DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) - Goal institutegoalinstitute.org/imagebag/image303.pdf08. A bubble of...

Set - 22

Name of the Candidate : .........................................................................

Roll No. : .........................................................................

Centre Code : .........................................................................

Centre Town : .........................................................................

INSTRUCTIONS

(i) This Paper has 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The Maximum marks for each question is 4.

(iii) 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.

(iv) Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trignometric tables isNOT PERMITTED.

[ Time : 3.00 Hours ] [ Max. Marks : 720 ]TEST CODE : GOAL/DPP - 22 [NEET] 2020

B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001, Website: www.goalinstitute.org

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP)

PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

for

NEET - 2020

Help Line : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

GOAL I I T - J E E

MEDICALDPP - 22 [NEET] 2020 - 02B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001

Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) FOR NEET - 2020 [SET - 22]

[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720

01. If A B C , then which of the fol lowing

statements is wrong.

(1) C A (2) C B

(3) C (A B) (4) C (A B)

02. Four marbles are dropped from the top of a towerone after the other with an interval of one second.The first one reaches the ground after 4 seconds.When the first one reaches the ground the secondand third and forth will be respectively.

(1) 35, 25 and 15 m (2) 30, 20 and 10m

(3) 45, 20 and 5 m (4) 40, 30 and 20m

03. An aeroplane moving horizontally at a speed of200m/s and at a height of 8000m is to drop a fromthe target should the bomb be released

(1) 7.234 km (2) 8.081 km

(3) 8.714km (4) 9.124 km

04. Two masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are connectedby massless flexible and inextensible stringpassed over massless and frictionless pulley. Theacceleration of centre of mass is

(1)

21 2

1 2

m mg

m m

(2)1 2

1 2

m mg

m m

(3)1 2

1 2

m mg

m m

(4) Zero

05. A block of mass 5 kg lies on a rough horizontaltable. A force of 19.6 N is enough to keep the bodysliding at uniform velocity. The coefficient ofsliding friction is

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.4 (4)0.8

06. A body falls freely under gravity. Its speed is vwhen it has lost an amount U of the gravitationalenergy. Then its mass is

(1)g2

U

v(2)

2U

g (3) 2

2u

v(4) 2Ugv2

07. If the thickness of the wire is doubled, then thebreaking force in the above question will be

(1) 6F (2) 4F (3) 8F (4)F

08. A bubble of 8mm diameter is formed in the air.The Surface tension of soap solution is 30 dynes/cm. The excess pressure inside the bubble is

(1) 150 dynes/cm2 (2) 300 dynes/cm2

(3) 3 × 10–3 dynes/cm2 (4) 12 dynes/cm2

09. Two stretched membranes of area 2cm2 and 3cm2

are placed in a liquid at the same depth. The ratioof pressures on them is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 2 (4)22 : 32

10. If there are no heat losses, the heat released bythe condensation of xgm of steam at 100°C intowater at 100°C can be used to convert ygm of iceat 0°C into water at 100°C. Then the ratio y : x isnearly.

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2.5 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4)3 : 1

11. Two spherical vessel of equal volume, areconnected by an arrow tube. The apparatuscontains an ideal gas at one atmosphere and 300K.Now if one vessel is immersed in a bath ofconstant temperature 600 K and the other in abath of constant temperature 300 K. Then thecommon pressure will be

(1) 1 atm (2)4

atm5

A B(3)

4atm

3(4)

3atm

412. P–V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown in figure.

Work done by the gas in process ABCD isP

2P0

P0

C D

B A

VV0 2V0 3V0

(1) 4P0V0 (2) 2P0V0 (3) 3P0V0 (4) P0V0

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

13. Four rods of silver, copper, brass and wood are ofsame shape. They are heated together afterwrapping a paper on it, the paper will burn firston

(1) Silver (2) Copper (3) Brass (4)Wood

14. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic

motion along X-axis with frequency of 25

Hz . At

the position x = 0.04m, the object has kineticenergy of 0.5 J and potential energyof 0.4 J amplitude of oscillation in meter is equal to

(1) 0.05 (2) 0.06

(3) 0.01 (4) None of these

15. Two trains, one coming towards and another goingaway from an observer both at 4 m/s producewhistle simultaneously of frequency 300 Hz. Findthe number of beats produced.

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4)12

16. An infinite non-conducting sheet has a surfacecharge density = 0.10µC/m2 on one side. Howfar apart are equipotential surfaces whosepotentials differ by 50V

(1) 8.85m (2) 8.85cm (3) 8.85mm (4) 88.5mm

17. In the following circuit, 18 resistor develops 2J/sec due to current flowing through it. The powerdeveloped across 10 resistance is

10

12

12

9

9

9

18

(1) 125W (2) 10W (3)4

W5

(4) 25W

18. Following figure shows the path of an electron thatpasses through two regions containing uniformmagnetic fields of magnitudes B1 and B2. It’s pathin each region is a half circle, choose the

B1

B2

(1) B1 is into the page and it stronger than B2(2) B1 is in to the page and it is weaker than B2(3) B1 is out of the page and it is weaker than B2(4) B1 is out of the page and it is stronger than B2

19. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into anarc of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at thecentre; then the new magnetic moment is

(1) (2M/) (2) (M/)

(3) 3 3M/ (4) 3M/

20. A straight wire of length L is bent into asemicircle. It is moved in a uniform magneticfield with speed v with diameter perpendicular tothe field. The induced emf between the ends ofthe wire is

×××× ×

×××× ×

×××× ×

×××× ×

×××× ×

×××× ×

×××× ×

×××× ×

(1) BLv (2) 2BLv (3) 2BLv (4)2BvL

21. The self inductance of a choke coil is 10mH. When

it is connected with a 10V dc source, then theloss of power is 20watt. When it is connected with10volt ac source loss of power is 10 watt. Thefrequency of ac source will be

(1) 50Hz (2) 60Hz (3) 80Hz (4) 100Hz

22. Three particles having their charges in the ratioof 1 : 3 : 5 produce the same spot on the screen inThomson’s experiment. Their masses are in theratio of

(1) 5 : 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 : 5 (3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 1 : 3

23. The fission of 235U can be triggered by theabsorption of a slow neutrons by a nucleus.Similarly a slow proton can also be used. Thisstatement is

(1) Correct

(2) Wrong

(3) Information is insufficient

(4) None of these

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

24. In the following circuit, a voltmeter V isconnected across a lamp L. What change wouldoccur in voltmeter reading if the resistance R isreduced in value

R

+ –

VBB

VCC

LV

(1) Increases (2) Decreases

(3) Remains same (4) None of these

25. A slab of glass, of thickness 6cm and refractiveindex 1.5, is placed in front of a concave mirror,the faces of the slab being perpendicular to theprincipal axis of the mirror. If the radius ofcurvature of the mirror. If the radius of curvatureof the mirror is 40 cm and the reflected imagecoincides with the object, then the distance ofthe object from the mirror is

(1) 30cm (2) 22cm (3) 42cm (4) 28cm

26. The plane faces of two identical plano convexlenses, each with focal length f are pressedagainst each other using an optical glue to forma usual convex lens. The distance from the opticalcentre at which an object must be placed to obtainthe image same as the size of object is

(1)f

4(2)

f

2(3) f (4) 2f

27. Three waves of equal frequency havingamplitudes 10µm, 4µm, 7µm arrive at a given

point with successive phase difference of 2

, the

amplitude of the resulting wave in µm is given by

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

28. The path difference between two interfering wavesof equal intensities at a point on the screen is

4

. The ratio of intensity at this point and that at

the central frings will be

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

29. The work done in pulling up a block of woodweighing 2kN for a length of 10m on a smoothplane inclined at an angle of 15°with thehorizontal is (sin 15° = 0.2588)

m

s

mg sin

(1) 4.36 kJ (2) 5.17 kJ (3) 8.91 kJ (4) 9.82 kJ

30. Tuning fork F1 has a frequency of 256 Hz and it isobserved to produce 6 beats/second with anothertuning fork F2. When F2 is loaded with wax, itstill produces 6 beats/second with F1. Thefrequency of F2 before loading was

(1) 253Hz (2) 262Hz (3) 250Hz (4) 259Hz

31. In a stationary wave, all particle are

(1) At rest at the same time twice in every periodof oscillation.

(2) At rest at the same time only once in everyperiod of oscillation

(3) Never at rest at the same time

(4) Never at rest at all

32. The first overtone in a closed pipe has a frequency

(1) Same as the fundamental frequency of an opentube of same length

(2) Twice the fundamental frequency of an opentube of same length

(3) Same as that of the first overtone of an opentube of same length

(4) None of the above

33. A stone is dropped from a height such that it canreach the ground in 5 second. It can reach theground in 5 second. It is however stopped after 3second of its fall and then again releases. Totaltime taken by the sone to reach the ground inthis manner is (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 5s (2) 6s (3) 7s (4) 8s

34. The thickness of a metallic plate is 0.4 cm. Thetemperature between its two surfaces is 20°C.The quantity of heat flowing per second is 50calories from 5cm2 area. In CGS system thecoefficient of thermal conductivity will be

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.5

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

35. The capacitance of an air capacitor is 15µF theseparation between the parallel plates is 6mm. Acopper plate of 3mm thickness is introducedsymmetrically between the plates. Thecapacitance now becomes .

(1) 5µF (2) 7.5µF (3) 22.5µF (4) 30µF

36. When we toch the terminals of a high voltagecapacitor, even after a high voltage has been cutoff, then the capacitor has a tendency to

(1) Restore energy (2) Discharge energy

(3) Affect dangerously (4) Both (2) and (3)

37. A metallic sheet is inserted between the platesof a parallel plate capacitor. The capacitance ofthe capacitor.

(1) Increases

(2) Is independent of the position of the sheet

(3) Is maximum when the metal sheet in themiddle

(4) Both (1) and (2)

38. The temperature-entropy diagrma of reversibleengine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is

T2T0

T0

S0 2S0S

(1) 1/3 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/4

39. A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5ms–1.A forceacts on it for some time in the direction of motion.The force time graph is shown in figure. The finalspeed of the body.

(1) 9.25 ms–1

(2) 5 ms–1

F(N)

4

0

2

2 4 4 6.t(s)

(3) 14.50 ms–1

(4) 4.25 ms–1

40. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides aconverging power of 40D and the least convergingpower of the eye lens behind the cornea power ofis 20D. Using this information, the distancebetween the retina and the cornea eye lens canbe estimated to be

(1) 1.5 cm (2) 5 cm (3) 2.5 cm (4)1.67cm

41. Lens used to remove long sightedness(hypermetropia) is

(1) Concave lens

(2) Plano-concave lens

(3) Convexo-concave lens

(4) Convex lens

42. The focal length of the objective lens of a compoundmicroscope is

(1) Equal to the focal length of its eye piece

(2) Less than the focal length of eye piece

(3) Greater than the focal length of eye piece

(4) Any of the above three

43. From a stationary tank of mass 125000 pound asmall shell of mass 25 pound is fired with a muzzlevelocity of 1000 ft/sec. The tank recoils with avelocity of

(1) 0.1ft/sec (2) 0.2ft/sec

(3) 0.4ft/sec (4) 0.8ft/sec

44. If a lighter body (mass M1 and velocity V1) and aheavier body (mass M2 and velocity V2) have thesame kinetic energy, then

(1) M2V2 < M1V1 (2) M2V2 = M1V1(3) M2V1 = M1V2 (4) M2V2 > M1V1

45. The maximum velocity of a simple harmonic

motion represented by y 3sin 100t6

is

given by

(1) 300 (2)3

6

(3) 100 (4)

6

46. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more thanthat of oxygen because :

(1) Of the extra stability of half-filled p-orbitals innitrogen

(2) Of the smaller size of nirogen

(3) The former contains less number of electrons

(4) The former is less electronegative

47. For detection of alcohol group in the Victor meyer’stest, 2º Alcohol give colour –

(1) Red (2) Blue

(3) Black (4) Colourless

48. Energy in an ideal gas is –

(1) Completely kinetic (2) Completely potential

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

(3) KE + PE (4) All the above

49. An element (atom mass = 100 g/mol) having BCCstructure has unit cell edge 400 pm. The densityof the element is

(1) 2.144 g/cm3 (2) 5.188 g/cm3

(3) 7.289 g/cm3 (4) 10.376g/cm3

50. Which statement is not correct –

(1) Methyl amine is more than NH3(2) Amines from hydrogen bonds

(3) Ethyl amine has higher boiling points thanpropane

(4) Dimethyl amine is less basic than methylamine

51. The bond angles of NH3, 4NH and 2NH are in the

order :

(1) 2 3 4NH NH NH (2) 4 3 2NH NH NH

(3) 3 2 4NH NH NH (4) 3 4 2NH NH NH

52. CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH X + Y + 3H2O;compounds X and Y are :

(1) CH3Cn + 3KCl (2) CH3NC + 3KCl

(3) CH3CONH2 + 3KCl (4) CH3NC + K2CO353. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å

wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiationis –

(1)1

4(2) 4 (3)

1

2(4) 2

54. Which of the following graph represents thevariation of amount of chemisorptions of a gas bya solid with temperature under constantpressure?

(1)

x/m

T

(2)

x/m

T

(3) x/m

T

(4) x/m

T

55. Identify the compound in the reaction.

O

HO N2 1.NaOH/HOH

2.

(1)

O

HH N2 (2)

OH

NO2

(3)

OH

(4)

NO2

56. Match list I with list II and select the correctanswer using the codes given below the lists

List I List II

(a) CS2 (i) Bent

(b) SO2 (ii) Linear

(c) BF3 (iii) Trigonal planar

(d) NH3 (iv)Tetrahedral

(v) Trigonalpyramidal

Codes :

a b c d

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)

(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iv)

(4) (i) (ii) (v) (v)

57. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B.The acid reduces Fehling’s solution. Oxidation ofalcohol B gives acid A. The ester is–

(1) Methyl formate (2) Ethyl formate

(3) Methyl acetate (4) Ethyl acetate

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

58. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in2s orbital is

(1)1 h

·2 2

(2) Zero

(3)h

2 (4)h

2 ·2

59. The acid D obtained through the followingsequence of reactions is –

2

4

BrAlc.KOH KCN2 5 CCl excess

C H Br A B

3H OC

(1) Succinic acid (2) Malonic acid

(3) Maleic acid (4) Oxalic acid

60. Which of the following order is correct for acidicproperty?

(1) SiH4 < PH3 > H2S

(2) SiH4 = PH3 = H2S

(3) SiH4 < PH3 > H2S

(4) SiH4 < PH3 < H2S

61. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 ×105 atm. The molefraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of molesof N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at298 K and 5 atm pressure is –

(1) 4.0 × 10–4 (2) 4.0 × 10–5

(3) 5.0 × 10–4 (4) 4.0 × 10–6

62. Which of the following are non reducing sugars–

(i)

CH OH2

HO

H

H OH

HOH H

OO

H H

OHOH

H

H

OHH

CH OH2

O

H

(ii)

CH OH2

OH

H

H OH

HOH H

O H

O

OHOH

H

H

OHH

CH OH2

O

H

H

(iii) CH OH2

HO

H

H OH

HOH H

O H

O

H

HOH C2 O

CH OH2H

OH H

OH

(iv)

CH OH2

OH

H

H OH

HOH H

O

H

OH

OH

H

CH OH2

HOH

H

O

HH

O

(1) (i) & (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(3) (iii) (4) (iii) & (iv)

63. On addding inert gas to the equil ibrium

5 g 3 g 2 gPCl PCl Cl at constant

pressure. The degree of dissociation will remain

(1) Unchanged (2) Decreased

(3) Increased (4) None of these

64. According to the diagram given below, the valueof H for conversion of A to B is –

120

80

40

A

B

Hea

t of

Rea

ctio

n

Reaction Course

(1) – 40 (2) + 40 (3) – 120 (4) + 120

65. The set with correct order of acidity is –

(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4(2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO

(3) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

66. 4LiAlHRe d P3(HI)

A CH COOH B . What is not

true for A and B –

(1) A is hydrocarbon of general formulaCnH2n+2while B belongs to alkanol

(2) A can be obtained by reducing CH3CH2Cl whileB by its hydrolysis

(3) A is alkene while B is alkanal

(4) A and B both belongs to different homologousseries

67. 3gm of Mg is burnt in a closed vessel containing3gm of oxygen., The weight of excess reactant leftis

(1) 0.5 gm of oxygen

(2) 1.0 gm of oxygen

(3) 1.0 gm of Mg

(4) 0.5 gm of Mg

68. The end product in the following series ofreactions is –

2 53 P ONH Heat3CH COOH a b

(1) CH4(2) CH3OH

(3) Acetonitrile

(4) Ammonium acetate

69. Identify oxidising & Reducing Agent –

2 2 4 2PbS 4H O PbSO 4H O

(1) PbS, H2O2 (2) H2O2 PbS

(3) H2O2 both (4) PbS both

70. Which of the following reactants on reaction withconc. NaOH followed by acidification givesfollowing lactone as the :

C

CH2

O

O

(1)

COOCH3

COOH

(2)

COOH

CHO

(3)

CHO

CHO

(4)

COOH

COOH71. The mass of 70% H2SO4 required for

neutralisation of 1 mol of NaOH.

(1) 49 gm (2) 98 gm (3) 70gm (4) 34.3g

72. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘saltbridge’ because –

(1) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of 3NO

(2) Velocity of 3NO is greater than that of K+

(3) Velocities of both K+ and 3NO are nearly the same

(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water

73. The xenon compound(s) that are iso-structuralwith 2IBr and 3BrO respectively are —

(1) Linear XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3(2) Bent XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3(3) Bent XeF2 and planar XeO3(4) Linear XeF2 and tertrahedral XeO3

74. Identify the product A in the following reactions :

O

C H4 9

H SO2 5 A

(1)

OH

C H4 9

(2)O

O

(3)

O

O

C H4 9

(4)

O

O

C H4 9

75. Which of the assumption of the kinetic-moleculartheory best explains Daltons law of partialpressure?(1) Gas molecules move at random with no

attractive forces between them(2) The velocity of gas molecules is proportional

to their Kelvin temperature(3) The amount of space occupied by a gas is much

greater than the space occupied by the actualgas molecules

(4) Collisions with the walls of the container orwith other molecules are elastic

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

76. If ‘I’ is intensity of absorbed light and ‘C’ is theconcentration of AB for the photochemical processAB + hv AB*, the rate of formation of AB* isdirectly proportional to

(1) C (2) I (3) I2 (4) X.I

77. In the reaction sequence :

2H O/HNaCN/HCl6 5C H CHO X Pr oduct

Product will be –

(1) Optically inactive acid

(2) Optically inactive -hydroxy acid

(3) Racemic mixture of two optically active -hydroxy acids

(4) Racemic mixture of two optically activesecondary alcohols

78. Which of the following process involves Smelting?

(1) 3 2ZnCO ZnO CO

(2) Heat2 3Fe O 3C 2Fe 3CO

(3) Heat2 22PbS 3O 2PbO 2SO

(4) Heat2 3 2 2 3 2Al O .2H O Al O 2H O

79.

OHH+

–H O2

X(mixture)

Br2

5 compounds of molecular formula C4H8Br2 No.of compounds in X will be :

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

80. If S0, S1, S2 and S3 are the solubilities of AgCl inwater, 0.01 (M) CaCl2, 0.01(M) NaCl and 0.05 (M)AgNO3 solutions respectively, then

(1) S0 > S1> S2 > S3 (2) S0 > S2 > S1 > S3(3) S0 > S2 > S3 > S1 (4) S0 > S1 = S2 > S3

81. Stephen reaction is the reaction involving :

(1) Reduction of alkanoyl chloride with Pd/BaSO4.

(2) Reduction of alkyl isocyanide with sodium andalcohol.

(3) Reduction of alkyl cyanide with SnCl2 and HCland hydrolysing the intermediate aldimine.

(4) Reduction of carbonyl compound with zincamalgam and HCl.

82. The enthalpies of formation of N2O and NO are82 and 90 kJ mol–1 , respectively. The enthalpy[kJ] of the reaction :

2 22N O g O g 4NO g would be —

(1) – 16 (2) 196 (3) 8 (4) 88

83. AlCl3 can be dimerised whereas BCl3 cannot bedimerised because —

(1) Backbonding is stronger in the case of boronhalides

(2) Size of boron is quite smaller

(3) Size of Al is larger

(4) AlCl3 has incomplete octet

84. Welding of magnesium can be done in anatmosphere of

(1) O2 (2) He

(3) N2 (4) All of these

85. The buffer capacity of a given acid buffer solutionis 100. To the solution if 0.5 mole of alkali is addedthen

(1) pH increases by 5 unit

(2) pH increases by 0.5 unit

(3) pH increases by 50 unit

(4) pH increases by 5 × 10–3 unit

86. The compounds A, B and C in the reactionsequence

COCH3

CH3

I2

AlkaliA Ag

B H SO2 4

Hg+2

C are given by the set —

(1) Iodoform, ethylene, ethyl alcohol

(2) Iodoform, acetyene, acetaldehyde

(3) Iodoform, propyne, acetone

(4) Iodoform, 2-propanol, propanone

87. In the reaction

2 2 24 3 4 2MnO SO H SO Mn H O

(1) 4MnO and H+ both are reduced

(2) 4MnO is reduced and H+ is oxidised

(3) 4MnO is reduced and 23SO is oxidised

(4) 4MnO is oxidised and 23SO is reduced

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

88. The complex ions [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]4–

(1) Are both octahedral and paramagnetic

(2) Are both octahedral and diamagnetic

(3) Have same structure but different magneticcharacter

(4) Have different structures but same magneticcharacter

89. What is the equivalent weight of C12H22O11 inthe reaction :

12 22 l1 3 2 2 4 2 2C H O 36HNO 6H C O 36NO 23H O

(1)342

36(2)

342

12(3)

342

22(4) 342

90. Which of the following reaction(s) give(s) colouredgases —

(1) K2Cr2O7 + KCl + H2SO4 (conc.)

(2) 3 2 4NaNO H SO conc.

(3) Electrolysis of brine using mercury cathod andgraphite anode

(4) All

91. Cycas and Adiantum resembles each other inhaving :

(1) Cambium (2) Vessel

(3) Seed (4) Motile sperm

92. Which of the following event does not takes placeduring cell cycle :

(1) Cell differentiation

(2) Cell growth

(3) DNA replication

(4) Centriole duplication

93. Genome is :

(1) Total DNA in cell

(2) Part of chromosome

(3) Haploid set of chromosome

(4) Total chromosome of a cell

94. A characteristic feature of meiosis is :

(1) Two DNA replication and one division ofcytoplasm

(2) A single DNA replication and one division ofcytoplasm

(3) Two DNA replication cycle and two division ofcytoplasm

(4) A single DNA replicaton and two division ofcytoplasm

95. Enzyme catalyses a reaction by ;

(1) Decreasing activation energy

(2) Increasing activation energy

(3) Providing energy of reaction

(4) Changing energy level of enzymes

96. Highly selective and saturated transport are notpresent in :

(1) Active transport

(2) Simple diffusion

(3) Facilitated transport

(4) Uphill transport

97. Which of the following seeds develops a greaterimbibitions pressure?

(1) Gram (2) Maize (3) Barley (4) Oat

98. End product of glycolysis is :

(1) NADH (2) ATP

(3) Pyruvic acid (4) H2O

99. In sugarcane plant 142CO is fixed in malic acid

in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is :

(1) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase

(2) Ribulose phosphate kinase

(3) Fructose Phosphatase

(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase

100. Vascular cambium in dicot root is made up of :

(1) Primary meristem

(2) Secondary meristem

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Sometimes primary and sometimes recondary

101. A structure found only in aquatic plants :

(1) Runner (2) Offset (3) Stolon (4) Tuber

102. Below mentioned floral formula

,K ,C , A , G2+2 4 2+4 (2),+

is not related with :

(1) Radish (2) Mustard

(3) Capsella (4) Indigofera

103. Diploid zygote is universal in :

(1) All sexually reproducing organisms

(2) All asexually reproducing organisms

(3) All sexually and asexually reproducingorganisms

(4) Plants only

104. Most common cockroach in India is :

(1) Periplaneta americana

(2) Balatta orientalis

(3) Balttaria germanica

(4) Australian cockroach

105. Incorrect about frog (Rana tigrina) :

(1) Ureotelic and poikilothermic

(2) Possess chromatophores for protectivecolouration

(3) Forelimbs are tetradigitate

(4) Amplexus is a true copulation

106. Conducting part in human lungs extend from the:

(1) Trachea upto respiratory bronchioles

(2) Nostrils upto respiratory bronchioles

(3) Nostrils upto terminal bronchioles

(4) Trachea upto alveolar ducts

107. Most oldest viable seed is of :

(1) Lupine (2) Ficus

(3) Date plam (4) Phoenix

108. In an angiosperm, male plant is diploid and femaleplant is tetraploid then endosperm will be :

(1) n (2) 2n (3) 4n (4) 5n

109. Male gametophyte in angiosperm produces :

(1) Two gamete and a vegetative cell

(2) One gamete and a vegetative cell

(3) One gamete and two vegetative cell

(4) Three gamete

110. Match the column

Column I Column II

(A) Parthenocarpy (i) Grasses

(B) Apomixis (ii) Citrus

(C) Polyembryony (iii) Banana

(D) False fruit (iv)Apple

(1) (A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv)

(2) (A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv)

(3) (A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv)

(4) (A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii)

111. Experimental verification of chromosomal theoryof inheritance was given by :

(1) T.H. Morgan (2) H.T. Morgan

(3) Sutton (4) Strutevant

112. Choose the incorrect pair :

(1) Furrowed tongue – Down’s syndrome

(2) Gynaecomastia – Developent of breast

(3) Rudimentary ovaries – Turner’s syndrome

(4) No masculine development – Klinefelter’ssyndrome

113. Promoter and teriminator flanks the :

(1) House — keeping gene

(2) Structural gene

(3) Recon

(4) Transcription unit

114. Deoxyribonucleoise triphosphate serve dualpurposes. The purposes are :

I. Acting as substrate

II. Acting as enzymes

III.Provide energy for polymerisation

IV. Decreases the rate of reaction

(1) I and II (2) II and III

(3) III and IV (4) I and III

115. Pineal gland is located on the dorsal sideof....P....and secrete......Q......hormone.

P Q

(1) Forebrain MSH

(2) Forebrain Melatonin

(3) Midbrain MSH

(4) Midbrain Melatonin

116. In E.coli the Lac operon gets switched on when:

(1) Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor

(2) Repressor binds to operator

(3) RNA polymerase binds to the operator

(4) Lactose is present and it binds to RNApolymerase

117. What is the main aim of evaluation of germplasmin plant breeding program :

(1) To identify plants with desirable combinationof characters

(2) For effective exploitation of the natural genes

(3) To look for harmful mutated gene

(4) For collection of variability

118. Which of the following is not a fungal disease?

(1) Rust of wheat

(2) Smut of Bajra

(3) Black rot of crucifers

(4) Red rot of sugarcane

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

119. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humanin making and from milk and in production ofantibiotics are the ones categorized as :

(1) Cyanobacteria

(2) Archaebacteria

(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs

(4) Heterotrophic bacteria

120. The primary treatment of waste water involvesthe removal of :

(1) Dissolved impurities

(2) Stable particles

(3) Toxic substance

(4) Harmful bacteria

121. The trigger for activation of toxin of bacillusthuringiensis is :

(1) Acidic pH of stomach

(2) High temperature

(3) Alkaline pH of gut

(4) Mechanical action in the insect gut

122. Which of the following is not a source of restrictionendonuclease :

(1) Haemophilus influenza

(2) Escherichia coli

(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(4) Bacillus amyloli

123. Which vector can clone only a small fragment ofDNA

(1) BAC (2) YAC (3) Plasmid (4) Cosmid

124. A part of digestive system is shown with 1, 2-and3 as three divisions of stomach. Select the optionwith correct identification and a correct featureof them.

Anatomical regions of human stomach

(1) 1-Funds, closest to duodenum

(2) 3-Pylorus, proximal part is in contact withpyloric sphincter

(3) 2-Cardiac, closest to cardiac sphincter

(4) 1-Cardiac, closest to oesophagus

125. How much of the net productivity of a terrestrialecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores :

(1) 1% (2) 10% (3) 40% (4) 90%

126. Which of the following represent maximumnumber of species among global biodiversity :

(1) Algae (2) Lichens

(3) Fungi (4) Mosses and ferms

127. A historic conversion on the biological diversityheld in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as :

(1) The Earth summit (2) Geneva convension

(3) Monteral protocol (4) World summit

128. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to :

(1) Increased number of predatory birds

(2) Over exploitation by humans

(3) Non-availability of the food

(4) Bird flu virus infection

129. Grassland with scattered trees is characteristicof which biome :

(1) Deserts

(2) Deciduous rain forest

(3) Savanna

(4) Tundra

130. Choose the incorrect match :

(1) Classical smong SO2(2) Photochemical smong PAN + O3(3) Green house effect CFC

(4) Eutrophication DDT

131. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services,the soil formation accounts for about :

(1) 50% (2) 10% (3) 6% (4) 71%

132. Which of the following species of sugarcane hasthick stem and higher sugar content.

(1) S.barberi (2) S. munja

(3) S.durum (4) S.officinarum

133. Incorrect about Balanoglossus is :

(1) Habitat – Marine

(2) Respiration – Proboscis glands

(3) Circulation – Open type

(4) Development – Indirect

134. Proboscis glands are found in phylum A. PhylumA is having B type circulatory system and C forrespiration. A, B and C are respectively :

(1) Echinodermata, Open, Amoebocytes

(2) Arthropoda, Open, Tracheal system

(3) Urochordate, Closed, Gills

(4) Hemichordata, Open, Gills

135. Select the incorrect match :

(1) Betta – Aquarium fish

(2) Pteropus – Possess diaphragm

(3) Dentalium – Triploblastic and acoelomate

(4) Aurelia – Radially symmetrical

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

136. Gorgonia belons to phylum :

(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera

(3) Mollusca (4) Hemichordata

137. Conformers are inactive in adverse condition dueto :

(1) Inability to move

(2) Inability to digest properly

(3) Inhability to maintain homeostasis

(4) Ability of maintain homestasis

138. Section of adrenal gland is given in the diagram.Select the option with correct source of givenhormones.

A

B

Catecholamine Aldosterone

(1) A A

(2) A B

(3) B A

(4) B B

139. If birth rate is 100, death rate is 10 and numberof individuals in population group is 1000, thenwhat will be the percentage of natural growthrate?

(1) 0.09% (2) 9.0% (3) 0.9% (4) 90%

140. According to Allens rule, the mammals fromcolder climates have :

(1) Shorter ears and longer limbs

(2) Longer ears and shorter limbs

(3) Longer ears and longer limbs

(4) Shorter ears and shorter limbs

141. In which type of connective tissue, fibres andfibroblasts are irregularily packed?

(1) Tendon (2) Ligment

(3) In skin (4) All of the above

142. Incorrect about muscles of urinary bladder :

(1) Unstripped

(2) Made up of spindle shaped cells

(3) Non-fatigue

(4) Numerous mitochondria and glycogengranules

143. Algin is obtained from :

(1) Brown algae (2) Red algae

(3) Green algae (4) BGA

144. Read the following statements –

I. Polar bodies are formed before meiosis-I inoogenesis.

II. Antrum is found in Tertiary follicle.

III.Relaxin is formed in female during pregnancyonly

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) All

145. Which of the following help the sperm to get intoovum through the Zona pollucida?

(1) Acrosomal secretions

(2) Corona radiata

(3) Fertilizins

(4) Antifertilizins

146. Select the mismatch :

(1) Enterobius – Pinworm

(2) Neries – Ragworm

(3) Sepia – Giant squid

(4) Ophiothrix – Brittle star

147. Locate the smooth muscles in body :

(1) Stomach (2) Biceps

(3) Myocardium (4) Both (1) and (3)

148. In earthworm, organs and their locations aregiven below. Select incorrect match :

(1) Female genital proe – Segment 14

(2) Clitellar region – 14th, 15th, 16th segment

(3) Buccal chamber – 1st – 3rd segment

(4) Intestine – 35th segment onwards.

149. Which of the following is not true :

pO2 pCO2

(in mm Hg) (in mm Hg)

(1) Alveolar air 159 0.03

(2) Oxygenated

blood 95 40

(3) Tissue 40 45

(4) Deoxygenated 40 45

Blood

150. Angina or angina pectoris is :

(1) Deficiency of blood supply to brain

(2) Deficiency of blood supply to heart muscle

(3) Acute chest pain due to decreased O2 supplyto myocardium

(4) Atherosclerosis

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

151. Select the set of correct statements :

I. Glomerulers is the part of renal tubule.

II. Universal donor in ABO blood group systempossess no antibodies.

III. Lymph transports nutrients.

IV. Arthropods and molluscs possess opencirculatory system.

(1) III and IV (2) Only III

(3) I, II and IV (4) I, III and IV

152. Removal of which of the following from plasmawill result in formation of nephric filtrate :

(1) Proteins

(2) RBC + Proteins

(3) RBC + WBC + Proteins

(4) RBC + WBC + Platelets + Proteins.

153. In cockroach, various organs and their locationare given below. Select the incorrect match :

(1) Number of ommatidia in cockroach – 2000

(2) Number of eggs in one ootheca – 14 to 16

(3) Brain of cockroach – Supra – pharyngealganglion

(4) Number of moultings in nymph – 13 times

154. Which of the following plant group is completelyHeterosporous :

(1) Algae (2) Bryophyta

(3) Pteridophyta (4) Gymnosperm

155. Select the incorrect match :

(1) Cranial bones – 8 in number

(2) Coxal bone – Part of pelvic girdle

(3) Hyoid bone – U – shaped bone

(4) Vertebrochondral ribs – 2 pairs

156. Statement A : Visual acquity of macula is higherthan that of fovea.

Statement B : Integrase enzyme is found in HIV.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Both statement A and B are correct

(4) Neither statement A nor statement B arecorrect

157. Which of the following is not correctly matchedwith its number of chromosomes in gamete?

(1) Cat-19 (2) Housefly-6

(3) Maize -12 (4) Potato -24

158. Prolonged dikaryotic stage is found in :

(1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes

(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Phycomycetes

159. In general the virus that infects plants have :

(1) ssRNA (2) ssDNA

(3) dsRNA (4) dsDNA

160. Which one of the following obiligate category intaxonomic hierarchy will have minimum numberof common character :

(1) Species (2) Genus

(3) Phylum (4) Kingdom

161. Which of the following monerans lack cell wall :

(1) Archaebacteria (2) Mycoplasma

(3) Viruses (4) Actinomycetes

162. Miller has experimentally proved the chemicalevolution of life. Incorrect about this experiment

(1) Done in 1953

(2) Gases taken were–CH4, NH3, H2 and watervapour

(3) Temperature of set up = 400°C

(4) Few amino acids were obtained as a result.

163. According to Darwin, fitness of an individualmeans –

(1) Emotinal fitness (2) Reproductive fitness

(3) Social fitness (4) Physical fitness

164. Which of the following as an example ofanthropogenic action?

(1) Use of antibiotics against microbes

(2) Evolution of Darwin’s finches

(3) Adaptive radiation in placental mammels inAustralia

(4) All of the above

165. Muscular pain, blocking of intestinal lumen,intestinal bleeding, fever and anemia aresymptoms of :

(1) Ringworm (2) Typhoid

(3) Ascariasis (4) Filariasis

166. Statement A : Hypnotoxin is released on lysis ofRBC and causes fever with chills.

Statement B : Anamnestic response in aacquired immunity is an intensified immuneresponse given to antigen on its first entry.

(1) Only statements A is correct

(2) Only statements B is correct

(3) Both statements A and Statement B arecorrect

(4) Both statements A and Statement B areincorrect.

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

167. Tetanus antitoxin possess :

(1) Preformed antibodies

(2) Surface antigens

(3) Dead pathogens

(4) Attenuated pathogens

168. Which of the following is incorrect about activeimmunity :

(1) It takes time to develop

(2) Memory cells are not formed.

(3) It may develop by injecting antigen

(4) Vaccination develops acquired and activeimmunity.

169. Select the correct statement :

(1) Funnel shaped part of oviduct, closer to ovaryis isthmus

(2) Birth canal is contributed by cervical canaland vagina both

(3) At least 40% of sperms should have normal

(4) Both (2) and (3)

170. All living organism present, past and future arelinked to one another by the sharing of thecommon :

(1) Biochemicals (2) Morphology

(3) Anatomy (4) Genetic material

171. Amphetamines are ____and are used fortreatment of _____

(1) Depressants, depression

(2) Depressants, anxiety

(3) Stimulants, depression

(4) Stimulants, anxiety

172. Select the correct statement?

(1) Adolescence period is between 10-14 years ofage.

(2) Chronic abuse of drugs may lead of CNSdamage

(3) Nicotine is an alkaloid

(4) Both (2) and (3)

173. Match the columns —

Column-A Column-B

A. Thigh bone (i) Flat bone inventral midline ofthorax

B. Pisiform (ii) Acetabulum

C. Sternum (iii) Acromianprocess

D. Scapula (iv)Carpel

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

(1) (A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i)

(2) (A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii)

(3) (A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i)

(4) (A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii)

174. If some individuals move from one population toanother intentionally, this is fermed as –

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Gene flow

(3) Gene migration

(4) Genetic recombination

175. During course of evolution, which of the followinghas evolved earliest?

(1) Ichthyosaurus

(2) Seaweeds

(3) Jawless fishes

(4) Dryopithecus

176. Mary mallon was a carrier for____(disease). Thisdisease is caused by a __.

(1) Typhoid, bacteria

(2) Typhoid, virus

(3) Diphtheria, protozoa

(4) Diphtheria, bacteria

177. In the given diagram of seminiferous tubules.correctly identify the option.

P

Q

R

S

Cells secreting Source of Inhibin

Androgens

(1) Q S

(2) R Q

(3) P S

(4) P R

178. Which of the following is responsible for origin ofLysosome :

(1) Chloroplast

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Golgi body

(4) Ribosome

179. Select the option which is having membersbelonging to same group of plants to which thegiven plant (in diagrm) belongs :

Leaves

Roots

Stem

GOAL I I T - J E E


Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

(1) Equisetum, Salvinia

(2) Pinus, Polytrichum

(3) Adiantum, Cycas

(4) Marchantia, Pteris

180. Observe the floral diagram and identify the optionwith correct identification of angiospermic family:

(1) Fabaecae (2) Liliaceae

(3) Solanaceae (4) Asteraceae

01.

02.

03.

04.

05.

06.

07.

08.

09.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

(4)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(2)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(1)

(4)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(3)

GOAL I I T - J E E

MEDICAL

DPP FOR NEET- 2020 [SET - 22]

ANS. KEY

DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) - Goal institutegoalinstitute.org/imagebag/image303.pdf08. A bubble of...

Documents

Transcript of DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) - Goal institutegoalinstitute.org/imagebag/image303.pdf08. A bubble of...