XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB) - 16.03goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image263.pdf · B-58,...
Transcript of XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB) - 16.03goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image263.pdf · B-58,...
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 1 ]
01. Astronomical unit (Au) is the average distance
between the earth and sun, approximately
1.5 × 108 km. The speed of light is about
3.0 × 108 m/s. The speed of light in astronomical
unit per minute is :
(1) 0.012 Au/min (2) 0.12 Au/min
(3) 1.2 Au/min (4) 12.0 Au/min
02. The SI unit of intensity of wave is :
(1) W m2 (2) J m–1 s–2
(3) W m–2 (4) J m–2 s
03. The SI unit of thermal conductivity is :
(1) J s m–1 K–1 (2) W–1 m–1 K–1
(3) W m–1 K–1 (4) W m–2 K–1
04. A body accelerates from rest with a uniform
acceleration a for a time t. The uncertainty in
‘a’ is 8% and the uncertainty in ‘t’ is 4%. The
uncertainty in the speed is :
(1) 32% (2) 12%
(3) 8% (4) 2%
05. Smallest division on the main scale of given
vernier callipers is 0.5 mm. Vernier scale has
25 divisions and these coincide with 24 main
scale divisions. The least count of vernier
callipers is :
(1) 0.001 cm (2) 0.002 cm
(3) 0.01 cm (4) 0.02 cm
06. When a current of (2.5 ± 0.5) A flows through a
wire, it develops a potential difference of
(20 ± 1)V, the resistance of the wire is :
(1) (8 ± 2) (2) (8 ± 1.6)
(3) (8 ± 1.5) (4) (8 ± 3)
07. A student measures the distance traversed in
free fall of a body, initially at rest, in a given
time. He uses this data to estimate g, the
acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum
percentage errors in measurement of the
distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively,
the percentage error in the estimation of g is :
(1) e2 – e1 (2) e1 + 2e2
(3) e1 + e2 (4) e1 – 2e2
08. Error in measurement of radius of a cylinder is
3% and in length is 1%, then find the error in
measurement of volume of cylinder ?
(1) 4% (2) 5% (3) 7% (4) 1%
09. Number of significant figures in 0.0006702 is :
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
10. Which of the following has the highest number
of significant figures ?
(1) 0.007 m2 (2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(3) 0.0006032 m2 (4) 6.3200 J
11. The dimensions of heat capacity are :
(1) [ML–2T–2K–1] (2) [ML2T–2K–1]
(3) [M–1L2T–2K–1] (4) [MLT–2K]
12. A dimensional constant is :
(1) Poisson’s ratio
(2) Universal gravitational constant
(3) Relative density
(4) Refractive index
13. Dimensions of torque is :
(1) [ML2T–1] (2) [ML2T–2]
(3) [MLT–2] (4) [ML–1T–2]
14. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are :
(1) [ML–1T–1] (2) [MLT–2]
(3) [MLT–1] (4) [ML2T–2]
15. The dimensions of energy density are :
(1) [ML–1 T–2] (2) [MLT–2]
(3) [ML–2 T–1] (4) [M2L–1T–2]
16. [ML2T–3] is the dimensions of :
(1) work (2) power
(3) force (4) momentum
17. Which of the following pairs does not have
similar dimensions ?
(1) Stress and pressure
(2) Tension and surface tension
(3) Angle and strain
(4) Planck’s constant and angular momentum
18. If g = acceleration due to gravity and R = radius
of the earth, then 1/2
g
R
represents the
dimensions of :
(1) angular speed (2) escape speed
(3) orbital speed (4) acceleration
[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB) - 16.03.2020
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 2 ]
19. The dimensional formula of physical quantity is
[Ma Lb Tc]. Then that physical quantity is :
(1) surface tension if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2
(2) force if a = 1, b = 1, c = 2
(3) angular frequency if a = 0, b = 0, c = –1
(4) spring constant if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
20. If velocity (v), acceleration (a) and force (F) are
taken as fundamental quantities, the
dimensions of Young’s modulus (Y) would be :
(1) [Fa2v–2] (2) [Fa2v–3]
(3) [Fa2v–4] (4) [Fa2v–5]
21. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He
takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and
so on. Each step is 1 m long and takes 1 s. There
is a pit on the road 11 m away from the starting
point. The drunkard will fall into the pit after :
(1) 21 s (2) 29 s
(3) 31 s (4) 37 s
22. An object moves in a straight line along x-axis,
its distance from the origin is given by x = 10t2 m.
The average velocity in the time interval from t
= 2 s to t = 3 is :
(1) 50 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1
(3) 20 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1
23. A particle covers half of its total distance with
speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed
v2. Its average speed during the complete journey
is :
(1)1 2v v
2
(2)
1 2
1 2
v v
v v
(3)1 2
1 2
2v v
v v (4)
2 21 2
2 21 2
v v
v v
24. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same
time in a straight line and their positions are
represented by xP(t) = (at + bt2) and xQ(t) = (ft – t2).
At what time do the card have the same velocity:
(1)a f
1 b
(2)
a f
2(b 1)
(3)a f
2(1 b)
(4)
f a
2(1 b)
25. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where
A and B are constants, then the distance
travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is :
(1)3 7
A B2 3
(2)A B
2 3
(3)3
A 4B2
(4) 3A + 7B
26. The distance x of a particle moving in one
dimension under the action of constant force is
related to the time by the relation, t x 3 .
Find the displacement of the particle when its
velocity is 6.0 m/s.
(1) 9.0 m (2) 6.0 m (3) 4.0 m (4) 0.0 m
27. The displacement of a body along x-axis depends
on time as x t 1 . Then the velocity of body
(1) increases with time
(2) decreases with time
(3) independent of time
(4) none of these
28. Which of the following velocity-time graphs
shows a realistic situation for a body in motion?
(1) v
t
(2) v
t
(3) v
t
(4) v
t
29. The displacement of a particle as a function of
time is shown in figure. It indicates that :
30
20
10
Dis
pla
cem
en
t in
m
10 20 30 40 50
Time in sec
(1) the velocity of the particle is constant
throughout
(2) the acceleration of the particle is constant
throughout
(3) the particle starts with a constant velocity
and is accelerated
(4) the motion is retarded and finally the particle
stops
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 3 ]
30. A particle moves along x-axis and its
displacement at any time is given by
x(t) = 2t3 – 3t2 + 4t in SI units. The velocity of
the particle when its acceleration is zero, is
(1) 2.5 ms–1 (2) 3.5 ms–1
(3) 4.5 ms–1 (4) 8.5 ms–1
31. The velocity of a particle is given by
v 180 16x m/s. Its acceleration is :
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 16 m/s2
(3) –8 m/s2 (4) –16 m/s2
32. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at
time t = 0 is 16 m/s2 which varies with time as
shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the
particle will be :
16 m/s2a
0 10st
(1) 7.5 m/s (2) 80 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 37.5 m/s
33. A particle moves in a straight line so that its
displacement x m in t s is given by x2 = t2 + 1. Its
acceleration in ms–2 is :
(1) 3
1
x(2)
2
2
t
x
(3) 2
1 1
x x (4)
2
3
t
x
34. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration
f, at time t, given by 0t
f f 1T
, where f0 and
T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero
velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and
the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity
(vx) is :
(1)2
01
f T2
(2) f0T2
(3) 01
f T2
(4) f0T
35. The engine of a motor cycle can produce a
maximum acceleration 5 ms–2. Its brakes can
produce a maximum retardation 10 ms–2. What
is the minimum time in which it can cover a
distance of 1.5 km ?
(1) 5 s (2) 10 s (3) 15 s (4) 30 s
36. A person walks up a stationary escalator in time
t1. If he remains stationary on the escalator,
then it can take him up in time t2. How much
time would it take him to walk up the moving
escalator ?
(1)1 2t t
2
(2) 1 2t t
(3)1 2
1 2
t t
t t (4) t1 + t2
37. A particle moves with constant acceleration
along a straight line starting from rest. The
percentage increase in its displacement during
the 4th second compared to thawt in the 3rd
second is :
(1) 33% (2) 40%
(3) 66% (4) 77%
38. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at
t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another
ball is thrown downwards from the same platform
with a speed v. The two balls meet at
t = 18 s. What is the value of v ?
(Take g = 10 ms/2)
(1) 75 m/s (2) 55 m/s
(3) 40 m/s (4) 60 m/s
39. A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground
with a velocity v0 and another body B is
simultaneously dropped from a height H. They
meet at a height H
2 if v0 is equal to :
(1) 2gH (2) gH (3)1
gH2
(4)2g
H
40. A particle is thrown vertically up with a certain
velocity. Assuming the air resistance to be
negligible, which one of the following represents
the velocity (along y-axis)-time (along x-axis)
graph for the entire motion of the particle till it
reaches back to the ground.
(1)
Velo
cit
y
Timex
y
(2)
Velo
cit
y
Timex
y
(3)
Velo
cit
y
Timex
y
(4)
Velo
cit
y
Timex
y
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 4 ]
41. A body is projected vertically upwards. The times
corresponding to height h while ascending and
while descending are t1 and t2 respectively.
Then the velocity of projection is (g is
acceleration due to gravity)
(1)1 2g t t
2(2)
1 2g(t t )
2
(3) 1 2g t t (4)1 2
1 2
gt t
t t
42. A body starting from rest moves with uniform
acceleration. The distance covered by the body
in time t is proportional to :
(1) t (2) t3/2
(3) t2/3 (4) t2
43. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a
straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of
1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should
the scooterist chase the bus ?
(1) 40 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1
(3) 10 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1
44. Which of the following pairs of vectors are parallel ?
(1)^ ^^ ^
A i 2 j; B i 5 j
(2)^ ^^ ^
A i 10 j; B 2 i 5 j
(3)^ ^^ ^
A i 5 j; B i 10 j
(4)^ ^^ ^
A i 5 j; B 2 i 10 j
45. If ^^^
A i j k and
^^^B i j k . Then angle
made by (A B) with A
is :
(1) 0° (2) 180° (3) 90° (4) 60°
46. Six vectors, a
through f
have the magnitudes
and directions indicated in the figure. Which of
the following statements is true ?
a b
c
d
e f
(1) b c f (2) d c f
(3) d e f (4) b e f
47. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal
to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors,
the angle between these vectors is :
(1) 45° (2) 180°
(3) 0° (4) 90°
48. If vectors A
and B
are such that
|A B| |A| |B| , then |A B|
may be
equated to :
(1)3
|A|2
(2) |A|
(3) 2|A|
(4) 3|A|
49. The position vector of a particle R
as a function
of time is given by ^^
R 4 sin(2 t) i 4cos(2 t) j .
Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and ^i and
^j denote unit vectors along x-and
y-directions, respectively. Which one of the
following statements is wrong for the motion of
particle ?
(1) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8
meter/second.
(2) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4
meter.
(3) Acceleration vector is along R
.
(4) Magnitude of acceleration vector is 2v
R,
where v is the velocity of particle.
50. A particle starts moving from point (2, 10, 1).
Displacement for the particle is ^ ^ ^
8 i 2 j k .
The final coordinates of the particle is :
(1) (10, 8, 2) (2) (8, 10, 2)
(3) (2, 10, 8) (4) (8, 2, 10)
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 5 ]
51. A particle is moving on circular path as shown
in the figure. Then displacement from P1 to P2is :
r
r
P2
P1O
(1) 2r cos2
(2) 2r tan
2
(3) 2r sin (4) 2r sin2
52. A ball is dropped from the top of a building
100 m high. At the same instant another ball is
thrown upwards with a velocity of 40 m/s from
the bottom of the building. The two balls will meet
after :
(1) 3 s (2) 2 s
(3) 2.5 s (4) 5 s
53. Let ^^ 2
1r (t) 3 i 4t j
and ^^2
2r (t) 4t i 3t j
represent the positions of particles 1 and 2
respectively as function of time t; 1r (t)
and 2r (t)
are in metre and t in second. The relative speed
of the two particles at the instant t = 1 s, will be :
(1) 1 m/s (2) 78 m/s
(3) 89 m/s (4) 7 2 m/s
54. Three projectiles A, B and C are projected at an
angle of 30°, 45°, 60° respectively. If RA, RB and
RC are ranges of A, B and C respectively then
(velocity of projection is same for A, B and C)
(1) RA = RB = RC (2) RA = RC > RB
(3) RA < RB < RC (4) RA = RC < RB
55. The horizontal range is four times the maximum
height attained by a projectile. The angle of
projection is :
(1) 90° (2) 60°
(3) 45° (4) 30°
56. A particle is projected at an angle of 60° above
the horizontal with a speed of 10 ms–1. After
some time the direction of its velocity makes
an angle of 30° above the horizontal. The speed
of the particle at this instant is :
(1)–15
ms3
(2) 15 3 ms
(3) 5 ms–1 (4)–110
ms3
57. A particle is projected with a velocity v so that
its horizontal range twice the greatest height
attained. The horizontal range is :
(1)
22v
3g(2)
2v
2g
(3)
2v
g(4)
24v
5g
58. A missile is fired for maximum range with an
initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the
range of the missile is :
(1) 40 m (2) 50 m (3) 60 m (4) 20 m
59. A bullet is fired with a velocity u making an angle
of 60° with the horizontal plane. The horizontal
component of the velocity of the bullet when it
reaches the maximum height is :
(1) u (2) 0 (3)3
u2
(4)u
2
60. The maximum height attained by a projectile
when thrown at angle with the horizontal is
found to be half the horizontal range. Then =
(1) tan–1 (2) (2) /6
(3) /4 (4) tan–1(1/2)
61. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) When a chemical bond is formed energy is
always released
(2) Atoms combine because they want to achieve
stability
(3) Atoms achieve stability by raising their
potential energy
(4) Atoms combine because they want to achieve
two or eight electrons in the valency shell
62. The electronic configurations of four elements
are :
A : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p4
B : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5
C : 1s2, 2s2 sp6, 3s1
D : 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
The formulae of ionic compounds that could be
formed between them are :
(1) A2C, DA, CB, D2B (2) C2A, DA, CB, DB
(3) AC, D2A, C2B, DB (4) C2A, DA, CB, DB2
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 6 ]
63. The correct order of lattice energies of the
following compounds is :
(1) NaCl > MgCl2 > MgO > Al2O3
(2) Al2O3 > MgCl2 > MgO > NaCl
(3) Al2O3 > MgO > MgCl2 > NaCl
(4) MgCl2 > Al2O3 > MgO > NaCl
64. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) A covalent bond is not possible between
dissimilar elements
(2) An electrovalent compounds is possible
between dissimilar elements
(3) A covalent bond is possible between similar
elements
(4) Both electrovalent and covalent bonds are
strong chemical bonds
65. A metal ‘M’ forms chlorides in its +2 and +4
oxidation states. Which of the following
statements about these chlorides is correct ?
(1) MCl2 is more easily hydrolysed than MCl4
(2) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4
(3) MCl2 is more soluble in anhydrous ethanol
than MCl4
(4) MCl2 is more ionic than MCl4
66. Which has zero dipole moment ?
(1) ClF (2) PCl3
(3) SiF4 (4) CFCl3
67. According to Fajan rules, the covalent character
is moslt favoured in :
(1) small cation, large anion
(2) small cation, small anion
(3) large cation, large anion
(4) large cation, small anion
68. The bonds present in N2O5 are :
(1) only ionic
(2) only covalent
(3) covalent and coordinate
(4) ionic and covalent
69. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having
same molecular formula. This is due to :
(1) intermolecular H-bonding in ethers
(2) intermolecular H-bonding in alcohols
(3) dipolar character of ethers
(4) resonance srtructure in alcohols
70. Which one of the following has pyramidal
structure ?
(1) NH3 (2) SiF4 (3) H2O (4) BF3
71. The high boiling point of water is due to :
(1) its high specific heat
(2) hydrogen bonding between the molecules
(3) weak dissociation of water molecules
(4) its high dielectric constant
72. In sp3d3 hybridization, which d-orbitals are
involved ?
(1) 2 2 2 xyx y zd , d , d
(2) 2 2 xy yzx y
d , d , d
(3) 2 yz xyzd , d , d (4) xy yz zxd , d , d
73. Paramagnetism of oxygen is explained on the
basis of its electronic configuration of :
(1)1 1
x y(2 p ) (2 p ) (2) (2px)1 (2py)
1
(3) (2pz)1 (2py)
1 (4)1 1
y x(2 p ) (2 p )
74. Molecular orbital electronic configuration for ‘x’
anion is :
2 2 2 2 2 1x y z xKK( 2s) ( 2s) ( 2p ) ( 2p ) ( 2p ) ( 2p )
(1) 2N (2) 2O
(3) 22N (4) 2
2O
75. Using MO theory predict which of the following
species has the shortest bond length ?
(1) 22O (2) 2O (3) –
2O (4) 2–2O
76. The electronic configuration of gadolinium
(atomic number 64) is :
(1) [Xe]4f3 5d5 6s2 (2) [Xe]4f7 5d2 6s1
(3) [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe]4f8 5d0 6s2
77. The statement that is not correct for periodic
classification of elements is :
(1) the properties of elements are periodic
function of their atomic numbers.
(2) non-metallic elements are less in number
than metallic elements.
(3) for transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are
filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and
before 4s-orbitals.
(4) the first ionisation enthalpies of elements
generally increase with increase in atomic
number as we go along a period.
78. Diagonal relationship in periodic table is shown
by the elements of ........ and ........ periods :
(1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) III and IV (4) I and III
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 7 ]
79. The screening effect of d-electrons is :
(1) much more than s-electrons
(2) equal to s-electrons
(3) equal to p-electrons
(4) much less than s-electrons
80. Which of the following set of ions represents a
collection of isoelectronic species ?
(1) Ba2+, Sr2+, Ca2+, K+
(2) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+
(3) N3–, O2–, F–, S2–
(4) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
81. Which one is the correct order of size of the
iodine species ?
(1) I > I+ > I– (2) I > I– > I+
(3) I– > I > I+ (4) I+ > I– > I
82. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic.
Then :
(1) their sizes are same
(2) Cl– ion is bigger than K+ ion
(3) K+ ion is relatively bigger
(4) none of the above
83. The correct order of atomic radii/ionic radii is:
(1) Na < Be < B (2) F– < O2– < N3–
(3) Na < Li < K (4) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
84. Which of the following elements has the least
ionisation enthalpy ?
(1) Li (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) Cs
85. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the
lowest ionisation energy ?
(1) S2– (2) Cl–
(3) K+ (4) Ca2+
86. The correct order of increasing electron gain
enthalpy of halogens is :
(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) I < Br < F < Cl
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (4) Br < I < F < Cl
87. In each period, the most electronegative
element belongs to :
(1) group 18 (2) group 17
(3) group 14 (4) group 1
88. In the series carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and
fluorine electronegativity :
(1) decreases from carbon to fluroine
(2) remains constant
(3) decreases from carbon to oxygen and then
increases
(4) increases from carbon to fluorine
89. An element with high electronegativity has :
(1) high IE and high Eeg
(2) high IE and low Eeg
(3) low IE and high Eeg
(4) low IE and low Eeg
90. Ionisation energy of Cl– is 349 kJ mol–1. The
electron gain enthalpy of chlorine would be :
(1) –349 kJ mol–1 (2) –175 kJ mol–1
(3) +349 kJ mol–1 (4) +175 kJ mol–1
91. If ten volumes of dihydrogen gas reacts with five
volumes of oxygen to produce water vapour :
2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)
then how many water volumes would be produced ?
(1) 5 volumes (2) 10 volumes
(3) 15 volumes (4) 20 volumes
92. Which of following is wrong ?
(1) 1 amu = 1 u
(2) 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g
(3) 1 g = 6.022 × 1023 amu
(4) 1 amu = 1 g atomic mass
93. Chlorine has two isotopes 3517 Cl (34.9689) and
3717 Cl (36.9659 amu); their percentage natural
abundances are 75.77 and 24.23 respectively.
The average atomic mass of chlorine is :
(1) 35.45 amu (2) 35.55 amu
(3) 35.54 amu (4) 35.40 amu
94. The mass of one mole of a substance in grams
is called its :
(1) formula mass (2) molecular mass
(3) molar mass (4) Berzelius mass
95. Which of the following will contain largest
number of atoms ?
(1) 1 g O2 (2) 1 g N2
(3) 1 g H2 (4) 1 g Na
96. How many electrons will be present in 1.8 g H2O?
(1) 6.022 × 1022 (2) 6.022 × 1023
(3) 3.011 × 1022 (4) 3.011 × 1023
97. What mass of copper will contain 3.22 × 1024
atoms of copper ? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.54
amu)
(1) 170 g (2) 180 g
(3) 340 g (4) 380 g
98. What will be the volume of 1 g CO2 at STP ?
(1) 0.51 L (2) 22.4 L (3) 1 mL (4) 51 mL
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 8 ]
99. Which of the following has maximum number of
helium atoms ?
(1) 52 amu He (2) 52 g He
(3) 52 mol He (4) 52 litre at STP
100. Select the correct statement about Avogadro’s
hypothesis :
(1) In a gaseous reaction, reactants react in
simple ratio by volume under identical
condition of temperature and pressure.
(2) Equal volumes of gases at the same
temperature and pressure should contain
equal number of molecules.
(3) All gases contain same number of molecules
at NTP only.
(4) Avogadros hypothesis is valid at STP only.
101. The percentage composition of carbon and
oxygen in carbon dioxide are :
(1) C (72.72%); O(72.72%)
(2) C(27.27%); O(72.72%)
(3) C(27.27%); O(27.27%)
(4) C(72.27%); O(27.27%)
102. Empirical formula of a compound is (CH); what
will be its molecular formula if its molecular
mass is 78 amu ?
(1) C7H8 (2) C6H6
(3) C3H3 (4) C8H10
103. What mass of oxygen is required in the complete
combustion of 450 g of ethane (C2H6) ?
(1) 3 kg (2) 1.68 kg
(3) 1.12 kg (4) 3.36 kg
104. What volume of dioxygen gas is required at STP
for complete combustion of 3.2 volume of ethyne
at STP ?
(1) 4 volume (2) 8 volume
(3) 6 volume (4) 2 volume
105. The resultant molarity of a solution obtained by
mixing 100 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 150 mL of 0.25
M HCl is :
(1) 0.35 (2) 0.45
(3) 0.55 (4) 0.25
106. A photon of wavelength 4 × 10–7 m strikes a
metal surface whose work function is 2.13 eV.
The kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron will
be :
(1) 1.97 eV (2) 0.97 eV
(3) 1.12 eV (4) 3.14 eV
107. Which of the following pair of informations is not
correct ?
(1) Balmer series — Visible region
(2) Lyman series — Ultraviolet region
(3) Paschen series — Near IR region
(4) Brackette series — Ultraviolet region
108. Energy of electron in hydrogen like atom does
not change with :
(1) number of shell (2) atomic number
(3) time (4) all of these
109. In the Rydberg equation :
2 21 2
1 1v 109.677
n n
The spectral line corresponding to n1 = 2 and n2= may be called as :
(1) line of longest wavelength in Balmer series
(2) line of shortest wavelength in Lyman series
(3) series limit of Balmer series
(4) series limit of Lyman series
110. An electron in 3rd Bohr orbit is associated with
wavelength (); the circumference of the orbit
will be :
(1) (2) 2
(3)2
(4) 3
111. Which of the following particles has shortest
wavelength, if they are travelling with same
velocity ?
(1) proton (2) electron
(3) neutron (4) -particle
112. What is the lowest value of ‘n’ that allows ‘g’
orbitals to exist ?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
113. How many electrons in an atom may have the
following quantum numbers ?
n = 4, s1
m2
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 32 (4) 4
114. How many subshells and electrons are
associated with n = 4 ?
(1) 4, 32 (2) 4, 16
(3) 4, 8 (4) 4, 4
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 9 ]
115. Match Column I with Column II and select the
correct answer :
Column I Column II
(Quantum numbers) (Notations)
(a) n = 1, l = 0 (i) 4f
(b) n = 3, l = 1 (ii) 4d
(c) n = 4, l = 2 (iii) 3p
(d) n = 4, l = 3 (iv)1s
(1) (a–iv), (b–iii), (c–ii), (d–i)
(2) (a–i), (b–ii), (c–iii), (d–iv)
(3) (a–iii), (b–iv), (c–ii), (d–i)
(4) (a–iv), (b–i), (c–ii), (d–iii)
116. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
is not possible ?
n l ml
ms
(1) 2 1 0 –1/2
(2) 1 0 0 –1/2
(3) 3 3 –3 +1/2
(4) 3 1 0 +1/2
117. What is the orbital angular momentum of an
electron in 3s orbital ?
(1) One (2) Zero
(3) Two (4) Three
118. Which among the following orbitals are not
possible ?
1p, 2s, 2p, 3f, 2d, 4s, 4f
(1) 2d, 4f, 2p (2) 3f, 1p, 4f
(3) 1p, 3f, 2d (4) 1p, 2p, 4f
119. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of orbitals in increasing order of energy
?
(1) 3s 3p, 4s 3d, 4p, 5s 4d, 5p
(2) 3p, 3s, 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s, 5p
(3) 3s 3p 3d, 4s 4p 4d, 5s 5p
(4) 4s, 3d, 3s, 3p, 4p, 4d, 5s, 5p
120. Atom of an element has 29 electrons, which is
the correct configuration of outermost shell ?
(1) 4s2 (2) 3d10 (3) 4s1 (4) 3d9
121. The anatomy of seed plants by Katherine Esau
was published in :
(1) 1960 (2) 1970 (3) 1980 (4) 1990
122. Who reported that cell had a plasma membrane ?
(1) British Zoologist Schleiden
(2) British Zoologist Schwann
(3) German Zoologist Schwann
(4) German Botanist Schwann
123. Which of the following element is present in
maximum in earth’s crust as well as human
body ?
(1) Carbon (2) Silicon
(3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
124. Actual cell division occurs in :
(1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
(3) M-phase (4) S phase
125. Bomb calorimeter is a :
(1) A closed metal chamber filled with N2
(2) A closed metal chamber filled with O2
(3) A closed non-metal chamber filled with O2
(4) All of the above
126. Frogs do not respire through :
(1) Gill (2) Lungs
(3) Skin (4) Both (2) & (3)
127. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the function
of :
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre
(2) Pons
(3) Chemosensitive area
(4) Both (1) & (2)
128. Vomiting is the :
(1) Ejection of stomach contents through the
mouth
(2) Ejection of small intestinal contents through
the mouth
(3) Ejection of large intestinal contents through
the mouth
(4) All of the above
129. _____ is marked by terminalisation of chaismata.
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
130. What is unique about succinic dehydrogenase?
(1) It is located in mitochondrial matrix
(2) It oxidises only succinate to fumrate
(3) Malonate act as competitive inhibitor for
succinate dihydrogenase
(4) All of the above
131. Which is not a constriction ?
(1) 2° constriction (2) Satellite
(3) Centromere (4) None of the above
132. G1 is seen in all except :
(1) Sunhemp (2) Trifolium
(3) Petunia (4) Sem
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 10 ]
133. Match the following.
Column I Column II
(a) typical Eukaryotic (i) 1 – 4.1 µm
cell
(b) PPLO (ii) 5 – 10 µm
(c) length of chloroplast (iii) About 0.1 µm
(d) length of Mitochondria (iv) 1–20 µm
(v) 1 – 20 nm
a b c d a b c d
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (2) (iv) (iii) (v) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (v) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
134. All are secondary metabolites except
(1) Alkaloids (2) Antibiotics
(3) Curcumin (4) None of the above
135. Choose the correct option.
(1) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
chromosomes & recombination between
sister chromatids of homologous chromosome
(2) In animal cell, furrow gradually deepens &
ultimately joins in the centre dividing the
cell cytoplasm into two
(3) A very significant contribution of mitosis is
variation
(4) None of the above
136.
A
B
C
D
Which one represent “cystic duct” ?
(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) D
137. Match the following.
(a) Body surface (i) Insects
(b) Moist cuticle (ii) Sponges
(c) Tracheal tubes (iii) Earthworms
(d) Gills (iv)Reptiles
(e) Lungs (v) Molluscs
(vi)Mammals
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (v) (iv, vi)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (vi)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (vi)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (iv, vi)
138. Which conditions is favourable for dissociation
of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin ?
(1) PO2 (2) H+
(3) CO2 (4) Temperature
139. Absorption of drugs occurs in :
(1) Mouth (2) Stomach
(3) S.I. (4) Anus
140. Which of the following phase is typically longer
& more complex ?
(1) Prophase (2) Prophase I
(3) Prophase II (4) Anaphase II
141. All are cofactors except :
(1) Prosthetic group (2) Co-enzyme
(3) Apoenzyme (4) Metal ions
142. 70 s ribosome occurs in :
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(3) Bacteria (4) All of the above
143. Choose the correct pair.
(1) Opposite phyllotaxy — Alstonia
(2) Parallel venation — Onion
(3) Modification of root — Solanum tuberosum
(4) Imbricate Aestivation — Pisum sativum
144. After fertilisation the 'a '
develop into seed
& the 'b '
into fruit.
‘a’ & ‘b’ represent.
(1) a – ovary, b – ovules
(2) a – ovary, b – ovary
(3) a – ovules, b – ovary
(4) a – ovules, b – ovule
145. Choose the incorrect statement for fluid mosaic
model.
(1) Proposed by Singer & Nicolson
(2) According to model the quasi-fluid nature of
lipid enables rotational movement of protein
(3) Proposed in 1972
(4) None of the above
146. Most abundant protein is present in whole of the
biosphere.
(1) Collagan (2) Ribulose
(3) RuBisco (4) Both (2) & (3)
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 11 ]
147. Mitotic Apparatus formed from :
(1) One asters with spindle fibres.
(2) Two asters together with spindle fibres.
(3) Two asters together with microfilament.
(4) Chromosome with centrosome.
148. All are present in mucosa layer except.
(1) Goblet cell (2) Brunner’s glands
(3) Parietal cell (4) Peptic cell
149. (i) The lungs are situated in the thoracic
chamber which is anatomically an air-tight
chamber.
(ii) Each terminal bronchiole give rise to a
number of very thin, irregular walled &
vascularised bag-like structure called alveoli.
(iii) Inspiration can occur if pressure within
lungs is negative.
(iv)Utilisation of O2 by cells for anabolic reaction
& resultant release of CO2.
(v) Thickness of diffusion membrane is much
less than a micrometer.
How many statement are incorrect.
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
150.
Identify the figure.
(1) Oxygen association curve
(2) Oxygen dissociation curve
(3) Oxygen association-dissociation curve
(4) All of the above
151. Choose the correct option.
(1) Mouth, Starch Sali var y
Amylase (pH 7.8)Maltose
.
(2) Stomach, Pepsin HCl
pH 7.8 Pepsinogen
(3) Intestine Polysaccharides Amylase
pH 7.8
Disaccharide
(4) Intestine Maltose Maltase
pH 7.8 Glucose +
Glactose
152. Sexually reproducing organism starts its life
cycle from a __________ zygote.
(1) Single cell (2) Double cell
(3) Triple cell (4) None of the above
153. Which one of the following A.A. contain
CH2–OH
(1) Glycine (2) Serine
(3) Alanine (4) Serotonin
154.
A
B
C
D
SER is represented by :
(1) D (2) C (3) B (4) A
155. Which one is the ornamentals plant of liliaceae
family ?
(1) Tulip (2) Petunia
(3) Lupin (4) Sweet pea
156. Which one show inflorescence ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 12 ]
157. G.N. Ramachandran, an outstanding figure in
the field of protein structure was the founder of
the :
(1) Conformational analysis of Biochemistry
(2) Conformational analysis of Biotechnology
(3) Conformational analysis of Biopolymer
(4) Conformational analysis of Biodegradable
158. All are non-membrane organ except :
(1) Prokaryotic ribosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Eukaryotic ribosome
(4) Mitochondria
159. Which one is the polymer of fructose ?
(1) Inulin (2) Cellulose
(3) Insulin (4) Both (1) & (3)
160. _______ stage is characterised by appearance of
recombination nodules.
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
161.
A
D
B
C
E
Choose the correct option for given diagram.
(1) A = Incisor, D = Canine
(2) B = Incisor, C = Premolars
(3) C = Molar, D = Premolars
(4) A = Incisor, D = Molar
162. Total lung capacity is :
(1) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
(2) RV + EC + IRV
(3) FRC + TV + IRV
(4) All of the above
163. Trachea divides at the level of :
(1) 5th cervical (2) 5th thoracic
(3) 5th lumbh (4) 5th sacrum
164. Choose the correct option for PEM.
(1) Dietary deficiencies of protein & total food
calories are widespread in many developed
countries of South & South-east Asia, South
America & West & Central frica.
(2) PEM affects infants & adult to produce
marasmus & kwashiorkar
(3) PEM may affects large sections of populations
during drought, famine & political turnouts
(4) None of the above
165.
Identify the figure.
(1) Metaphase (2) Metaphase I
(3) Metaphase II (4) All of the above
166. C—C x—y + C == C
x y
This reaction is carried out by which enzyme.
(1) Lyases (2) Ligase
(3) Transferases (4) Amylase
167. Chlorophyll is present in :
(1) Stroma (2) Chloroplast
(3) Thylakoids (4) Inner membrane
168. Drupe fruit develop from :
(1) Monocarpellary Hypogynous ovary
(2) Monocarpellary Perigynous ovary
(3) Monocarpellary Epigynous ovary
(4) None of the above
169. present in :
(1) Gram (2) Moong
(3) Muliathi (4) Tobacco
170. Calyx & corolla are not distinct and are termed
as :
(1) Epiphyllous (2) Perianth
(3) Staminode (4) Epipetalous
171. Choose the correct statement for Rudolf Virchow.
(1) Examined a large number of plants & observed
that all plants are composed of different kinds
of cells.
(2) Gave cell theory.
(3) 1st explained that cells divided & new cells
are formed from pre-existing cells
(4) All of the above
172. Shape of Mesophyll cells is :
(1) Round (2) Oval
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Elongated
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 13 ]
173. Which one is represent Zwitterionic form ?
(1)
R
3H N — CH — COOH
(2)
R
3H N — CH — COO
(3)
R
H N—CH—COO2
–
(4) All of the above
174. Which phase is marked by the initiation of
condensation of chromosomal material ?
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
175. (i) The enzyme releases to products of the
reaction & the free enzyme is ready to bind
to another molecules.
(ii) Substrate binds to the active site of enzyme,
fitting into the active site.
(iii) the active site of enzyme, now in close
proximity of the substrate breaks the
chemical bonds of substrate & the new
enzyme–product complex is formed.
(iv)The binding of substrate induces the enzyme
to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around
the substrate.
Arrange the following :
(1) ii i iii iv (2) ii iv iii i
(3) i ii iii iv (4) ii iii iv i
176. Oesophagus is a :
(1) Thin, long tube which extends posteriorly
passing through the neck.
(2) Thin, long tube which extends anteriorly
passing through the neck.
(3) Thick, long tube which extends posteriorly
passing through the neck
(4) None of the above
177. Bile activates :
(1) Amylase (2) Lipase
(3) Emulsification of fat(4)All of the above
178. During inspiration, the diaphragm :
(1) Relaxes (2) Contracts
(3) Expands (4) Gets folded
179. The ultimate end parts of the respiratory system
in human are known as :
(1) Alveoli (2) Bronchioles
(3) Tracheoles (4) Bronchi
180. Racemose inflorescence is seen in all except :
(1) Pisum (2) Gloriosa
(3) Gram (4) Arhar
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 14 ]
Space for Rough Work
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 15 ]
Space for Rough Work
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-01 (PCB ) [ 16 ]
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XI - Foundation Revision Test - 01st
PCB - 16.03.2020