muster list

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 37. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which

statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?

o (A) The fire control plan is a set of written descriptions for each deck of the vessel and contains information on vessel arrangement and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.

o (B) The fire control plan is a set of written instructions and contains information for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space.

o (C) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information for how to extinguish a fire in a particular space.

• (D) The fire control plan is a set of drawings for each deck of the vessel and contains information on vessel arrangements and fire suppression systems and locations of firefighting equipment.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

38. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter F (Marine Engineering), what is the inspection interval between hydrostatic tests of an oil-fired, water-tube, auxiliary boiler on a passenger vessel?

o (A) 1 year. o (B) 2 years. • (C) 2.5 years. o (D) 5 years.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

39. According to 46 CFR regulations pertaining to tests and inspections as related to automatic auxiliary boilers, the fuel pressure limit control must be checked for proper shutdown operation. What statement is true?

o (A) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before boiler restart.

o (B) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal pressure.

o (C) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be raised to a value above what is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, the boiler is required to restart automatically upon restoration of normal pressure.

• (D) To initiate a safety shutdown, the fuel pressure must be lowered to a value below what is required for safe combustion. After the safety shutdown, a manual reset must be required before boiler restart.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11

40. When preparing/writing shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry-docking period, what would you consider as an item regarding CuNi salt water cooling systems/piping?

• (A) Identify in your item all steel waster piece pipe spools in the CuNi systems and require them to be removed and replaced.

o (B) This item should be of no concern since you have not experienced system piping degradation/leaks.

o (C) Remove certain designated CuNi piping sections for inspection. o (D) Replace all bonding pieces/wires between all CuNi system flanges.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

41. One is slated to be a senior officer of a new vessel and is to participate in the 'Builder's Sea Trials'. What would you consider your responsibilities when asked to witness scheduled tests?

• (A) Observe, note any deficiencies you may feel exist and convey them to your vessel owner's representatives.

o (B) Observe, report any possible deficiencies to the representatives of the regulatory bodies present.

o (C) Observe, report any possible deficiencies to shipyard representatives and regulatory body representatives.

o (D) Observe and convey your comments of any possible deficiencies to the shipyard representative conducting the test.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

42. A vessel you are sailing on as chief engineer had its last dry-docking survey 2 years prior and is not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry-docking. When is the next dry-docking due?

• (A) 1 year o (B) 6 months o (C) 2 years o (D) 3 years

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

43. On a PERT network (or arrow or line), what do the circles which are the beginning points or ending points for arrows or lines represent?

o (A) The circles are not initially numbered, but when numbered represent the actual task completion time.

o (B) The circles are numbered and represent the task activity identification number. o (C) The circles are numbered and represent the estimated duration of task. • (D) The circles are not numbered and represent milestones for task accomplishment.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 44. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar

with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?

o (A) The employee should be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be sent out whenever practical.

o (B) The employee should be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire duration of his or her assignment.

o (C) The employee should be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes that he or she will eventually become familiar enough to be competent.

• (D) The employee should be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any doubt that he or she is familiar enough to be competent.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

45. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?

• (A) Direct observation and reviewing critiques of the execution of shipboard fire and emergency drills performed by the existing crew.

o (B) Analyzing statistical data collected relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.

o (C) Reviewing marine casualty and damage reports attributed to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.

o (D) Analyzing insurance premium costs relevant to fires that have occurred on the vessel in the past.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

46. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation. Which of the following situations requiring a decision require a different response each time and are considered unprogrammed decisions?

o (A) Deciding what to do in preparing a maintenance schedule for the upcoming month. o (B) Deciding what to do upon failure of an engine department watchstander to report for watch on

time without permission. • (C) Deciding what to do as a result of a severe accident occurring in the engine room. o (D) Deciding what to do for scheduling familiarization training when new engine department

personnel report aboard.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

47. Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its intent?

• (A) Policies o (B) Standing orders o (C) Rules o (D) Regulations

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 48. What is meant by the term empowering employees?

o (A) Gaining employee acceptance and identification based on personal charisma. o (B) Rewarding employees with positive rewards such as the availability of overtime. o (C) Gaining employee compliance under threat of punishment such as pulling overtime. • (D) Granting employee's authority to make key decisions by delegation.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

49. What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and implement corrective action if needed?

o (A) Concurrent controls • (B) Feedback controls o (C) Screening controls o (D) Feedforward controls

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

50. Progressive discipline is discipline that uses a graduated scale of penalties which become progressively more severe each time a particular violation is repeated. What disciplinary action is generally associated with a first offense?

• (A) Oral warning not documented in personnel file o (B) Written reprimand o (C) Oral warning documented in personnel file o (D) Suspension or discharge

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

51. As an engineering department manager in dealing with a grievance presented by an unlicensed engine department crew and union member, what documentation spells out the grievance procedure?

o (A) Title 29 CFR Department of Labor • (B) Collective Bargaining Agreement between Company and Union o (C) Shipping Articles of Agreement o (D) Title 46 CFR U.S. Coast Guard (Shipping)

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

52. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Manned machinery space noise must not exceed which noise level?

o (A) 75 dB(A) o (B) 85 dB(A) • (C) 90 dB(A) o (D) 110 dB(A)

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 53. While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room condition, No.2 SSDG is to be

down for repairs for at least the next 24 hours. Since the vessel is nearing US navigable waters, as chief engineer you wish the bridge be immediately informed of the availability of No.2 SSDG to support the electrical power requirements of maneuvering. How would you best insure that the bridge be so informed?

o (A) The request would be written as a note posted on the first assistant engineer's stateroom door.

• (B) The request would be written as a special instruction in the Chief Engineer's night order book. o (C) The request would be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be

passed on to his or her relief. o (D) The request would be written as a note posted on the No.2 SSDG panel of the main

switchboard.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

54. As a chief engineer, which of the following instructions would be most appropriately entered into the Chief Engineer's night orders due to the non-routine nature of the instruction?

• (A) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay when No.2 SSDG repairs are complete and the generator has been prepared for testing.

o (B) All discharges, transfers, or disposal of bilge water must be logged in the oil record book by the officer in charge of the operation.

o (C) The officer in charge of the engineering watch shall notify the chief engineer without delay when a malfunction occurs which may be such as to endanger the safe operation of the ship.

o (D) When the engine room is in the periodic unmanned condition, the duty engineer shall be immediately available and on call to attend the machinery spaces.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

55. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?

o (A) 33CFR Part 151.15 • (B) 33CFR Part 151.25 o (C) 33CFR Part 151.55 o (D) 33CFR Part 151.2070

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

56. Vibration analysis can provide comparative data of operating condition of rotating machinery. At what positions should such readings be taken at bearing housings and foundations?

o (A) Vertical and axial. o (B) Vertical and horizontal. • (C) Vertical, horizontal and axial. o (D) Axial and horizontal.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 57. Elevated metal levels present in a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil is

indicative of a condition. What would high silicon levels indicate?

o (A) The lubricating oil has become excessively diluted with fuel oil. o (B) The lubricating oil's detergent additives have become depleted. • (C) The lubricating oil has become contaminated with sand, dust, and dirt. o (D) The lubricating oil has become contaminated with engine coolant.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

58. Fuel density is easily checked on board ship to facilitate proper fuel treatment. What is the maximum fuel density at 15oC allowed for proper centrifugation to take place?

o (A) 791 kg/m3 o (B) 891 kg/m3 • (C) 991 kg/m3 o (D) 1091 kg/m3

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

59. Your vessel has a monthly predictive maintenance program for monitoring machinery vibrations and lubricating oil analysis. What information do the results of the vibration readings and oil analysis provide to you?

o (A) Definite data on machinery performance at the time of readings/analysis. • (B) Comparative data of machinery operation and condition. o (C) Predictive data of eventual machinery failure. o (D) Immediate possible machinery failure.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

60. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain data such as work and safety procedures?

o (A) Requisitions management module o (B) Equipment management module • (C) Planned maintenance management module o (D) Inventory management module

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

61. What type of maintenance system would be associated with a vibration monitoring analysis system?

o (A) Scheduled maintenance system • (B) Predictive maintenance system o (C) Planned maintenance system o (D) Corrective maintenance system

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 62. Which of the following maintenance criteria would be the basis of condition-based maintenance?

• (A) Vibration analysis o (B) Equipment breakdown o (C) Equipment running hours o (D) Calendar based interval of time

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

63. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?

o (A) an all-purpose gas mask o (B) a respirator • (C) goggles and gloves o (D) rubber soled shoes

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

64. Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of the high pressures generated. The generation of pressure is the result of what?

o (A) discharge pressure from the recovery cylinder • (B) hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid o (C) vapor pressure of the refrigerant at saturation temperature o (D) discharge pressure of the recovery compressor

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

65. As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"? Illustration GS-0165

o (A) Figure "2" o (B) Figure "8" • (C) Figure "10" o (D) Figure "15"

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

66. In the illustration, line "D" is a __________. Illustration GS-0006

o (A) center line • (B) hidden line o (C) cutting plane line o (D) dimension line

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

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Q601 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 67. In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover and the volute by

__________. Illustration GS-0012

o (A) good metal-to-metal contact o (B) sealant between the two parts • (C) an asbestos gasket o (D) compressing the packing rings

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

68. Which of the tolerances listed is allowed on the outside diameter of the bushing illustrated? Illustration GS-0017

• (A) 0.0005 inch o (B) 0.002 inch o (C) 0.060 inch o (D) 1.6015 inches

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

69. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________.

o (A) bleed-in circuit o (B) metered-in circuit • (C) bleed-off circuit o (D) metered-out circuit

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

70. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.

o (A) bleed-in circuit • (B) metered-out circuit o (C) bleed-off circuit o (D) metered-in circuit

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

9/21/2018

GS-0006

Adapted for testing purposes only from Blueprint Reading and Sketching

NAVEDTRA 14040

Further reproduction prohibited without permission. Page 19 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

11/23/2018

GS-0012

Note: Inside dia. of Wearing Ring, PC No. (4) is .020 undersize outside dia. of Wearing Ring, PC No. (6) is .020 oversize when finished as repair parts and are designated as part No. 5 A3H180A-1 U/S and 3H180-1 O/S

ITEM QTY DESCRIPTION MATERIAL REMARKS

1 1 Impeller NI-CU Alloy 3H1A

2 1 Volute Gunmetal 3H4C

3 1 Suction Cover Gunmetal 3H193

4 1 Volute Wear Ring

Valve Bronze A-3H180A

5 1 Volute Gasket PTFE/ Glass Fiber Reinforced

P/N 3H37

6 1 Impeller Wear Ring

NI-CU Alloy 3H180

7 1 Motor Bracket Cast Steel 2L3C

8 1 Shaft Sleeve NI-CU Alloy P/N A-014-20A-0-01

9 1 Throat Bushing

NI-CU Alloy P/N 4L26-4

10 1 Lantern Ring NI-CU Alloy 4L169

11 2 Gland Half Bronze B-017-5AH-A

12 1 Slinger Neoprene 1 47/64 X 3 ¾ X 1/8TH

13 1 Impeller Washer

NI-CU Alloy 17/32 X 9/16 X 3/16TH

14 1 Impeller Key NI-CU Alloy ¼ SQ X 2 5/16 TH

15 1 SKT HD Capscrew

SST ½-13 NC X 1¼ LG NYLOCK

16 5 Packing Rings Plastic Metallic

1¾ X 2 5/8 X 7/16 SQ

17 1 Name Plate Brass P/N A-226-00N-0-03

18 8 Hex Head Capscrews

NI-CU Alloy ½-13 NC X 1 LG

19 4 Hex Head Capscrews

NI-CU Alloy 3/8-16 x 1 LG

20 4 Hex Head Capscrews

NI-CU Alloy ½-13 NC X 1 1/4 LG

21 2 Stud SST 3/8-16 NC X 2½ LG

22 2 Hex Nut Bronze 3/16-16 2

23 3 Setscrew NI-CU Alloy 10-24 NC X ¼LG CUP

24 3 Setscrew NI-CU Alloy 10-24 NC X ¼LG CUP

25 4 Drive Screw Brass 6-24 X ¼ LG

26 3 Pipe Plug Bronze ¼ NPT

27 1 Vent Valve Bronze ¼ NPT

28 1 O Ring Buna “N” 1 5/16 ID 1/16 WIDE

29 1 Pipe 70-30 CU-NI 4 11/16 LG ¼ NPT

30 1 Pipe 70-30 CU-NI 3 3/16 LG ¼ NPT

31 1 Flange Valve Bronze ¼ INCH 150#

Adapted for testing purposes only

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 20 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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9/24/2018

GS-0017

Adapted for testing purposes only

Further reproduction prohibited without permission

Page 21 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

9/26/2018

GS-0123

Adapted for testing purposes only from STUTMAN, Applied Marine Hydraulics

Copyright © 1988 by Cornell Maritime Press, Inc.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 22 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

9/27/2018

GS-0153

Adapted for testing purposes only from Operator, Unit and Direct Support Maintenance Manual

Including Repair Parts and Special Tools List for Oil Water Separator

TM 55-1925-285-13 & P

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 23 of 29

Q601 General Subjects

Page 24: U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – Limited ......Aug 21, 2019  · Chief Engineer-Limited Illustrations: 11 . Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice

National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

9/27/2018

GS-0165

Adapted for testing purposes only

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 24 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

9/27/2018

GS-0175

Adapted for testing purposes only from Heli-Sep Model 550/OCD Technical Manual

Copyright © by Coffin World Water Systems

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 25 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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9/27/2018

GS-0180

Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual, Volume I

Copyright © 1999 by Cornell Maritime Press

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 26 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center

Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

9/17/2018

RA-0009

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARRINGTON, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1992 by The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 27 of 29

Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center

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9/18/2018

RA-0022

Adapted for testing purposes only from ALTHOUSE, Modern

Refrigeration and Air Conditioning

Copyright © 1982 by The Goodheart-Willcox Company, Inc.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 28 of 29 Q601 General Subjects

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National Maritime Center

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9/18/2018

RA-0042

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARRINGTON, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1992 by The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers

Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 29 of 29 Q601 General Subjects