U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Q750 ... · o (A) Chief mate o (B) Coast Guard...

National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

Chief Engineer-MODU

Q750 General Subjects

(Sample Examination)

of 32 Q750 General Subjects

8/25/2020

Q750 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Illustrations: 13

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

1. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is known as the __________.

o (A) metered-out circuit o (B) bleed-in circuit • (C) bleed-off circuit o (D) metered-in circuit

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

2. When the oily-water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? Illustration GS-0153

• (A) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank. o (B) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control

valve "14". o (C) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9". o (D) No water level is maintained in the tank.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

3. The crosshatch design on the end of piece "3" in the illustration shown indicates that __________. Illustration GS-0020

o (A) the piece is screwed into piece No.2 o (B) the piece is made of mild carbon steel • (C) piece No.3 is knurled in that area o (D) piece No.3 is made of stainless steel


4. What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the illustration? Illustration GS-0012

o (A) 1 inch o (B) 1 1/4 inches o (C) 1 1/2 inches • (D) 2 1/2 inches

If choice D is selected set score to 1.


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5. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?

o (A) Chief mate o (B) Coast Guard • (C) Master of the vessel o (D) Chief engineer


6. Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.

• (A) high temperatures to develop as result of churning o (B) excessive channeling of the grease o (C) emulsification of the thickener additive o (D) gelling of the base oil


7. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured roller bearings?

• (A) They are well adapted to variable speed operation. o (B) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention. o (C) They have a relatively high-power loss due to friction. o (D) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.


8. Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous governor?

o (A) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving through a fixed pitch propeller.

o (B) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a constant pump discharge pressure.

o (C) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving through a fixed pitch propeller.

• (D) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with maintaining a constant system frequency.



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9. Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?

• (A) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.

o (B) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.

o (C) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.

o (D) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.


10. Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two-ram hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.

o (A) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system

• (B) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow o (C) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate

full torque o (D) all of the above

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

11. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.

o (A) volume will increase o (B) viscosity will decrease • (C) viscosity will increase o (D) floc point will increase


12. Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of __________.

o (A) continued slow recirculation of the oil o (B) changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations • (C) incorrect fluid viscosity o (D) a high oil level



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13. The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________. Illustration GS-0116

o (A) oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine • (B) vane type steering gear o (C) diesel engine motor mount o (D) mechanical shaft seal


14. To prevent shaft currents in an alternator, the outboard bearing shell or outboard bearing pedestal is insulated. If the methodology used is the insulated bearing pedestal, how is the pedestal insulation evaluated?

• (A) Measuring the resistance between the bearing pedestal and the bearing bedplate of a disassembled machine with a 500-Volt megohmmeter.

o (B) Measuring the resistance between the bearing pedestal and the bearing bedplate of an assembled machine with a digital multimeter setup as an ohmmeter.

o (C) Measuring the resistance between the bearing pedestal and the bearing bedplate of an assembled machine with a 500-Volt megohmmeter.

o (D) Measuring the resistance between the bearing pedestal and the bearing bedplate of a disassembled machine with a digital multimeter setup as an ohmmeter.


15. As shown in the illustrated diagnostic setup for locating a shorted field coil of a ten-pole salient pole alternator, if 240 VAC/60 Hz is applied across the brushes, what would be the voltage drop across field coil No.4 if that field coil had shorted turns and the other field coils were free of shorts? Illustration EL-0202

• (A) 17 VAC o (B) 24 VAC o (C) 25 VAC o (D) 32 VAC


16. By what means should motor controller contacts be routinely cleaned?

• (A) wiping with a clean dry cloth o (B) dressing with crocus cloth o (C) blowing with compressed air o (D) filing with a bastard file



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17. The motor starts when the start button in the illustration is pushed, but stops when the button is released. What is most likely the trouble? Illustration EL-0007

o (A) an open in the stop button contact o (B) a corroded contact on the disconnect switch (DS) at 'L3' • (C) an open auxiliary "M" contact o (D) an open "M" contactor coil


18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of electric drive propulsion systems?

o (A) Main propulsion power may also be directed to ships electrical service distribution. o (B) The propeller speed and direction of rotation are easily controllable. • (C) Propulsion motors are required along with electrical power generation machinery. o (D) Location of electric power generation machinery is flexible.


19. Which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the highest operating temperature?

o (A) Class 90 (O) o (B) Class 105 (A) o (C) Class 130 (B) • (D) Class 180 (H)


20. To check the three-line fuses protecting a three-phase motor using a multimeter set up as a voltmeter, what should be done FIRST?

o (A) place the leads across the "hot" ends of the fuses • (B) place the starter in the "stop" position o (C) make sure the motor is operating at full load to guard against a false reading o (D) place the leads across the bottom ends of the fuses


21. In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, what meter or tester should be used?

o (A) impedance meter o (B) sensitive potentiometer • (C) ohmmeter or transistor tester o (D) voltmeter or transistor tester



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Q750 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Illustrations: 13 22. What problem with a printed circuit board may resolve itself once a board is removed from its edge

card connector and then reinstalled?

o (A) Open traces or broken connections • (B) Corroded pin connectors o (C) Leaking components o (D) Discolored or darkened components


23. Which activity or event accounts for the most electrical accidents resulting in injury?

• (A) conducting electrical troubleshooting o (B) performing electrical repair work o (C) performing electrical maintenance o (D) failures during normal operation


24. In order for a live-line tester to be used to test and prove dead a high voltage circuit, what must be done to verify the ability of the tester to detect a voltage?

o (A) The live-line tester should be checked by connecting to a known high voltage source only before testing the circuit to be worked upon.

o (B) The live-line tester should be checked by connecting to a known high voltage source only after testing the circuit to be worked upon.

o (C) The live-line tester need not be checked prior to testing the circuit to be worked upon as long as it has not been declared inoperative.

• (D) The live-line tester should be checked by connecting to a known high voltage source before and after the circuit to be worked upon is tested.


25. If a mechanical mouse of a computer workstation is operating erratically, what maintenance should be performed?

o (A) Solvent should be sprayed onto the underside of the mouse. • (B) Remove the plastic surround on the underside of the mouse, and after removing the ball,

mechanically clean the two wheels. o (C) Remove the plastic surround on the underside of the mouse, and after removing the ball,

mechanically clean the limit switches. o (D) Compressed air should be directed onto the underside of the mouse.



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Q750 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Illustrations: 13 26. As shown in the illustrated adaptive digital steering control system functional block diagram and

listed system interface signals table, what would the rudder order signal output voltage to the rudder servo amplifier be for a rudder order of 15 degrees right rudder, assuming left rudder signals are negative and right order signals are positive in polarity? Illustration EL-0191

o (A) -1.33 VDC o (B) -3.75 VDC • (C) +3.75 VDC o (D) +5.0 VDC


27. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153

o (A) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open. o (B) Coalescer beds are severely fouled. • (C) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed. o (D) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is

to be measured.


28. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.

• (A) 33 CFR Section 159 o (B) 33 CFR Section 153 o (C) 33 CFR Section 155 o (D) 33 CFR Section 156


29. For a process control system using the proportional control mode, what statement is true?

• (A) Increasing the proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but too much gain may cause instability.

o (B) Increasing the proportional gain without limit will always increase the steady-state error. o (C) Decreasing the proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but too little

gain may cause instability. o (D) Increasing the proportional gain without limit will always decrease the steady-state error.



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30. Suppose a temperature transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and an output range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response pattern, what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature is 40 degrees Celsius?

o (A) 6.40 mA • (B) 10.40 mA o (C) 13.60 mA o (D) 16.00 mA


31. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration. Illustration GS-0180

o (A) Integral Processor. o (B) Difference Signal Processor. • (C) Low Select Signal Processor. o (D) High Select Signal Processor.


32. What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air-conditioned cargo space?

o (A) increased moisture content o (B) more temperature differential o (C) increased density of the air • (D) reduced slime and mold


33. Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?

o (A) Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it. o (B) Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. o (C) Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. • (D) Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it.



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34. The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short-cycling. A service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?

o (A) loosely fitted compressor drive belt o (B) front seated liquid line service valve o (C) back seated discharge service valve • (D) reduction in condenser water flow (scaled condenser)


35. Personnel servicing refrigeration systems that exposes them to commonly used refrigerants should wear what type of personal protective equipment?

o (A) a respirator • (B) goggles and gloves o (C) an all-purpose gas mask o (D) rubber soled shoes


36. When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, what will be required?

o (A) ensure the proper belt dressing is applied • (B) replace the entire belt set o (C) season the new belt prior to installation o (D) ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence


37. A reciprocating multi-cylinder air conditioning or refrigeration compressor starts cycling on/off. What would one do to prevent cycling?

• (A) Adjust compressor's unloader to reduce operating cylinders. o (B) Adjust cylinder unloader to increase system operating refrigerant pressure. o (C) Stop compressor and wait until the system stabilizes and restart compressor. o (D) Adjust system thermostatic control valve(s) to reduce system refrigerant demand.



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38. During operating periods of a multi-box refrigeration system using a capacity-controlled compressor, when all of the evaporators of a four-box plant are actively being fed with liquid refrigerant, the control oil pressure acting on the hydraulic relay piston will be at what value? Illustration RA-0013

o (A) the lowest o (B) at its mid-range • (C) the highest o (D) of no consequence as the lube oil is not used in the operation of the unloader


39. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?

o (A) the suction line will be abnormally warm due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning back to the compressor

o (B) the box temperature will be pulled way down below the normal temperature range • (C) the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may flood back to the compressor o (D) the receiver level will be abnormally high due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning

back to the compressor


40. With regards to shipboard refrigeration systems, after July 1, 1992, what action became illegal?

o (A) working on a refrigeration system without permission of the Officer in Charge Marine Inspection

• (B) intentionally venting class, I or II refrigerants to the atmosphere o (C) mixing R-12 and R-22 o (D) producing a class, I refrigerant


41. What is the purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short intermittent spurts or throttling the suction isolation valve when starting the system after a prolonged shutdown?

o (A) let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually • (B) prevent liquid slugging or overloading the compressor o (C) determine actual compressor oil level o (D) allow refrigerant vapor cycling time



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42. Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions, and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency called?

o (A) Stereographing o (B) Monotyping • (C) Stereotyping o (D) Individualizing


43. When it comes to motivating employees, it is important to distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. What statement best represents the difference?

• (A) Intrinsic motivation is derived from doing the job itself (such as enjoyment), where extrinsic motivation is derived from the consequences of doing the job (such as pay).

o (B) Intrinsic motivation is derived from the consequences of doing the job (such as pay), where extrinsic motivation is derived from the fear of the consequences of not doing the job (such as getting fired).

o (C) Intrinsic motivation is derived from doing the job itself (such as enjoyment), where extrinsic motivation is derived from the fear of the consequences of not doing the job (such as getting fired).

o (D) Intrinsic motivation is derived from the consequences of doing the job (such as pay), where extrinsic motivation is derived from doing the job itself (such as enjoyment).


44. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?

o (A) Supportive, participative leadership style. o (B) Transformational leadership style. • (C) Structured, autocratic leadership style. o (D) Developmental leadership style.


45. Which of the following shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group?

o (A) Those officers and crew assigned to the engineering department of a ship. o (B) Those officers and crew assigned to the safety committee of a ship. o (C) Those officers and crew assigned to a particular ship. • (D) Those officers and crew assigned to a maintenance task on a ship.



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Q750 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Illustrations: 13 46. As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most appropriate

for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative approach?

o (A) Accommodating o (B) Forcing o (C) Avoiding • (D) Collaborating


47. What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus as a process?

o (A) Fact-finding meeting • (B) Problem-solving meeting o (C) Information exchange meeting o (D) Information-giving meeting


48. Once a fire and emergency drill is conducted, the drill ideally should be critiqued. What of the following statements best describes the essential characteristics of an effective critique?

o (A) Determining what went right only and focusing only on the positive to reinforce effective and productive behavior that promoted team functionality.

o (B) Determining what went wrong only and focusing only on the negative in an attempt to extinguish ineffective or counter-productive behavior that worked against team functionality.

o (C) Determining what went right and what went wrong, and identifying areas where change and improvements are necessary to the fire control plan or to the general arrangement plan.

• (D) Determining what went right and what went wrong, and identifying areas where change and improvements are necessary to the pre-fire plan or to the emergency skills training plan.


49. Which of the following comprehensive computerized maintenance system database modules would contain technical data such as machinery serial numbers?

o (A) Requisitions management module • (B) Equipment management module o (C) Planned maintenance management module o (D) Inventory management module



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50. What type of maintenance system would be associated with accomplishing maintenance after a machinery breakdown?

• (A) Corrective maintenance system o (B) Planned maintenance system o (C) Condition-based maintenance system o (D) Predictive maintenance system


51. Which of the following would be a positive outcome associated with performing a trend analysis of data acquired from lube oil testing, vibration sensors, performance data sensors, and thermographic sensors? I) Avoidance of catastrophic failures. II) Determining the need of when to perform corrective maintenance. III) Improving the overall effectiveness of the engineering plant.

o (A) I only. o (B) II only. o (C) I and II only. • (D) I, II, and III.


52. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. Besides collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure and interviewing key personnel, which of the following supplemental information should be considered? I) Onboard operating and maintenance procedures II) Historical operating and maintenance records III) Technical manuals and specifications IV) Personnel training records

o (A) I, II, and III only. o (B) I, III, and IV only. o (C) II, III, and IV only. • (D) I, II, III, and IV.



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53. If it is desired to perform a thermographic analysis of new equipment to gain a thermal signature for purposes of comparison to the thermal signature for the same equipment at a later date, what is the name of the thermography performed on the equipment when new?

o (A) Spectral thermography. • (B) Baseline thermography. o (C) Comparative thermography. o (D) Thermal trending.


54. According to the 46 CFR regulations applicable to tests, drills, and inspections for mobile offshore drilling unit operations, for a self-propelled MODU, how often must the steering gear, whistle, general alarm bells, and communications between the bridge or control room and the engine room be tested while the MODU is on station?

o (A) At least daily • (B) At least once each week o (C) At least once each month o (D) At least once each quarter


55. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), how long must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?

o (A) 1 year at a minimum. o (B) 2 years at a minimum. • (C) 3 years at a minimum. o (D) 4 years at a minimum.


56. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?

• (A) The arbitrator makes a binding decision based on the evidence and the arguments presented by both sides.

o (B) The arbitrator conducts independent fact-finding and renders a decision based on the results of that investigation.

o (C) The arbitrator appoints a fact-finder from each side to investigate the dispute and report back to the principals.

o (D) The arbitrator facilitates settlement by negotiation by working with both sides to reach common ground.



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Q750 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Illustrations: 13 57. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar

with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?

• (A) The employee should be provided a period of close supervision until there is no longer any doubt that he or she is familiar enough to be competent.

o (B) The employee should be immediately terminated and arrangements made for a relief to be sent out whenever practical.

o (C) The employee should be allowed to perform his or her duties without supervision in the hopes that he or she will eventually become familiar enough to be competent.

o (D) The employee should be demoted and required to function at the lowest level for the entire duration of his or her assignment.


58. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges: "Using the engine room bilge system of the M/V Underway where a bilge pocket requires pumping out and the automated bilge pumping controls have been disabled, by the end of the training session the participants will be able to pump an engine room bilge pocket dry manually to the bilge water holding tank in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist. There shall be no violations of the domestic and international pollution prevention regulations." What role does the phrase "in conformance with the vessel's engine room bilge pumping procedure checklist" serve in the objective statement?

o (A) It states a performance by using action words. o (B) It specifies the single outcome to be achieved. • (C) It states one of the standards of performance to be achieved. o (D) It specifies a performance input condition.


59. You are putting together a list of Class required work for a vessel's next special survey. Which of the following items would be required by Class?

o (A) Scavenging air box inspection. o (B) Replacement of sea valves. • (C) Hull thickness measurements. o (D) Bow thruster overhaul.



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60. A bunkering plan requires a list of the tanks to be filled and the order in which they are to be filled. Why is it preferable that fuel be bunkered into empty tanks, where possible?

o (A) This helps avoid possible undesirable trim angles. • (B) This helps avoid possible issues with incompatible fuels. o (C) This helps avoid the possibility of fuel spills. o (D) This would cause less stress on the tank structures.


61. Of the various possible methods shown in the illustration, which is the correct method of attaching a TXV feeler bulb to a large line (7/8" and larger) with a horizontal run? Illustration RA-0050

o (A) A o (B) B • (C) C o (D) D


62. Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator coil outlet of a refrigeration system or unit by the action of what device?

o (A) solenoid valve o (B) king valve o (C) low-pressure cutout switch • (D) thermal expansion valve


63. At what point during the overall assessment process should the assessor provide the candidate with a copy of the assessment control sheet?

• (A) Brief the candidate before the assessment. o (B) Debrief the candidate after the assessment o (C) Record the results and determine the assessment outcome. o (D) Preparing for the assessment.



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64. As shown in the illustration, what is the purpose of the main contacts of contactor "1S"? Illustration EL-0012

o (A) The "1S" contactor connects the autotransformer in wye configuration during the run period. o (B) The "1S" contactor connects the autotransformer to the line during the starting/acceleration

period. o (C) The "1S" contactor connects the autotransformer in delta configuration during the

starting/acceleration period. • (D) The "1S" contactor connects the autotransformer in wye configuration during the

starting/acceleration period.


65. What is one major advantage of a diesel-electric propulsion plant?

o (A) low cost and weight • (B) excellent maneuverability o (C) lower fuel consumption o (D) less maintenance


66. If the inputs to the diagram shown in figure "2" of the illustration were A=0 and B=0, what logic levels would be indicated at points "C", "D", "E", and "F" respectively? Illustration EL-0089

o (A) C=0, D=0, E=1, and F=1 o (B) C=1, D=0, E=0, and F=1 o (C) C=1, D=0, E=1, and F=0 • (D) C=1, D=1, E=0, and F=1


67. As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of the signal processing flow path, the block "TRANSDUCER" represents a sensing and transmitting device designed to sense and measure a physical parameter and convert it into a proportional force or signal of what type? Illustration EL-0095

• (A) analog electrical signal o (B) pneumatic signal o (C) electro-mechanical force o (D) digital electrical signal



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68. Some shipboard high voltage systems have the neutral point of the generators bonded to the ship'shull with a neutral grounding resistor. What is the purpose of this resistor?

o (A) To prevent nuisance ground fault tripso (B) To maximize the magnitude of the ground fault current• (C) To minimize the magnitude of the ground fault currento (D) To completely eliminate ground fault current


69. For troubleshooting purposes, the key indicator to the safety and general condition of high voltagecircuitry is insulation resistance. For a 6.6 kV high voltage system, what would be the recommendedminimum insulation resistance value?

o (A) 1 megohmo (B) 5.6 megohmso (C) 6.6 megohms• (D) 7.6 megohms


70. Which of the following data communication cable types offers the greatest immunity toelectromagnetic "noise"?

o (A) Unshielded twisted pair• (B) Fiber-optico (C) Shielded twisted pairo (D) Coaxial (coax)



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National Maritime Center

Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

10/5/2018

EL-0007

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARRINGTON, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1992 by the Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 32 Q750 General Subjects



10/5/2018

EL-0012

Adapted for testing purposes only from ROSENBERG, Electric Motor Repair, Third Edition

Copyright © 2002 by Delmar Learning




10/5/2018

EL-0089

Adapted for testing purposes only from MAINI, Digital Electronics, Principles, Devices and Applications

Copyright © 2007 by John Wiley & Sons Ltd.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 32




10/10/2018

EL-0202

Adapted for testing purposes only from HUBERT, Operating, Testing and Preventive

Maintenance of Electrical Power Apparatus

Copyright © 2003 Pearson Education Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 32



11/23/2018

GS-0012

Note: Inside dia. of Wearing Ring, PC No. (4) is .020 undersize outside dia. of Wearing Ring, PC No. (6) is .020 oversize when finished as repair parts and are designated as part No. 5 A3H180A-1 U/S and 3H180-1 O/S

ITEM QTY DESCRIPTION MATERIAL REMARKS

1 1 Impeller NI-CU Alloy 3H1A

2 1 Volute Gunmetal 3H4C

3 1 Suction Cover Gunmetal 3H193

4 1 Volute Wear Ring

Valve Bronze A-3H180A

5 1 Volute Gasket PTFE/ Glass Fiber Reinforced

P/N 3H37

6 1 Impeller Wear Ring

NI-CU Alloy 3H180

7 1 Motor Bracket Cast Steel 2L3C

8 1 Shaft Sleeve NI-CU Alloy P/N A-014-20A-0-01

9 1 Throat Bushing

NI-CU Alloy P/N 4L26-4

10 1 Lantern Ring NI-CU Alloy 4L169

11 2 Gland Half Bronze B-017-5AH-A

12 1 Slinger Neoprene 1 47/64 X 3 ¾ X 1/8TH

13 1 Impeller Washer

NI-CU Alloy 17/32 X 9/16 X 3/16TH

14 1 Impeller Key NI-CU Alloy ¼ SQ X 2 5/16 TH

15 1 SKT HD Capscrew

SST ½-13 NC X 1¼ LG NYLOCK

16 5 Packing Rings Plastic Metallic

1¾ X 2 5/8 X 7/16 SQ

17 1 Name Plate Brass P/N A-226-00N-0-03

18 8 Hex Head Capscrews

NI-CU Alloy ½-13 NC X 1 LG


NI-CU Alloy 3/8-16 x 1 LG


NI-CU Alloy ½-13 NC X 1 1/4 LG

21 2 Stud SST 3/8-16 NC X 2½ LG

22 2 Hex Nut Bronze 3/16-16 2

23 3 Setscrew NI-CU Alloy 10-24 NC X ¼LG CUP

24 3 Setscrew NI-CU Alloy 10-24 NC X ¼LG CUP

25 4 Drive Screw Brass 6-24 X ¼ LG

26 3 Pipe Plug Bronze ¼ NPT

27 1 Vent Valve Bronze ¼ NPT

28 1 O Ring Buna “N” 1 5/16 ID 1/16 WIDE

29 1 Pipe 70-30 CU-NI 4 11/16 LG ¼ NPT

30 1 Pipe 70-30 CU-NI 3 3/16 LG ¼ NPT

31 1 Flange Valve Bronze ¼ INCH 150#

Adapted for testing purposes only



9/27/2018

GS-0153

Adapted for testing purposes only from Operator, Unit and Direct Support Maintenance Manual

Including Repair Parts and Special Tools List for Oil Water Separator

TM 55-1925-285-13 & P





9/17/2018

RA-0013

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARBACH, Marine

Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning


Further reproduction prohibited without permission




9/18/2018

RA-0050 TXV Feeler Bulb on Small Suction Line

(7/8” and larger)

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARBACH, Marine Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning




U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Q750 ... · o (A) Chief mate o (B) Coast Guard...

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Transcript of U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-MODU Q750 ... · o (A) Chief mate o (B) Coast Guard...