Saab 340 Systems Study Cards
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Transcript of Saab 340 Systems Study Cards
Term 1
What does the
OXYGEN light on the CWP
indicate?
Definition 1
That O2 system pressure is below 800 psi (+/- 35)
Term 2
The O2 gauge in the cockpit indicates ____________?
Definition 2
Fixed bottle pressure
Term 3
How is O2 made available to the passengers?
Definition 3
• The O2 pull knob must be ON (or pulled UP)
• Lift the pax O2 valve on the F/Os aft side panel
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Term 4
What is the normal charging pressure in the O2 bottle?
Definition 4
1850 psi
Term 5
At what speed can the crew hatch be opened?
Definition 5
160 knots max
Term 6
A reason to open the crew hatch inflight is ______?
Definition 6
Smoke removal
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Term 7
Which doors are connected to the warning system?
Definition 7
Crew hatch, Main cabin & Cargo door
Term 8
What doors can be opened from the inside as well as
the outside?
Definition 8
All of them.
Term 9
What supplies the pnuematic system?
Definition 9
HIGH or LOW pressure bleed air, alternately.
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Term 10
Pnuematic air operates which systems?
Definition 10
Pressurization, air conditioning & boot de-ice
Term 11
LP bleed air is the normal source for pnuematics
True or False?
Definition 11
True
Term 12
When is the only time HP bleed air is automatically
supplied?
Definition 12
When LP bleed air is insufficient.(Ng is <80%)
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Term 13
What 5 things cause the HP bleed valve to close?
Definition 13
• Bleed air from precooler is too hot (>288C)
• HP switch selected OFF• Loss of Elec power • Ng is > 80%• Fire handle is pulled
Term 14
How do you open the HP valve after is closes for an over temp when the duct
cools?
Definition 14
HP valve to RESET, then AUTO
Term 15
What does the amber L/R HP HIGH light on the overhead panel mean?
Definition 15
The HP valve failed to close after being given a signal to
close.
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Term 16
The overhead HP HIGH light illuminates with what other
light?
Definition 16
AIR COND light on the CWP
Term 17
LP & HP bleed valve are electrically actuated.
True or False?
Definition 17
False. They are pnuematically operated.
Term 18
Bleed valve switch on the A/C panel placed in AUTO
means _________?
Definition 18
Valve automatically regulates air into the
manifold as a function of altitude.
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Term 19
What 6 things cause the LP bleed valve to close?
Definition 19
• The pressure is too high (>43.5psi)
• The bleed air temperature is too hot (>288C)
• ACM discharge is too hot (>255C)• Fire handle is pulled• Bleed switch selected OFF
Term 20
What indicates that the bleed valve failed to close after a signal was
given?
Definition 20
The BLD FAULT light and the AIR COND light on the
CWP illuminate
Term 21
What indicates a bleed closed?
Definition 21
Overhead BLD CLOSED light plus AIR
COND on CWP
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Term 22
BLD FAULT light may indicate:________, ________, &_______
Definition 22
• The valve failed to close• The bleed pressure was too high
(illuminates, then goes out when bleed valve closes)
• The bleed air temp was too hot (illuminates and remains on,
bleed valve closes)
Term 23
When does the BLD FAULT light extinguish?
Definition 23
When the temperature is below limits
Term 24
The main function of the precooler?
Definition 24
The precooler (RAM air heat exchanger) lowers the HP bleed air temperature. A
separate flow through the precooler accomplishes LP bleed air cooling for use by pneumatic deice systems.
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Term 25
If ELEC power to the LP BLD valve fails, it fails to the __________ position.
Definition 25
Open(HP valve fails closed)
Term 26
How is it possible to interconnect the two bleed
systems?
Definition 26
Via the cross valve (X VALVE) in the manifold
Term 27
The X VALVE may be opened inflightTrue or False?
Definition 27
FalseIt is only for ground operations
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Term 28
What is required to open the X VALVE?
Definition 28
Set these switch positions:
• X VALVE switch to OPEN• One bleed valve must be closed
Term 29
What indicates a hot bleed air leak?
Definition 29
Overhead BLD LEAK light illuminates, plus the amber
AIR COND light on CWP
Term 30
Where is the hot air bleed air leak detection loop
installed?
Definition 30
Between the engine nacelles and the X VALVE
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Term 31
The overhead L/R DUCT OV TEMP light means?
Definition 31
The ACM compressor outlet is too hot (>225C)
or the duct temp is too hot (>82C)
Term 32
What 4 things cause the AIR COND light on the CWP to
illuminate?
Definition 32
• Bleed air temperature too hot • Bleed air leak• Bleed valve closed• LP/HP valve not closed after
given a signal to close
Term 33
Will a bleed air leak close the LP bleed valve?
Definition 33
No.(Bleeds should be closed. If BLD AIR LEAK light fails to go out, an engine
shutdown may be necessary.)
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Term 34
The RECIRC FAN light indicates?
Definition 34
The fan is operating at <80%
Term 35
When will the RECIRC FAN light extinguish?
Definition 35
Once the fan speed increases over 80%
Term 36
What cools the RECIRC FAN?
Definition 36
BLD AIR
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Term 37
When can the RECIRC FANs operate without BLD AIR?
Definition 37
During takeoff, up to acceleration altitude.
(If the fan is left running without BLD AIR more than 10 min depending on OAT, a thermal switch will shut off
the fan until the temp decreases and switch
resets.)
Term 38
What is indicated by the AVIONICS VENT FAN light?
Definition 38
The vent fan has failed.
Term 39
What does the CABIN PRESS light on the CWP
means?
Definition 39
Cabin altitude above 10,000ft or differential
pressure exceeds 7.5 psi
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Term 40
The avionics vent fan draws air from the _______?
Definition 40
Cabin
Term 41
The FAULT light on the center consol cabin
pressure control panel indicates?
Definition 41
A system failureOR
ON for 3 seconds during system self test
Term 42
AIR COND on the CWP illuminates with any caution
light except?
Definition 42
L/R RECIRC FAN
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Term 43
AUTO PILOT & FLIGHT DIRECTOR
AUTO TRIM light on CWP indicates _______ ?
Definition 43
Autopilot detects a failure in the elevator or rudder trim
systems
Term 44
Will the auto pilot operate if the Flight Director fails?
Definition 44
No.
Term 45
Will the auto pilot operate if the Flight Director is turned
off?
Definition 45
Yes.
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Term 46
GO-Around displays a pitch command of ___ degrees on
the ______ ?
Definition 46
6.4 degrees on the EADI
Term 47
When is half bank inhibited?
Definition 47
In approach mode after APPR LOC/VOR capture
Term 48
1/2 bank limits?
Definition 48
Reduces bank from 27 to 13.5 degrees in HDG & NAV
mode
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Term 49
Which modes on the MSP should not be selected in
icing conditions?
Definition 49
VS & Climb.Use only IAS when climbing in icing
conditions.
Term 50
What turns the AP off?
Definition 50
• A/P disconnect on yoke• A/P switch on center console• operating pitch trim switches• Go Around buttons on power
lever
Term 51
What turns the Yaw Damper off?
Definition 51
• A/P disconnect on yoke • A/P disconnect on center
console• Go Around bottons on power
levers
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Term 52
A flashing red box with the letters FD on the EFIS
means?
Definition 52
A failure of the flight director.
(V bars also disappear)
Term 53
Auto pilot limitations?
Definition 53
A/P Not Authorized:
• During takeoff <500ft or Acceleration Altitude
• Speeds <1.3 stall in HDG mode• In severe icing conditions• Alt <50ft below MDA on non-
precision app OR <50ft below DH on an uncoupled ILS
• Alt <50ft AGL on coupled ILS in VFR or better wx
• Alt <69ft AGL on coupled ILS wen wx is <VFR
Term 54
What will automatically disengage the A/P?
Definition 54
Stall warning computer or AP/YD failure detected
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Term 55
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
What are the 4 separate parts of the ELEC system?
Definition 55
• Two 28v DC engine driven generators
• 115/26v AC inverter• Emergency DC power (lead acid
battery)• Two AC Wild frequency 115v
engine driven generators
Term 56
The AC Wild 115v generatros are used for ______ .
Definition 56
Powering Ice Protection systems
Term 57
What drives each respective AC Wild generator?
Definition 57
They are driven by the prop gearbox.
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Term 58
How are the DC generators cooled?
Definition 58
Via a fan on the ground and ram air when airborne
Term 59
An overhead GEN OV TEMP light means?
Definition 59
The associated generator has overheated (150°C)
Term 60
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R MAIN
BUS light?
Definition 60
The associated MAIN BUS is not powered.
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Term 61
What AC power is lost when the L MAIN BUS is not
powered?
Definition 61
Loss of the #1 or main 115/26v INVERTER
(Rt bus powers #2 inverter)
Term 62
When does the L/R main bus light illuminate?
Definition 62
• During engine start when the L/R GEN busses are not powered (ESS & MAINS load shed)
• When MAIN BUS relay has tripped due to a tripped GEN
Term 63
What is indicated by the L/R GEN light?
Definition 63
The GEN relay is open.The GEN is disconnected from the GEN BUS and is
offline.
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Term 64
The 2 starter generators are rated at ____ volts each.
Definition 64
28v DC
Term 65
How many alternators are on each engine?
Definition 65
One.Provides engine electrical power only.
(ESS)
Term 66
How many generators are on each engine?
Definition 66
Two.Starter/generator and AC wild
generator.
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Term 67
What are the functions of the GCU?
Definition 67
• Excites field• Voltage regulation for control &
protection of the DC system against faults
• Controls engine start cycle
Term 68
How does the GCU control & protect the DC system?
Definition 68
If generator parameters are not correct OR if the fire handle is pulled, the GCU cuts out the generator by opening the relay which disconnects the generator
from the associated GEN BUS.
Term 69
The starter generators are rated at ___ amps each.
Definition 69
400
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Term 70
What are the starter generator amp limits?
Definition 70
600 amps for 5 minutes, then 400 amps
Term 71
How is the GEN field relay reset?
Definition 71
The respective switch is set to RESET
Term 72
To connect a generator to the GEN BUS, Ng must be
above ____ ?
Definition 72
55% Ng(Starter cut out)
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Term 73
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R ESS
BUS light?
Definition 73
The associated bus is not powered.
Term 74
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R BAT
light?
Definition 74
The associated BAT relay is open
Term 75
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R BAT
lights?
Definition 75
The associated BAT relays are open (Battery disconnected)
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Term 76
What is indicated by the illumination of the BAT HOT
light?
Definition 76
The associated BAT temp is excessive.
(>71°C)
Term 77
Takeoff is prohibited with the BAT HOT light on.
True or False?
Definition 77
True.
Term 78
Takeoff is prohibited when the BAT temp is 67°C and
the BAT HOT light is not on.True or False?
Definition 78
True.
Takeoff is prohibited when BAT temp exceeds 64°C
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Term 79
What is indicated by the NO BAT START light?
Definition 79
L or R BAT temp exceeds 57°C
Term 80
Takeoff is prohibited with a NO BAT START light.
True or False?
Definition 80
False.(Unless the BAT temp exceeds 64°C)
Term 81
A BAT temp of >71°C automatically disconnects
the battery.True or False?
Definition 81
True
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Term 82
To read external power, the EXT PWR switch must be
ON.True or False?
Definition 82
False.
Voltage should be checked via the volt meter before it
is aplied to the aircraft
Term 83
The blue EXT PWR AVAIL light indicates?
Definition 83
External power is available (At least 7v for light to illuminate)
Term 84
White EXT PWR ON light indicates?
Definition 84
Ext power is ON and the left battery bus is powered.
(When EXT OWR is applied, it is the only source of power to the aircraft.)
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Term 85
EMER PWR light on the DC elec panel indicates?
Definition 85
The EMERG PWR bus is unpowered OR
Lead acid BAT emergency power <24v
Term 86
Can the 71°C (BAT HOT) thermal switch be
overriden?
Definition 86
Yes.In an emergency, the BAT switch can
be placed to OVRD which assures power to GEN bus.
Term 87
INVERTER light on the overhead AC panel indicates?
Definition 87
The selected inverter has failed OR
The switch is in the OFF position
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Term 88
L/R AC GEN light on the overhead AC elec panel
indicates?
Definition 88
The associated AC GEN has failed or dropped off line
Term 89
Will the CWP ELEC light come on with a L/R AC GEN
light?
Definition 89
No.The CWP ICE PROT light will
illuminate
Term 90
How many 24v batteries are on the Saab 340?
Definition 90
Three:
• One lead acid• Two NiCad
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Term 91
Does the BAT automatically disconnect with a BAT hot
light?
Definition 91
Yes.
Term 92
What does the illumination of the green BUS TIE light
mean?
Definition 92
The relay joining the left and right GEN buses is
closed
Term 93
What are the 3 reasons the BUS TIE closes?
Definition 93
• To conect the two main batteries• To supply the L/R GEN BUS
when EXT PWR is ON• To supply 28v power to both L &
R GEN BUS from only one generator during single engine ops
(Anytime there is less than 1 GEN online, the BUS TIE should be closed.)
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Term 94
What is the purpose of the BUS TIE over current relay
protection?
Definition 94
Protects the main distribution system in case of a short in the system
Term 95
The BUS TIE relay opens if the over-current exceeds
_______ ?
Definition 95
800 amps
Term 96
Is there any time the 800 amp over current relay can
be exceeded?
Definition 96
Yes.During engine start
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Term 97
Generators automatically disconnect when EXT PWR
is applied.
True or False?
Definition 97
True.
Term 98
What 5 things can be powered by the EMERG BAT?
Definition 98
• Master warning system• BUS TIE relay CONN function • Fire Detection• Tailpipe Hot detection• EMERG volatge indication
Term 99
During preflight, all the exterior lights may be checked using BAT power.
True or False?
Definition 99
False.
Only the L fwd nav, R rear nav & beacon function in
BAT power.
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Term 100
What is required to close the Utility Bus relay?
Definition 100
At least two generators online OR
External power
Term 101
Is EXT PWR connected to the R GEN bus via the BUS
TIE relay?
Definition 101
Yes
Term 102
How is the battery compartment ventilated?
Definition 102
Via a fan on the ground and RAM air inflight
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Term 103
Will external power de-energize the BAT relays?
Definition 103
Yes
(unless the BAT switches are in OVRD, a maintenance
only function to charge them)
Term 104
When a GEN relay closes, which bus is powered?
Definition 104
The associated GEN bus.
Term 105
Three conditions for a GEN relay to close?
Definition 105
1. EXT PWR relay open2. Engine start complete3. GEN field reset
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Term 106
Below ___ volts, EXT PWR drops offline and the switch
spring loads to OFF.
Definition 106
Approx 10 volts
Term 107
What is the lowest EXT PWR voltage during engine
start?
Definition 107
Approx 7 volts
Term 108
During engine start, if EXT PWR drops off line will the
start continue?
Definition 108
Yes, it will continue on batteries.
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Term 109
The L BAT is connected to the ____ bus.
Definition 109
The START BUS
Term 110
What bus charges the batteries?
Definition 110
Its respective GEN BUS with at east 1 GEN online.
Term 111
The R BAT is connected to the _____ bus.
Definition 111
The R GEN BUS
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Term 112
When does the EMERG BAT begin to power the EMERG
BUS?
Definition 112
When the L BAT BUS drops below 24 volts
Term 113
What powers the EMERG Avionics Bus?
Definition 113
The EMERG BUS
(Powered via the L BAT BUS when the ESS AVION switch is ON. Otherwise it will seek power via the led
acid battery)
Term 114
What items are powered by the EMER AVIONICS BUS?
Definition 114
VHF / COM 1&
standby horizon
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Term 115
Min prop rpm to keep the AC Wild
generator online?
Definition 115
About 1,000 rpm
Term 116
On taxi out, why would you see an AC gen light on?
Definition 116
Prop rpm dips below 1,000 rpm
Term 117
Why is it a "Wild" frequency AC system?
Definition 117
Frequency varies460 - 640 Hz due to prop rpm
variations
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Term 118
How do you reset an AC gen if prop rpm drops below
1,000 and gen drops offline?
Definition 118
Resets are automatic when rpm increases to 1,000
Term 119
What 6 items are powered by the AC Wild GEN
busses
Definition 119
1. Pitot tubes2. AOA sensors 3. OAT probe4. Prop De-Ice5. Windshield heat6. Galley hot jugs.......
(Yes, you need a prop turning at 1,000 rpm to keep the coffee hot even with the
hot jug warmer switch "ON"!)
Term 120
Is the ENG intake anti-ice powered by the AC Wild
GEN bus?
Definition 120
No.
It gets its power directly off its respective AC Wild GEN.
(That is why during a AC GEN failure, intake heat
cannot be powered by the opposite side.)
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Term 121
What 3 conditions must be met for a battery relay to
close?
Definition 121
1. BAT switches ON2. EXT PWR OFF3. BAT temp below 71°C
Term 122
What is an indication of a malfuntioning GEN?
Definition 122
• Fluctuation, blinking or complete loss of more than one EFIS display.
• WEU status light illumination• Low voltage can cause a loud
squeal from the audio system REU.
Term 123
When a GEN OV TEMP light comes on, doesthe gen
automatically disconnect?
Definition 123
No
The affected GEN must be manually taken offline.
(Look for BUS TIE relay closure)
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Term 124
FIRE PROTECTION
AVIONIC SMOKE on the CWP indicates?
Definition 124
Smoke has been detected in the Avionics Bay
Term 125
How long will the Avionic (or Cargo or Lav) somke
light stay on?
Definition 125
As long as the smoke condition exists
Term 126
How long will the L/R ENG
FIRE light remain illuminated?
Definition 126
As long as the fire exists
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Term 127
L/R FIRE DET FAIL light on the CWP indicates?
Definition 127
A short circuit is detecetd in the fire loop on the related engine.
Light will remaim illuminated for as long as the condition exists.
Term 128
Actions required to discharge either engine fire
bottle?
Definition 128
1. Fire handle pull2. Fire Extingusher switch ON
Term 129
Overhead white CARGO EXTG light indicates?
Definition 129
Low pressure is detected in the respective bottle
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Term 130
What kind of fire protection is available for the avionics rack?
Definition 130
A halon fire extinguisher in the cockpit(Discharge into the Avionic rack port
behind Captain)
Term 131
What kind of fire protection is available in the lav?
Definition 131
An automatically discharged halon fire
extinguisher in the trash bin.
(Halon discharged via a heat sensitive blow out plug)
Term 132
What is the MIN time between firing CARGO FIRE
EXTG #1 & #2?
Definition 132
2 minutes
(To prevent excessive pressure buildup within the compartment and risk blow out panel rupture, leaking
halon into the cabin)
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Term 133
What is the normal wait time before firing CARGO FIRE EXTG #2?
Definition 133
25 minutes
Discharge of the 2nd bottle within 25 minutes of the
first increases fire suppresion time limit to 60 minutes over 40 minutes
from bottle #1 alone
Term 134
When a cargo fire extinguiisher is activated, will the CARGO EXTG light
come on right away?
Definition 134
If the bottle is functioning normally, it should not.
It can take 15 minutes for the while EXTG light to
illuminate
Term 135
What happens when the fire handle is pulled?
(6)
Definition 135
1. Fuel valve closes2. GEN relay opens3. Bleeds close4. Arms the squibs5. Resets the WEU6. Fire bell cancelled
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Term 136
Can the R engine fire bottle be discharged into the L
engine nacelle?
Definition 136
Yes Bottles are connected via a manifold to allow selective discharge to either
engine.
Term 137
FUEL SYSTEM
How many fuel pumps are on the Saab 340 and how
are they powered?
Definition 137
Four:
• Two engine driven driven main pumps
• Two elec driven standby pumps
Term 138
What controls the elec standby pumps?
Definition 138
Overhead switches&
Automatic switches in the CLs
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Term 139
How many ways can fuel quanitity be checked?
Definition 139
Three:
• Cockpit fuel gauges• Refuel panel gauges• Wing tank dripsticks
Term 140
What elec bus powers the refueling panel?
Definition 140
Hot Battery Bus
Term 141
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R STBY
PRESS light?
Definition 141
Pump senses positive pressure is sensed in the
fuel line.
(Directly or via crossfeed)
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Term 142
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R MAIN
PRESS light?
Definition 142
The associated main pump is pressure differential is
low
(<6 psid)
Term 143
What happens is a main pump fails or has low
pressure?
Definition 143
The associated STBY pump is acutuated
(Providing the switch is in the normal
AUTO position)
Term 144
What supplies fuel to the engine during start?
Definition 144
The Standby Pump
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Term 145
During engine shutdown when the main pump pressure drops, a CL
actuated switch will inhibit the standby pump auto starting feature.
True or False?
Definition 145
True
Term 146
What is indicated by the blue fueling light?
Definition 146
• The fueling/defueling panel is powered
OR
• The fueling/defueling valve is open
Term 147
Fuel gauges are calibrated to show actual fuel
remaining.
True or False?
Definition 147
False
They show useable fuel remaining.
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Term 148
What is indicated by the L/R FUEL FILTER light?
Definition 148
Fuel filter blockage
Bypass impending
Term 149
"X FEED ON" indicates switch position or valve
position?
Definition 149
Valve posiiton
Term 150
"CONN VLV OPEN" indicates switch position or
valve position?
Definition 150
Valve position
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Term 151
How to do test a STBY fuel pump?
Definition 151
By moving a CL to the start position
(The associated green light should illuminate)
Term 152
The L/R VALVE closed light indicates?
Definition 152
The associated fuel valve is closed.
Term 153
How many ways can you close a Fuel Shutoff Valve?
Definition 153
One.
(Shut off valves in the wing prior to the engine nacelle are powered by their
respective BAT bus when the fire handle is pulled.)
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Term 154
L/R LOW LEVEL light on the Fuel Panel indicates?
Definition 154
The associated tank is below 300 lbs (+/- 70lb)
Term 155
What lights on the overhead fuel panel do not cause an amber FUEL light on the
CWP?
Definition 155
• FEED ON• CONN VLV OPEN • L/R STBY PRESS
Term 156
What is the useable fuel quantity?
Definition 156
5,690 lbs
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Term 157
Where are the STBY fuel pumps located?
Definition 157
Inside each respective wing tank hopper.
Term 158
The fuel vent also serves as an overflow.
True or False?
Definition 158
True
Term 159
Can one STBY pump supply enough fuel to operate both
engines?
Definition 159
Yes.
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Term 160
How is fuel transferred between wings?
Definition 160
By gravity via the interconnect line.
Term 161
Does the green STBY PRESS light indicate the respective pump is on?
Definition 161
No
Only that positive pressure is sensed at the pump inlet.
Term 162
HYDRAULICS
What causes the CWP HYDR light to illuminate?
Definition 162
Main reservior is too hot (>116°C)
OR
Main or Emergency accumulator pressure is low
(<1,850 psi)
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Term 163
Why might the hyd fluid get too hot and trigger the CWP
HYDR light?
Definition 163
Continuous pump operation
Term 164
What aircraft systems use hydraulic power?
Definition 164
• Landing gear• Flaps• Brakes• Nose Wheel Steering
Term 165 Definition 165
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Term 166
The HYDR pump is electircally driven.
True or False?
Definition 166
True
L Main bus in AUTO and L BAT Bus* in OVRD
(*on later modified a/c)
Term 167
What systems can be operated with the
emergency HYD hand pump?
Definition 167
• Flaps• Landing gear• Brakes
Term 168
What triggers activation of the main HYD pump?
Definition 168
• Landing gear operation• Main accumulator pressure
drops below 2100 psi
(With pump switch in normal AUTO mode)
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Term 169
How many HYD accumulators are there?
Definition 169
4
(Main, EMERG, inboard brakes, outboard brakes)
Term 170
What pressure is displayed on the accumulators in the nose wheel well?
Definition 170
The sum of the nitrogen precharge pressure plus pressure developed by
the HYD pump (if any).
Term 171
Which HYD accumulators have check valves?
Definition 171
EMERG, inboard brake & outboard brake
(All but the main as it supplies gear, flaps, brakes,
steering)
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Term 172
How does EMERG landing gear extension use
hydraulics?
Definition 172
HYD pressure disengages the uplocks, allowing the gear to free fall
into position.
Term 173
What bus supplies power to the HYD pump in AUTO?
Definition 173
L MAIN BUS
Term 174
Is there a circuit breaker for the HYD pump?
Definition 174
No
(It is protected by a 200 amp fuse in the
L Power Distribution Unit)
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Term 175
The main HYD reservoir is pressurized by ____ ?
Definition 175
An internal spring backed up by emergency uplock accumulator
pressure (to 35 psi in the reservior).
Term 176
The HYDR light on the CWP indicates low fluid quantity.
True or False?
Definition 176
False.
(Only low main or emerg acc pressure or high temp)
Term 177
Can the main hyd accumulator be pressurized
by the hand pump?
Definition 177
Yes
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Term 178
Can the emerg hyd accumulator be pressurized
by the hand pump?
Definition 178
No
Term 179
Can the flaps be extended and retracted by the hand
pump?
Definition 179
Yes
Term 180
Hydraulics are pressurized up to _____ on OVRD.
Definition 180
3,000 psi
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Term 181
What systems are supplied with HYD pressure from the emergency
accumulator?
Definition 181
Landing gear uplock release&
Main reservior pressure to assist spring
Term 182
Fluid pumped with the hand pump returns to the main
reservoir
True or False?
Definition 182
True
Term 183 Definition 183
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Term 184
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
What ice protection systems use BLD air?
Definition 184
• Boot de-ice• Engine splitter lip• Inlet guide vanes
Term 185
What is powered automatically when the first
AC GEN comes online?
Definition 185
• L/R pitot heat• L/R Alpha vane / AOA • OAT probe
Term 186
What is indicated by the DE ICE OV TEMP light on the overhead Ice Protection
panel?
Definition 186
Bleed air to the boots is too hot(>150°C)
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Term 187
What is indicated by the TIMER light on the overhead ice protection panel?
Definition 187
A pressure problem or a timer malfunction
Term 188
If the TIMER light is on, how do you test to see if it resulted from a timer
malfunction?
Definition 188
The TIMER light will extinguish if the
W OUTBD button is pushed and illuminates again when
released.
Term 189
What is the order of boot inflation when one cycle is
selected?
Definition 189
Stabilizer, outboard wing, inboard wing, stabilizer
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Term 190
How is boot inflation monitored?
Definition 190
Via the green indicator lights on the overhhead
ice protection panel(When the BOOT IND switch is on)
Term 191
In CONT mode, inflation boot cycles repeat every ___________ .
Definition 191
Every third minute
Term 192
Will the boots inflate if LP & HP bleed valves are closed?
Definition 192
Yes
Regulated, temperate air is sent directly to the boot
distribution duct via a valve in each engine nacelle.
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Term 193 Definition 193
Term 194
What does the
L/R AIR VALVElight indicate?
Definition 194
The associated AIR VALVE is not properly positioned in accordance
with the switch selection.
Term 195
What ice protection systems have a light on the
flight status panel?
Definition 195
Engine Anti-Ice&
Prop De-Ice
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Term 196
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R AC
GEN light?
Definition 196
The associated AC GEN has dropped offline
Term 197
The R AC GEN can power the L intake heat.
True or False?
Definition 197
False
Intake heat is the only thing that cannot be powered by the opposite side AC GEN.
Term 198
The blue PROP DE-ICE light on the flight status panel
will go out in case of a system failure.
True or False?
Definition 198
True
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Term 199
What is the time cycle for the props in NORM?
Definition 199
ON for 11 seconds, OFF for 79 seconds
Term 200
What is the time cycle for the props in MAX?
Definition 200
ON for 90 seconds, then OFF for 90 seconds
Term 201
The blue L/R ENG ANTI-ICE light on the flight status panel will go out in
case of a system failure.True or false?
Definition 201
False.(Indicative of switch position.)
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Term 202
What is the only item on the ice protection panel that is not powered
by the AC wild system?
Definition 202
The STBY PITOT heat (24V)
Term 203
How long must the STBY PITOT heat be on to reach full operating
temperature?
Definition 203
5 minutes
Term 204
How long must the window heat be on to reach full operating temperature?
Definition 204
6 minutes
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Term 205
How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the
pitot, alpha & OAT?
Definition 205
One
Term 206
How many phases of the 115v AC wild
GEN output are required to power
the windshield heat?
Definition 206
Two
Term 207
How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the
prop heat?
Definition 207
All three phases
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Term 208
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R
INTAKE light?
Definition 208
A failure has occured in the engine duct heating system.
(An intermittent INTAKE light may
indicate operation in
under heat or over heat condition)
Term 209
LANDING GEAR
EMERG gear extension is by free fall or use of hand
pump.
True or False?
Definition 209
True
Term 210
What does the anti-skid need to function?
Definition 210
Anti-Skid switch ON, LDG gear handle down plus
power levers below flight idleOR
wheel speed in excess of 50 knots
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Term 211
What is the touchdown brake protection feature?
Definition 211
Prevents brake application until 3 seconds after main
gear compression
ORWheel speed exceeds 50 knots
Term 212
Anti-Skid system cuts out at approximately ___ kts.
Definition 212
20 knots
Term 213
A-SKID INOP light on CWP indicates?
Definition 213
A system faultOR
Gear is down with anti-skid switch OFF
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Term 214
Which CWP light comes on if the gear is not down
below 500ft RA?
Definition 214
CONFIG
Term 215
PARK BRK ON light on the CWP indicates?
Definition 215
Brake handle is pulled with a psi of >1700
Term 216
Is it possible to set the brake without the CWP light
coming on?
Definition 216
Yes(Brake will set with 1500 psi but light
will not illuminate until 1700 psi)
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Term 217
Where is the Anti-Skid switch located?
Definition 217
On the HYD panel, center console
Term 218
EMERG gear extension & nose wheel steering are powered by what bus?
Definition 218
L & R BAT bus
Term 219
Nose wheel steering is ______ actuated
and ________ operated.
Definition 219
Electrically, Hydraulically
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Term 220
Which CWP light comes on with > flaps 15° and gear
not down?
Definition 220
CONFIG
Term 221
What happens when you pull the EMERG LDG GEAR
handle?
Definition 221
• HYD pressure from the EMERG accumulator releases the uplocks
• A path for HYD fluid is opened for the fluid to drain to the reservior
• Explosive bolts detonate and separate the main gear doors from the gear, which extends and locks via gravity, slipstream force & springs.
Term 222
MISC
What is powered by the EES?
Definition 222
The EES powers "DINg"
• DECU• Ignition exciters• Ng indication
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Term 223
What is powered by the DECU?
Definition 223
• TRQ indication• ITT indication• Np indication • CTOT & APR functions• Bottom Governing• Auto-Ignition• 1572 PRPM overspeed drain
valve
Term 224
Where does the EES get its power?
Definition 224
Engine driven alternator on the prop gearbox.
Term 225
What are the 3 ways to feather the propellers?
Definition 225
1. Condition levers2. Autocoarsen3. Manual feather
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Term 226
What are the 4 levels of prop
overspeed protection?
Definition 226
• Constant speed governor (set by oil pressure)
• Overspeed governor (dumps oil to lower RPMs)
• 1572 rpm overspeed (temporary DECU controlled flameout, with auto relight)
• 110% Ng overspeed (HMU cuts off fuel, with no auto relight)
Term 227
What are the indications of a failed DECU?
Definition 227
• Zero TRQ• Zero Np• ITT reads raw data
Term 228
In order to operate the APR function, what other systems must be
functioning?
Definition 228
Autocoarsen and CTOT
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Term 229
What are the 4 fucntions of the HMU?
Definition 229
1. Metered fuel for base governing2. Unmetered fuel for Engine Anti-
Ice/Start Bleed Valve operation3. 110% Ng overspeed protection
fuel cut off4. Fuel cut off via the CLs
Term 230
When are you in bottom governing range?
Definition 230
• CLs are at MIN• PLs are below flight idle • 830-1040 rpm
Term 231
What is the constant speed governor range?
Definition 231
1150-1396 PRPM
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Term 232
Why can't the prop be moved to unfeather when
the prop oil is below 25°C?
Definition 232
Because the bottom governor won't engage unless the seal in the HMU has been warmed. Prop oil heats fuel, fuel warms the seal on the torque motor servo piston and it expands. During the time the seal is leaking fuel, the bottom governor will not engage.
Term 233
What happens if you lose the oil pressure in the prop
control unit?
Definition 233
You get a fixed pitch prop
Term 234
What are the 6 amber lights on
the overhead that are not
associated with the CWP?
Definition 234
1. NO BAT START2. X VLV OPEN3. X FEED4. CONN VLV OPEN5. L RECIRC6. R RECIRC
(there are 7 if you count the F/A CALL button too)
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Term 235
What indications will you see if the FI stop knob is
inadvertantly pulled during flight?
Definition 235
Both the amber & blue FI stop lights on the flight
status panel will illuminate.
Term 236
What causes the cabin emergency lighting system
to illuminate?
Definition 236
A loss of power to the R main bus
Term 237
Using a HP on the ground for cabin cool down is prohibited between ____
and ____ degrees
Definition 237
0°C - 15°C
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Term 238
What voltage will kick off the GPU?
Definition 238
<10v or >31v
Term 239
Maximum time for starter engagement?
Definition 239
70 seconds, 30 of which may be motoring.
Term 240
Max Continuous power limitations?
Definition 240
940°C ITT
• TQ - Green arc• Ng - Red line• Np - Red Line
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Term 241
Max ITT for engine start?
Definition 241
965°C
Term 242
Limitations for takeoff power withAPR?
Definition 242
940°C ITT (for 5 minutes)OR
950°C ITT (for 2 minutes)
• TQ - Red line• Ng - Red line• Np - Red Line
Term 243
Takeoff power limitations?
Definition 243
917°C (for 5 minutes)OR
927°C (for 2 minutes)
• TQ - Green arc• Ng - Green arc• Np - Red line
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Term 244
What is rough air penetration speed for the Saab?
Definition 244
Va= 190kts up to FL210Va= Vmo - 30kts above FL210
Term 245
Max airspeed for flaps 7° or 15°?
Definition 245
175 knots
Term 246
Max airspeed for flaps 20°?
Definition 246
165 knots
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Term 247
Max airspeed for flaps 35°?
Definition 247
140 knots
Term 248
MTOW?
Definition 248
29,000 lbs
Term 249
Max Ramp Weight?
Definition 249
29,300 lbs
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Term 250
MLW?
Definition 250
28,500 lbs
Term 251
MZFW?
Definition 251
26,500 lbs
Term 252
On takeoff or landing an pitch of _____ degrees will
cause a tail strike.
Definition 252
13 degrees
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Term 253
Max operating altitude?
Definition 253
25,000 feet
Term 254
Min takeoff and landing altitude?
Definition 254
-1,000 ft
Term 255
Max takeoff and landing altitude?
Definition 255
8,000 feet
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Term 256
Min temperature for take off?
Definition 256
-55°C
Term 257
Max temperature for takeoff?
Definition 257
47°C (-1,000 to 1,500 ft pressure alt)33°C (at 8,000 ft pressure alt)
Term 258
Runway slope limits for takeoff?
Definition 258
-2% to +1.5%
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Term 259
Runway slope limits for landing?
Definition 259
-2% to +2%
Term 260
Max tailwind?
Definition 260
10 knots
Term 261
Flaps UP load limit?
Definition 261
+2.75g to -1.0g
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Term 262
Flaps DOWN load limits?
Definition 262
+2.0g to 0g
Term 263
Vlor?
Definition 263
150 knots
Term 264
Vloe?
Definition 264
200 knots
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Term 265
Va?
Definition 265
180 knots
Term 266
Vmo?
Definition 266
Max operating KIAS:
• 250 knots (up to 16,000 ft)• 232 knots (at FL200)• 210 knots (at FL250)
Term 267
Vmcl?
Definition 267
Minimum control speed in landing configuration:
(flaps 20° or 35°):
• 103 knots (B+ model)
• 106 knots (B model)
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Term 268
Max Altitude for unpressurized flight?
Definition 268
10,000 feet
Term 269
Max cabin differential pressure?
Definition 269
7.5 psi
Term 270
Max cabin differential pressure in AUTO mode?
Definition 270
7.1 psi
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Term 271
Max negative differential pressure?
Definition 271
-0.5 psi
Term 272
Max differential pressure for landing?
Definition 272
0.2 psi
Term 273
Max airspeed for windshield wipers on HIGH?
Definition 273
160 knots
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Term 274
Max airspeed for windshield wipers on LOW?
Definition 274
130 knots
Term 275
What a/c lights operate on the 5 minute timer?
Definition 275
Cargo & Entry
Term 276
How do you test the bus tie?
Definition 276
With both engines running and both GENs online,
select a GEN switch to OFF. Bus Tie should illuminate.
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Term 277
What part of the stall warning system is inhibited when the L/R STALL FAIL
light cones on?
Definition 277
Stick pusher operation
Term 278
Are the trim tabs controlled mechanically?
Definition 278
NoThey are all electrically controlled
Term 279
When the trim switches on the yoke are activated, which elevator trim tab
is actuated?
Definition 279
The Left geared servo tab.
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Term 280
Can you pump down the flaps if no electrical power
is available?
Definition 280
NoThe flap selector valve to direct HYD
fluid is electrically operated.
Term 281
What is the problem if there is a loss of background
color on the EADI & ATT? What should you do?
Definition 281
An AHRS failure.Select XSIDE data.
Term 282
If both EFIS tubes on the F/Os side go dark, what has
happened?
What do you do?
Definition 282
A DPU failure.Select DRIVE XFER on the F/Os EFIS
switch
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Term 283
What items are on the EMERGENCY AVIONICS BUS?
Definition 283
VHF COMM #1 &
STBY ADI
Term 284
What is powered by the 115v/26v AC inverter?
Definition 284
A♦ F ♦ R ♦ O ♦ G (115v)
• ACARS• Flight data recorder• Radar Stabilization• Overhead Panel Lights• GPWS
plus VOR flags & RMI flags (26V)
Term 285
What items are powered by the HOT BAT BUS?
Definition 285
(Think "FEABLE RAT")
• Fire handle• Engine fire bottle• AHRS backup power• BAT vltage indication• Lights (dome, cargo, entry)• Extinguisher (cargo)• Refueling panel• ACARS back up power• Time (clocks)
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Term 286
What things are powered from the EMERGENCY BUS?
Definition 286
(Think WEBALLS)
• Warning system back up power• Emergency voltage indication• Bus tie relay connect function• Audio system back up power• L/R engine fire detection • L/R engine tailpipe hot detection• Stanbyinstrument lighting
Term 287
What warnings are let through during Takeoff
Inhibit mode?
Definition 287
(think "RGAP")
• Red lights• Gust lock• Autocoaren• Parking brake
Term 288
What do you need for the CTOT to work?
Definition 288
• DECU (sends signal to torque motor)
• Torque Motor (fuel injection to CTOT valve beyond that selected by PLs)
• "ON" or "APR" selected • Power levers beyond 64° PLA (to
arm CTOT)
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Term 289
What do you need for the APR to work?
Definition 289
• DECU (regulates torque motor ops)
• Torque Motor (fuel injection for CTOT/APR functions)
• CTOT/APR switch to "APR"• Power levers above 64 PLA
(arms APR)• Autocoarsen ON (must be ON to
send the ENG fail signal and activate APR)
Term 290
Ice formation on the engine scroll vanes is prevented by heating from
________________?
Definition 290
Hollow scroll vanes are heated with hot scavenge engine oil.
Term 291
The manually controlled part of the pressurization system is completely
___________ .
Definition 291
Pnuematic
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Term 292
During flight if you experience a loss of TRQ & PRPM gauge indications and
have raw data erratic temperature indication, what has happened?
Definition 292
A DECU failure.
Term 293
Anti-Skid is inhibited below what speed?
Definition 293
Below 20 knots (So as not to interfere with braking
and turns.)
Term 294
What causes an autocoarsen event in HIGH mode?
Definition 294
• One engine TRQ is >50%, with other <50%
• A difference of 25% TRQ between engines
• P3 on bad engine <120 psi
with the power levers above 64° PLA
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Term 295
What causes an autocoarsen event in LOW mode?
Definition 295
• Ng >55% on good engine• Ng < 55% on bad engine• Starter/Gen rpm <60% on bad
engine
Term 296
What happens if the switch is turned off after an autocoarsen event occurs?
Definition 296
Uncoarsening of the prop
Term 297
During flight if you experience a loss of TRQ, Ng & PRPM gauge indications and have raw data erratic temperature
indication, what has happened?
Definition 297
A failure of the EES
(Loss of DECU will also occurs as it powers it)
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Term 298 Definition 298
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