Test Inside CCNP 642-892 Composite

Exam Name: Composite Exam Type: Cisco Exam Code: 642-892 Total Questions: 197

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Question: 1 On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.) A - loopback interface B - SVI interface C - routed port D - access port E - EtherChannel port channel F - BVI interface Answer: B, C, E Question: 2 Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.) A - encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame B - uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the psuedo-node on the LAN C - uses stubby areas to improve network scalability D - uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface E - runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information F - uses an un-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN Answer: A, D, E Question: 3 Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.) A - An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors. B - A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system. C - IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems. D - The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers. E - The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers. Answer: B, E Question: 4 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host? A - A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful. B - The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful. C - A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful. D - The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes. Answer: D Question: 5 What are two routing protocols defined by the OSI protocol suite at the network layer? (Choose two.) A - End System-to-End System B - Routing Information Protocol C - Interior Gateway Routing Protocol D - End System-to-Intermediate System E - Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System Answer: D Question: 6 Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication? A - Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE. B - Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch. C - RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type. D - TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type. E - If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized. Answer: C



Question: 7 Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.) A - IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch. B - IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own. C - IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router. D - IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches. E - IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command. Answer: C, D Question: 8 Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown A - The port will shut down. B - The host will be allowed to connect. C - The host will be refused access. D - The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected. Answer: B Question: 9 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Switch Cat2 is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3. Given IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch Cat2 forward multicast traffic? A - all ports



B - none of the ports C - FastEthernet0/3 D - FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4 E - FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4 F - FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8 Answer: C Question: 10 What is the purpose of the eigrp stub configuration command? A - to increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range B - to reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes into the EIGRP stub router C - to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router D - to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router Answer: A Question: 11 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration and the default behavior of the routing protocols, which network will be present in the routing table of R4?



A - Network A, which is automatically redistributed between two different EIGRP autonomous systems. B - Network B, which is redistributed using the redistribute statement under EIGRP 100. C - Network A, which is automatically redistributed between two different EIGRP autonomous systems and Network B which is redistributed using the redistribute statement. D - Only networks belonging to EIGRP 100 will be present in the routing table of R4. Answer: D Question: 12 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A - Switch S1 is the root bridge. B - Switch S2 is the root bridge. C - Switch S3 is the root bridge. D - Port 1/2 on switch S1 is a nondesignated port. E - Port 1/2 on switch S2 is a nondesignated port. F- Port 1/2 on switch S3 is a nondesignated port. Answer: A, F Question: 13 Which command sequence is required to configure the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1? A - Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1 B - Switch(config)#ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1 C - Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitetherneto/2 D - Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1 Answer: A



Question: 14 Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10? A - switchport mode vlan 10 B - switchport trunk native 10 C - switchport access vlan 10 D - switchport mode access vlan 1 0 Answer: C Question: 15 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the voice traffic coming to the switch access port that is connected to the IP phone? A - The voice VLAN must be configured as a native VLAN on the switch. B - The traffic on the voice VLAN must be tagged with 802.1p encapsulation in order to coexist on the same LAN segment with a PC. C - A PC connected to a switch port via an IP phone must support a trunking encapsulation. D - A PC connected to a switch port via an IP phone is unaware of the presence of the phone. E - To improve the quality of the voice traffic, no other devices should be attached to the IP phone. Answer: D Question: 16 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15? A - All ports will be in forwarding mode. B - All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode. C - All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode. D - All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode. Answer: B Question: 17 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. The command switchport mode access is issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT 1. What will be the result? A - The command will be rejected by the switch. B - Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will no longer be bundled. C - Dynamic Trunking Protocol will be turned off on interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14. D - Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will only allow traffic from the native VLAN. E - Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will continue to pass traffic for VLANs 88,100,360.



Answer: B Question: 18 What is correct about the BGP synchronization command? (Choose two.) A - Synchronization must be enabled when implementing a multi-homed BGP connection to multiple ISPs. B - If it is turned ON, a prefix learned from IBGP neighbor is valid only if a non-bgp (IGP) route exists for that prefix. C - Synchronization is necessary when peering with an EBGP neighbor. D - Synchronization improves BGP routing convergence. E - Synchronization can be turned off if all the transit routers in an Autonomous system running full mesh IBGP. Answer: B, E Question: 19 What is the cause of jitter? A - variable queue delays B - packet drops C - transmitting too many small packets D - compression Answer: A Question: 20 What are three reasons to control routing updates via route filtering? (Choose three). A - to hide certain networks from the rest of the organization B - for easier implementation C - to control network overhead on the wire D - for simple security E - to prevent adjacencies from forming Answer: A, C, D Question: 21 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed? A - The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC. B - The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC. C - The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC. D - The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC. Answer: A Question: 22 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? A - IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10. B - IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped. C - All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped. D - All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped. Answer: D Question: 23 Which statement about route filtering is true when it is used to control routing updates? A - Only outbound routes can be filtered. B - Routes to be filtered are selected by using distribute lists. C - Routes to be filtered are selected using only extended access lists. D - Routes to be filtered are selected by using the distribute-group command. Answer: B Question: 24 Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling? A - IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an lPv6 header. B - The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address. C - Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code. D - An edge router must use lPv6 address of 2002::/1 6 in its prefix. Answer: D Question: 25 Which statement best describes autoconfiguration for lPv6? A - A router connected to the local link sends a broadcast periodically to advertise the subnet and the host appends its locally configured lPv4 address to create a unique lPv6 address. B - A router connected to the local link sends its 64 bit prefix address and the host appends its



MAC address to create its unique lPv6 address. C - A host will contact its local router to receive its unique lPv6 address. D - The local DHCP server will detect a new host has been added to the LAN segment and automatically send a unique lPv6 address to the new host. Answer: B Question: 26 What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain? A - enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain B - enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain C - enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain D - enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain Answer: D Question: 27 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. HSRP has been configured and Link A is the primary route to router R4. When Link A fails, router R2 (Link B) becomes the active router. Which router will assume the active role when Link A becomes operational again?



A - The primary router R1 will reassume the active role when it comes back online. B - The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of its own failure. C - The standby router R2 will remain active and will forward the active role to router R1 only in the event of Link B failure. D - The third member of the HSRP group, router R3, will take over the active role only in event of router R2 failure. Answer: A Question: 28 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What are two important facts in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.) A - Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address. B - Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address. C - Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR. D - The RP is only seen in version 2 of Sparse-Dense mode. E - Point-to-Point links do not display DR information. Answer: B, E Question: 29 Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits? A - STP B - IRDP C - ICMP D - HSRP Answer: D Question: 30 Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.) A - L1 IS B - L1 ES C - L2 IS D - L2 ES E - L1/L2 IS Answer: A, E Question: 31



Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1? A - The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48. B - The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to 56. C - The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45. D - Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively. E - Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12. F - Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40. Answer: D Question: 32 Which three conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose three.)



A - There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors. B - The EBGP neighbor ebgp-multihop option is set to the default value. C - The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected. D - BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors. E - The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors. F - The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement. Answer: A, B, F Question: 33 Which statement is true about IBGP routers? A - They must be fully meshed. B - They can be in a different AS. C - They must be directly connected. D - They do not need to be directly connected. Answer: D Question: 34 Which three statements are true when configuring redistribution for OSPF? (Choose three.) A - The default metric is 10. B - The default metric is 20. C - The default metric type is 2. D - The default metric type is 1. E - Subnets do not redistribute by default. F - Subnets redistribute by default Answer: B, C, E Question: 35 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?



A - All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain. B - Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only. C - Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2 D - No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running. Answer: C Question: 36 Exhibit:

Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) A - R1 is configured with the ip summary-address command. B - The route to 10.2.0.0/16 was redistributed into EIGRP. C - R1 is configured with the variance command. D - A default route has been redistributed into the EIGRP autonomous system. E - The router at 10.1.1.2 is configured with the ip default-network 0.0.0.0 command. F - R1 is sourcing an external EIGRP route from Null0. Answer: A, C, D Question: 37 Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers? A - weight B - local preference C - origin D - AS_path E - next hop Answer: A Question: 38 Drag the port slates to their correct description.



Answer:

Question: 39 Which three are characteristics of lPv6? (Choose three.) A - An lPv6 address is 128 bits long. B - An lPv6 header is 20 bits long. C - An lPv6 header contains the next header field. D - An lPv6 header contains the protocol field. E - IPv6 routers send RA messages. F - An lPv6 header contains the header checksum field. Answer: A, C, E Question: 40 Which IS-IS NET represents a locally administered private address? A - 39.0040.0010.0c99.1112.00 B - 45.0004.0000.0d35.4554.00 C - 47.0010.0000.0a11.3564.00 D - 49.0001.0000.0c12.3456.00 Answer: D



Question: 41 Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Choose two.) A - An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP topology table. B - An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table. C - DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown state. D - A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only alter all the query requests have been replied to. E - The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out. F - EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment process. Answer: A, E Question: 42 Exhibit:

A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of RIP routes into OSPF. Given the exhibited configuration commands, which statement is true? A - Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 1 (E1) with a metric of 30. B - Redistributed routes will be tagged as external type 2 (E2) with a metric of 20. C - Redistributed routes will maintain their original RIP routing metric. D - Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 and will be treated as unreachable and not advertised. E - Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 but will not be treated as reachable and will be advertised. Answer: B Question: 43 Exhibit:

A network administrator is troubleshooting a route redistribution configuration between EIGRP 100 and OSPF 1. Currently, some of the networks, such as network 10.1.1.0/24 and network 10.2.2.0/24 within the EIGRP domain are not being redistributed into OSPF 1. Given the above configuration, what is the problem? A - The redistribute command should specify metric-type 2. B - The redistribute command is missing the subnets option. C - The redistribute command should be configured under eigrp 100.



D - The redistribute command should use an EIGRP compatible metric value such as 64 1000 100 1 1500. Answer: B Question: 44 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2, and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement can be derived from the exhibit? A - The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured. B - The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured. C - The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured. D - The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24. E - The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24. F - The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24. Answer: F Question: 45 Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.) A - VTP mode B - STP root status C - negotiation status D - management domain E - configuration revision number Answer: D, E Question: 46 Which three IPv6 notations represent the same address? (Choose three.) A - 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000: 09C0:876A:130B B - 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B



C - 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B D - 2031::130F:0::9C0:876A:130B E - 2031:0:130F:0:0:09C0:876A:130B F - 2031:0:130F:::9C0:876A:130B Answer: A, C, E Question: 47 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.) A - IP PIM RP mapping is static. B - The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1. C - Router RTA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1. D - Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 224.0.1.40. E - The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1. F - Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) is enabled for 192.168.9.4. Answer: C, E Question: 48 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1. Given the output that was generated, which two security statements are true? (Choose two.) A - Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command. B - Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command. C - Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command. D - When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down. E - When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent. Answer: B, E Question: 49 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14? A - that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1 B - that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down C - that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces D - that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch E - that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch Answer: C Question: 50 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What command needs to be added to establish the BGP session? A - ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1 B - network 10.10.10.0 C - neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self D - no synchronization Answer: A Question: 51 Exhibit:



Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.) A - This interface is a dot1 q trunk passing all configured VLANs. B - This interface is configured for access mode. C - This interface is a member of VLAN1. D - This interface is a member of VLAN7. E - This interface is a member of a voice VLAN. Answer: B, D Question: 52 When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch? A - client PC only B - switch port only C - switch port and client PC D - switch port and local router port Answer: C Question: 53



Which packet type is used to acknowledge LSPs on point-to-point links and to request missing pieces of information in the IS-IS link-state database? A - complete SNP (CSNP) B - partial SNP (PSNP) C - hello D - database query E - database description packet (DDP) Answer: B Question: 54 A company has a BGP network and a BGP route of 196.27.125.0/24 that should be propagated to all of the devices. The route is not now in any of the routing tables. The administrator determines that an access list is the cause of the problem. The administrator changes the access list to allow this route, but the route still does not appear in any of the routing tables. What should be done to propagate this route? A - Clear the BGP session. B - Use the release BGP routing command. C - Use the service-policy command to adjust the QOS policy to allow the route to propagate. D - Change both the inbound and outbound policy related to this route. Answer: A Question: 55 Exhibit:



Based on the exhibit, which statement is true. A - There is a match entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP permit 30 statement. B - All routes not matching access list 101 or 110 will be flagged as an OSPF external type 2 with a metric of 5000. C - There is a set entry missing in the route-map REDIST-MAP deny 20 statement. D - All routes matching access list 110 will be forwarded. E - The set metric-type entry is not a valid route-map command. Answer: B Question: 56 Which address type does the lPv6 address FF05:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 specify? A - unspecified B - aggregable global unicast C - link local D - site local unicast E - multicast Answer: E Question: 57



Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port? A - It is known only to the local switch where the port resides. B - It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection. C - Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge. D - When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port. Answer: A Question: 58 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2? A - Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway. B - Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway. C - The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP. D - The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs. E - Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2. F - Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2. Answer: A Question: 59 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output? A - The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly. B - The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly. C - The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly. D - The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly. E - The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly. F - The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly. Answer: A Question: 60 Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.) A - STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU. B - A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving. C - To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same. D - If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge. E - On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU. F - The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.



Answer: A, B, D Question: 61 Place the BGP attributes in the correct order used for determining a route.

Answer:

Question: 62 Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.) A - Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root. B - Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root. C - Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root. D - If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening. E - If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening. F - If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening. Answer: B, F Question: 63 Exhibit:



Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA? A - The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA. B - The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB. C - The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC. D - Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology. Answer: C Question: 64 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5? A - The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing. B - The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing. C - The traffic will be dropped. D - The traffic will be forwarded without further processing. Answer: C Question: 65 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its lPv6 network be? A - 1723:1100:1::/48 B - FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16 C - AC1F:6401::/32 D - 2002:AC1F:6401::/48 E - 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32 Answer: D Question: 66 What number is a valid representation for the 200F:0000:0000:AB00:0000:000:0000:0000/56 lPv6 prefix? A - 200F:0:0:AB/56 B - 200F:0:0:AB00::/56 C - 200F::AB00/56 D - 200F::AB/56 Answer: B Question: 67 Exhibit:



Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF routes to be redistributed to RTC? A - redistribute ospf 1 B - redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 C - redistribute ospf 1 match external 2 D - redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2 Answer: D Question: 68 Exhibit:



During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain. Which two items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.) A - Change the metric-type to 2 in the redistribute command. B - Configure the redistribute command under router eigrp 1 instead. C - Change the EIGRP AS number from 100 to 1 in the redistribute command. D - Add the subnets option to the redistribute command. E - Change the metric to an EIGRP compatible metric value (bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, MTUs) in the redistribute command. Answer: C, D Question: 69 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port? A - The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server. B - The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange. C - The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate. D - The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address. Answer: B Question: 70 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the distribute-list command in the R1 configuration?



A - R1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the R2 RIP updates. B - R1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the R2 RIP updates. C - R1 will filter the 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the R2 RIP updates. D - R1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match. Answer: C Question: 71 Which statement is true about EBGP? A - An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor. B - The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors. C - A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors. D - EBGP requires a full mesh. Answer: C Question: 72 What happens when an EtherChannel interface is configured with a range of allowed VLANs that is contrary to the range configured on the other interfaces in the EtherChannel? A - The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are set to auto mode. B - The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are all set to the same trunk type. C - The ports will form an EtherChannel if the mode is set to on. D - The ports will not form an EtherChannel. Answer: D Question: 73 In IS-IS routing, when would the use of Level 1 IS routing be required? A - when routing between end systems and intermediate systems B - when routing between Level 1 areas in different domains C - when routing between Level 1 areas in the same domain D - when routing between intermediate systems in the same area E - when routing between intermediate systems in different areas Answer: D Question: 74 Which two provide inter-area routing services? (Choose two.) A - L1 IS B - L1 ES C - L2 IS D - L2 ES E - L1/L2 IS Answer: C, E Question: 75 Exhibit:



Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails? A - standby 1 preempt B - standby 1 track 10.10.10.1 C - standby 1 priority 130 D - standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0 Answer: A Question: 76 Exhibit:

Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X? A - E-B-A B - E-B-A and E-C-A



C - E-C-A and E-D-A D - E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A Answer: B Question: 77 Drag the appropriate IS-IS routing term to its correct definition.

Answer:

Question: 78 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. By default, when RTB passes BGP advertisements from RTA about network 192.168.2.0 to RTC, what address will be listed as the next-hop address? A - 10.1.1.1 B - 10.1.1.2 C - 192.168.1.49 D - 192.168.1.50 Answer: D Question: 79 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A - All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports. B - Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output. C - Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output. D - There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk. E - VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header. F - VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header. Answer: C, E Question: 80 Exhibit:



What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output? A - The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router. B - The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router. C - Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router 172.16.11.112. D - Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router 172.16.11.111. E - The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address. F - The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address. Answer: A Question: 81 What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode? A - 5 seconds B - 10 seconds C - 30 seconds D - 1 minute E - 5 minutes Answer: E Question: 82 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”? A - DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP. B - ToS has not been configured. C - ToS has been misconfigured. D - The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode. E - There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface. Answer: E Question: 83 Exhibit:



Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.) A - BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds. B - The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds. C - The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds. D - The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds. E - This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200. F - BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds. Answer: B, F Question: 84 What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)? A - acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic B - used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources C - used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources D - acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled Answer: A Question: 85 Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.) A - To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0. B - To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0. C - To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1. D - The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. E - The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. F - The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. Answer: B, D




Refer to the exhibit. IS-IS is configured on all routers. What two NET addresses could be used to support an IS-IS adjacency between routers R1 and R2? A - R1 - 49.0002.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 - 49.0002.2222.2222.2222.00 B - R1 - 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 - 49.0002.2222.2222.2222.00 C - R1 - 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 - 47.0002.2222.2222.2222.00 D - R1 - 49.0005.1111.1111.1111.00 R2 - 47.0005.2222.2222.2222.00 Answer: B Question: 87 Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways? A - IRDP B - HSRP C - GLBP D - VRRP Answer: C Question: 88 Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.) A - PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router. B - PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router. C - PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known. D - PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network. E - PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network. F - PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network. Answer: B, C, E



Question: 89 When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message. An lPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.) A - lPv6 address for the host B - lifetime of the prefix C - prefixes for the link D - keepalive timers E - request for the local host IP address F - any route advertisements it has received Answer: B, C Question: 90 You are using multiple routing protocols in different Autonomous Systems (AS). You need to redistribute between the systems. You are using two-way redistribution. Which action should help you avoid routing loop issues? A - manually configuring the static routes B - manually configuring the default gateway C - manually configuring the administrative K-factor D - manually configuring the administrative distance Answer: D Question: 91 The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN. This describes which technology? A - DISL B - DTP C - IEEE 802.1Q D - ISL E - MPLS Answer: D Question: 92 A problem was reported that the 10.10.10.0/24 prefix was not injected into the local BGP table on Router A. The following information is available from Router A: configuration: router bgp 65001 network 10.0.0.0 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary routing table information: show ip route | include 10 O 10.10.10.0/24[110/11] via 192.168.1.1, 2d00h,Ethernet0/0 Why is this prefix not in the local BGP table?



A - This route is not a BGP learned route. B - The network command is wrong. C - The 172.16.1.1 neighbor is down. D - The prefix 10.10.10.0/24 is not a ‘connected’ route. Answer: B Question: 93 Exhibit:

Based on the information in the exhibit, which statement is true? A - RTC will be able to access the 10.0.0.0 network. B - RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table. C - RTC will not have the 192.168.10.0 network in its routing table. D - RTB will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table. E - RTB and PTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in their routing tables. Answer: B Question: 94 How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s? A - modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN B - adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame C - encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence D - tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value Answer: D Question: 95 Exhibit:



An administrator is redistributing OSPF into RIP. RIP is routing the 128.103.36.0/24 network. OSPF is routing the 128.103.35.32/28 network. Users in the RIP domain cannot reach devices in the OSPF domain. Which two tasks must be done to enable RIP to advertise the routes learned from OSPF into the RIP domain? (Choose two.) A - Add a static route that points to the RIP domain address space with a /24 network mask and a next hop of 128.103.36.2. B - Add a static route that points to the OSPF domain address space with a /24 network mask with a next hop of nuIl0. C - Tune the OSPF default metrics to allow seamless redistribution into RIP. D - Redistribute configured static routes into RIP. E - Use a route map statement inserted into a distribute list to control routing updates. Answer: B, D Question: 96 How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth? A - by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains B - by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs C - by limiting the spreading of VLAN information D - by disabling periodic VTP updates Answer: B Question: 97 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers. However, the IP multicast table displayed in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be done to display the new routing table information? A - Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command. B - Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command. C - Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command. D - Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command. Answer: C Question: 98 Exhibit:

Given the network configuration above and assuming that STP is enabled, which port will be elected the non-designated port?



A - Port 1/1 B - Port 1/2 C - Port 2/1 D - Port 2/2 E - Port 3/1 F - Port 3/2 Answer: B Question: 99 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed? A - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone. B - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone. C - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW. D - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4. E - The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port. Answer: C Question: 100 Which two types of routes will be advertised with the EIGRP configuration as shown? (Choose two.)



router eigrp 100 network 10.0.0.0 eigrp stub A - static B - receive-only C - summary D - stub E - connected F - dynamic Answer: C, E Question: 101 Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.) A - When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0. B - The summary route remains in the route table, even it there are no more specific routes to the network. C - Summarization is configured on a per-interface level. D - The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route. E - Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default. Answer: A, C, E Question: 102 What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized? A - complete SNP (CSNP) B - partial SNP (PSNP) C - database query D - database description packet (DDP) E - link-state summary F - hello Answer: A Question: 103 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled? A - Port 0/1 B - Ports 0/1 and 0/2 C - Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3 D - Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22 E - The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports F - Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports Answer: C Question: 104 BGP contains two paths to a destination. Assuming both routes were originated locally and have an equal weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path? A - lowest MED B - highest local preference C - lowest neighbor IP address D - lowest origin code E - shortest As-path Answer: B Question: 105 Exhibit:

Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.) A - A trunk link will be formed. B - Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link. C - The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1. D - DTP is not running on Switch A. E - DTP packets are sent from Switch B. Answer: A, C, E Question: 106 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.) A - The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A. B - Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50. C - Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A. D - Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again. Answer: A, B Question: 107 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct configuration to enable router P4 to exchange RIP routing updates with router P1 but not with router P3? A - P4(config)# interface fa0/0 P4(config-it)# neighbor 192.168.10.3



P4(config-if)# passive-interface fa0/0 B - P4(config)# router rip P4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.3 P4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0 C - P4(config)# interface fa0/0 P4(config-it)# neighbor 192.168.10.3 P4(config-if)# passive-interface 192.168.10.34 D - P4(config)# router rip P4(config-router)# neighbor 192.168.10.34 no broadcast P4(config-router)# passive-interface fa0/0 Answer: B Question: 108 Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.) A - 169.254.23.59 B - 223.254.255.254 C - 225.1.1.1 D - 227.43.34.2 E - 238.3.3.3 F - 249.1.2.3 Answer: C, D, E Question: 109 Which two statements are true about the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)? (Choose two.) A - Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating multiple subinterfaces on the HSRP routers. B - Load sharing with HSRP is achieved by creating HSRP groups on the HSRP routers. C - Routers configured for HSRP must belong to only one group per HSRP interface. D - Routers configured for HSRP can belong to multiple groups and multiple VLANs. E - All routers configured for HSRP load balancing must be configured with the same priority. Answer: B, D Question: 110 The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being advertised? router bgp 65111 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor 172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112 network 192.168.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 null0 A - The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0 B - The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255. C - The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0. D - The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255. E - The auto-summary configuration is missing.



Answer: A Question: 111 The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration. What will this command accomplish? A - forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems B - forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems C - forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems D - forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems Answer: A Question: 112 In an IS-IS environment, what happens when the designated IS router crashes? A - The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS indefinitely without the necessity of a new election. B - The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS temporarily without the necessity of a new election, until the original DIS comes back online. C - A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS that will remain in place indefinitely. D - A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS until a router with a higher priority or MAC address establishes an adjacency. Answer: D Question: 113 In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.) A - STP B - CDP C - EAP MD5 D - TACACS+ E - EAP-over-LAN F - protocols not filtered by an ACL Answer: A, B, E Question: 114 Exhibit:



Examine the above configuration. What does the route map named test accomplish? A - marks all prefixes advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200 B - marks all prefixes received from the 10.1 .1 .1 neighbor with a MED of 200 C - marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200 D - marks the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor with a MED of 200 E - permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be advertised to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor F - permits only the 10.0.0.0/8 prefix to be received from the 10.1.1.1 neighbor Answer: C Question: 115 The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.) A - VLAN 1 B - a trunk port C - VTP priority D - a root VTP server Answer: A, B Question: 116 Exhibit:



Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.) A - Router A will assume the active state it its priority is the highest. B - If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over. C - When Ethernet 0/3 of Router A comes back up, the priority will become 105. D - The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6. E - The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20. Answer: A, C Question: 117 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command sequence would prevent the propagation of updates for network 192.168.236.0/24 to the Branch router? A - Branch(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.236.0 Branch(config)# access-list 1 permit any



Branch(config)# interface serial 0/0 Branch(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in B - Central(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.236.0 Central(config)# access-list 1 permit any Central(config)# interface serial 0/0 Central(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out C - Branch(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.236.0 Branch(config)# access-list 1 permit any Branch(config)# router rip Branch(config-router)# distribute-list 1 out serial 0/0 D - Central(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.236.0 Central(config)# access-list 1 permit any Central(config)# router rip Central(config-router)# distribute-list 1 out serial 0/0 E - Branch(config)# router rip Branch(config-router)# passive-interface s0/0 F - Central(config)# router rip Central(config-router)# passive-interface s0/0 Answer: D Question: 118 Which two statements are true concerning lPv6? (Choose two.) A - Mobile IP is built into lPv6 by default. B - The leading zeros in an address format are mandatory. C - Like lPv4, lPv6 broadcasts are sent to all nodes on a LAN segment. D - IPSec is mandatory and built into lPv6. Answer: A, D Question: 119 Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.) A - using aggregate routes B - disabling synchronization C - forcing the next-hop address D - defining routes via the network statement Answer: A, D Question: 120 Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3? A - membership query message B - membership report message C - leave group message D - source filtering E - destination filtering Answer: D Question: 121 When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?



A - PIM sparse-dense B - Bidir -PIM C - PIM-RP D - PIM-DM E - PIM-SM Answer: D Question: 122 Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking? A - HSRP B - GLBP C - VRRP D - SLB E - RPR F - RPR+ Answer: C Question: 123 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the router stops receiving advertisements for the 10.1.2.0/24 network? A - The summary route will be removed from the table. B - The summary route will remain in the table. C - The more specific routes will be advertised from the table. D - 10.1.2.0/24 will still be advertised but packets destined for it will be dropped when they reach this router. Answer: B Question: 124 Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.) A - The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes). B - The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits). C - The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes). D - The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID). E - The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses



assigned to the switch or module. F - The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm. Answer: B, D Question: 125 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem? A - SW1 (confiq)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1 (confiq-if)# no shut B - SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access C - SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(confiq-if)# switchport access vlan 10 D - SW1(config)#vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut E - SW1(config)#vlan 10 SW1 (config-vlan)# state active Answer: A Question: 126 Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers? A - show clns neighbors B - show isis database



C - show isis topology D - show clns neighbors detail E - show is-is neighbors detail Answer: C Question: 127 A router is configured for redistribution to advertise EIGRP routes into OSPF on a boundary router. Given the configuration: router ospf 1 redistribute eigrp 1 metric 25 subnets What is the function of the 25 parameter in the redistribute command? A - It specifies the seed cost to be applied to the redistributed routes. B - It specifies the administrative distance on the redistributed routes. C - It specifies the metric limit of 25 subnets in each OSPF route advertisement. D - It specifies a new process-id to inject the EIGRP routes into OSPF. Answer: A Question: 128 By default, all VLANs will belong to which MST instance when using Multiple STP? A - MST00 B - MST01 C - the last MST instance configured D - none Answer: A Question: 129 Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.) A - IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs. B - New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS. C - For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers. D - OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS. E - IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF. Answer: A, C, D Question: 130 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario? A - The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas. B - The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas. C - The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured. D - IGMP needs to be enabled on the router. Answer: B Question: 131 Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.) A - 228.10.10.7 B - 228.10.10.8 C - 228.10.138.7 D - 229.11.10.7 E - 229.138.10.7 F - 229.138.10.8 Answer: A, E Question: 132 Which three techniques can be used to transition from lPv4 to lPv6? (Choose three.) A - 6to4 tunneling B - flow label C - dual stack D - anycast E - NAT F - mobile IP Answer: A, C, E Question: 133 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast propagate? A - Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports. B - Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2. C - Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2. D - Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2. Answer: C Question: 134 Exhibit:

Router RTA is configured as follows: RTA (config)#router rip RTA(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 RTA(config-router)#distribute-list 44 in interface BRI0 RTA(config-router)#exit RTA(config)#access-list 44 deny 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 RTA(config)#access-list 44 permit any What are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.) A - no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX B - router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX C - the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA D - user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44 E - the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW Answer: C, E



Question: 135 In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.) A - standby B - learn C - listen D - speak E - active Answer: A, D, E Question: 136 Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments? A - debug eigrp packets B - show ip eigrp traffic C - debug ip eigrp D - show ip eigrp interfaces Answer: B Question: 137 During a redistribution of routes from OSPF into EIGRP, an administrator notices that none of the OSPF routes are showing in EIGRP. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.) A - incorrect distribute lists have been configured B - CEF not enabled C - no default metric configured for EIGRP D - missing ip classless command Answer: A, C Question: 138 Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.) A - IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP. B - IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group. C - IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1. D - IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers. E - IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from. F - There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode. Answer: B, C, E Question: 139 Exhibit:



RIP and OSPF are configured on the routers as shown in the exhibit. R2 is configured with a two-way redistribution between RIP and OSPF domains. All routers can ping each other, but R1 cannot see any of the OSPF routes in its routing table. What could the problem be? A - OSPF and RIP use the same major network 172.16.0.0. Therefore, the keyword subnets is not required to redistribute protocols into OSPF. B - The process of redistribution of RIP into OSPF does not require any metric conversion, so there is no need to define the metric using the default-metric command during the redistribution. C - Because OSPF has a longer mask for the same major network than RIP and because RIP version 1 is being used, none of the routes learned from OSPF will be advertised into RIP. D - The metric for the OSPF routes that are redistributed into RIP is too low, a fact that prevents OSPF routes from being advertised into RIP. Answer: C Question: 140 Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.) A - mls qos trust override cos B - mls qos trust cos C - mls qos trust device cisco-phone D - switchport priority extend cos_value E - switchport voice vlan vlan-id Answer: B, C, E Question: 141



Exhibit:

Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch A spanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16 A - VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1. B - VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1. C - VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2. D - VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1. E - VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2. Answer: A Question: 142 Which two statements are true about HSRP, VPRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.) A - GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP. B - GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups. C - GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication whereas HSRP does not. D - Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways. E - HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not. Answer: A, D Question: 143 IS-IS Level 1 routers use LSPs for which purpose? A - to build a topology database for the local area only B - to build a topology database for the local and remote areas C - to build a topology database for remote areas D - to build a topology database for areas outside the AS E - to establish adjacency with L1 IS’s F - to establish adjacency with ES’s Answer: A Question: 144 Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary? A - weight B - MED C - local preference D - origin



E - next-hop F - AS-path Answer: A Question: 145 Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address? A - Proxy ARP B - HSRP C - IRDP D - VRRP E - GLBP Answer: D Question: 146 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic? A - Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic. B - The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer. C - Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone. D - The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging. Answer: D Question: 147 In IS-IS routing, which level is used to route between different areas within the same domain? A - Level 0 B - Level 1 C - Level 2 D - Level 3 Answer: C Question: 148 Exhibit:



Based on the exhibited command output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A - The EIGRP network is stable. B - The router at 10.1.1.3 has not replied to the R1 query packet. C - The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is undergoing recomputation. D - The route to 172.19.0.0/16 is stuck-in-active. E - R1 has sent a query packet to 10.1.1.2. Answer: C, E Question: 149 Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’? A - The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link. B - The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link. C - The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames. D - The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link. Answer: B Question: 150 Exhibit:



Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A - The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established. B - The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established. C - The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established. D - The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor. E - The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor. F - The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor. Answer: A, F Question: 151 Exhibit:

Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.) A - VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down. B - VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only. C - VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only. D - VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10. E - VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12. Answer: C, E Question: 152 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. The routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF have been configured as indicated in the exhibit. Given the partial configuration of router R2, which network will be present in the routing table of R4? A - Network A B - Network B C - Network A and Network B D - neither Network A nor Network B Answer: B Question: 153 What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.) A - supports Token Ping VLANs B - allows VLAN consistency checks C - saves VLAN configuration memory D - reduces the amount of configuration necessary E - allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree Answer: A, B Question: 154 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1? A - All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will cause the security violation counter to increment. B - The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be replaced with the new address. C - The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification will be sent. D - The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list. Answer: C Question: 155 Exhibit:

A network administrator is troubleshooting a redistribution of OSPF routes into EIGRP. Given the exhibited commands, which statement is true? A - Redistributed routes will have an external type of 1 and a metric of 1. B - Redistributed routes will have an external type of 2 and a metric of 20. C - Redistributed routes will maintain their original OSPF routing metric. D - Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 and will be treated as reachable and advertised. E - Redistributed routes will have a default metric of 0 but will be treated as unreachable and not advertised. Answer: E Question: 156 Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value? A - VTP



B - 802.1Q C - DTP D - ISL Answer: B Question: 157 Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames? A - access B - trunk C - no negotiate D - dynamic desirable E - dynamic auto Answer: D Question: 158 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit? A - If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode. B - The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16. C - IGMP version 2 is being used. D - CGMP version 2 is being used. E - The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second. F - A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode. Answer: F Question: 159 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on router R2. On router R4 all RIP routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain. A second redistribution is configured on router R2 using a route map. Based on the configuration on router R2, which EIGRP external routes will be present in the routing table of R1? A - the routes originating from the RIP routing domain B - the routes originating from the OSPF stub area C - all OSPF inter and intra-area routes D - all routes originating from RIP and OSPF routing domains Answer: A Question: 160 What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.) A - VLAN information on port 0/5 B - ports in VLAN 5 C - MTU and type D - utilization E - filters Answer: B, C Question: 161 Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a Transit AS? A - BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers. B - A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.



C - Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers. D - Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers. E - Routes learned via eBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers. Answer: D Question: 162 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three.) A - The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111. B - The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured. C - The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111. D - The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address. E - The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured. F - The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority. Answer: A, B, D Question: 163 Exhibit:

A network administrator recently redistributed RIP routes into an OSPF domain. However, the administrator wants to configure the network so that instead of 32 external type-5 LSAs flooding into the OSPF network, there is only one. What must the administrator do to accomplish this? A - Configure summarization on R1 with area 1 range 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 B - Configure summarization on R1 with summary-address 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 C - Configure area 1 as a stub area with area 1 stub D - Configure area 1 as a NSSA area with area 1 stub nssa



Answer: B Question: 164 Exhibit:

Based on the P1R3 show ip bgp output, which statement is true? A - The best path to reach the 192.168.11.0 prefix is via 10.200.200.11. B - The best path to reach the 192.168.11.0 prefix is via 10.200.200.12. C - The best path to reach the 192.168.11.0 prefix is via both 10.200.200.11 and 10.200.200.12; BGP will automatically load balance between the two. D - The 192.168.11.0 and 192.168.12.0 prefixes were learned via EBGP from the 10.200.200.11 and 10.200.200.12 EBGP neighbors. Answer: B Question: 165 Exhibit:

Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true? A - The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is an IS-IS external route. B - The R1 IS-IS router is an ASBR. C - The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a suppressed route. D - The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a summary route. E - The R1 IS-IS router is an ABR that belongs to multiple IS-IS areas. F - The R1 IS-IS router is performing route aggregation and is suppressing the more specific 10.1.0.0/23 prefix. Answer: D Question: 166 Which three steps are most helpful in verifying proper route redistribution? (Choose three.) A. On the routers not performing the route redistribution, use the show ip route command to see if the redistributed routes show up.



B - On the ASBR router performing the route redistribution, use the show ip protocol command to verify the redistribution configurations. C - On the ASBR muter performing the mute redistribution, use the show ip mute command to verify that the proper mutes from each muting protocol are there. D - On the routers not performing the mute redistribution, use the show ip protocols command to verify the muting information sources. E - On the routers not performing the mute redistribution, use the debug ip muting command to verify the muting updates from the ASBR. Answer: A, B, C Question: 167 Which two statements are true about external BGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.) A - Static routes or an interior gateway protocol is required between EBGP neighbors. B - EBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems. C - EBGP neighbors use TCP port 179 to exchange BGP routing tables. D - Loopback addresses should be used between EBGP neighbors. E - The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other EBGP peers. F - When an EBGP neighbor receives an update from another EBGP neighbor, it should not forward the update to other EBGP neighbors. Answer: B, C Question: 168 How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2? A - The first router to appear on a subnet is designated. B - The host that responds first to the election query is designated. C - The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated. D - The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated. Answer: C Question: 169 Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to prevent routing loops? A - AS-path B - next-hop C - MED D - weight E - local preference F - origin Answer: A Question: 170 Exhibit:



Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A - This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message. B - The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received. C - Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router. D - Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router. E - The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0. Answer: A, C Question: 171 What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS? A - Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command. B - Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command. C - Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type Ievel-1-2 command under router isis. D - Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis. E - Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command. Answer: A Question: 172 Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured? A - show ip bgp B - show ip bgp paths C - show ip bgp peers D - show ip bgp summary Answer: D Question: 173 Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.) A - the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS B - the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame C - the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address D - the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00 E - protocol uses point-to-point connectivity



F - protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity Answer: B, C, E Question: 174 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. If the configuration shown below is added to RTA, which three route entries will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers?(Choose three.) router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 eigrp stub A - 10.1.3.0/24 B - 10.1.2.0/24 C - 10.0.0.0/8 D - 10.1.1.0/24 E - 192.168.20.0/24 Answer: A, C, D Question: 175 If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port? A - lowest time to receive BPDUs B - lowest port ID C - lowest sender bridge ID D - highest MAC address on the receiving port Answer: C Question: 176 Drag the port states to their correct description.



Answer:

Question: 177 Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)? A - per host basis using a round-robin scheme B - per host basis using a strict priority scheme C - per session using a round-robin scheme D - per session using a strict priority scheme E - per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme F - per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme Answer: A Question: 178 Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group? A - host membership query B - host membership report C - host membership status D - host membership notification Answer: B




Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on router R2. On router R4, all RIP routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain. A second redistribution is configured on router R2 using a route map. Based on the configuration on R2, which EIGRP external routes will be present in the routing table of R1? A - Only routes originating in the OSPF routing domain. B - The routes originating from the RIP routing domain. C - All routes originating from RIP and OSPF routing domains. D - There will be no EIGRP external routes in the routing table of R1. Answer: A Question: 180 Exhibit:



Given the above output, which statement is true? A - 192.168.1.0 is a static route. B - 192.168.1.0 is a summarized route. C - 192.168.1.0 is a redistributed route into EIGRP. D - 192.168.1.0 is equal path load balancing with 172.16.1.0. Answer: C Question: 181 Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.) A - supports more routers in an area B - does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships C - produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network D - supports route tags E - supports network layer protocols other than IP F - requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcast multiaccess network Answer: A, C, E Question: 182 What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information? A - VTP password B - VTP domain name C - VTP revision number D - VTP mode E - VTP pruning Answer: B Question: 183 What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Choose three.) A - A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router. B - Only remote routers are configured as stubs. C - Stub routers are not queried for routes. D - Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router. E - A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors. F - EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only. Answer: B, C, E




Refer to the exhibit. All switches must be part of a common MST region. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true? A - The configuration must be implemented on the MST root switch only. B - The configuration is optional on the MST root switch. C - The configuration is mandatory on all MST switches in the MST region. D - The configuration is optional on all MST switches in the MST region. Answer: C Question: 185 What is the main purpose of Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)? A - to provide protection for STP when a link is unidirectional and BPDUs are being sent but not received B - to provide faster convergence when topology changes occur in a switched network C - to reduce the total number of spanning tree instances necessary for a particular topology D - to enhance Spanning Tree troubleshooting on multilayer switches Answer: C Question: 186 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.) A - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs.



Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs. B - Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs. C - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120. D - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and 120. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. E - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120. F - Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and 120. Answer: C, D Question: 187 In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST 1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST 1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.) A - TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name. B - TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP. C - TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1. D - TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision. E - TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision. F - TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1. Answer: C, E, F Question: 188 Which two statements are EIGRP characteristics? (Choose two.) A - Updates are sent as multicast. B - Updates are sent as broadcast. C - Metric values are represented in a 32-bit format for granularity. D - LSAs are sent to adjacent neighbors Answer: A, C Question: 189 An administrator has decided to configure Integrated IS-IS on the network. What must the administrator do to enable the interfaces to distribute IP information using IS-IS? A - The networks configured on each interface must be associated to the IS-IS routing protocol using the network router configuration command. B - Each interface must be enabled to support IS-IS with the ip router isis interface configuration command. C - All configured IP networks will automatically be enabled when IS-IS is configured with the router isis global configuration command.



D - Each network must be identified with the net interface configuration command. Answer: B Question: 190 When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group? A - PIM-DM B - PIM-SM C - PIM-RP D - CGMP E - IGMP snooping Answer: B Question: 191 Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.) A - Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer. B - Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer. C - Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches. D - VLANs should be localized to a switch. E - VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized. Answer: B, D Question: 192 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose two.) A - spanning tree issues B - HSRP misconfiguration C - VRRP misconfiguration D - physical layer issues E - transport layer issues Answer: B, D Question: 193 In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a what does 07.ac represent?



A - vendor code B - HSRP group number C - HSRP router number D - HSRP well-known physical MAC address E - HSRP well-known virtual MAC address Answer: E Question: 194 Exhibit:

Refer to the topology diagram. R3 is redistributing the EIGRP routes into OSPF. What will the EIGRP routes appear as in the routing table of R1? A - O B - O IA C - O E2 D - D E - D EX Answer: C Question: 195 Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 belong to the RIP routing domain that includes the networks 10.20.0.0/16 and 10.21.0.0/16. R3 and R4 are performing two-way route redistribution between OSPF and RIP. A network administrator has discovered that R2 is receiving OSPF routes for the networks 10.20.0.0/16 and 10.21.0.0/16 and a routing loop has occurred. Which action will correct this problem?



A - Apply an inbound ACL to the R2 serial interface. B - Change the RIP administrative distance on R3 to 110. C - Configure distribute-lists on R3 and R4 D - Set the OSPF default metric to 20. E - Change the OSPF administrative distance on R3 to 110. Answer: C Question: 196 What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s? A - IIH B - LSP C - CLNS D - CLNP E - ISH Answer: A Question: 197 Which set of statements about Spanning Tree Protocol default timers is true? A - The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 10 seconds. The max_age timer is 15 seconds. B - The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 15 seconds. The max_age timer is 20 seconds. C - The hello time is 2 seconds. The forward delay is 20 seconds. The max_age timer is 30 seconds. D - The hello time is 5 seconds. The forward delay is 10 seconds. The max_age timer is 15 seconds. E - The hello time is 5 seconds. The forward delay is 15 seconds. The max_age timer is 20 seconds. Answer: B

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Test Inside CCNP 642-892 Composite

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