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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

Third Assistant Engineer

Q535 General Subjects

(Sample Examination)

of 32 Q535 General Subjects

8/30/2017

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

1. When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement represents the correct operating procedure?

o (A) Introduce the steam first, and then gradually introduce the heavy fuel oil until full flow is established to avoid thermal shock.

o (B) Introduce both the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock.

o (C) Introduce the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock.

• (D) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, and then gradually introduce the steam until full flow is established to avoid thermal shock.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

2. As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what statement is true?

o (A) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter.

o (B) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.

o (C) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than with a clean filter.

• (D) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than with a clean filter.


3. When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to avoid weld faults?

• (A) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in addition to a weak joint, may form the starting points for cracks.

o (B) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in addition to a weak joint, may cause plate distortion.

o (C) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a weak joint, may cause plate distortion.

o (D) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a weak joint, may form the starting points for cracks.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.


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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 4. How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating valve?

o (A) Both valves operate in exactly the same manner, only the manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor.

o (B) Solenoid valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage applications.

• (C) A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, whereas a modulation valve is infinitely positioned according to the strength of the applied electrical signal.

o (D) A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

5. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Kort nozzle?

o (A) Tandem propellers o (B) Vane wheels • (C) Ducted propellers o (D) Cycloidal propellers


6. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors used in refrigeration systems are held in place by what means?

o (A) tack welding on the sides o (B) discharge pressure in the relief valve return line • (C) heavy coil springs o (D) large Teflon gaskets


7. As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

• (A) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.

o (B) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.

o (C) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.

o (D) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.



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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 8. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?

• (A) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.

o (B) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.

o (C) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed. The driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed.

o (D) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low-speed. The driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high-speed.


9. When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be taken to __________. Illustration MO-0110

• (A) use a specific opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been compressed

o (B) avoid fracturing the backing plate o (C) avoid using a torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated o (D) prevent damage to the aluminum plates


10. When repairing a refrigeration system, a swaging tool set would be used to carry out which of the following operations?

o (A) Swaging tools are no longer used with repairing refrigeration systems due to progressive changes in the tool industry.

o (B) Swaging tools are used to remove any sweated edges formed on the tubing while soldering. • (C) Swaging tools can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a tube of the same

original outside diameter. o (D) Swaging tools are used during the breaking-in of refrigeration compressors and drive motors.


11. For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

o (A) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes. • (B) Circulating hot distillate oil. o (C) Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds. o (D) Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.


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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 12. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an

ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pump? Illustration GS-RA-56

o (A) 28.75" Hg gauge or 31,750 microns of Hg absolute o (B) 29" Hg gauge or 25,400 microns of Hg absolute o (C) 29.20" Hg or 20,320 microns of Hg absolute • (D) 29.99" Hg or 254 microns of Hg absolute


13. The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what conditions?

o (A) low-pressure in the condenser at high load • (B) low-pressure in the evaporator at low load o (C) low-pressure in the condenser at low load o (D) low-pressure in the evaporator at high load


14. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an R-22 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment with a halide torch?

o (A) The flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-22. o (B) To gain sensitivity, the largest possible flame should be used with the halide torch. o (C) Halide torches are not suitable for detecting R-22 leaks. • (D) Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-22 leaks.


15. As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent? Illustration EL-0095

• (A) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators.

o (B) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators.

o (C) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission to the digital actuators.

o (D) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for transmission to the analog actuators.



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16. Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing water to a potable water system?

o (A) Titanium plate type unit o (B) Multi-stage flash type unit o (C) Submerged tube type unit • (D) Reverse osmosis type unit


17. After coolers are used with air compressors to __________.

o (A) dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air • (B) reduce the temperature of compressed air o (C) ensure complete expansion of the compressed air o (D) decrease the density of compressed air


18. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?

o (A) 100°F • (B) 125°F o (C) 150°F o (D) 175°F


19. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle input

o (A) I only • (B) II only o (C) Both I and II o (D) Neither I nor II



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20. If oil under pressure is supplied to the area identified as "N" in the illustration, what will occur? Illustration GS-0116

o (A) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the area between "M" and "I"

o (B) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I" • (C) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I" o (D) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"


21. Before charging a refrigeration unit, unless quick disconnect fittings are used, the refrigerant charging hoses should be prepared in what way?

o (A) they should be flushed with clean refrigerant oil o (B) they should be cleaned with carbon tetrachloride • (C) they should be purged with refrigerant o (D) they should be warmed in an oven


22. A refrigeration compressor used in a multi-box refrigeration system, is designed with six of its eight cylinders able to be controlled for variable load conditions. If all of the reefer boxes are currently feeding, what percentage of the total number of compressor cylinders will be loaded after start up?

• (A) 100% o (B) 50% o (C) 25% o (D) 0%


23. The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______. Illustration GS-0175

o (A) oily bilge water inlet line o (B) waste oil discharge line • (C) clean water inlet line o (D) processed water outlet line



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24. What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?

o (A) Reciprocating pump o (B) Diaphragm pump • (C) Centrifugal pump o (D) Rotary pump


25. What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from high sea suction to low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

• (A) Underway operations or encountering rough seas. o (B) Increasing the number of sea water-cooled heat exchangers on service. o (C) Entering port or shallow water. o (D) Reducing the total number of sea water-cooled heat exchangers on service.


26. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?

• (A) the reed valves should be replaced o (B) the reed valves should be reground and relapped o (C) the low side pressure will indicate below normal o (D) the high-pressure cut-out setting should be lowered


27. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?

o (A) Resistance temperature detector o (B) Thermocouple pyrometer o (C) Thermistor probe • (D) Radiation pyrometer


28. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flushwater at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o (A) Type I o (B) Type II • (C) Type III o (D) Type IV



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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 29. Referring to the illustrated pneumatically operated diaphragm actuated control valve, what statement

is true? Illustration GS-0051

o (A) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally closed (NC). o (B) The control valve is direct-acting and normally closed (NC). • (C) The control valve is direct-acting and normally open (NO). o (D) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally open (NO).


30. If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design parameters, what would be the effect?

o (A) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity. o (B) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity. o (C) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity. • (D) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.


31. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?

o (A) Every round o (B) Daily • (C) Bimonthly o (D) Annually


32. What is the operating principle upon which a salinometer is based?

o (A) Specific gravity of water • (B) Conductance of water o (C) Optical transparency of water o (D) Capacitance of water



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33. In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? Illustration GS-RA-42

o (A) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

o (B) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

• (C) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.

o (D) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher than typical indoor air temperatures.


34. The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of the __________.

o (A) distillate cooler o (B) first stage condenser • (C) salt water feed heater o (D) flash chamber


35. What is the correct color-coding of refrigerant recovery cylinders regardless of the refrigerant contained within?

o (A) gray top and yellow lower body o (B) light blue top and yellow lower body • (C) yellow top and gray body o (D) gray top and light blue lower body



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36. What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity sensor as used for sensing the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?

o (A) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is inversely proportional to the oil viscosity.

o (B) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.

• (C) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed fixed capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at constant flow which is proportional to the oil viscosity.

o (D) The viscosity sensor is fitted with a constant speed variable capacity pump and a capillary tube which produces a pressure drop at variable flow which is inversely proportional to the oil viscosity.


37. Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?

o (A) Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it. o (B) Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. • (C) Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it. o (D) Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point.


38. When responding to a "right rudder" command from the amidships position, which parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressure? Illustration GS-0137

o (A) "C" and "F" • (B) "E" and "B" o (C) "F" and "E" o (D) "B" and "C"


39. In a low-pressure centrifugal chiller, what is meant by the term "high efficiency purge unit"?

o (A) Those purge units which need the least amount of on-going maintenance. o (B) Those purge units which draw very little electrical power. • (C) Those purge units which discharge very little refrigerant with the air being removed. o (D) Those purge units which discharge the highest percentage of refrigerant with the air being

removed.



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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 40. When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what metallurgical

properties are achieved?

o (A) increase in hardening • (B) decrease in brittleness o (C) increase in brittleness o (D) increase in corrosion resistance


41. Referring to the illustrated bellows-type thermostatic steam trap, what statement is true concerning its operation? Illustration GS-0005

o (A) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively hot steam, the vapor within the bellows condenses resulting in bellows contraction and valve opening.

o (B) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively cool condensate, the liquid within the bellows vaporizes resulting in bellows expansion and valve closing.

o (C) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively hot steam, the liquid within the bellows vaporizes resulting in bellows contraction and valve opening.

• (D) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively cool condensate, the vapor within the bellows condenses resulting in bellows contraction and valve opening.


42. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.

o (A) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction o (B) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system o (C) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line • (D) all of the above


43. What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?

o (A) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules. o (B) A lower than normal feed pressure. • (C) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules. o (D) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.



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44. Standard filter/driers used in many commercial type refrigeration units may contain what type of substance?

• (A) activated alumina or silica gel desiccant beads o (B) alcohol based liquid drying agents o (C) activated charcoal o (D) all of the above may be used


45. What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?

• (A) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners are vertical and the bulkhead must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.

o (B) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners are horizontal and the bulkhead must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.

o (C) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners are vertical and the bulkhead must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.

o (D) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners are horizontal and the bulkhead must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.


46. To determine the average cargo-hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be measured?

• (A) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk. o (B) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk. o (C) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo-hold. o (D) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo-hold.


47. The reading on the micrometer scale shown in figure "D" in the illustration is __________. Illustration GS-0081

o (A) 0.4710 inch o (B) 0.4715 inch o (C) 0.4810 inch • (D) 0.4815 inch



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48. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations?

o (A) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

o (B) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

o (C) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

• (D) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.


49. Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________. Illustration GS-0019

• (A) interference fit o (B) clearance of 0.005 inch o (C) running fit o (D) tolerance of 0.005 inch


50. What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?

o (A) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water. o (B) Remove small amounts of water from small amounts of oil. o (C) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil. • (D) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.


51. With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double bottom floors and the transverse frames joined?

• (A) By way of bilge margin brackets. o (B) By way of bilge margin stiffeners. o (C) By way of bilge margin girders. o (D) By way of bilge margin gussets.



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52. New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased by using __________.

o (A) carbon tetrachloride • (B) a special petroleum solvent o (C) a water-based detergent o (D) alcohol


53. Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end?

o (A) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes. o (B) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet. o (C) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet. • (D) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes.


54. After adding grease to a ball bearing with a hand-held grease gun, you should __________.

o (A) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape o (B) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in

the bearing o (C) save the used grease for chemical analysis • (D) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while


55. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?

o (A) The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear. o (B) The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose. • (C) The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently. o (D) The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far.


56. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following procedures?

o (A) Checking that the thermal bulb is in the proper location. o (B) Cleaning of in-line strainers as necessary. o (C) Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in good contact with the suction line and insulated. • (D) All of the above.



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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 57. All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or held in a __________.

o (A) drill socket o (B) morse sleeve • (C) drill chuck o (D) tapered sleeve


58. Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by __________.

o (A) filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water • (B) steam admitted to a cold pipe o (C) filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water o (D) draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve


59. For a transverse-framed ship of double bottom construction, what structural members supports the inner bottom shell, or tank-tops?

o (A) Transversely arranged continuous vertical girders. • (B) Transversely arranged continuous vertical floors. o (C) Longitudinally arranged continuous vertical floors. o (D) Longitudinally arranged continuous vertical girders.


60. An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled evaporator and what other symptom?

• (A) frosting at the evaporator inlet o (B) frosting at the suction side of the compressor o (C) a higher than normal discharge pressure o (D) a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier


61. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

o (A) Heat transfer is restricted. o (B) Bonnet corrosion may result. • (C) Scoring may result. o (D) Valve seat will be damaged.



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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 62. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent prime

mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

• (A) Over speed trip o (B) Under speed trip o (C) Speed-limiting governor o (D) Over speed governor


63. In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves? Illustration GS-0045

o (A) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is downward seating. • (B) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is upward seating. o (C) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is downward seating. o (D) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is upward seating.


64. How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear pump?

o (A) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil. • (B) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation. o (C) The pump can only be used for light oils. o (D) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.


65. Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor?

o (A) If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of agitation created by the movement of the mechanical components.

o (B) This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always provisional. o (C) This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used. • (D) This condition is the result of the sudden low-pressure created in the crankcase at start up

causing the release of refrigerant absorbed within the oil.


66. The device illustrated would be best used as a __________. Illustration GS-0058

o (A) hydraulic hatch supply pump o (B) power take-off driven lube oil pump • (C) variable or constant speed motor o (D) variable capacity pump



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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Third Assistant Engineer Q535 General Subjects Illustrations: 14 67. When securing a jacket water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time,

you should __________.

o (A) fill the unit with salt water o (B) tightly seal the unit to exclude air • (C) completely drain the unit o (D) fill the unit with descaling compound


68. When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the cause may be __________.

o (A) an open snifter valve o (B) a loose tappet collar • (C) misalignment of the crosshead guide o (D) clogged suction strainers


69. A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040

o (A) As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to re-establish the original tilting box angle.

o (B) When part "D" rotates counter-clockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to slide towards the set point spring "F".

o (C) The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable displacement pump.

• (D) Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across hydraulic motor decreases.


70. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulfur content of any fuel oil used onboard ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?

o (A) 1.5% o (B) 3.0% • (C) 4.5% o (D) 6.0%



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4/6/2015

Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual, Vol. II. © 2002 Cornell Maritime Press. Reproduced with permission from Cornell Maritime Press,

a division of Schiffer Publishing, Ltd.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission.

EL-0095



9/1/2015

GS-0005

Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual,

Volume I, Third Edition

Copyright © 1999 by Cornell Maritime Press, Inc.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission.



9/18/2015

GS-0019

Adapted for testing purposes only from FRENCH AND VIERCK,

A Manual of Engineering Drawing for Students & Draftsmen, Ninth Edition

Copyright © 1960 by McGraw-Hill, Inc.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission

of 32

Q535 General Subjects


10/23/2015

GS-0040

Adapted for testing purposes only from STUTMAN, Applied Marine Hydraulics


Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 32 Q535 General Subjects


1/6/2016

GS-0045

Adapted for testing purposes only from Les-Sonic Self Contained

Pressure/Temperature Regulators

Copyright © by Leslie Co.



3/4/2016

GS-0058

Adapted for testing purposes only from Industrial Hydraulics Manual

Copyright © 1970 by Sperry Corporation,



11/30/2015

GS-0081

Adapted for testing purposes only



3/23/2016

GS-0116

Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual, Volume II




5/4/2016

GS-0137

Adapted for testing purposes only from SOUCHOTTE, Marine Auxiliary Machinery

Copyright © 1975 by Butterworh & Co. (Publishers) LTD.



6/24/2016

GS-0175

Adapted for testing purposes only from Heli-Sep Model 550/OCD Technical Manual

Copyright © by Coffin World Water Systems


National Maritime Center

Providing Credentials to Mariners

5/5/2017

GS-RA-42

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARRINGTON, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1992 by The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers




10/4/2016

GS-RA-56

Pressure Vacuum Equivalents

Absolute Pressure above zero base

(microns)

Vacuum below one atmosphere

(inches Hg)

Vaporization temperature

of water at each pressure (Fahrenheit)

0 50

100 150 200

29.921 29.92 29.92 29.92 29.91

- -50 -40 -33 -28

300 500

1,000 2,000 4,000

29.91 29.90 29.88 29.84 29.76

-21 -12

1 15 29

6,000 10,000 15,000 20,000 30,000

29.69 29.53 29.33 29.13 28.74

39 52 63 72 84

50,000 100,000 200,000 500,000 760,000

27.95 25.98 22.05 10.24

0

101 125 152 192 212

Adapted for testing purposes only from CARR, Refrigerants and the Environment

Copyright © 1993 by John Carr



9/19/2016

MO-0110

Adapted for testing purposes only from Instruction Manual for

Freshwater Generator Type VSP-36-100/125 CC/SWC

Copyright © Alfa Laval Desalt



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