sbi po mock test

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SBI PO 2015 - Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test


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SBI PO 2015 Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test - II

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether

there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be

in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the

answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e no error.

(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

1. The buzz at the party was / that a famous / filmstar and

politician, would/ probable drop by for a while. No error

(1) The buzz at the party was

(2) that a famous

(3) filmstar and politician, would

(4) probable drop by for a while

(5) No error

2. The opposition disrupted proceeding / in both Houses of

Parliament / for the second consecutive day / above the

plight of farmers in the country. No error

(1) The opposition disrupted proceeding

(2) in both Houses of Parliament

(3) for the second consecutive day

(4) above the plight of farmers in the country.

(5) No error

3. In response to the growing crisis, / the agency is urgently

asking for/ more contributions, to make up for / its

sharp decline in purchasing power. No error

(1) In response to the growing crisis

(2) the agency is urgently asking for

(3) more contributions, to make up for

(4) its sharp decline in purchasing power

(5) No error

4. The tennis player easy through/ the opening set before

her opponent,/ rallied to take the final two sets / for the

biggest victory of her young career. No error

(1) The tennis player easy through

(2) the opening set before her opponent

(3) rallied to take the final two sets

(4) for the biggest victory of her young career

(5) No error

5. Aggression in some teenage boys / may be linkage to

overly / large glands in their brains, / a new study has

found. No error

Directions (6-10): Each question below has two blanks,

each blank indicating that something has been omitted.

Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the

meaning of the sentence as a whole.

6. The organization _______ to popularize Indian classical

music among the youth which has lost ____ with its

cultural roots.

(1) endeavors, touch (2) wishes, interest

(3) efforts, experience (4) exerts, intrigue

(5) need, relation

7. One of the major critiques of the examination system is

that it ______ to a spirit of _______ competition among the

students.

(1) results, defective (2) accompanies, adequate

(3) develops, intense (4) takes, serve

This Mock Test consists of 100 questions which are spread across 3 sections English Language, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Aptitude. The mock test carries 100 marks and of one hour duration. There is negative marking of 1/4 marks for each wrong answer.

Pattern of the Mock Test


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(5) leads, unhealthy

8. Auroras are natural light displays in the sky, usually

______ at night, ________ in the Polar Regions.

(1) watch, upward (2) noticed, peculiar

(3) observed, only (4) found, most

(5) follows, mainly

9. After the board examinations, students are ______ up for

the various entrance examinations _______ for next month.

(1) ready, timed (2) gearing, scheduled

(3) prepared, programmed (4) set, duration

(5) geared, kept

10. The governmental _____ spurred dramatic improvements

in the way waste management is ______ out in many

hospitals.

(1) rule, thrown (2) plans, conduct

(3) crusade, one (4) efforts, carried

(5) venture, disposed

Directions (Qs. 11 20): Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain

words are given in bold to help you locate them while

answering some of the questions.

Economists have rightly emphasized the risks to

globalization from economic and financial instability. But

they have ignored environmental destruction, and the

resulting global warming which is now the central global

concern. Fast-growing middle- income nations, such as

China, Malaysia and India, have a big stake in globalization-

and therefore, in confronting this environmental danger.

Their rise has been tied to globalization. They have doubled

their trade in the past decade, and by liberalizing commercial

policies, have also helped others gain. To China, Indonesia as

well as India, environmental outcomes have a special

significance. The possess 60% of worlds freshwater

resources, 60% of the forests, much of the coral reefs, and

valuable biodiversity. But they also face massive degradation

of air, forest, land, freshwater and marine resources, with the

rise in population, adding up to high cost. The atmosphere

concentration of carbon dioxide reached 379 parts per

million in 2005 compared to pre industrial level of 280

ppm. Scientist concurs that to avoid massive climatic

instability, the change in the global temperature ought not to

be more than 20 C above preindustrial levels. To secure that

outcome with some certainty, the concentration of carbon

dioxide needs to stay below 400 ppm. Rich countries like

United States, Japan and the European nations are by far the

most responsible for this and other greenhouse gas

emissions in per capita terms. So they must propel

mitigation measures to improve energy efficiency and

protect the environment. But middle income countries now

account for half of all emissions, and they would not want to

emulate the poor example set by rich countries.

In Brazil, China and India, air and water pollution is

severely impairing peoples health and productivity in the

workplace with a direct impact on growth prospects.

Moreover, globalization has speeded the spillover of these

damages. Growth fuelled by energy intensive industry,

urban crowding and deforestation has added to atmospheric

concentrations of carbon, warming land and ocean and

bringing extreme weather. In turn, climate change threatens

to erode coastlines and provoke droughts and floods, in rich

countries and poor. A clear link is emerging between

deforestation and soil degradation on the one side, and the

fastest rising natural disasters, which are floods and wind

storms, on the other. Societal benefits of abating high level

of emissions far outweigh the costs of doing so. Yet

economists and policy, makers have not drawn the

implication of this calculus for the reform agenda, be it in

trade, energy or infrastructure. Sadly, the costs of such

neglect are large. Also, no country, rich or poor, has enough

motivation to confront global problems alone. Because only

a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would

accrue to countries taking action, while others could have a

free ride. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the

horizon of politicians interest.

The crucial questions is how best countries might

participate in collective measures to mitigate environmental

threats to growth. One opening involves avoiding

deforestation. Cutting down forests accounts for a fifth of the

emissions, more than those from all transportation. By

protecting their forests, countries can reduce carbon

emissions in the atmosphere, paving the way for new

markets for tradable emission permit that would

compensate them for the protection. Whether and how

quickly the environment is accorded top priority will

determine the future of the world economy.

11. Which of the following is True in the context of the

passage?

(1) Pollution from vehicles is the single greatest

contributor to global warming.

(2) The rise of middle income countries has doubled

the levels of greenhouse gas emissions.

(3) China and India have the motivation but not

sufficient influence to implement environmental

reforms.

(4) Urban crowding has resulted in extreme weather

conditions.


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(5) To reduce climate instability global temperature

should be just below or at preindustrial levels.

12. The authors main objective in writing the passage is to:

(1) exhort scientists to provide feasible solutions to stop

climate change.

(2) warn politicians not to disregard the threat of

economic instability while focusing on environmental

challenges.

(3) coerce middle income countries into taking some

initiative in bringing about environmental reform.

(4) criticize the citizens of rich countries for not

pressuring their governments to do more to protect the

environment.

(5) urge countries to take the threat of global warming

seriously and take necessary steps to address the

problems.

13. According to the author, why are politicians reluctant to

formulate environmental reforms?

(A) The expenditure of implementing environmental

reform does not justify the benefits.

(B) Economic stability is more pressing concern for

countries today.

(C) The impact of these policies will only be felt in the

long run which does not benefit them politically.

(1) Only C (2) Both A & B (3) Only A

(4) All A, B, C (5) None of these

14. What is the view of scientists on the current climate

change?

(1) Rich countries are solely responsible for global

warming.

(2) Pre industrial levels of carbon concentration are

unachievable.

(3) Controlling rise in global temperature is possible by

maintain carbon concentration below a certain level.

(4) Massive climate instability is unavoidable and the

focus should be on measures to cope with the fallout.

(5) None of these

15. What impact has globalization had on India?

(1) It has exacerbated the fallout of environmental

degradation.

(2) Its economic benefits are not felt by all its citizens.

(3) India has ignored infrastructure development.

(4) Professionals have left to seek better employment in

foreign countries.

(5) None of these

16. Which of the following is a means to reduce the

environmental threat to growth?

(A) Government should conduct a cost benefit analysis

of various environmental protection measures and

implement those which are cost efficient.

(B) Participation of all countries in arriving at a

consensus on measures necessary to combat

environmental challenges to growth.

(C) Scientists not economists should determine the risks

to globalization.

(1) None (2) Only B (3) Both A & B

(4) All A, B & C (5) None of these

17. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in

meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the

passage.

ABATING

(1) relaxing (2) alleviating (3) varying

(4) intensifying (5) contracting

18. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in


passage.

STAKE

(1) perspective (2) chance (3) support

(4) gamble (5) share

19. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in


passage.

PROPEL

(1) sanction (2) collapse (3) discourage

(4) abhor (5) deplete

20. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in


passage.

EMULATE

(1) copy (2) fake (3) replace

(4) originate (5) rival

Directions (Qs. 21 25): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them. (A) It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri

Desgrange, a magazine editor in Paris.

(B) The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.

(C) His idea worked and the magazine boomed.

(D) His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.

(E) He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the

three week long 3,500 kilometer long cycling race.


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(F) Till today the race remains more popular than he could

ever have dreamed.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence

after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) D (5) E

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence


(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) D (5) E

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence


(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) D (5) E

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence


(1) A (2) B (3) C

(4) D (5) F

25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (Last)

sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) C (3) D

(4) E (5) F

Directions (Qs. 26 30): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the pas-sage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Recently the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank

(ADB) released separate reports on poverty. The World Bank

(26) its benchmark of extreme poverty by 25 cents from $ 1

per person per day to $1.25 per person a day. The ADB

announced an even (27) benchmark of $1.35 per person a

day. These new benchmarks are based on surveys in the

worlds poorest countries.

Experts often like to claim that poverty has declined

because of economic growth in India and China. This is

wrong and (28). In the past twenty five years the poverty

rate in India has (29) by less than one percentage point a

year. Whether we use a poverty line of $1 per person per day

or $1.25 per person per day makes little difference. The

number of poor in India is large. The purpose of these

statistics is not to dispute them but to (30) whether the

benefits of economic growth are being shared with the poor.

26. (1) heightened (2) announced

(3) print (4) issue

(5) publish

27. (1) better (2) significant

(3) plausible (4) higher

(5) lower

28. (1) adverse (2) opposing

(3) corrupt (4) rejected

(5) misleading

29. (1) deplete (2) plunge

(3) declined (4) weaken

(5) fell

30. (1) acknowledge (2) suggest

(3) care (4) inspire

(5) study

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (Qs. 31 35): What approximate value should

come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

questions? (You need not to calculate the exact value.)

31. 388 0.8 0.7 = ?

(1) 681 (2) 654 (3) 693

(4) 670 (5) 700

32. 729 x 338 = ?

(1) 470 (2) 482 (3) 521

(4) 530 (5) 496

33. 1875 35 x 3242 48 = ?

(1) 3325 (2) 3618 (3) 3641

(4) 3591 (5) 3636

34. 3 41132 =?

(1) 35 (2) 42 (3) 22

(4) 29 (5) 45

35. 15.28 x 12.36 + 41.17 x 21.34 = ?

(1) 1125 (2) 1098 (3) 1132

(4) 1032 (5) 1067

Directions (Qs 36-40): What should come in place of the

question mark (?)

36. 59.76 58.66 56.46 52.06 ? 25.66

(1) 48.08 (2) 46.53

(3) 43.46 (4) 43.26

(5) None of these


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37. 36 157 301 470 ? 891

(1) 646 (2) 695 (3) 639

(4) 669 (5) None of these

38. 14 70 350 ? 8750 43750

(1) 1570 (2) 875 (3) 1750


39. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?

(1) 2456415 (2) 2235675 (3) 2980565

(4) 2714985 (5) 2197845

40. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?

(1) 4096 (2) 2401 (3) 1764

(4) 3136 (5) 6561

Directions (Qs. 41-45): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions.

Table giving the number of candidates appeared in the examination and percentage of students passed from various institutes

over the years.

Institutes A B C D E F

Year App % Pass

App % Pass

App % Pass

App % Pass

App % Pass

App % Pass

2001 450 60 540 40 300 65 640 50 600 45 680 60

2002 520 50 430 70 350 60 620 40 580 70 560 70

2003 430 60 490 70 380 50 580 50 680 70 700 66

2004 400 65 600 75 450 70 600 75 720 60 780 70

2005 480 50 570 50 400 75 700 65 700 48 560 50

2006 500 40 450 60 500 68 750 60 450 50 650 60

2007 550 58 470 60 470 60 720 70 560 60 720 50

41. What is the total number of students passed from all

institutes together in the year 2006?

(1) 1895 (2) 1985

(3) 1295 (4) 1465

(5) None of these

42. Approximately, what is the overall percentage of

students passed from institute C for all the years?

(1) 60 (2) 70

(3) 75 (4) 55

(5) 65

43. What is the ratio of number of students passed from

institute F in 2003 to the number of students passed

from institute B in 2005?

(1) 95:154 (2) 154:95

(3) 94:155 (4) 155:94

(5) None of these

44. What is the ratio of the average number of students

appeared from institute A for all the years to that from

institute D?

(1) 463:333 (2) 353:463

(3) 461:333 (4) 333:461

(5) None of these

45. What is the overall percentage of students passed from

all the institutes together in 2004? (rounded off to the

nearest integer)

(1) 68 (2) 70

(3) 69 (4) 71

(5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 46-50): In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer: (1) If x > y (2) If x > y (3) If x < y (4) If x < y (5) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established 46. I. 5x2 18x + 9 = 0

II. 20y2 13y + 2 = 0

47. I. x2 + 29x = -210

II. Y2 + 28y = -195

48. I. 3x2 + 17x + 20 = 0

II. 4y2 + 9y + 5 = 0

49. I. 2x2 + 13x + 21 = 0

II. 2y2 + 15y + 28 = 0

50. I. 3x2 - 13x + 12 = 0

II. 2y2 + 17y + 33 = 0

51. Two equal sums are lent at the same time at 6% and 5%

SI. Former is received 24 months earlier than the latter

and the amount in each case is Rs 2400.find sum of

money lent initially.

(1) Rs. 5000 (2) Rs. 4000

(3) Rs 5500 (4) Rs. 4600

(5) Rs. 3300


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52. A treacherous fruit vendor, while purchasing apples

from the wholesaler, manages to receive 25% more

apples than the quantity for which he pays. He cheats his

customers as well and while selling the apples to them he

delivers (50/3) % less apples than the quantity for

which the customers pay. If he claims to sell the apples at

their cost price, find his net profit percentage.

(1) 25% (2) 45% (3) 50%

(4) 33% (5) None of these

53. On 1st January, 2000 the average age of a family of 6

people was 'A' years. After 5 years a child was born in

the family and one year after that the average age was

again found to be 'A' years. What is the value of 'A'?

(Assume that there are no other deaths and births.)

(1) 28 (2) 33 (3) 46

(4) 56 (5) 37

54. A motor boat went downstream for 350 km and

immediately returned. It took the boat 16 hours to

complete the round trip. If the speed of river was twice

the normal, the trip downstream and back would take 20

hours. What is the speed of boat in still water?

(1) 140/3 kmph (2) 137/3 kmph

(3) 145/3 kmph (4) 119/2 kmph

(5) None of these

55. A certain amount has to be shared among A, B and C in d

ratio 3:6:8 but erroneously the amount was shared

among A and C in the ratio 8:17 as a result B got 25%

less amount than actual share if the diff between the

actual amount and the amount received by A is 100 find

the actual share of C ?

(1) Rs. 600 (2) Rs. 750 (3) Rs. 800

(4) Rs. 700 (5) None of these

56. There are three taps A, B, and C. A takes thrice as much

time as B and C together to fill the tank. B takes twice as

much time as A and C to fill the tank. In how much time

can the Tap C fill the tank individually, if they would

require 10 hours to fill the tank, when opened

simultaneously?

(1) 24 hrs (2) 8 hrs (3) 18 hrs

(4) 10 hrs (5) 16 hrs

57. Mr. A and Mrs. B have two sons P and Q and a daughter

R. R is the youngest among the three children. Mrs. B is

five years younger than Mr. A. The ages of the children

form an Arithmetic Progression whose common

difference is 1. The sum of the ages of the male members

is 92 while that of the female members of the family is

67. What is the sum of the ages of Mr. A and Mrs. B?

(1) 100 (2) 95 (3) 115

(4) 105 (5) 90

58. There are 3 solutions.

Solution 1: Consists of A and B in the volume ratio 3 : 2.

Solution 2: Consists of B and C in the volume ratio 1 : 4.

Solution 3: Consists of B and C in the volume ratio 7 : 3.

The 3 solutions are mixed in the volume ratio X : 3 : 2. If

the percentage composition of A and B are equal in the

resultant mixture, then what is the value of X?

(1) 15 (2) 21

(3) 10 (4) 12

(5) None of these

59. By selling 18 articles, a shopkeeper earns the cost price

of 24 articles. By what percent should he increase the

selling price so that by selling 24 articles, he earns cost

price of 36 articles?

(1) 12.5% (2) 10%

(3) 14.5% (4) 16.33%

(5) None of these

60. A couple has two children. The probability that the first

child is a girl is 50%. The probability that the second child is a girl is also 50%. The couple tells you that they

have a daughter. What is the probability that their other

child is also a girl?

(1) 4/3 (2) 1/3 (3) 3/7

(4) (5) None of these


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Directions (Qs. 61-65): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Total number of Boys and Girls in Five different departments.

61. The number of girls from Biology department is

approximately what percent of the total number of girls

from all the departments together?

(1) 32 (2) 21 (3) 37

(4) 43 (5) 27

62. What is the difference between the total number of boys

and the total number of girls from all the departments

together?

(1) 440 (2) 520 (3) 580


63. What is the average number of boys from all the

departments together?

(1) 122 (2) 126 (3) 130


64. The number of boys from Anthropology department is

approximately what percent of the total number of boys

from all the departments together?

(1) 15 (2) 23 (3) 31

(4) 44 (5) 56

65. What is the ratio of the number of girls from Philosophy

department to the number of girls from Psychology

department?

(1) 1:2 (2) 7:12 (3) 5:12

(4) 3:4 (5) None of these

REASONING ABILITY

Directions (Qs. 66-70): In each question below are given

four statements followed by two conclusion numbered I and

II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if

they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.

Read tall the conclusions and then decide which of the given

conclusions logically follows from the given statements,

disregarding commonly known facts.

66. Statements: Some leaves are flowers. No flower is fruit.

Some fruits are branches. Some branches are stems.

Conclusions: I. All branches being flower is a possibility.

II. Some branches are not leaves.

(1) Only I follows (2) Both I & II follow

(3) Only II follows (4) Either I or II follows

(5) Neither I nor II follows

67. Statements: All lions are tigers. All tigers are leopards.

Some leopards are wolves. No wolf is elephant.

Conclusions: I. Some tigers are lions.

II. All tigers being elephant is a possibility.




68. Statements: Some caps are umbrellas. Some umbrellas

are raincoats. All raincoats are trousers.

Al trousers are jackets.

Conclusions: I. Some trousers are not raincoat.

II. Some caps are raincoat.



B

G B

G

B

G B

G

B

G


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69. Statements: Some fans are coolers. Some coolers are

machines. Some machines are computers.

All computers are televisions.

Conclusions: I. Some cooler not being machine is a

possibility. II. Some computer are cooler.




70. Statements: All keys are staplers. All staplers are blades.

Some blades are erasers. Some erasers are sharpeners.

Conclusions: Some sharpener are stapler.

II. Some blades are stapler.




Direction(71-75): Read the following information and then

answer the questions below:

Ten students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a row

facing west.

(i) B and F are not sitting on either of the edges

(ii) G is sitting second to the left of D and H is sitting to the

right of J.

(iii) There are four persons between E and A.

(iv) I is to the north of B and F is to the south of D.

(v) J is in between A and D and G is in between E and F

(vi) There are two persons between H and C.

71. Who is sitting at the seventh place counting from the

left?

(1) H (2) C (3) J

(4) Either H or C (5) None of these

72. Who among the following is definitely sitting at one of

the ends?

(1) C (2) H (3) E

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

73. Who are the immediate neighbours of I?

(1) B and C (2) B and H

(3) A and H (4) B and A

(5) Cannot be determined

74. Who is sitting second left of D?

(1) G (2) F (3) E

(4) J (5) B

75. If G and A interchange their positions, then who become

the immediate neighbours of E?

(1) G and F (2) F only (3) A only

(4) J and H (5) D only

Direction (Q. 76-80): In these questions, relationship

between different elements is shown in the statements.

These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark

answer

1) If only conclusion I follows.

2) If only conclusion II follows.

3) If either conclusion I or II follows.

4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

76. Statements: A < B, B < C, C = D, D > E

Conclusion: I. B = D II. B < D

77. Statements: M = N > O < P = Q < R

Conclusion: I. N > P II. R > N

78. Statements: S < T, T < U, U = W, W < X

Conclusion: I. S > W II. W > T

79. Statements: G < H, I < G, H < J, J < K

Conclusion: I. H < K II. H > I

80. Statements: C < B, K> G, G = M, B < K, M < B

Conclusion: I. M < K II. C = G

Directions (Qs. 81 85): Read the following information

and then answer the questions below:

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building

having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is

numbered I, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the

topmost floor is numbered 6).

A, lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors

between the floors on which A and F live. C lives immediately

above the floor on which E lives. C does not live on an even

numbered floor. Only one person lives between C and B.

81. Who among the following lives on 4th numbered floor?

(1) D (2) B (3) F

(4) Cannot be determined (5) E

82. How many person lives between E and B?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two

(4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

83. Who lives immediately above As floor?

(1) B (2) E (3) C

(4) D (5) None of these

84. Which of the following pairs of the persons lives on the

even numbered floor?

(1) E, B (2) F, B (3) A, D

(4) D, F (5) D, C

85. Which among the following options is correct regarding

person and floor?

(1) A, 3rd floor (2) D, 6th floor

(3) B, 4th floor (4) E, 5th floor

(5) A, 5th floor


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Directions (Qs. 86-88): Read the following information and

answer the questions that follow:

Mr. and Mrs. Rana have two children Anushka and Saurya.

Saurya married Rajni, daughter of Mrs. Tomar. Nitin, son of

Mr. Tomar married Ritu. Ram and Shyam are born to Nitin

and Ritu. Reema and Vidhya are the daughters of Saurya and

Rajni.

86. What is Vidhya's relation to Anushka?

(1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Aunt

(2) Daughter (5) None of these

87. How is Ram related to Mr Tomar?

(1) Son in law (2) Sibling (3) Grandson

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

88. How is Anushka related to Rajni?

(1) Mother in law (2) Aunt (3) Sister in law

(4) Niece (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 89-90): Study the following information

carefully to answer these questions.

A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 km towards North.

It takes a right turn and runs 15 km. It now runs 6 km after

taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runes 15 km and

stops at point Q.

89. How far is point Q with respect to point P?

(1) 16 km (2) 25 km (3) 4 km

(4) 0 km (5) None of these

90. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before

it stopped at point Q?

(1) North (2) East (3) South

(4) West (5) North West

Directions (Qs. 91-95): Read the following information and

then answer the questions below:

Eight persons-P, S, Q, R, U, B, J and C are sitting in a field in a

circle. Three are facing opposite side and other five are facing

the centre. S is sitting to the third right of B. R is not near C. Q

is sitting to the third to the left of R, who is second right of P,

and among these three ,one is facing opposite to the centre of

circle. Two persons are sitting between C and U and two are

sitting between B and U. Q is sitting second to the left of J,

who is facing the centre of the circle. S is facing the centre of

the circle. U is not sitting opposite to B and Q.

91. Who sits to the immediate left of U?

(1) Q (2) S (3) J

(4) B (5) R

92. What is the position of R, with respect to C?

(1) Second to the left

(2) Second to the right

(3) Third to the right

(4) Immediate right

(5) None of these

93. Which of the following pairs sits between S and B?

(1) P & R (2) C & P (3) R & J

(4) Q & U (5) R & C

94. Starting from Bs position, if all the eight persons are

arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the

seating position of how many persons (excluding B)

would not be change?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three

(4) More than three (5) None of these

95. Who among the following persons sits second to the left

of P?

(1) Q (2) S (3) R

(4) B (5) U

Directions (Qs. 96-100) Study the following information

and answer the questions given.

In a certain code language lu ja ka hu means we provide

study material, fa ka la ju means we score maximum

selection, la fu ja ju means study score the selection and

ju lu na fu means selection of the material. Then

96. What is the code of score in this code language?

(1) ju (2) la (3) fa

(4) ka (5) Cannot be determined

97. What is the code of provide in this code language?

(1) hu (2) lu (3) ka

(4) ja (5) Cannot be detrmined

98. What is the code of provide of maximum?

(1) na hu fu (2) fa hu na

(3) fu lu na (4) hu fa la


99. What is the code of we the in this code language?

(1) ka fu (2) na hu

(3) ka na (4) hu fu


100. What is the code of material in this code language?

(1) hu (2) lu (3) ja

(4)ka (5) Canot be determined


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sbi po mock test

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