human ana

pb=) human ana drill exam

multiple choice. choose the best answer. i . the term "anatomy" is derived from: a. latin b. anglo-saxon c. persian d. french e. none of the preceding. 2. the activities of an histologist consist of ___ whereas those of a physiologist consist of ___ a. conducting experiments / making microscopic observations b. studying the structure of normal tissue / studying the structure of abnormal tissue c. studying chemical molecules / observing forms of the body d. studying the structure of normal tissues / studying the functions of body structures e. none of the above. 3. which of the following is not true of the anatomical position? a. the subject is standing erect b. arms at the side with the palms directed backwards c. feet parallel to each other and flat on the floor d. the subject's eyes are looking forward e. all the preceding statements are correct 4. what is the ph of a solution whose hydrogen ion concentration is 0.00001? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 10 e. 4.5 5. the cubital fossa is located in the: a. lower extremity b. thorax c. upper extremity d. neck e. sphenoid bone. 6. which of the following is classified as a monosaccharide? a. sucrose b. glycogen c. glucose d. lactose e. starch. 7. if a strand of dna molecule contained the base sequence t,t,g,c,a,g the complementary dna strand would contain: a. u,u,c,g,t,c b. a,a,c,g,t,c c. a,a,c,g,u,c d. c,c,t,a,u,t e. u,u,g,c,u,c 8. a parietal membrane-------whereas a visceral membrane----a. covers organs / lines cavities b. secretes mucus / secretes a serous fluid

c. lines cavities / covers organs d. secretes a serous fluid / secretes mucus e. two of the above. match each organelle with the appropriate statement. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. ribosome b. cell membrane c. endoplasmic reticulum (er) d. lysosome e. mitochondrion. 9. may be attached to er, or free in the cytoplasm 10. membranous sac of digestive enzymes 11. regulates passage of material into and out of the cell 12. contains cristae 13. usually described as a fluid-mosaic model 14. plays an important role in autophagy 15. contains dna, can move and reproduce 16. the appearance may be rough or smooth 17. made up of interconnected tubules select the most appropriate term for the following: (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. distal b. superior c. proximal d. anterior e. lateral. 18. the 19. the 20. the 21. the 22. the 23. the 24. the 25. the nose. 26. the nose. wrist is-----to the elbow. elbow is-----to the shoulder. nasal cavity is-----to the oral cavity. knee is-----to the ankle. ankle is-----to the knee. heart is----to the vertebral column. right eye is-----to the bridge of the left eye is-----to the bridge of the forehead is-----to the bridge of the

true or false: true = a false = b. 27. when a red blood cell swells it has undergone cremation. 28. the term homeostasis refers to the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment. 29. goblet cells may be classified as unicellular glands. 30. growth of a tissue due to increase in cell size is called hypertrophy. 31. a long bone contains one epiphysis and two diaphyses 32. keratinocytes produce a brownish-black pigment called melanin. 33. coenzymes are organic molecules that are derived from water-soluable vitamins. 34. anaerobic respiration does not require oxygen. 35. steroid hormones are produced by cells in the gonads. 36. glucose enters cells by a process called facilitated diffusion.

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37. anabolic metabolism requires energy. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 38. in the abdominal area, the region inferior to the umbilical region is called the a. epigastric region b. right hypochondriac region c. hypogastric region d. left hypochondriac region e. none of the preceding. 39. as a result of mitosis, each new cell has: a. twice as many chromosomes as its parent cell b. half as many chromosomes as its parent cell c. four times as many chromosomes as its parent cell d. the same number of chromosomes as its parent cell e. none of the above. 40. shafts of hair are composed of: a. dead dermal cells b. living epidermal cells c. dead epidermal cells d. living dermal cells e. none of the preceding. 41. the hormone calcitonin: a. lowers blood calcium levels b. is produced by the parathyroid glands c. increases blood calcium levels d. answers a and b e. answers b and c 42. cells placed in an isotonic solution will: a. shrink b. swell c. neither swell nor shrink. 43. ciliated epithelium that is destroyed by disease would cause malfunction of the: a. digestive system b. respiratory system c. urinary system d. circulatory system e. none of the preceding. 44. reticular connective tissue is found within the: a. spleen b. liver c. lymph nodes d. all of the preceding. 45. the structure that contracts to cause "goose bumps" in the skin, is the: a. dermal papilla b. arrector pili c. sebaceous gland d. hair follicle e. eccrine gland

46. which suture extends from the anterolateral fontanel to the anterior fontanel? a. coronal b. sagittal c. squamosal d. lambdoidal e. longitudinal. 47. the singular form of phalanges : a. phalangis b. phalanx c. phalanis d. phalans e. none of the preceding. 48. the pituitary gland is located in the: a. sphenoidal sinus b. glenoid fossa c. crista galli d. supraspinous fossa e. none of the preceding matching: muscle cells. (note: letters may be used more than once.) a. skeletal muscle cells. b. cardiac muscle cells. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b. 49. cells are striated 50. cells are multinucleated 51. involuntary muscle cells 52. cells develop cilia 53. cells located in lacunae 54. cells found in the wall of the intestine and ureter 55. cells form branching structures 56. cells form intercalated discs match each skeletal region ( a or b) with an appropriate bone. (note: items a an b may be used more than once.) a. appendicular skeleton b. axial skeleton 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. scapula. os coxa. hyoid bone. femur. ear ossicles. vertebrae. cranial bones. tarsal bones. ribs. humerus.

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 67. elastic connective tissue is found within: a. the outer ear b. the liver c. tendon d. walls of large arteries e. smooth muscle cells. 68. which of the following is not a cranial bone? a. occipital b. temporal c. zygomatic d. frontal e. parietal. 69. which of the following bones does not contain one or more air sinuses?

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a. occipital b. frontal c. sphenoid d. ethmoid; e. maxilla. match each tissue type with the appropriate location. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. hyaline cartilage b. transitional epithelium c. stratified, nonkeratinized squamous epithelium d. nonciliated, columnar epithelium e. fibrocartilage 70. lining the lumen (=internal cavity) of the urinary bladder 71. symphysis pubis 72. extremity of the nose 73. ends of the long bones 74. lining the lumen of the stomach 75. lining the lumen of the vagina 76. lining the lumen of the ureter 77. intervertebral discs 78. lining the lumen of the esophagus 79. lining the lumen of the intestine 80. in the wall of the trachea 81. a portion of the ribs multiple choice. choose the best answer. 82. parathyroid hormone: a. is produced by the thyroid gland b. is derived from vitamin d3 c. is a steroid hormone d. increases blood calcium levels e. two of the preceding. 83. the secondary curvatures of the vertebral column are the: a. cervical and lumbar b. thoracic and lumbar c. cervical and pelvic d. thoracic and pelvic e. cervical and thoracic 84. which is true for a holocrine gland? a. it is a multicellular gland b. the secretion and a small part of the cell are discharged c. only the secretion is discharged (= exocytosis) d. the secretion and the entire cell are discharged e. answers a and d question# 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 answer e d b b c c b c question# 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 answer b b b a a b b a

85. the odontoid process (=dens) is part of the: a. atlas b. sacrum c. occipital bone d. mandible e. none of the preceding. 86. the science or study of the skin or integument is called: a. myology b. dermatology c. germatology d. coriology e. histology. from the list of bones, match the correct structure or foramen that is associated with it. a. temporal bone b. mandible c. sphenoid bone d. ethmoid bone e. occipital bone. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. crista galli coronoid process mastoid process foramen magnum condyloid process cribriform plate notch styloid process sella turcic. mental foramen

true or false: true= a, false b 97. the paranasal sinuses connect directly to the oral cavity and are prone to infection 98. the hyoid bone does not attach directly to any other bone 99. the basic building blocks of proteins are amino acids 100. the total number of fontanels in the newborn's skull is four: the anterior, posterior, anterolateral and posterolateral fontanels this site provides the correct answers for the unit 1 test questions. to fully take advantage of this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well. determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.

question# 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58

answer b d d d b b a a

question # 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83

answer b e c d a a d a

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a d b e b d e c c a a b c a d e e

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a a a a c d c a c b d b a b e c a

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b a b b b a b a d c a b e a a d c

84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

e e b d b a e b d b a c b b a a b

biology 2740 - human physiology and anatomy practice test 2 multiple choice: choose the best answer. 1.the science or study of joints is called: a. sarcoloy b. osteology c. myology d. dermatology e. none of the preceding. 2. which of the following parts of the upper limb or extremity is not correctly matched with the number of bones in that part? a. brachium - 1 b. antebrachium - 2 c. carpus - 8 d. metacarpus - 5. phalanges 12. 3. the largest ankle bone is the: a. metatarsal b. navicular c. talus d. calcaneus e. first cuneiform. 4. which of the following is an amphiarthrotic joint? a. synchondrosis b. condyloid joint c. saddle joint d. symphysis e.answers a and d 5. the hinge joint at elbow is an example of a: a. first-class lever b. second-class lever c. third-class lever d.. fourth-class lever. 6. which of the following joints is freely movable? a. ball and socket joint b. condyloid joint c. saddle joint d. pivot joint e. all of the preceding. 7. the inability to produce the fluid which keeps most diarthrodial joints moist would most likely be due to a disorder of the: a. cruciate ligaments b. synovial membrane c. articular cartilage d. bursae e. answers b and d. 8. the sequence of parts in a first-class lever is: a. effort-fulcrum-resistance b. fulcrum-effort-resistance c. fulcrum-effort-resistance d. none of the preceding. 9. a rotational movement of the forearm that results in the palm of the hand being, directed backward (posteriorly) is called: a.pronation b. eversion c. circumduction d. lateral flexion e. supination matching: from the list of bones match the correct structure or fossa that is associated with it. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. fibula b. tibia c. humerus d. ulna e. scapula 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. linea aspera. olecranon fossa. radial notch. coronoid fossa. coracoid process. lesser tubercle. capitulum. lesser trochanter. coronoid process. acromion. lateral malleolus. infraspinous fossa. trochlear notch.

matching:articulations. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. symphysis b. suture c. syndesmosis d. pivot e. hinge.

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23. intervertebral joints 24. knee joint. 25. joint between the atlas and axis 26. joints between the cranial bones. 27. joints between the distal and middle bones of the phalanges. 28. joint between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula. 29. joint between the right and left pubic bones (or pubes). 30. joint between the proximal ends of the radius and ulna. 31. joint between the distal ends of the radius and ulna. true or false: true= a; false = b. 32. slow-twitch muscles are sometimes called red fibers. 33. cardiac muscle fibers are located in the myocardium of the heart wall. 34. in vitro means within the body. 35. smooth muscles in the gi tract are single-unit muscle cells. 36. flattened sheath-like tendons are called aponeuroses. 37. unlike multi-unit smooth muscles, single-unit smooth muscles need nerve stimulation. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 38. each myofibril in skeletal muscle: a. is made up of many myofilaments b. is made up of many sarcomeres c. contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum d. answers a, b, and c e. answers a and b. 39. the motor unit is defined as: a. many myofibrils within the sarcolemma b. the functional filaments within a muscle fiber c. many motor endplates within the neuromuscular function d. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers innervated by it e. answers a and b. 40. the layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle fiber is called the: a. perimysium b. endomysium c. epimysium d. apomysium e. none of the preceding. 41. at the neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles contain: a. calcium b. troponin c. acetylcholine d. adp e. atp.

42. if you were to extract protein molecules from the a-band, which of the following molecules would be found in the extract? a. myosin b. actin c. troponin d. tropomyosin e. all of the preceding. the following structures serve as an origin for certain skeletal muscles. match the muscles with their points of origin. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. sphenoid bone b. scapula c. iliac crest d. ischial tuberosity e. sternum. 45. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. medial pterygoid internal oblique coracobrachialis teres major deltoid quadratus lumborum pectoralis major biceps femoris semimembranosus lateral pterygoid semitendinosus

match the following actions with the appropriate muscle. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. extends head at neck b. adducts the scapula c. elevates the mandible d. flexes head at neck e. abducts the thigh. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. gluteus medius. masseter. splenius capitis (acting, together). sternocleidomastoid (acting, together). medial pterygoid. semispinalis capitis (acting together). gluteus minimus. rhomboideus major. temporalis. longissimus capitis (acting together).

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 64. there are three posterior thigh muscles which are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris muscle. these muscles are known as the hamstring and they are as follows: the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and the: a. biceps femoris b. triceps femoris c. rectus femoris d. transversus femoris e. none of the preceding 65. the quadriceps femoris is actually a composite of four distinct muscles that have separate origins but a common insertion. the four muscles are the: vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius and the vastus medialis, and the: a. biceps femoris b. triceps femoris c.

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rectus femoris d. transversus femoris e. none of the preceding. 66. when smooth muscle contracts, calcium bonds to : a. phosphocreatine b. tropomyosin c. calmodulin d. acetylcholine e. myosin heads 67. slow twitch muscles: a. are sometimes called type i muscle fibers b. have numerous mitochondria c. have a high concentration of myoglobin d. have many capillaries e. all of the above. 68. the most movable attachment of a muscle is its: a. insertion b. fulcrum c. origin d. none of the preceding. the following structures serve as an insertion for certain skeletal muscles. match the structures with the appropriate muscles. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. lesser trochanter of the femur b. mastoid process of the temporal bone c. humerus d. xiphoid process e. tibia. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. sartorius. rectus abdominis. coracobrachialis. sternocleidomastoid. iliacus. gracilis. semitendinosus. deltoid. longissimus capitis. latissimus dorsi. pectoralis major. semimembranosus.

82. when a muscle exerts tension without shortening, the contraction is termed: a. isometric b. graded c. summated d. isotonic e. none of the preceding. 83. sarcoplasmic reticulum is another name for: a. golgi apparatus b. reticular connective tissue c. cell membrane d. cytoplasm e. none of the preceding 84. the delicate cell membrane surrounding each skeletal muscle fiber is called the: a. epimysium b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasm d. sarcoplasmic reticulum e. none of the preceding. 85. the science or study of muscles and their parts is called: a. sarcology b. osteology c. myology d. dermatology e. none of the preceding. facial muscles: match the actions with the appropriate muscle. a. smile b. close the eye c. raise the eyebrows d. pucker the lips e. tighten or compress the cheeks 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. orbicularis oculi. zygomaticus. frontalis portion of the epicranius. orbicularis oris. buccinator.

true or false: true =a; false = b. 91. ciliary muscles in the eyeball change the shape of the lens. 92. smooth muscles in the sperm ducts and uterine tubes are single-unit muscles. 93. the abbreviation atp stands for alanine tripentose. 94. embryonic cells that form skeletal muscle cells are called myoblasts. 95. the sartorius takes its origin on the posterior superior iliac spine. 96. the sagittal suture is an example of a synostosis type of joint. 97. joints called synarthroses are freely movable joints. 98. contraction of the tibialis anterior causes planter flexion of the foot. 99. smooth muscle fibers are uninucleated, involuntary and nonstriated. 100. cardiac muscle fibers are uninucleated, involuntary and striated. answer b e c a questio answ questio answ n# er n# er 51 52 53 54 d a d e 76 77 78 79 c b c c

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 81. immediately following the arrival of a threshold stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell, there is a short period called the: a. relaxation period b. indecisive period c. latent period d. contraction period e. refractory period. biology 2740 - unit 2 - practice test answers question# 1 2 3 4

answ questio er n# e e d d 26 27 28 29

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5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 multiple choice: choose the best answer. 1. when the membrane potential (i.e. -70 mv) becomes less negative or in other words, approaches zero, the membrane is said to be: a. polarizing b. hyperpolarizing c. prepolarizing d. autopolarizing e. depolarizing. 2. an all-or-none nerve fiber impulse, may be triggered by: a. a weak below threshold stimulus b. a weak but threshold stimulus c. a strong well-above threshold stimulus d. either, a or b e. either, b or c. 3. resting membrane potential, is defined as:

c e b a a b c d c e c c b d e a e d a e d

30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

d c a a b a a b e d b c e a c b b b c e d

55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

c a d c a e b c a a c c e a e d c b a e e

80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

e c a e b c b a c d e a a b a b b b b a a

inner ear d. all of the preceding e. answers a and b only. 6. destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smile? a. v; b. vi; c. vii; d. ix; e. x. 7. nerve fibers that carry sensory impulses from skeletal muscles to the brain and spinal cord are called: a. somatic efferent b. visceral efferent c. visceral afferent d. somatic afferent e. none of the preceding. 8. destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to masticate food? a. v; b. vi; c. vii; d. ix; e. x. match the major brain region with the appropriate structure. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. myelencephalon b. mesencephalon c. metencephalon d. telencephalon e. diencephalon. 9. vasomotor center 10. occipital lobe 11. cerebral aqueduct 12. pons 13. pineal gland (body) 14. third ventricle 15. superior colliculus 16. lateral ventricles 17. hypothalamus 18. cerebellum 19. medulla oblongata 20. frontal lobe 21. epithalamus

a. the movement of sodium ions outside the membrane and the movement of potassium ions inside the membrane b. the difference in electrical charges between the inside and outside of a resting nerve membrane c. the movement of action potentials along a resting axon d. the movement of ions along the external surface of a resting membrane. 4. during an infection of the cns, you might expect to find an increase in: a.schwann cells b. microglia c. astrocytes d. oligodendrocytes e. ependymal cells. 5. bipolar neurons are located in the: a. olfactory mucosa b. retina of the eye c.

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multiple choice. choose the best answer. 22. the layer of connective tissue surrounding a nerve, is called the: a. epimysium b. apomysium c. endoneurium d. epineurium e. perimysium. 23. the central sulcus in the cerebrum, separates the ----- from the ----- lobe. a. temporal / occipital b. frontal / parietal c. parietal occipital d. temporal / frontal e. frontal/occipital. 24. bundles of axons or nerve fibers are known as tracts, except in the pns, where they are known as: a. ganglia b. interneurons c. nuclei d. nerves e. postsynaptic neurons. 25. the two principal divisions of the nervous system are the: a. afferent nervous system and the efferent nervous system b. autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system c. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems d. saltatory conduction and continuous conduction systems e. peripheral nervous system and central nervous system 26. destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smell? a. x; b. vii; c. v; d.ii; e. i. matching. (items a through e may be used more than once. only one letter per answer.) a. frontal lobes b. parietal lobes c. temporal lobes d. occipital lobes e. cerebellum. 27. broca's area that makes speech possible 28. reflex center for coordination of skeletal muscle movements 29. functions involve responses related to memory, emotions, reasoning, judgment, planning and verbal communication 30. area responsible for vision 31. location of sensory area responsible for hearing 32. controls muscular movements of the hands and fingers that make skills, such as writing possible (precentral gyrus) 33. the tracts of white matter have a distinctive branching matter called the arbor vitae 34. the two hemispheres of this structure are joined together by the vermis

35. contains the location for the sensations of touch, temperature, and pressure (postcentral gyrus) matching. innervation of the extrinsic ocular muscles. (note: items a through c may be used more than once.) a. trochlear b. oculomotor c. abducens 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. medial rectus muscle inferior rectus muscle superior oblique muscle inferior oblique muscle superior rectus muscle lateral rectus muscle

true or false true = a; false = b 42. all spinal nerves are mixed nerve. 43. the hormone oxytocin is produced by cells in the pineal gland 44. a multipolar neuron has several axons and one dendrite 45. the term aphasia refers to speech and language disorders 46. dopamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine are classified as catecholamines 47. the cerebral cortex is composed of gray matter 48. the endoneurium is composed of fine delicate nerve fibers 49. osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are responsible for monitoring the osmotic concentration of the blood 50. the pituitary gland is attached to the epithalamus by the infundibulum 51. in the spinal cord the columns of white matter are called fascicles 52. brain waves may be recorded as an electrocardiogram matching cranial nerves: (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. trigeminal b. glossopharyngeal c. facial d. accessory e. hypoglossal 53. muscles of the tongue 54. buccinator muscle 55. temporalis muscle 56. masseter muscle 57. ophthalmic region of the head 58. taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue 59. frontalis muscle 60. medial and lateral pterygoids 61. mandibular region of the head 62. trapezius muscle 63. sternocleidomastoid muscle 64. also known as number vii 65. also known as number ix 66.also known as number v multiple choice. choose the best answer. 67. the part of the brain responsible for the regulation of body temperature and hunger is the:

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a. superior colliculus b. parietal lobe c. epithalamus d. medulla oblongata e. hypothalamus 68. the region of the brain stem located between the midbrain and medulla oblongata is the: a. pons b. hypothalamus c. corpus callosum d. intermediate mass e. cerebral peduncles 69. which of the following statements about the spinal cord is true? a. it extends from the foramen magnum to the level of s1 b. it is located in the central canal c. both ascending and descending fiber tracts are present d. it consists of a central area of white matter, surrounded by gray matter e. two of the above 70. which one of the following structures allows csf to pass from the subarachnoid space to the dural sinus? a. inter-vertebral foramina b. choroid plexuses c. corpus callosum d. arachnoid villi e. spinal central canal. 71. which of the following is not a catecholamine? a. epinephrine b. acetylcholine c. norepinephrine c. corpus callosum d. dopamine match the spinal nerve with its appropriate plexus. (note: items a through d may be used more than once.) a. cervical plexus b. sacral plexus c. lumbar plexus d. brachial plexus. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. sciatic nerve phrenic nerve obturator nerve axillary nerve musculocutaneous tibial nerve femoral nerve

d. is a polysynaptic reflex e. two of the preceding. 81. the autonomic system: a. operates reflexly b. contains somatic motor fibers; c. contains ganglia d. all of the preceding; e. answers a and c. 82. the cell bodies of postganglionic autonomic fibers are located in: a. the lateral horn of the spinal cord b. the effector organ c. the ventral horn of the spinal cord d. the medulla oblongata e. ganglia. 83. what type of effector is not under autonomic regulation ? a. glands b. skeletal muscle c. cardiac muscles d. smooth muscles e. two of the preceding. 84. which of the following cranial nerves contains motor nerve fibers? a. abducens b. optic c. olfactory d. vestibulocochlear e. none of the preceding. 85. the cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are located in the: a. cervical and thoracic spinal cord b. brain and lumbar spinal cord c. thoracic and lumbar spinal cord d. brain and sacral spinal cord. 86. there are ------ segments in the spinal cord. a. 11 b. 2 c. 31 d. 41 e. 30. 87. repolarization of an axon during an action potential is produced by: a. inward diffusion of sodium ions b. extrusion of potassium from the cell by active transport c. outward diffusion of potassium ions d. inward diffusion of calcium ions e. none of the above 88. the hormone melatonin is produced by the: a. pituitary gland b. hypothalamus c. epithalamus d. medulla oblongata e. none of the preceding. 89. which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers? a. iii, v, iv, and vii b. vii, ix, viii, and x

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 79. which of the following is located in the pns? a. astrocytes b. ependyma c. oligodendrocytes d. schwann cells e. all of the preceding. 80. the crossed extensor reflex: a. involves five neurons b. has its reflex center in the frontal lobes c. is a contralateral reflex

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c. iii, vii, ix, and x d. vii, v, viii, and x. matching: spinal nerve and muscles. (note items a through d may be used more than once.) a. obturator nerve b. femoral nerve c. axillary nerve d. radial nerve. 90. triceps brachii 91. gacilis question# 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 answer e e b b d c d a a d b c e e b d e c a d e d b d e question# 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 answer e a e a d c a e e b b b a b b c a b b a a a b a b

92. psoas major 93. sartorius 94. deltoid 95. biceps femoris 96. vastus lateralis. 97. adductor longus 98. semitendinosus 99. rectus femoris 100. fill in the a circle

question# 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

answer b b e c a a a c c a a d d c b a e a c d b b a c d

question # 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

answer d b c d e e e b a d c c e c d a b b c e b a e b a

multiple choice: choose the best answer. 1. the transmission of sound waves through the tympanic cavity of the middle ear occurs through: a. air b. nerve fibers c. bone d. fluid e. jelly-like vitreous humor 2. the two sac-like structures of the inner ear called the utricle and saccule: a. contain a fluid called perilymph b. are part of the membranous labyrinth within the vestibule c. form the connection between the semicircular canals and the vestibule d. function as part of the auditory system e. answers a and c. 3. which of the following is not one of the auditory ossicles? a. malleus b. incus c. stapedius

4. middle ear infection may follow a throat infection because: a. the auditory (eustachian) tube opens into the base of the inner ear b. the pharyngeal (throat) mucosa is continuous with the mucosa of the middle ear c. the sphenoid sinus opens into the tympanic cavity of the middle ear d. the vestibulocochlear nerve passes through the tympanic cavity e. answers a and d. 5. the waxy material in the external auditory canal (meatus) is the product of a. endolymphatic sacs b. tarsal glands c. lacrimal glands d. ceruminous glands e. none of the preceding. 6. the auricle or pinna of the outer ear contains:

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a. fibroelastic cartilage b. elastic cartilage c. hyaline cartilage d. osseous tissue e. hemopoietic tissue. 7. in the physiology of hearing, which action is it that generates an action potential that causes release of a neurotransmitter substance? a. movement of cells in the basilar membrane against the spiral organ (=organ of corti) b. pressure waves on cells of the vestibular membrane c. movement of the spiral organ hair cells against the rectorial membrane d. movement of the membrane covering the round window 8. otoliths (crystals of caco3) are located in the: a. utricle b. semicircular ducts c. saccule d. answers a and c. match the type of fluid (endolymph or perilymph) that is found within the cavities or spaces of the appropriate structures. (notes: items a and b may be used more than once.) a. perilymph b. endolymph 9. scala vestibuli. 10. cochlear duct. 11. semicircular ducts. 12. utricle. 13. scala tympani. 14. vestibule. 15. semicircular canals. 16. saccule. matching: inner ear (note: items a and b may be used more than once.) a. membranous labyrinth b. bony or osseous labyrinth. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. semicircular ducts. utricle. cochlea. vestibule. saccule. semicircular canals. cochlear duct.

in response to light in the: a. nasal (medial) retina of the left eye b. nasal (medial) retina of the right eye c. the temporal (lateral) retina of the left eye d. answers a and c e. answers b and c. 26. which of the following is not part of the vascular layer or uvea? a. cornea b. choroid c. ciliary body d. iris e. answers c and d. 27. during embryonic development, the lens of the eye forms: a. from the rim or distal portion of the retina b. as part of the fibrous tunic, specifically the sclera c. from a condensation of aqueous humor d. from the lateral wall of the diencephalon e. none of the above. 28. obstruction of the scleral venous sinus (=canal of schlemm) interferes with the: a. drainage of vitreous humor b. drainage of tears into the lacrimal sac c. drainage of the tarsal glands d. drainage of aqueous humor e. flow of blood through the ciliary body capillaries. 29. which of the following cannot be seen as one looks into the eye through an ophthalmoscope? a. macula lutea b. optic chiasma c. fovea centralis d. optic disc. 30. a person with an abnormally short eyeball (anterior to posterior) would be ----- and would wear ----- lenses to correct their vision. a. nearsighted / concave b. farsighted concave c. nearsighted / convex d. farsighted convex. 31. the perception of color comes from all the following except: a. red cones b. yellow cones c. green cones d. blue cones e. answers a and d. 32. the visible outer white surface of the eye is covered by a distinctive epithelium continuous with the inner lining of the eyelids. this epithelium is called the: a. palpebrae

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 24. aqueous humor: a. provides nutrients for the retina b. is produced from capillaries in the iris c. can cause cataracts if overproduced d. is present in the anterior and posterior chambers e. all of the above. 25. a lesion that destroyed the left optic tract of a boy affected his eye by eliminating action potentials (=impulses) that would normally have been generated

11


b. fornix c. coneal epithelium d. conjunctiva e. none of the preceding. 33. what structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? a. cornea b. pupil c. lens d. ciliary body e. iris. 34. vision is most acute when light rays are brought to focus on the: a. fovea centralis b. the outermost layer of the retina c. optic disc d. cells in the occipital lobes of the brain e. none of the preceding. 35. night blindness can be treated with: a. vitamin c b. vitamin d c. vitamin k d. none of the preceding. 36. loss of the sense of taste on the posterior 1/3 of the tongue might be due to injury to: a. cranial nerve vii b. cranial nerve iii c. cranial nerve ix d. cranial nerve v. matching: sense organs (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a. gustatory cells b. macula lutea c. crista ampullaris d. macula e. spiral organ (organ of corti). 37. a group of hair cells associated with taste. 38. the gelatinous membrane associated with this group of hair cells contains crystals of calcium carbonate. 39. a group of hair cells located in the saccule. 40. a group of hair cells associated with a cupola. 41. the sense organ of static equilibrium. 42. a group of hair cells located in the utricle. 43. hair cells located on the vallate and fungiform papillae. 44. a group of hair cells associated with the rectorial membrane. 45. the sense organ of dynamic (angular) equilibrium. 46. a group of hair cells located in the cochlea duct. 47. the sense organ of hearing. 48. a yellowish group of cells surrounding the fovea centralism 49. a group of hair cells. located in the ampulla. matching: cranial nerves and muscles associated with sense organs. (note: items a through e may be used more than once.)

a. oculomotor b. facial c. trigeminal d. abducens e. trochlear 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. superior oblique superior rectus. orbicularis oculi. medial rectus. levator palpebrae superioris. lateral rectus. inferior oblique. inferior rectus. tensor tympani.

true or false: true = a; false = b 59. the function of the lens is to bend or refract light rays and focus them on the optic disc. 60. tears contain a bactericidal enzyme called lysosome. 61. the conjunctiva is a serous membrane. 62. the sensation of pressure is associated with pacinian or lamellated corpuscles. 63. damage to the median rectus eyeball muscles would probably affect convergence of the eyeballs. matching: retinal cells. (note: letters may be used more than once, but only one letter per space.) a.ganglion cells b.bipolar cells c.both a and b d.neither a nor b. 64. contact the vitreous humor. 65. contain the purple pigment known as rhodopsin. 66. modified forebrain cells. 67. axons of these cells form the optic nerve. 68. contact the choroid layer. 69. cells contain melanin. 70. cells are multipolar neurons. 71. these cells synapse with ganglion cells. 72. these cells provide daylight vision. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 73. receptors that respond quickly to a stimulus but then adapt (sensory adaptation) and decrease their firing rate are called: a. phasic receptors b. sensory receptors c. somatic receptors d. proprioceptors e. tonic receptors. 74. which describes the effect of the sympathetic system on the eye pupil and the muscles involved in the action? a. dilates / circular muscles b. constricts circular muscles c. dilates / radial muscles d. constricts radial muscles. 75. how many different modalities are associated with olfaction? a. one b. two c . three d. four e. hundreds

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or even thousands. 76. the bone that contains the osseous labyrinth is the: a. temporal bone b. occipital bone c. ethmoid cribriform plate d. lacrimal bone e. none of the preceding. 77. during embryonic development the tympanic cavity develops from the: a. 2nd pharyngeal pouch b. optic vesicle c. 1st bronchial groove d. wall of the diencephalon e. 1st pharyngeal pouch. 78. the position of joints and the state of muscular contraction is monitored by: a. nocireceptors b. baroreceptors c. thermoreceptors d. chemoreceptors e. proprioceptors. matching. items a through e may be used more than once. a. presbyopia b. cataract c. glaucoma d. myopia e. hyperopia. 79. clouding of the lens. 80. elongation of the eyeball. 81. loss of elasticity of the lens with aging. 82. compression of, and loss of fibers in the optic nerve. 83. associated with an increase in intraocular pressure. 84. eyeball is too short. 85. the lens tends to lose its ability to accommodate. 86. often referred to as nearsightedness. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 87. the organs of taste are called: a. papillae b. taste pores c. taste hairs d. taste buds e. none of the preceding. 88. a cut on the finger would activate 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 b c b d b c d a b b b a a a b 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 e d b d b d e a d c a d d c d

which receptors? a.baroreceptors b. nociceptors c. ruffini corpuscles d. chemoreceptors e. none of the preceding. 89. receptors for general senses provide information for all the following except: a. temperature b. pain c. touch d. sight e. two of the preceding. 90. receptors for light touch are called and they are located in the a. meissner's corpuscles epidermis b. bulbs of krause / dermis c. pacinian corpuscles epidermis d. meissner's corpuscles / dermis e. ruffini corpuscles / hypodermis. 91. the oval window is located at the base of the: a. scala vestibule b. auditory tube c. cochlear duct d. scala tympani e. external auditory canal true and false: true = a; false= b. 92. another name for the vestibular membrane is eardrum. 93. another name for the optic chiasma is the blind spot. 94. a person can see better during the day than at night because there are more cones within the retina than rods. 95. the visual image is inverted on the retina. 96. the nasolacrimal ducts empty into the lacrimal sacs. 97. the ear ossicles constitute the bony labyrinth. 98. bending of light rays is called refraction. 99. the stapes transmits vibrations to the oval window. 100. fill in the e circle! question# 1 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 answer c b a a d a a c b b b a a a d c question# 26 77 78 79 b 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 d 88 89 90 91 answer a e e d a c c e a d b d d a question# 51

a

13


17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

a a b b a b a d e

42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

d a e c e e b c e

67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

a d d a b d a c e

92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

b b b a b b a a e

multiple choice. choose the best answer. i. the hormone primarily responsible for setting the basal metabolic rate and for promoting the maturation of the brain is: a. cortisol b. acth c. tsh d. thyroxine e. none of the preceding. 2. many nonsteroid hormones act upon their target cells by causing: a. cyclic amp to become atp b. the inactivation of adenylate cyclase c. cyclic amp to become protein kineses d. the activation of adenylate cyclase e. both a and d apply. 3. which of the following would result from a thyroidectomy (removal of the thyroid gland)? a. decreased tsh secretion b. increased t3 and thyroxine secretion c. increased calcitonin secretion d. increased tsh secretion e. both b and c apply. 4. steroid hormones are secreted by: a. the adrenal cortex b. the gonads c. the thyroid d. both a and b e. both b and c. 5. the secretion of which hormone would be increased in a person with endemic goiter? a. tsh. b. thyroxine c. triiodothyronine; d. all of the preceding apply 6. which of the following hormone pairs is not produced by the same endocrine gland? a. lh/fsh b. acth/adh c. prolactin/gh d. crh/pih. e. all of the preceding are correctly paired. 7. oxytocin: a. allows milk secretion or "milk let-down" b. is stored in the pars nervosa (posterior pituitary) c. is produced by cells in the diencephalon (hypothalamus) d. exerts important effects during childbirth

e. all of the above. matching.( items a through e may be used more than once.) a. hypothalamus b. hypophysis c. adrenal d. thyroid e. parathyroid. 8. located in the sella turcica of the spheroid bone 9. contains groups of cell bodies called nuclei 10. located on the superior border of each kidney 11. contains two structures: adeno- and neurohypophysis 12. located on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland 13. contains an outer cortical region and an inner medullary region 14. located inferior to the larynx 15. contains chromaffin cells which produce catecholamines 16. produces releasing and inhibiting hormones 17. produces calcitonin 18. contains oxyphil and chief cells 19. it secretes some androgens 20. contains chromophil and chromophobe cells. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 21. a tumor of the beta cells of the pancreatic islets would probably affect the body's ability to: a. lower blood glucose level b. lower blood calcium level c. raise blood calcium level d. raise blood glucose level e. raise blood sodium level. 22. removal of the adenohypophysis would affect all except: a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. ovaries d. mammary glands e. thyroid gland. 23. which hormone stimulated the production of erythrocytes in myeloid tissues? a. gh b. progesterone c. icsh d. adh e. none of the preceding.

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matching. a. cushing's syndrome b. cretinism c. myxedema d. endemic goiter e. addison's disease 24. hyposecretion of thyroxine in adult 25. hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids 26. hypersecretion of glucocorticoids 27. lack of iodine 28. hyposecretion of thyroxine during childhood. multiple choice: choose the best answer. 29. which of the following is an agranular leukocyte? a. eosinophil b. neutrophil c. basophil d. monocyte e. both b and d 30. stem cells that give rise to all formed elements of blood are called: a. megakaryoblasts b. erythroblasts c. reticulocytes d.hemocytoblasts e. megakaryocytes. 31. hemostasis involves: a. platelet plug formation b. vasodilation c. conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen d. all of the preceding 32. antibodies against both type-a and type-b antigens are found in the plasma of a person who is: a. type a b. type b c. type ab d. type o. 33. which is the most abundant plasma protein? a. gamma globulin b. alpha globulin c. albumin d. beta globulin. 34. which of the following blood proteins is not produced in the liver? a. gamma globulin b. alpha globulin c. albumin d. beta globulin e. fibrinogen 35. the proteins that attack foreign proteins and pathogens are called: a. alpha globulins b. albumins c. beta globulins d. fibrinogens e. none of the preceding. matching: (items a through e may be used more than once.) a. neutrophils b. monocytes c. eosinophils d. platelets e. basophils 36. produced from megakaryoblasts. 37. phagocytose antigen-antibody

complexes. 38. able to kill certain larval parasitic worms. 39. largest leukocyte. 40. a cell fragment. 41. leave blood vessels and transform into macrophages. 42. nonnucleated structures. 43. least abundant leukocyte 44. contain adp and thromboplastin a2. 45. granules have an affinity for acidic stains 46. some of the contained granules contain heparin 47. granules have an affinity for basic stains 48. also called thrombocytes multiple choice: choose the best answer. 49. blood plasma ph is maintained at: a. (7.0 to 7.3) b. (7.2 to 7.4) c. (7.35 to 7.45) d. (7.4 to 7.55) e. (5.0 to 5.5) 50. which of the following is removed from plasma to form serum? a. albumin b. water c. fibrinogen d. globulin e. vitamins 51. which of the following substances can be added to a test tube to prevent blood from clotting a. citrate b. edta c. heparin d. all of the preceding e. both a and c. 52. which enzyme begins digesting the fibrin strands and eroding the foundation of the blood clot? a. plasmin b. thrombin c. prothrombin d. thromboplastin e. none of the preceding. matching: location of structures. (items a through c may be used more than once.) a. atrium b. aorta c. ventricle 53. chordae tendineae 54. coronary arteries arise from this structure 55. papillary muscles 56. sinoatrial node 57. purkinje fibers 58. semilunar valves 59. auricle. true or false: true=a false=b. 60. the av node is commonly called the pacemaker. 61. a vessel that carries blood to the heart is always called a vein. 62. the heart lies anterior to the sternum and posterior to the vertebral column 63. another name for the tricuspid valve is

15


right atrioventricular valve. 64. destruction of bone marrow by chemicals or x rays is known as aplastic anemia. 65. myeloid tissues include the tonsils, thymus, and lymph nodes 66. glycogenolysis refers to the conversion of glycogen to glucose 67. the aortic valvular auscultatory area is located over the left 2nd intercostal space 68. the average adult has about 8 liters of blood 69. cardiac muscle fibers are striated, involuntary, multinucleated cells 71. the systemic circulation consists of blood vessels that transport blood to the lungs for gaseous exchange and then back to the heart. multiple choice: choose the best answer. 72. blood is carried to the walls of the right atrium and right ventricle by the artery. a. marginal b. posterior interventricular c. circumflex d. anterior interventricular e. carotid. 73. the amount of oxygen is greatest in the blood found in the: a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. coronary sinus d. ieft atrium e. superior vena cave. 74. which of the following is not part of the cardiac conducting system? a. av node b. av sulcus c. sa node d. av bundle e. purkinje fibers. 75. which of the following does not open into, or out of, the left atrium? a. superior vena cave b. coronary sinus c. inferior vena cave d. all of the preceding. 76. by far the greatest bulk of the heart wall consists of: a. epicardium b. myomysium c. endomysium d. myocardium e.epimysium. 77. the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles play an important roll in the normal function of the: 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 d d d a b e b a c b 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 d b d d a d c a e d

a. av node b. av sulcus c. av bundle d. av valves e. av auricle matching. a. t wave b. 2nd hears sound (dub) c. qrs wave d. p wave e. 1st heart sound (lub). 78. atrial depolarization 79. closure of pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves at the onset of ventricular diastole. 80. ventricular depolarization 81. closure of the av valves at the onset of ventricular systole 82. ventricular depolarization. true or false. true=a; false=b. 83. isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by the closure of both av and semilunar valves 84. the cardiac electrical conduction system is made up of specialized cardiac muscle fibers 85. diabetes insipidus is associated with hypersecretion of adh 86. the pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart 87. the surface of the heart contains sulci 88. an ecg is also known as an ekg. matching: (items a through d may be used more than once.) a. left atrium b. left ventricle c. both a and b d. neither a nor b. 89. walls are composed of three layers 90. presence of chordae tendineae 91. contains papillary muscles 92. receives blood from the inferior vena cave 93. walls contain cardiac muscle fibers 94. purkinje fibers are present in the walls 95. contains osseous tissue 96. receives blood from the superior vena cave 97. walls contain the thickest myocardium 98. receives blood from the coronary sinus 99. has a pouch-like extension called an auricle 100. fill in the e circle! question# 1 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 answer d a c b c a c b a b a question# 26 77 78 79 b 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 answer a d d c e a a a b b question# 51

a

16


12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

e c d c a d e c b a b e c e

37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

c c b d b d e d c e e d c c

62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

b a a b a b b a b b a d b d

87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

a a c b b d c b d d b d a e

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 1. endothelium is a: a. simple columnar epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. transitional epithelium d. simple squamous epithelium e. none of the preceding. 2. a thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the aortic arch would affect the flow of blood to a. left side of the head and neck b. myocardium of the heart c. left shoulder and arm d. superior surface of the diaphragm e. right side of the head, neck, right shoulder and right arm. 3. fenestrated capillaries are found in: a. renal glomeruli (kidney) b. intestinal villi c. endocrine glands d. all of the preceding e. none of the preceding. 4. all arteries in the body carry oxygen-rich blood with the exception of: a. the hepatic arteries b. the pulmonary arteries b. the pulmonary arteries c. the renal arteries d. the coronary arteries. 5. in the fetus, partially oxygenated blood is shunted from the through the foremen ovale. a. left atrium to right atrium b. right atrium to right ventricle c. right ventricle to left ventricle d. right atrium to left atrium e. left atrium to left ventricle. 6. the "lub" or first heart sound, is produced by closing of:

a. the aortic semilunar valve b. the pulmonary semilunar valve c. the tricuspid valve d. the bicuspid valve e. both atrioventricular valves. 7. the qrs wave of an ekg (=ecg) is produced by: a. depolarization of the atria b. repolarization of the atria c. depolarization of the ventricles d. repolarization of the ventricles e. answers a and c. 8. cardiac output is: a. (cr + sv) b. (sv-cr) c. (cr x sv) d. (sp x sv) e. (sp - dp) matching: (items a through e may be used more than once.) a. great saphenous vein b. cephalic vein c. basilic vein d. brachial vein e. subclavian vein. 9. drains the lateral side of the arm 10. receives blood from the vertebral vein 11. receives lymphatic fluid. 12. deep vein in the brachium 13. drains the medial aspect of the leg and thigh 14. received blood from the external jugular vein 15. drains the medial aspect of the arm 16. receives blood from the medial cubital vein 17. longest vein in the body 18. joins the internal jugular vein to form the brachiocephalic vein 19. receives blood from the ulnar and radial veins 20. drains into the femoral vein 21. receives blood from the axillary vein multiple choice. choose the best answer. 22. during the phase of isovolumetric contraction of the ventricles, the pressure in the ventricles is:

17


a. rising b. falling c.constant d.none of the preceding. 23. which of the following fetal structures contains the most oxygen-rich blood? a. left atrium b. umbilical arteries c. foramen ovale d. umbilical vein e. right atrium. 24. stimulated sympathetic nerve endings in the musculature of the atria and ventricles will cause: a. an increase in the rate of heart contraction b. an increase in the time spent in systole when the cardiac rate is high c. a decrease in the rate of heart contraction d. answers b and c. 25.stroke volume strength is regulated by: a. edv b. ventricular contraction strength c. mean arterial pressure d. all of the preceding 26.which of the following structures does not drain directly into the inferior vena cave? a. hepatic veins b. renal veins c.inferior mesenteric vein d. common iliac veins e. right gonadal vein. matching. (items a through d may be used more than once). a. arteries b. veins c. both a & b d. neither a nor b. 27. generally have a more collapsed appearance in tissue sections 28. classified by size 29. may contain circular skeletal muscle in the tunica media 30. lumen is lined with a simple columnar epithelium 31. always carry blood away from the heart 32. may carry blood with a high oxygen content 33. may possess fenestrations in their walls 34. large vessels may contain a vase vasorum multiple choice. choose the best answer. 35. a positive chronotropic effect on the heart will cause: a. an increase in strength of contractility b. a decrease in cardiac rate c. an increase in cardiac rate d. a decrease in strength of contractility e. none of the above are chronotropic effects.

36. edema may result from: a. low arterial pressure b. leakage of blood proteins into the interstitial fluid c. increased plasma protein concentration in the blood d. all of the above. 37. the secretion of adh occurs as neurons in the hypothalamus respond to an: a. increase in blood pressure b. increase in osmotic pressure c. increase in hydrogen ion concentration d. all of the above. 38. which of the following is not directly associated with extrinsic regulation of blood flow? a. adh b.norepinephrine c. angiotensin ii d. adenosine e. answers a and c. 39. the sounds of korotkoff are produced by: a. closing of the semilunar valves b. closing of the av valves c. turbulent flow of blood through an artery d. elastic recoil of the aorta e. none of the preceding. 40. lysosomes are common in: a. tears b. sweat c. saliva d. answers a, b, and c e. phagocytes. true or false: true=a; false=b 41. the carotid body contains baroreceptors which monitor blood pressure. 42. mean arterial pressure is systolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure. 43. a heart rate greater than 100 beats/minute is termed tachycardia 44. arterioles in skeletal muscle receive cholinergic sympathetic fibers which release ach. 45. the umbilical arteries in the fetus arise from the abdominal aorta. 46. extrinsic regulation of blood flow refers to control by the ans and the endocrine system. 47. vasopressin has a vasodilator effect at high concentrations. 48. active hyperemia occurs as a result of increased metabolism. 49. the vasomotor control center is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. 50. the walls of lymphatic capillaries are less permeable than are the walls of blood capillaries. matching: (items a through e may be used

18


more than once.) a. celiac artery b. inferior mesenteric artery c. axillary artery d. superior mesenteric artery e. aorta. 51. empties into the brachial artery. 52. supplies the small intestine and the ascending colon. 53. traverses or runs through the armpit region. 54. first major, unpaired branch off the abdominal aorta. 55. largest artery in the body. 56. second unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta. 57. supplies the descending colon of the large intestine multiple choice. choose the best answer. 58. when blood flow and pressure are reduced in the renal artery, a group of cells called the -----secretes the enzyme----- into the blood. a. juxtaglomerular apparatus / angiotensin i b. osmoreceptors / renin c. carotid sinus / angiotensinogen d. juxtaglomerular apparatus / renin e. suprarenal body / angiotensin ii 59. localized chemical conditions that promote vasodilation include: a. decreased oxygen concentration b. increased carbon dioxide concentration c. decreased tissue ph d. increased potassium concentration e. all of the preceding 60. lymph in the thoracic duct: a. could have originated from the right leg b. will enter the right subclavian vein c. both of the preceding d. none of the preceding 61. which class of antibodies is abundant in body secretions? a. igm b. iga c. igg d. ige e. igd. matching: (items a through d may be used more than once.) a. delayed hypersensitivity b. immediate hypersensitivity c. both a and b d. neither a nor b 62. 63. 64. ivy 65. 66. b lymphocytes are involved. ige antibodies are involved. contact dermatitis, such as to poison occurs within a period of 1 to 3 days fibroblasts involved

67. t lymphocytes are involved 68. therapy - corticosteroids, such as cortisone 69. allergic reactions, hay fever and asthma 70. therapy - antihistamines and adrenergic drugs 71. an example of passive immunity 72. the antigens are called allergens. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 73. in response to endotoxins released by certain bacteria, leukocytes may release: a. antibodies b. interferon c. antigens d. haptens e. endogenous pyrogens. 74. lymphoid organs include: a. spleen b. adrenal gland c. thyroid gland d. pancreas e. all of the preceding. 75. mast cell secretion during an immediate hypersensitivity reaction is stimulated when antigens combine with antibodies. a. igg b. ige c. igm d. iga e. none of the preceding. 76. active immunity may be produced by: a. contracting a disease b. receiving a vaccine c. receiving gamma globulin injection d. both a and b e. both b and c. 77. which of the following structures is not associated with a lymph node? a. germinal center b. hilus (=hilum) c. capsule d. canaliculi e. afferent lymphatic vessels 78. b- lymphocytes combat bacterial and viral infections by secreting antibodies into the blood and lymph, providing what type of immunity? a. humoral b. nonspecific c. antigenic d. cell-mediated e. none of the preceding. match the cell type with its secretion. a. killer t cells b. mast ceils c. plasma cells d. macrophages 79. 80. 81. 82. antibodies perforins lysosomal enzymes histamine.

multiple choice: select the best answer. 83. antibody molecules are composed of ----- chains and ----- light chains

19


a. one /one b. one/two c. two / one d. two / two e. two / three. 84. a transplant between individuals belonging to different species is called a(n): a. homograft b. xenograft c. isograft d. autograft 85. a new-boom infant who receives iga from its mother's milk develops: a. naturally acquired active immunity b. artificially acquired active immunity c. naturally acquired passive immunity d. artificially acquired passive immunity. 86. which of the following is not true of the spleen? a. it consists of red and white pulp b. afferent lymphatic vessels enter on the convex side c. it destroys old, and fragile red blood cells d. located in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavil 87. antibodies belong to a group of proteins called: a. albumins b. complement c. interferons d. alpha globulins e. none of the preceding. 88. helper and suppressor t lymphocytes: a. attack invaders directly 2 e 3 d 4 b 5 d 6 e 7 c 8 c 9 b 10 e 11 e 12 d 13 a 14 e 15 c 16 c 17 a 18 e 19 d 20 a 21 e 22 a 23 d 24 a 25 d

b. help regulate the specific immune system c. activate thymosin d. may specialize into memory and plasma cells, respective! 89. examples of immediate hypersensitivity are: a. conjunctivitus b. allergic rhinitis c. allergic asthma d. atopic dermatitis e. all of the preceding true or false: true=a false=b 90. the graft least likely to be successful is the isograft 91. large lymphatic nodes located in the wall of the ileum are called peyer's patches 92. the tonsillar ring consists of the lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils 93. the thymus gland gradually enlarges after puberty 94. poison ivy and poison oak can cause contact dermatitis 95. oncology is the study of allergies 96. in an autoimmune disease, the immune system fails to recognize and tolerate selfantigens 97. in the study of allergies, antibodies are often called allergens 98. interferons are polypeptides 99. macrophages in the connective tissues are derived from neutrophils 100. fill in the "b" circle question# 1 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 answer d d c a e d b d e a b b b a a d a a b b d c e a b question# 26 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 answer c d a c a d b d b c b e b e b b a b a b a b a b b question# 51

a

27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

b c d d a c d c c b b d c e b b a a b a b a b b

multiple choice. choose the best answer.

1. chemical digestion of food involves:

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a. condensation reactions in the small intestine b. enzymatic conversion of monosaccharides to polysaccharides in the small intestine c. hydrolysis reactions in the large intestine (colon) d. hydrolysis reactions in the small intestine e. two of the above. 2. human dentition can be defined as being: a. heterodont b. homodont c. diphyodont d. monophyodont e. two of the preceding. 3. the gall bladder: a. produces bile b. is attached to the pancreas c. stores bile d. produces gastrin e. two of the preceding. 4. the esophageal hiatus is the: a. opening between the esophagus and the pharynx b. junction between the esophagus and stomach c. region where the esophagus joins the larynx d. site where the esophagus passes through the diaphram e. location where skeletal and smooth muscles merge. 5. a patient who has undergone gastrectomy (=removal of the stomach) may suffer from: a. cirrhosis of the liver b. pernicious anemia c. duodenal ulcer d. salmonella e. inability to digest fats. 6. the organs of taste are called: a. papillae b. taste pores c. hair cells d. taste buds e. none of the preceding. 7. blood is drained from the liver by the: a. hepatic artery and hepatic vein b. efferent lymphatic vessels c. hepatic portal vein and hepatic veins d. hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein e. hepatic veins. 8. the conversion of amino acids to glucose is an example of: a. glycogenolysis b. beta oxidation c. gluconeogenesis d. glycogenesis e. glycolysis. matching: select the one correct answer: (items a through e may be used more than once.) a. large intestine b. pancreas c. stomach d. small intestine e. esophagus.

9. villi are present in this structure 10. enterokinase is secreted by cells in this structure 11. peyer's patches are present in the wall 12. rugae may be present on the luminal surface 13. sucrase, lactase and maltase are produced by cells in this structure 14. haustra are typical features of this structure 15. opens into the laryngopharynx 16. pepsinogen is produced by cells in this structure 17. contains the islets of langerhans 18. the cardia and fundus are regions of this structure 19. parietal and chief cells are present in the walls 20. the jejunum is part of this structure 21. aminopeptidase is produced by cells in this structure 22. lipase is produced by cells in this structure 23. ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease are produced in this structure 24. taeniae coli are present in this structure 25. contains skeletal (striated) and visceral (smooth ) muscle in the wall. multiple choice. select the best answer. 26. which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. synthesis of blood proteins b. secretion of digestive enzyme c. detoxification of certain substances d. production of urea e. gluconeogenesis. 27. the dentin in the crown of a tooth is coved by: a. cementum b. periodontal membrane c. connective tissue fibers in the pulp d. enamel e. odontoblasts. 28. pancreatic cells: a. produce glucagon b. secrete mucus into the duodenum c. are located in the mediastinum d. secrete insulin into the pancreatic e. two of the above 29. the cecum is a region of the: a. stomach b. duodenum c. large intestine d. rectum e. pharynx. match the food category with the appropriate enzyme. (items a through d may be used more than once.) a. carbohydrate digestion b. protein digestion c. iipid digestion d. nucleic acid digestion. 30. amylase

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31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

trypsin aminopeptidase lipase ribonuclease pepsin. maltase chymotrypsin lactase sucrase deoxyribonuclease.

49. hypothyroidism during prenatal development and the first two years after birth may result in a. goiter b. cretinism c. albinism d. myxydema e. all of the preceding. 50. if an incision had to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, which tunic (or layer) would be cut first? a. mucosa b. submucosa c. muscularis d. serosa. 51. the kidneys and most of the pancreas are considered to be: a. antiperitoneal b. retroperitoneal c. medioperitoneal d. mesoperitoneal e. paraperitoneal. true or false: true = a, false = b 52. the optimal ph for pepsin is about 2.0 53. the muscularis mucosae is composed of smooth muscle fibers 54. the facial cranial nerve innervates the posterior one-third of the tongue 55. another term for canine teeth is bicuspid teeth 56. the gi tract is innervated by the ans 57. each small intestinal microvillus contains a iymphatic vessel called a lacteal 58. another term for swallowing is deglutition. matching. what type of epithelium forms the luminal lining of the following structures? (note: items a through e may be used more than once.) a simple squamous epithelium b. stratified, keratinized squamous epithelium c. simple columnar epithelium d. stratified, nonkeratinized squamous epithelium e. pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. esophagus stomach small intestine nasal vestibule nasal cavity trachea respiratory alveoli.

multiple choice. select the best answer. 41. which of the following is not a fatsoluable vitamin? a. (vitamin a) b. (vitamin e) c. (vitamin d) d. (vitamin c) e. (vitamin k) 42. during stress such as fasting or strenuous exercise, the anterior pituitary releases: a. (acth) b. (oxytocin) c. (fsh) d. (adh) e. (lh) 43. which of the following hormones can produce hyperglycemia? a. pth b. growth hormone c. adh d. prolactin e. tsh. 44. calcitonin inhibits: a. osteoclast activity b. thyroid activity c. mammary gland activity d. pancreatic activity e. osteoblast activity. 45. the metabolic effects of epinephrine are similar to those of: a. glucose b. insulin c. aldosterone d. calcitonin e. glucagon. 46. parathyroid hormone (pth) is released in response to: a. low levels of plasma calcium b. low levels of plasma sodium c. high levels of plasma sodium d. high levels of plasma calcium e. none of the preceding. 47. vitamin d is converted into a hormone that participates in the regulation of: a. sodium balance b. calcium balance c. chloride balance d. water balance e. answers a and c. 48. glucocorticoids are secreted from cells in the: a. pancreas b. iiver c. adrenal medulla d. placenta e. none of the preceding.

multiple choice. select the best answer. 66. after passing through the nasal cavity during inspiration, air will pass through the: a. oropharynx b. nasopharynx c. iaynx d. trachea e. laryugopharynx 67. most inspired particles of dust fail to

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reach the lungs because of the: a. mucous lining in the nasal cavity and trachea b. abundant blood supply to the nasal mucosa c. action of the epiglottis d. porous structure of the ethmoid bone e. all of the above. 68. which of the following is not a structural feature of the right lung? a. superior lobe b. hilum c. cardiac notch d. inferior lobe e. middle lobe. 69. of the following structures, the smallest in diameter would be the: a. left primary bronchus b. trachea c. right primary bronchus d. secondary bronchus e. bronchiole. 70. "the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume" is a statement of: a. dalton's law b. henry's law c. starlings's law d. boyle's law e. the law of laplace. 71. which of the following bones does not contain a paranasal sinus? a. nasal b. maxilla c. spheroid d. frontal e. ethmoid 72. the adult lungs are: a. covered with a tough membrane called the parietal pleura b. spongy, air-filled sacs, located inferior to the diaphragm c. covered with a thin mucous membrane d. covered with a serous membrane called the visceral pleura e. iobulated, the right lung has 2 lobes, and the left lung has 3 lobes 73. the detergent-like molecule that keeps the alveoli from collapsing between breaths because it reduces the surface tension of the fluid film in the alveoli is called: a. lecithin b. reluctant c. surfactant d. bile e. none of the preceding. 74. the term respiration refers to: a. ventilation (=breathing) b. gas exchange within the lungs c. oxygen utilization within the cells d. all of the preceding e. answers a and b only. matching. (items a through e may be used more than once.) a. laryngopharynx b. oropharynx c. trachea d. larynx e. nasopharynx

75. composed of a framework involving 9 cartilages 76. this region contains the palatine tonsils 77. paired auditory (eustachian) tubes open into this area 78. the wall contains 16 to 20 c-shaped cartilaginous rings. 79. pharyngeal tonsils located in this region 80. the lowermost portion of the pharynx 81. this region opens into the esophagus 82. the opening of this structure is called the glottis 83. this structure contains a cricoid cartilage 84. this structure contains the thyroid cartilage 85. this region contains the lingual tonsils. multiple choice. select the best answer. 86. the muscles involved in deep or forced inspiration are the: a. diaphragm and external intercostals b. diaphragm and abdominal muscles c. scalenes and sternocleidomastoids d. trapezius and semispinalis capitis e. answers a and d. 87. a patient exhales normally, then, using forced ventilation, the patient blows as much air as possible into a spirometer. this would measure the: a. inspiratory reserve volume b. vital capacity c. tidal volume d. expiratory reserve volume e. cell respiration. 88. which of the following is not part of the conducting division of the bronchial tree? a. trachea b. terminal bronchiole c. primary bronchus d. secondary bronchus e. alveolar duet. 89. oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the alveoli by: a. filtration b. osmosis c. diffusion d. active transport e. two of the preceding. 90. the trachea is located to the larynx . a. superior b. medial c. inferior d. lateral e. none of the preceding. 91. the epithelium lining the lumen of conducting bronchioles is: a. simple cuboidal b. simple squamous c. stratified squamous d. transitional e. none of the preceding true or false: true = a, false = b 92. forced expiration is a passive process

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93. elasticity of the lungs refers to their tendency to recoil after distension 94. intrapulmonary pressure is subatmospheric during inspiration 95. surfactant is produced by type i alveolar cells 96. tracheal rings are composed of hyaline cartilage 97. surfactant is produced afterbirth 2 e 27 a 3 b 28 e 4 b 29 a 5 d 30 d 6 c 31 c 7 d 32 a 8 a 33 e 9 a 34 e 10 d 35 b 11 b 36 b 12 c 37 b 13 e 38 a 14 e 39 b 15 b 40 b 16 d 41 c 17 e 42 a 18 c 43 b 19 a 44 b 20 d 45 a 21 e 46 a 22 d 47 a 23 b 48 b 24 d 49 a 25 e 50 b multiple choice. choose the best answer. 1. most reabsorption of substances from the glomerular filtrate occurs in the: a. glomerulus b. collecting tubule c. proximal convoluted tubule d. ureter e. distal convoluted tubule. 2. under normal circumstances, the kidneys produce about ----- liters of glomerular filtrate per day. a. 1,000 b. 180 c. 110 d. 7.5 e. 1 to 2. 3. as the renal artery approaches the kidney, it branches to supply the renal glomeruli. place the following in the correct sequence starting from the renal artery. 1. arcuate artery 2. interlobular artery 3. interlobar artery 4. afferent arteriole a. (2,1,3,4) b. (2,3, 1,4) c. (1,3,4,2) d. (4,3,1,2) e. (3,1,2,4) 4. adh is produced in the: a. juxtaglomerular cells b. anterior pituitary gland c. adrenal cortex

98. fetal lungs contain small amounts of atmospheric air in the alveoli 99. vital capacity of the lungs is expiratory reserve volume, tidal volume plus residual volume 100. fill in the e circle. question# 1 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 answer e b e c a a a c c a a d d c b a e a c d b b a c d question# 26 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 answer e b c d e e e b a d c c e c d a b b c e b a e b a question# 51

a

d. hypothalamus e. posterior pituitary gland. 5. when adh levels in the blood are high, the collecting ducts are: a. very impermeable to water b. very permeable to protein molecules c. very permeable to water d. very permeable to sodium and chloride ions e. none of the preceding. 6. given the following conditions: capsular hydrostatic pressure = 15 mm hg glomerular plasma osmotic pressure = 25 mm glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 75 mm hg what is the net filtration rate? a. 35 mm hg b. 85 mm hg c. 65 mm hg d. 115 mm hg 7. the renal cortex contains: a. renal pyramids b. papillae c. calyces d. none of the preceding.

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match the following structures (items a through d) and descriptions. a. proximal convoluted tubule b. descending limb of the nephron loop c. collecting duct d. ascending limb of the nephron loop. 8. active transport of sodium; water follows passively 9. active transport of sodium; impermeable to water 10. passively permeable to water 11. passively permeable to water under adh stimulation. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 12. the appearance of glucose in the urine: a. occurs normally b. is a result of overproduction of angiotensin ii c. is a result of hypoglycemia d. occurs when the transport carriers for glucose become saturated e. two of the above. 13. the urinary bladder: a. has bundles of skeletal muscle in its wall b. is connected to the exterior by the ureter c. is innervated by the cranial accessory nerve (xi) d. is located posterior to the pubic symphysis e. all of the above. 14. in the proximal convoluted tubule, chloride ions are reabsorbed because of: a. active transport b. their involvement in calcium retention c. the electrical attraction of sodium ions d. the high osmotic gradient e. all of the preceding. 15. which of the following promotes sodium retention and potassium loss from the blood across: the wall of the wall of the distal convoluted tubule? a. renin b. angiotensin ii c. aldosterone d. angiotensin i e. adh. 16. the process of micturition or urination: a. involves relaxation of the detrusor muscle b. requires contraction of the external urethral muscle c. is a reflex involving sacral segments of the spinal cord d. all of the above. 17. granular (juxtaglomerular cells) secrete ----- when there is a fall in ----- ion

concentration. a. renin / chloride b. carbonic anhydrase / sodium c. atpase / potassium d. renin / sodium e. carbonic anhydrase / carbon dioxide. matching. what type of epithelium forms the lining of the following structures? (note: items a through e may be used more than once or not at all.) a. stratified squamous epithelium b. transitional epithelium c. simple ciliated columnar epithelium d. simple cuboidal epithelium e. simple squamous epithelium. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. urinary bladder vagina uterine (fallopian) tube renal pelvis ureter proximal convoluted tubule renal calyces

true or false: true = a; false = b 25. the region of the distal convoluted tubule in contact with the granular cells of the afferent arteriole is called the macula dense 26. within each kidney, the interlobar veins empty their blood into the renal vein 27. in the female urinary system, the urethral orifice is situated posterior to the vaginal orifice 28. natriuretic hormone is produced by cells in the kidneys. 29. incontinence refers to the inability to control micturition 30. the term cystitis refers to an infection of the urinary bladder 31. the apical membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule cells is impermeable to bicarbonate ions. multiple choice. choose the best answer. 32. the human ovum and spermatozoon are similar in that: a. about the same number of each is produced each month b. they have the same degree of motility c. they are about the same size d. they have the same number of chromosomes e. none of the above. 33. spermiogenesis involves: a. the formation of spermatozoa from spermatogonia b. the movement of spermatozoa in the female reproductive tract c. the formation of primordial or primitive

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reproductive cells in the yolk sac membrane d. the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa e. the movement of spermatozoa from the epididymis into the ejaculatory duct. 34. during early and middle fetal life, the testes are located in the: a. inguinal canal b. abdominal cavity c. pelvic cavity d. scrotal 35. inflammation of the seminiferous tubules could interfere with the ability to: a. make semen alkaline b. secrete testosterone c. produce spermatozoa d. eliminate urine from the bladder e. all of the preceding. 36. the mitochondria in mature sperm cells are located in the: a. head of the sperm b. body (middle piece) of the sperm c. acrosome of the sperm d. tail (flagellum) of the sperm e. mature sperm do not have mitochondria. 37. the movement of spermatozoa, from the epididymal duct, and seminal fluid into the ejaculatory duct and the urethra is called and is under control. a. ejaculation / parasympathetic b. emigration / parasympathetic c. erection / parasympathetic d. emission / sympathetic 38. prostaglandins within the seminal fluid are thought to: a. cause ovulation b. decrease sperm motility c. stimulate muscular contractions within the uterus d. stimulate the vestibular (bartholin's) glands to produce mucus 39. which of the foil owing is not paired in the male? a. epididymis b. ejaculatory duct c. urethra d. ductus deferens (vas deferens) e. all the preceding structures are paired in the male. 40. at birth, the ovaries of a newborn girl contain about ----- gamete-producing cells called----a. 10 million / oogonia b. 2 million / primary oocytes c. 400,000 / primary oocytes

d. 40,000 / sertoli cells e. 50 million / primary follicles. match the following cell types with the corresponding chromosome complement. that is, is the cell haploid or diploid? (note; if the cell is haploid use an "a", if diploid use a "b".) 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. spermatozoon. secondary spermatocyte spermatogonium spermatid primary spermatocyte secondary oocyte second polar body first polar body primary oocyte

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 50. the onset of menstruation at puberty is referred to as: a. menopause b. menorhagia c. menarche d. amenorrhea e. dysmenorrhea. 51. during the ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs a. during the period of menstrual flow b. during sexual intercourse c. when estrogen levels are very low d. when the corpus luteum degenerates e. during the surge in lh and fsh concentration. 52. in the menstrual cycle, the menstrual phase or menses, usually occurs between day ----- and day ----- of the cycle. a.(25 and 28) b.(1 and 5) c. (13 and l5) d. (20 and 25) 53. the secretory phase of the endometrium corresponds to which of the following ovarian phases? a. follicular phase b. ovulation c. luteal phase d. menstrual phase. 54. which of the following is shed as menses? a. the perimetrial layer b. the fibrous layer c. the functional layer d. the basal layer e. the myometrial layer. 55. the dominant hormone controlling the proliferative phase of the uterine endometrium is: a. estrogen b. fsh c. lh d. progesterone e. hcg 56. a woman with a typical 28-day

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menstrual cycle is most likely to become pregnant as a result of sexual intercourse on days: a. 1 - 3 b. 5-8 c. 12-15 d. 22-24 e. 24-28. 57. a polar body is formed: a. before fertilization b. after fertilization c. answers a and b. 58. the cervix is a portion of the: a. vulva b. vagina c. uterus d. uterine (fallopian) tubes. 59. the female structures that correspond (are homologous) to the scrotum of the male are the: a. labia minora b. labia majora c. clitoris d. urethral folds e. answers a and c. 60. the major development of organs takes place during the: a. pre-embryonic period b. embryonic period c. fetal period d. postnatal period. matching: body structures and the germ layers from which they develop. (note: items a through c may be used more than once.) a. mesoderm b. endoderm c. ectoderm 61. nervous tissue 62. connective tissue 63. epithelial lining of the gi tract 64. lens 65. epidermis 66. muscles 67 .epithelial lining of the urinary bladder 68. dermis 69. blood. matching. development during the fetal period. note: items a through d may be used more than once. a. 9 - 12 weeks b. 13-16 weeks c. 17-20 weeks d. 26-29 weeks 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. lanugo or fetal hair develops eyes open bone formation descent of the testes vernix caseosa formed for protection fetal movements called quickening felt facial features formed may survive a premature delivery.

79. which of the following extra-embryonic membranes is the source of the first or primitive blood cells? a. amnion b. chorion c. allantois d. yolk sac. 80. a fertilized human ovum that will become a female has: a. 44 chromosomes plus two y chromosomes b. a haploid number of chromosomes c. 46 chromosomes plus one x and one y chromosome d. 44 chromosomes plus two x chromosomes e. none of the above. 81. the decidua basalis is: a. a component of the umbilical cord b. the embryonic conceptus c. the maternal portion of the placenta d. a vascular membrane derived from the chorion 82. the uterine contractions of labor are stimulated by two agents a. oxytocin and adh b. melatonin and oxytocin c. prolactin and lh d. oxytocin and prostaglandin. 83. twins that develop from two zygotes resulting from the fertilization of two ova by two sperm in the same ovulatory cycle are referred to as: a. monozygotic twine b. conjoined twine c. dizygotic twins d. identical twins e. none of the preceding. matching. (note: items a through c may be used more than once.) a. testes b. ovaries c. uterus 84. 85. 86. 87. ovariectomy hysterectomy oophorectomy orchiectomy (orchidectomy)

a woman was admitted to the hospital for a unilateral salpingectomy following rupture of her left fallopian (uterine) tube: postoperative diagnosis was ectopic pregnancy, left tube. (note: for a yes answer, use an "a"; for a no answer use a "b".) 88. will future pregnancies be possible for this woman? 89. will she still menstruate? 90. will she still ovulate a secondary oocyte at ovulation? a boy who has not passed through puberty

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 78. implantation normally occurs near the end of the: a. 1st hour b. 1st day c. 1st week d. 1st month.

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sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that fsh is no longer released, but lh is normal. after he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would: (note: for a yes answer use an "a", for a no answer, use a "b") 91. develop secondary sex characters 92. be sterile 93. have improper functioning of the testicular interstitial cells. true or false: true=a; false=b 94. another term for pregnancy is 2 b 27 3 e 28 4 d 29 5 c 30 6 a 31 7 d 32 8 a 33 9 d 34 10 b 35 11 c 36 12 d 37 13 d 38 14 c 39 15 c 40 16 c 41 17 d 42 18 b 43 19 a 44 20 c 45 21 b 46 22 b 47 23 d 48 24 b 49 25 a 50

gestation 95. fertilization usually occurs in the uterine cavity. 96. fetal testes develop earlier than fetal ovaries 97. the clitoris contains two columns of erectile tissue 98. pih inhibits the production and release of prolactin 99. another abbreviation for male lh is icsh 100. best wishes and good luck! fill in the e circle! question# 1 answer c b c c a c c c b b c a b c c a b a a c d a d c c question# 26 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 answer a d c d d c d c b c b a a a a a a b a b a a a a e question# 51

a

b b a a a d d b c b d c c b a a b a b a a a b c

52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

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human ana

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