response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be ...

New Jersey Science League BLUE EXAM Biology I January 10, 2019 Corrections:

Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. Please PRINT your name, school, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Please use the same name for all exams. 1. Lipids are good energy-storage molecules because:

a. they have many carbon to hydrogen bonds b. they can absorb a large amount of energy

while maintaining a constant temperature

c. they are composed of many simple sugars d. they cannot be digested by enzymes

2. A protein contains 245 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present?

a. 20 b. 244

c. 245 d. 246

For questions 3-5, refer to molecule on the right: 3. The 2 hexagons in the diagram are linked together by

a/an a. hydrogen bond b. peptide bond c. oxygen bond d. glycosidic bond

4. The ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms in this molecule is a. 1:2 b. 2:1

c. 1:3 d. 4:1

5. This diagram represents which type of molecule?

a. an amino acid

b. a lipid c. a dipeptide

d. a disaccharide

Questions 6-8 refer to the diagram on the right: 6. The diagram at the right represents a molecule of:

a. glucose b. amylase c. starch

d. lipid

7. The molecule in #6 was formed from the following monomers: a. amino acids b. monosaccharide

c. glycogen and hydrocarbon chains d. glycerol and fatty acids

8. The double lines in the molecule represent:

Bio I Jan 10, 2019 Exam

a. 2 shared electrons b. 4 shared electrons

c. 6 shared electrons d. 8 shared electrons

9. Amylase, catalase, and maltase are all examples of:

a. carbohydrates b. proteins c. lipids d. nucleic acids 10. Robert Hooke used a microscope to study cork. What did he probably view?

a. cell walls b. cell membranes c. nuclei d. chloroplasts

Use the diagram below to answer the questions 11-12. A student put together the experimental setup shown below. The selectively permeable membrane is permeable to water, but not the solute shown. 11. How does the solution on Side A of the apparatus shown above differ from the solution on Side B?

a. Solution on Side A is hypertonic to the solution on Side B

b. Solution on Side B is hypertonic to the solution on Side A

c. Solution on Side B is hypotonic to the solution on Side A

d. Solution on Side A is isotonic to the solution on Side B

12. In the experimental setup:

a. The movement of water molecules is from side A and to side B b. The movement of water molecules is from side B and to side A c. Water moves equally in both directions d. The movement of water molecules cannot be predicted

13. Cells in the body exist in an aqueous environment. They are constantly surrounded by water or a

solution that contains water. Why don’t cells dissolve when they get wet? a. The cell membranes are composed of proteins that do not mix with water. b. The cell membranes repel water due to specialized pumps on their surfaces. c. The cell membranes are made of lipids that do not mix with water. d. The cell membranes absorb all the water before it can degrade the cell.

Use the diagram for questions 14-15 14. As seen in the diagram, when blood cells are placed in a certain

solution; they shrink. Which is probably true of the solution? a. solution is hypotonic to the blood cells b. solution is hypertonic to the blood cells c. solution is isotonic to the blood cells d. solution is probably distilled water

15. What solution would cause red blood cells to burst?

a. Tap water b. Strong salt solution

c. Heated salt water solution d. Alcohol


16. In a separate experiment if instead of using blood cells, human cheek cells were used and placed in distilled water, what would take place? a. Human cheek cells would swell and burst b. Human cheek cells would swell but turgor pressure would keep the shape of the cells constant c. Human cheek cells would shrink d. Human cheek cells would be at equilibrium with the water because it is a mouth tissue

17. Cell specialization is a process in which a. cells throughout an organism develop in different ways to perform different tasks. b. materials move through a cell membrane during exocytosis. c. biologists identify different levels of organization. d. water moves through a selectively permeable membrane.

18. As a cell grows larger, it has more trouble

a. replicating its chromosomes. b. moving enough nutrients across the cell membrane.

c. moving through the cell cycle. d. completing cell division.

19. Which of the following statements about the cell membrane is false? B and c are correct. Key has

letter C. a. The cell membrane is composed of phospholipids and proteins. True b. The cell membrane forms the outermost boundary in all eukaryotic cells c. All materials can pass freely back and forth across the membrane. d. The structure of the cell membrane is well-suited for maintaining homeostasis.

20. Large materials are brought into a cell by:

a. osmosis b. phagocytosis c. diffusion d. exocytosis Questions 21-24 refer to the diagram on the right. 21. The diagram represents which of the following?

a. cell wall of an animal cell b. cell wall of a plant cell c. cell membrane of a eukaryotic cell d. nuclear membrane of a eukaryotic cell

22. Structure A represents which of the following? a. protein channel b. lipid channel c. phospholipid molecule d. polysaccharide molecule

23. Structure labeled X is best described as:

a. hydrophobic b. hydrophilic

c. composed of glycogen d. composed of protein

24. Which structure represents a chemical identification tag?


a. A b. B c. C d. D

25. A group of similar cells that perform a particular function is called a(n) a. organ. b. tissue.

c. organ system. d. multicellular organism

26. In higher organisms, most organs are organized into:

a. cells

b. organelles

c. systems

d. tissues

For Questions 27-28, refer to the diagram below: 27. The diagram represents a/an:

a. prokaryote cell b. animal cell c. plant cell d. bacterial cell

28. Which structure contains DNA?

a. Structure A b. Structure B c. Structure C d. Structure D

29. Which organelle converts the chemical energy stored in food into useable energy? a. chloroplast b. mitochondrion

c. endoplasmic reticulum d. Golgi apparatus

30. Plant cells have this large membrane-bound space for storage of water, waste products and nutrients.

What is this space called? a. Mitochondrion b. Golgi apparatus c. chloroplast d. central vacuole

31. Which sequence correctly traces the path of a protein in the cell?

a. ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus b. ribosome, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum c. endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, ribosome d. Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosome

32. The difference between endergonic and exergonic reactions is:

a. Endergonic reactions release energy while exergonic absorb energy.


b. Endergonic reactions give off energy while exergonic do not. c. Endergonic reactions occur inside the body, while exergonic occur outside. d. Endergonic reactions absorb energy while exergonic reactions release energy.

33. The products of an exergonic reaction

a. have more energy than the reactants b. have less energy than the reactants

c. have the same amount of energy as the reactants d. have used all the energy during the reaction

34. Which statement about this reaction is true?

6CO2+6H2O+energy → C6H12O6+6O2 a. This is an exergonic reaction b. This is an endergonic reaction

c. This reaction releases heat d. This reaction produces ATP

35. What term is used for a non-protein organic molecule that is required by some enzymes in order to

catalyze a reaction on a substrate? a. prosthetic group b. competitive inhibitor

c. co-enzyme d. modulator

36. According to the induced fit model of an enzyme:

a. the substrate changes its shape slightly b. the enzyme changes its shape slightly

c. none of them change shape d. both change shapes

The diagram shows a metabolic pathway. Use this diagram for questions 37-38

37. What would happen to the rate of production of D if enzyme 1 was not present? a. it would stop b. it wouldn't be any different

c. it would be increased d. it would be reduced

38. What would happen to the rate of production of D if the concentration of enzyme 1 was increased but

the concentration of enzymes 2 and 3 remained constant? a. it would stay the same b. it would stop

c. it would go down d. it would go up

39. Enzymes a. make endergonic reactions proceed spontaneously b. lower the activation energy of a reaction c. are not very specific in their choice of substrates d. are needed in large quantities because they are used up during catalysis


Use the segment of the periodic table below for questions 40 and 41.

40. The number on the top of the element Argon is called the ________

a. atomic mass b. number of neutrons

c. atomic number d. sum of protons and neutrons

41. Argon’s valance shell has

a. 18 electrons b. 2 electrons c. 39 electrons d. 8 electrons 42. Ions can be differentiated from other atoms of the same element by virtue of the number of these

particles: a. Electrons b. Protons

c. Neutrons d. Protons and neutrons

43. Polar compounds will dissolve best in:

a. Water b. Oil c. Gasoline d. Grease

44. Two chemicals with the same chemical formula, but with different structural arrangements of their atoms are: a. isomers b. isotopes

c. ionic

d. inorganic

45. What chemical builds up in human muscle cells when they are deprived of oxygen? a. lactic acid b. pyruvic acid

c. water d. carbon dioxide

46. The final electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration is:

a. O2

b. NAD+

c. ATP

d. FADH2

47. During cell respiration, every FADH2 molecule yields a maximum of: a. 1 ATP b. 2 ATP c. 3 ATP d. 4 ATP

48. How many molecules of ATP can a cell net from the complete aerobic respiration of 1 molecule of glucose? a. 2 b. 4 c. 32 d. 36


49. Where does glycolysis occur? a. in the matrix of the mitochondrion b. in the cristae of the mitochondrion

c. in the thylakoids of the chloroplast d. in the cytoplasm of the cell

50. The process of glycolysis alone produces a net gain of:

a. 2 ATP b. 4 ATP c. 12 ATP d. 36 ATP For questions 51-52 use the diagram below.

51. DNA and ribosomes are found in region labeled

a. A b. B c. C d. D

52. Chlorophyll molecules are found in the region labeled a. A b. B c. C d. D

Use the following information for questions # 53 and 54. A tissue or cells can be mashed in a blender to form a liquid homogenate and then spun in an ultracentrifuge at high speeds to separate it into layers based on differences in density. The densest cell organelles settle to the bottom of the tube, forming a pellet. The supernatant, the liquid above the pellet which contains less dense organelles, can be poured off and re-spun. In this way, cell organelles can be isolated. A homogenate of human tissue was processed and spun in this way. See the diagram below.

53. Pellet B was found to have the highest rate of oxygen uptake compared with the other pellets. Which organelles did it contain?

a. Ribosomes b. Mitochondria

c. Vacuoles d. Golgi


54. Pellet C was analyzed and found to consist of high concentrations of RNA compared with the other pellets. Which organelles did it contain?

a. Ribosomes b. Mitochondria

c. Vacuoles d. Golgi

55. What is the source of the electrons involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? a. CO2 b. H20 c. NADP+ d. NAD+

56. What is the formula of the molecule made in the light-dependent reactions that is used in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis.

a. CO2 b. NADH c. O2 d. ATP

57. The electrons that leave chlorophyll in the non-cyclic light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are passed directly to:

a. NAD+ b. NADP+ c. H2O d. FAD+ 58. What is the source of most of the oxygen gas in the earth’s atmosphere today?

First C is correct. a. the Calvin cycle b. the Krebs cycle

c. the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis c.(d) the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis

59. What is the process called when hydrogen ions move across a membrane to generate energy in the form of ATP?

a. chemiosmosis b. hydrolysis c. respiration d. photosynthesis 60. Mice are mammals. As such, they are endotherms. That is, they maintain internal heat metabolically. A lizard is an ectotherm and gains its body heat from the environment. Which graph below most accurately depicts this situation?


New Jersey Science League

Biology I Answer Key Blue Test Date: January 10, 2019

Record onto the area record the # correct Corrections 1 A 16 A 31 A 46 A 2 B 17 A 32 D 47 B 3 D 18 B 33 B 48 D 4 B 19 C & B 34 B 49 D 5 D 20 B 35 C 50 A 6 D 21 C 36 B 51 C 7 D 22 A 37 A 52 D 8 B 23 B 38 A 53 B 9 B 24 B 39 B 54 A 10 A 25 B 40 C 55 B 11 B 26 C 41 D 56 D 12 A 27 B 42 A 57 B 13 C 28 C 43 A 58 C 14 B 29 B 44 A 59 A 15 A 30 D 45 A 60 B

BIOLOGY I : No AP or second year students in this category. 60 multiple choice questions per exam. JANUARY EXAM – Carbon Compounds (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids) and basic chemistry including the chemistry of water and pH, Chemical Reactions, Enzymes, Cell structure and function, Levels of Cellular Organization, Organelles, Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic, Cell membrane structure and function, Cellular and Intracellular transport, Tonicity, Homeostasis, Cellular Energy Flow, Photosynthesis and Respiration FEBRUARY EXAM – Cellular Division - Mitosis, Meiosis, Cell Regulation, Alterations of chromosome numbers, Karyotyping, Mendelian genetics, one and two factor crosses, incomplete dominance, codominance, pleiotropy, polygenic inheritance, sex-linked disorders, mutations and causes, human genetic diseases including chromosomal analysis, Variation of Traits, Pedigrees, Structure and function of nucleic acids, Experiments identifying DNA as the hereditary molecule, DNA replication, Roles of DNA and RNA, Protein synthesis, Viral DNA, Gene regulation and expression, Genetic engineering, DNA technology and genomics, Plus review of the Jan exam. MARCH EXAM - Darwin’s Theory of natural Selection, Fossil records, Gene pool, Hardy Weinberg equations and word problems based on Hardy Weinberg equations, Speciation and its causes, adaptive radiation, Evidence for evolution: historical thought/experimental theories of evolution….. Biogenesis/Abiogenesis, Comparative anatomy and comparative embryology, Taxonomy: Cladograms and Phylogenetic Trees, Genetic change in a population, Patterns and causes of Evolution, Coacervate formation, Miller/Urey experiment. Molecular evidence (nucleotide sequence analysis, amino acid sequence analysis), Plus review of the Jan and Feb exams. APRIL EXAM - Evidence of diversity, Adaptation of organism to the environment, Types of biomes, Limiting factors in Biomes, Population density and dispersal patterns, Population structure and dynamics, Carrying capacity of a population, Exponential Growth, Human population, Boom-and-bust growth cycles, structural features of Communities, Interactions of autotrophs and heterotrophs, Flow of energy through an ecosystem, Symbiosis, Food cycles and webs, Cycles of Matter-Water, Carbon, Nitrogen, and Phosphorus cycles, Ecological succession, Ecosystem models of energy flow, Ecological experimentation and analysis, Biomagnification and bioaccumulation, Factors affecting biodiversity in a population, Human Influence on ecosystems, Plus review of Jan, Feb, and March exams.

Dates for 2019 Season Thursday January 10, 2019, Thursday February 14, 2019

Thursday March 14, 2019 Thursday April 11, 2019 All areas and schools must complete the April exam and mail in the results by April 30, 2019

No area may take the April exam during the first week of April or the first week of May New Jersey Science League

PO Box 65 Stewartsville, NJ 08886-0065 Phone # 908-213-8923 fax # 908-213-9272 email: [email protected]

Web address: http://entnet.com/~personal/njscil/html/ What is to be mailed back to our office?

PLEASE RETURN THE AREA RECORD AND ALL TEAM MEMBER SCANTRONS (ALL STUDENTS PLACING 1ST, 2ND, 3RD, AND 4TH).

If you return scantrons of alternates, then label them as ALTERNATES. Dates for 2020 Season

Thursday January 9, 2020 Thursday February 13, 2020 Thursday March 12, 2020 Thursday April 9, 2020

mailto:[email protected]

http://entnet.com/%7Epersonal/njscil/html/

New Jersey Science League Corrections Biology I February 14, 2019 BLUE EXAM

Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. Please PRINT your name, school, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Please use the same name for all exams.

1. The G1, S, G2 phases of the cell cycle are together called: a. interphase b. prophase c. telophase d. cytokinesis 2. Chromatids are:

a. identical copies of DNA attached together by a centromere b. replicated prior to interphase c. a homologous pair of chromosomes, one from each parent d. composed of both DNA and RNA

3. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated? a. G0 b. G1 c. S d. G2

4. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with a. a single large nucleus. b. high concentrations of actin and myosin.

c. two nuclei. d. two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA

Refer to the following diagram for questions 5-7: 5. The cell in the picture below is in which phase:

a. anaphase of mitosis b. telophase of mitosis c. anaphase I of meiosis d. anaphase II of meiosis

6. What is the haploid number of the organism cell shown in the picture in # 5?

a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 7. What are the structures located at the arrow in the picture of the cell?

a. centromeres b. chromatids c. chromatin d. centrioles 8. Which of the following describes the sequence of events when a pair of animals produces offspring?

a. meiosis, gametes, fertilization, zygote, mitosis b. meiosis, fertilization, mitosis, zygote, gametes c. mitosis, haploid cells, meiosis, zygote, fertilization d. mitosis, gametes, zygote, fertilization, meiosis

NJSL Bio I Feb 2019 Exam Page 1

9. Cancer is not usually inherited because a. the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells. b. people with cancer usually die before reproducing. c. cancer typically causes disruptions of meiosis. d. the cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to produce gametes.

10. Which of the following is a term for a cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes?

a. an unfertilized egg b. a sperm cell

c. a male somatic cell d. a female somatic cell

11. During cell division, in a tetrad there may be an equal exchange of pieces of DNA between non-sister chromatids. This process is called:

a. mitosis b. crossing-over c. translocation d. frame-shift Use the following karyotype for question 12 12. A geneticist could infer that the person with the shown karyotype is a:

a. male with Huntington’s Disease b. female with Turner’s Syndrome c. female with Tay-Sach’s Disease d. male with Klinefelter’s Syndrome

13. In preparing a karyotype, in what stage of mitosis are chromosomes photographed?

a. anaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. interphase 14. When a single gene is responsible for the multiple symptoms of certain hereditary disease, it is said to be _____.

a. pleiotropy b. codominance

c. polygenic inheritance d. incomplete dominance

15. The purpose of doing a testcross is to determine if a phenotypically dominant organism is genotypically:

a. female b. male c. homozygous d. recessive 16. Heterozygous individuals who can pass on an abnormal recessive condition even if they do not express the condition are referred to as __________.

a. alleles b. homologues c. zygotic d. carriers 17. Genes located on the same chromosome are said to be:

a. homologous b. heterozygous c. a tetrad d. linked


18. Which one of the following is a false statement about sickle-cell disease? Sickle-cell disease only occurs in red blood cell, not white blood cells. Also, it is only caused by one allele. a. Sickle-cell disease is common in tropical Africa. b. Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria. c. Sickle-cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle shaped. d. All of the symptoms of sickle-cell disease result from the actions of just one allele.

19. Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is a a. nucleolus b. nucleotide c. nucleosome d. histone

20. A person who has a father with type O blood and a mother who is homozygous type A will be type:

a. A b. AB c. B d. O

21. Two alleles for pea plant height are designated T (tall) and t (dwarf). These alleles are found on: Genes contain alleles, so both A and D can be considered correct.

a. genes b. sex chromosomes

c. ribosomes d. homologous chromosomes

22. Which of the following would be an example of human polygenic inheritance a. ABO blood types b. Skin color

c. Sickle cell disease d. Huntington’s disease

Use the following information and drawing for questions 23-25: In pea plants, inflated pod shape is dominant over constricted pod shape and tall stem length is dominant over short stem length. Assume both are single gene traits with a dominant and recessive allele and that they are not linked to each other. 23. What proportion of the offspring would be expected to be tall and with inflated pods if a dihybrid plant was crossed with plant which was homozygous recessive for both traits?

a. 9/16 b. 3/16 c. 1/2 d. 1/4

24. If the dihybrid plant was crossed with another pea plant with the same genotype, what proportion would be expected to be tall with constricted pods?

a. 9/16 b. 3/16 c. 1/2 d. 1/4

25. If the dihybrid plant was crossed with another pea plant with the same genotype, how many offspring would be expected to show inflated pods?

a. 9/16 b. 10/16 c. 11/16 d. 12/16


26. Hemophilia, a blood clotting disorder, is due to a recessive allele on the X chromosome. What is the probable ratio of offspring from a cross between parents who have normal clotting, but the mother is a carrier.

a. 1 normal daughter : 1 carrier daughter : 1 normal son : 1 hemophiliac son b. 2 carrier daughters : 1 normal son : 1 hemophiliac son c. 2 normal daughters : 1 normal son : 1 carrier son d. 1 normal daughter : 1 carrier daughter : 1 normal son : 1 carrier son

27. Why are female hemophiliacs rare?

a. They die when they are born b. Hemophilia cannot be expressed in females

c. Both parents must have the allele d. Female hormones prevent hemophilia

Use the information provided below to answer questions 28-29 Each of the following is a modification of the sentence: THECATATETHERAT

a. THERATATETHECAT b. THETACATETHERAT c. THECATARETHERAT

d. THECATATTHERAT e. CATATETHERAT

28. Which of the above is analogous to a frame shift mutation? 29. Which of the above is analogous to a single base substitution mutation? Use the following information and diagram for question # 30: A homozygous red flower (CRCR) was crossed with a homozygous white flower (CWCW), and the resulting F1 generation was heterozygous pink (CRCW). Self-fertilization of the F1 generation produced the ratio 1red:2pink:1white 30. What pattern of inheritance does the above illustrate?

a. codominance b. incomplete dominance c. polymorphism d. sex-linked

31. A condition called trisomy 21 is caused by:

a. Down’s syndrome b. nondisjunction c. deletion d. translocation


Observe the pedigree shown below for question 32. Circles represent females, squares represent males and darkened shapes represent affected individuals. 32. What type of allele caused the disorder that has affected the shaded individuals in the diagram below?

a. X-linked recessive b. X-linked dominant c. autosomal dominant d. autosomal recessive

33. During which level of protein structure formation are the 𝛼 (alpha) helix and 𝛽 (beta) pleated sheets formed?

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary Use the information and table for the questions 34-36: In the 1950s Erwin Chargaff analyzed the base composition of DNA in different organisms. Relative amounts of bases in different organisms are shown below:

PERCENTAGE OF BASES IN 5 ORGANISMS ORGANISMS THYMINE GUANINE ADENINE CYTOSINE

Chicken 28% 22% 28% 22% Rat 29% 21% 29% 21%

Yeast 32% 18% 32% 18% E. coli 24% 26% 24% 26%

Human 30% 20% 30% 20% *These values are for interpretation of data only and do not reflect true values

34. From the above data, one could correctly conclude that: a. thymine and guanine pair

b. thymine and adenine pair c. guanine makes up small portion of RNA in yeast d. human DNA is long, due to large quantities of adenine and thymine

35. For the organisms given, which statement about the composition of DNA is supported by the table:

a. The more complex the organism is, the more adenine there is in the DNA b. Four different nucleotides make up the DNA of each species c. The sequence of nucleotides is determined by the nucleotide with he lowest percentage d. Simple organisms have DNA that do not have complementary pairs

36. During your summer job at Virotech, you isolate a previously unknown virus. Analysis of its genome reveals that it is composed of a double stranded DNA molecule containing 14% T (thymine). Based on this information, what would you predict the %C (cytosine) to be?

a. 14% b. 28% c. 36% d. 72%


37. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate The answer is D not B.

a. the leading strand toward the replication fork b. the lagging strand toward the replication fork c. the leading strand away from the replication fork d. the lagging strand away from the replication fork

38. In replication of DNA, the helix is opened and untwisted by the enzyme:

a. ligase b. telomerase c. helicase d. polymerase 39. Which structure below represents the ATP molecule?

Refer to the following diagram for questions 40 and 41: In the 1920s, a scientist conducted an experiment in which he mixed dead cells of a bacterial strain that can cause pneumonia with live cells of a bacterial strain that cannot. He conducted a series of experiments in which he injected mice with different strains. The results are shown below:

40. In this experiment, why did mice die when injected with live R bacteria plus heat-killed S bacteria? The harmful S-strain was able to pass its virulence factor to the R-Strain. So the answer is C not D

a. Some of the S bacteria were still alive. b. The R bacteria had mutated to become virulent. c. The R bacteria had taken up the virulence “factor” from the dead S bacteria. d. The virulence “factor” in dead S bacteria was sufficient to kill the mice.

41. When he cultured the live cells, some of the daughter colonies proved able to cause pneumonia. This experiment shows that which of the following processes is possible?

a. transduction b. conjugation c. transformation d. crossing over


Use the diagram for questions 42-43:

42. The diagram above shows a model of

a. DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA 43. The above structure carries the amino acid to which organelle?

a. chloroplast b. ribosome c. mitochondria d. nucleolus Use the following chart of mRNA codons to answer questions 44-4644. A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence trp-phe-gly-ser would be

a. 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'. b. 3' ACC-AAA-CCG-AGT 5'. c. 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'. d. 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'.

45. Which of the following anticodons of a tRNA would carry glycine to a mRNA?

a. UGU b. CCG

c. GGC d. CUU

46. All of the codons that represent Valine begin with

a. guanine b. uracil c. cytosine d. methionine 47. During transcription, what happens when RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence on DNA?


a. translation stops b. anticodons are added to the RNA

c. the promotor takes over d. transcription ends

48. During protein synthesis, portions of messenger RNA are edited out, removed, and discarded. What are the discarded sections are called?

a. introns b. exons c. repressors d. histones 49. The 1st nuclear transplant from an animal to an egg that produced a normal adult was performed on a

a. frog b. sheep c. cat d. dog 50. Which one of the following statements about nucleic acid probes is false?

a. A nucleic acid probe is a double-stranded section of DNA. b. A nucleic acid probe can be used to find a specific gene. c. A nucleic acid probe can be made of DNA or RNA. d. A nucleic acid probe is usually labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent dye to help identify its location.

51. Which of the following explains why DNA from two different sources can be joined together as long as they were cut with the same restriction enzyme?

a. The restriction enzyme forms hydrogen bonds with the DNA. b. The bases at the sticky ends will be complementary to each other. c. DNA ligase recognizes that the two sources of DNA were cut with the same enzyme and joins the fragments. d. The restriction fragments will be the exact same length, which allows the two fragments to join

The diagram below shows a gel electrophoresis device. Refer to the diagram for questions 52 and 53. 52. The rate of migration of DNA fragments through the agarose gel is determined by the:

a. ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment b. presence of hydrogen bonds between base pairs c. number of nucleotides in the fragment d. volume of the starting sample

53. The type and density of the gel are important because:

a. they influence the rate of migration of the fragments b. they may cause some DNA molecules to replicate c. some DNA molecules may be lost due to chemical reactions with the gel d. some DNA molecules may cross-link


Refer to the picture of electrophoresis gel for question 54 The Scene of the Crime: The body of a woman is found behind an abandoned warehouse on the outskirts of town. Forensic experts carry out a technical examination of the scene and suggest death due a blunt force trauma. Various eyewitness interviews placed 3 different individuals at the crime scene location. DNA was collected from the crime scene, victim, and suspects. The following picture shows the results from the DNA analysis. 54. DNA analysis indicates that the crime must have been committed by:

a. Suspect 1 b. Suspect 2 c. Suspect 3 d. None of these Suspects

55. The products of glycolysis are:

a. pyruvic acid, ATP, and FADH2 b. pyruvic acid, NADH, ATP, and water

c. glucose, NADH, ATP, and water d. carbon dioxide, ATP, and pyruvic acid

56. Which one of the following statements about thylakoids found within chloroplasts is not correct?

a. The thylakoid membranes contain pigments. b. The thylakoid membranes contain the photosystems. c. The thylakoid membranes contain the Calvin cycle enzymes. d. The thylakoid membranes contain the electron transport machinery.


Refer to the graph below for questions 57 and 58 57. According to the graph above, Chlorophyll a

a. has approximately the best absorption of light of wavelength 440nm b. has approximately the best absorption of light of wavelength 500nm c. has approximately the least absorption of light of wavelength 425nm d. has approximately the least absorption of light of wavelength 670nm

58. According to the graph above, approximately which wavelength of light is most effective at driving photosynthesis?

The question is not asking which pigment absorbs the most. It is asking for the wavelength where photosynthesis is most effective. Wouldn’t this be at the intersection where both pigments are active. Answer should be A not B. a. 440nm b. 490nm c. 550nm d. 675nm

59. Your throat is dry, and you want the last cough drop in the box to last a long time in your mouth. What should you do?

a. Break the cough drop into little pieces and put them all in your mouth. Since each little piece must be dissolved separately, the drop will last longer. b. Keep the cough drop whole. This maintains the largest surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop. c. Break the cough drop into little pieces and put them all in your mouth. This decreases the surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop. d. It doesn't matter if the cough drop is in one piece or many pieces; the total amount of cough drop is all that matters.

60. A manufacturing company dumps its wastes into a nearby pond. One of the wastes is found to paralyze the contractile vacuoles of certain protists. A biologist looking at these organisms would find that these protists

a. have lost water and shrunk. b. have gained water and burst.

c. have died of malnutrition. d. are surviving but are unable to reproduce.


New Jersey Science League Corrections

Biology I Answer Key Blue Test Date: February 14, 2019

Record onto the area record the # correct 1 A 16 D 31 B 46 A 2 A 17 D 32 A 47 D 3 C 18 D 33 B 48 A 4 C 19 B 34 B 49 B 5 C 20 A 35 B 50 A 6 A 21 D 36 C 51 B 7 D 22 B 37 B D 52 C 8 A 23 D 38 C 53 A 9 A 24 B 39 A 54 B 10 D 25 D 40 D C 55 B 11 B 26 A 41 C 56 C 12 B 27 C 42 C 57 A 13 B 28 D 43 B 58 B A 14 A 29 C 44 B 59 B 15 C 30 B 45 B 60 B


Dates for 2019 Season Thursday February 14, 2019

Thursday March 14, 2019 Thursday April 11, 2019 All areas and schools must complete the April exam and mail in the results by April 30, 2019

No area may take the April exam during the first week of April or the first week of May New Jersey Science League

PO Box 65 Stewartsville, NJ 08886-0065 Phone # 908-213-8923 fax # 908-213-9272 email: [email protected]

Web address: http://entnet.com/~personal/njscil/html/ What is to be mailed back to our office?

PLEASE RETURN THE AREA RECORD AND ALL TEAM MEMBER Answer Sheets (ALL STUDENTS PLACING 1ST, 2ND, 3RD, AND 4TH).

If you return answer sheets of alternates, then label them as ALTERNATES.



New Jersey Science League BLUE EXAM Corrections Biology I March 14, 2019

Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below in the appropriate response on the answer sheet. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. Please PRINT your name, school, and which test you are taking onto the answer sheet. Please use the same name for all exams. In the peppered moth (Biston betularia) population of Great Britain, some moths have a light body; some have a dark body. Body color is an inherited characteristic. Before the Industrial Revolution, which began around 1850, light moths were well camouflaged against the lichen-covered trees, and they were better able to avoid predation. During the nineteenth century, pollution killed off some of the lichens and soot deposits caused the tree bark to appear darker. Light colored moths were no longer camouflaged and were more likely to be eaten by birds. The dark moths were now better camouflaged. Consider these facts when answering questions 1 and 2.

1. The difference in coloration in the peppered moths is

best described as: a. speciation b. population c. variation d. both a and b

2. The idea of punctuated equilibrium differs from Darwinism in that:

a. Darwinism uses the idea of convergent evolution to explain speciation and punctuated equilibrium does not.

b. Darwinism describes a gradual change that form new species and punctuated equilibrium describes periods of sudden change along with long periods of little or no change.

c. Punctuated equilibrium requires short periods of no change while Darwinism involves long periods of no change in the genetic makeup of a species.

d. Punctuated equilibrium is an explanation for the movement of molecules along a gradient while Darwinism is an explanation for evolution of life on earth

3. What is the best measure of Darwinian fitness of a population?

a. longevity in a species b. strength in predators

c. swiftness in prey d. number of fertile offspring

4. Which of the following sources of information used to determine relatedness among different species

would provide the MOST SPECIFIC information? a. comparisons of fossil ancestors b. comparisons of the embryos from different species c. comparisons of the sequence of nucleotides in DNA d. comparative morphology of the different species

NJSL Bio I March 2019 Exam Page 1

Use the following choices for the questions 5 – 8. A) Statement supports ideas of Darwin but not Lamarck B) Statement supports ideas of Lamarck but not Darwin C) Statement supports ideas of both Darwin and Lamarck D) Statement supports ideas of neither Darwin nor Lamarck

5. Organisms form stable, unchanging populations.

6. Variety in populations can be explained by individual organisms making adjustments to the

environment so that they change and become different from other members of their population.

7. The environment can select insects’ resistant to pesticides. 8. Based on the environment in which they live, organisms pass on traits that they develop to their

offspring. Use the following figure to answer questions 9 and 10. 9. The phylogenetic tree ________.

a. depicts that Archaea is closer to Bacteria than Eukarya

b. depicts that Eukarya is closer to Bacteria than Archaea c. includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals and plants d. includes every single life form on Earth

10. "A" is ________; "B" is ________.

a. the most recent species to evolve on Earth; an ancestor of group "A" b. the most recent species to evolve on Earth; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya c. the common ancestor of all life; the common ancestor of Bacteria and Archaea d. the common ancestor of all life; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya

11. You are suffering from Streptococcus throat infection. You share the following with the bacteria that

is responsible for your condition. a. You both belong to the same domain. b. You both have a cell as the basic unit of life. c. You both have genetic material in your nucleus. d. You and Streptococcus have nothing in common.

12. Which of the following is not a requirement for maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a. an increasing mutation rate c. large population b. random mating d. no migration

A Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, “A and a”, is in equilibrium. The frequency of the allele “a” is 0.7 . Use this information for question 13.

13. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for allele “a”? a. 9 b. 21 c. 42 d. 49


14. Through time, human migration has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing a. geographic isolation b. genetic drift

c. nonrandom mutations d. gene flow

15. South American maras are rodents that look and behave very much like rabbits in Europe, even

though they are not closely related. What evolutionary principle best accounts for the existence of two similar, yet unrelated organisms in different parts of the world? a. convergent evolution b. divergent evolution

c. adaptive radiation d. stabilizing selection

16. Two different species derived from recent allopatric speciation

All full credit. a. cannot coexist and interbreed b. share the same gene pool

c. have similar niches d. A and B are correct

17. An important evolutionary benefit of sexual reproduction is that:

a. It provides a mechanism for genetic recombination. b. Compared to asexual reproduction it requires a lower level of resource investment. c. The offspring will be genetically identical to their parents. d. Compared to asexual reproduction, the reproductive success rates are less variable.

18. Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its bright orange flowers. These beetles not only pollinate but also mate while inside the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. Which kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it? a. allopatric speciation, habitat differentiation b. sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation c. allopatric speciation, behavioral isolation d. sympatric speciation, sexual selection

19. All the genes in a population are the population’s

a. gene pool b. genotype c. gene flow d. fitness

20. Molecular evidence in support of natural selection includes a. the nearly universal genetic code. b. the presence of vestigial structures. c. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging DNA in various species. d. the transmission of acquired characteristics by DNA.

21. During DNA replication, which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5᾿ 3᾿

direction? a. primase b. DNA ligase c. DNA polymerase d. helicase

22. During protein synthesis, the process of translation occurs in a. the cytoplasm. b. a lysosome.

c. the nucleus. d. a mitochondrion.


A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring, feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs. How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and collected their eggs. The researcher put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and light conditions listed below: In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets). Consider this information for questions 23 and 24.

23. Recall that in every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the following hypotheses? a. The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars. b. Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of

caterpillars. c. Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. d. The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twig-

like caterpillars.

24. Recall that in the experiment, caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely selective advantage for this difference in body shape? a. Looking like their food sources allows caterpillars to find mating partners more easily. b. Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like

flowers. c. Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings, reducing

predation. d. Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency; this would

increase their growth rate and survival rate.

25. Sickle-cell disease is caused by a recessive allele. Although sickle-cell anemia is usually fatal to homozygous individuals, the sickle-cell allele persists at a high frequency in people of equatorial Africa. This is a classic example of: a. bottleneck effect b. heterozygote advantage

c. diploidy d. balancing selection


Use the following options to answer questions 26 – 30. For each description of reproductive isolation mechanisms, select the option that best describes it. Options may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A) gametic B) temporal C) behavioral

D) habitat E) mechanical

26. Two species of orchid plants with different floral anatomy.

27. Two species of trout fish that breed in different seasons.

28. Two species of meadowlark birds with different mating songs.

29. Two species of garter snakes live in the same region, but one lives in water and the other lives on land.

30. Mating fruit flies recognize the appearance, odor, tapping motions, and sounds of members of their own species but not of other species.

31. The Afrikaner population of Dutch settlers in South Africa is descended mainly from a few colonists. Today, the Afrikaner population has an unusually high frequency of the gene that causes Huntington's disease, because those original Dutch colonists just happened to carry that gene with unusually high frequency. This is an example of: a. bottlenecking effect b. natural selection

c. founder effect d. speciation

32. The vertebrate forelimbs are

examples of

a. Homologous structures b. Heterozygous structures c. Vestigial structures d. Analogous structures

33. Which of the following supports the endosymbiotic theory of eukaryotic cell development?

a. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain ribosomes that are similar to ribosomes in other parts of the eukaryotic cell

b. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA molecules c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce by binary fission d. All DNA in eukaryotic cells is confined to the nucleus


Choose among these options to answer questions 34 - 38. Options may be used once, more than once, or

34. An African butterfly species exists in two strikingly different color patterns.

35. Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch.

36. Fossil records indicate that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time.

37. A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediately

colored individuals are relatively rare.

38. Pathogenic bacteria found in many hospitals are antibiotic resistant.

39. From the cladogram below, we can conclude that ______________ shares the most recent common

ancestor with humans.

a. Lizard b. Trout c. Earthworm d. None of these share with humans


Use the following information for question # 40. In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments to disprove the belief of Aristotle and other scientists at that time, that life forms can be generated from inanimate objects. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into identical jars. One set of jars was left open to the air, another set was tightly sealed. He covered a third set with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). He monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (fly larvae) appeared in the meat.

40. What hypothesis was being tested by these experiments with open versus sealed jars?

a. Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer. b. The type of meat used affects the likelihood of maggots appearing. c. Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies. d. Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air.

41. The technique called radiometric dating is based on

a. the type of plant material that an animal consumed b. the measurement of certain radioactive isotopes contained in fossils c. the atomic isotopes of the rocks surrounding fossilized organisms d. the amount of moisture found in the atmosphere when an organism dies

42. Coacervates are:

a. microscopic spontaneously formed spheres with a selectively permeable membrane b. nitrogen-containing bases linked to sugar and phosphate groups c. single-celled organisms lacking a distinct nucleus and other organelles d. deposits formed by the growth of blue-green algae


https://www.britannica.com/science/nitrogen

https://www.britannica.com/science/nucleus-biology

The diagram below represents the Miller/Urey experiment for questions # 43, 44, 45 43. What is the purpose of the sparks from the electrodes in the

chamber? a. These sparks simulated lightning. b. The sparks superheated the water in the condenser to

simulate volcanic action. c. The sparks kept the mixture from freezing in an

unheated laboratory. d. The sparks simulated daylight.

44. The Miller-Urey experiment showed that: a. Simple cells could be produced in the laboratory using a “soup” of small organic molecules. b. Amino acids and sugars could be produced from the inorganic components thought to have been

on the primitive earth. c. Microspheres could be formed from amino acids. d. The theory of biogenesis was incorrect.

45. What was the source of the nitrogen that was used to make amino acids which were collected?

a. water vapor b. ammonia c. methane d. hydrogen Use the diagram below to answer question # 46.

46. Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram above? a. The organisms share a common ancestry. b. The organisms belong to the same genus. c. The organisms are native to the same geographic areas. d. The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults


The birds shown below are 2 species of the 13 species of finches Darwin found on the Galapagos Islands. These two species are seen in the same general area and mingle together in flocks. Refer to these pictures for questions 47 - 48

47. Which process produced the two different

types of beaks shown? a. artificial selection b. natural selection c. geographic distribution d. inheritance of acquired characteristics

48. The large ground finch on the left above obtains food by cracking seeds. Its short strong beak is an example of: a. the struggle for existence b. the tendency towards perfection

c. an adaptation d. a vestigial organ

49. All the organisms on your campus make up

a. an ecosystem. b. a community. c. a population. d. a family

50. Plants convert ________. a. chemical energy to mechanical energy. b. sunlight to mechanical energy. c. sunlight to chemical energy. d. mechanical energy to chemical energy.

51. Meiosis is a process that produces all of the following except:

a. spores in plants b. gametes in animals

c. zygotes d. haploid cells

52. In a mitotic animal cell, what structure will be found that is absent in a mitotic plant cell?

a. chromosomes b. cell wall c. centrioles d. cytoskeleton

53. Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics because: a. they take in the plasmids of the antibiotics by the process of transformation and incorporate it into

their own genome b. the microbes that can survive have variations that are passed on to offspring when these resistant

members reproduce c. bacteria reproduce by binary fission and take half of the information of their parents d. a mutation of the antibiotic can make it harmless to the population of bacteria as it is metabolized

54. In an experiment green leaves were kept in the dark for several days. The leaves were tested for the presence of starch. The result was no starch was found. Which hypothesis was being tested by this investigation? a. If light is required for starch production, then leaves kept in the dark will test negative for starch. b. If light is required for starch production, then chlorophyll is not necessary for its production. c. If starch is plant food, then chlorophyll makes it. d. If plants make starch, then they store it in the stem and roots for use when there is no light.


55. The principle for independent assortment can be tested in the lab by performing a: a. monohybrid cross b. mating of a homozygous recessive with a homozygous dominant c. back crossing of a single gene trait d. dihybrid cross

56. The relationship between an allele and a gene is that:

a. an allele is one form of a gene b. an allele requires two genes

c. an allele is a phenotype d. a gene has more information on it

57. Metabolism is best described as:

a. synthesizing and digesting molecules b. synthesizing molecules

c. digesting molecules d. anabolizing molecules

58. In the diagram below you see a microscope image with a cell plate developing across the middle of a

cell. The cell is probably a/an: a. animal cell in metaphase b. animal cell in S phase of the cell cycle c. plant cell showing cytokinesis d. plant cell in metaphase

59. In sexually reproducing organisms, the events of ___________________ do not contribute to an increase in genetic variation. a. prophase I b. random fertilization

c. metaphase I d. interphase

60. The pedigree below shows the inheritance of a genetically inherited disorder in a family. Circles

represent females, squares represent males and dark colored shapes represent affected individuals.

What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disorder? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive

c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive



Biology I Answer Key Blue Test Date: March 14, 2019

Record onto the area record the # correct

1 C 16 D All full

credit 31 C 46 A

2 B 17 A 32 A 47 B 3 D 18 B 33 B 48 C 4 C 19 A 34 C 49 B 5 D 20 A 35 A 50 C 6 B 21 C 36 B 51 C 7 A 22 A 37 C 52 C 8 B 23 C 38 B 53 B 9 D 24 C 39 A 54 A 10 D 25 B 40 C 55 D 11 B 26 E 41 B 56 A 12 A 27 B 42 A 57 A 13 D 28 C 43 A 58 C 14 D 29 D 44 B 59 D 15 A 30 C 45 B 60 B


Dates for 2019 Season Thursday March 14, 2019 Thursday April 11, 2019

All areas and schools must complete the April exam and mail in the results by April 30, 2019 No area may take the April exam during the first week of April or the first week of May

New Jersey Science League PO Box 65 Stewartsville, NJ 08886-0065

Phone # 908-213-8923 fax # 908-213-9272 email: [email protected] Web address: http://entnet.com/~personal/njscil/html/

What is to be mailed back to our office? PLEASE RETURN THE AREA RECORD AND ALL TEAM MEMBER ANSWER SHEETS (ALL STUDENTS

PLACING 1ST, 2ND, 3RD, AND 4TH). If you return answer sheets of alternates, then label them as ALTERNATES.



New Jersey Science League BLUE EXAM Corrections Biology I

April 11, 2019 Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below in the appropriate response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. Please PRINT your name, school, and which test you are taking onto the scantron. Please use the same name for all exams.

1. Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? a. earthquakes b. plagues

c. famines d. pollution

2. Which of the following would not be included in a description of an organism’s niche? a. its trophic level b. the humidity and temperature it prefers c. its population density d. its feeding relationships and reproductive cycles

3. Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their gut? a. commensalism b. mutualism

c. ectoparasitism d. endoparasitism

4. The species richness of a community refers to the: a. number of food chains b. number of different species c. energy content of all species d. total number of all organism

5. An earthworm that feeds on the remains of plants and animals is acting as a a. producer b. primary consumer c. secondary consumer d. detritivore

6. Which of these is a starting point for primary succession? a. a surface exposed by a retreating glacier b. an abandoned city c. an abandoned farmland d. a neglected yard

7. A cow’s herbivorous diet indicates that it is a a. primary consumer b. secondary consumer c. decomposer d. producer

NJSL Bio I April 2019 Exam Page 1

8. Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others? a. heterotrophs b. herbivores

c. carnivores d. detritivores

Refer to the energy pyramid below for question #9 9. If the available energy in grass is 10,000 kcal, how much of that energy would be transferred to the snake? a. 10,000 kcal b. 1,000 kcal c. 100 kcal d. 10 kcal

10. The death by bubonic plague of about one-third of Europe's population during the fourteenth century is a good example of a. abiotic factors limiting population size. b. a density-dependent effect. c. a time lag. d. carrying capacity.

Study the growth curve of a bacteria population found below for #11 and 12. 11. The carrying capacity of the bacteria population is represented by: a. I only c. III only b. II only d. IV only

12. The region of the growth curve represented by IV could be the result of: a. addition of penicillin to the bacterial population b. increase in the availability of food c. increase in adaptability of the bacterial population d. addition of a favorable nutrient medium


Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Each letter is a species. The arrows indicate energy flow. Use the choices in the diagram to answer questions # 13-17. The arrow from E to D is incorrect. It should be reversed. The second drawing is correct.

13. Which species is autotrophic? A 14. Which species is most likely the decomposer? afc 15. A toxic pollutant would probably reach the highest concentration in which species? afc 16. Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C? B 17. Excluding the decomposer, biomass would probably be the smallest for which species? afc 18. The recent increase in CO2 concentration in the Earth’s atmosphere is caused by a. increased worldwide primary production b. increased worldwide standing crop biomass c. an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere d. the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels 19. Which biome exhibits the least diversity in plant species? a. tundra b. tropical rain forest c. savannah d. deciduous forest

20. Knowing that the oxygen content of water is indirectly related to temperature, what could be expected in a freshwater lake that a factory discharged hot water into all year? a. Hot water cannot hold as much oxygen as cold water and fish survival would be diminished. b. Hot water causes oxygen to disassociate from the hydrogen providing a better environment for fish. c. Hot water would prevent ice from forming. Therefore oxygen from the atmosphere could be directly

used by fish when they surface. d. Plants need oxygen for photosynthesis and would lower the content even further damaging the fish

population.


21. What process does the following flow chart represent on the movement of DDT in organisms through the trophic levels? a. Bioaccumulation b. Bioconcentrations c. Biomagnification d. Bioremediation

Refer to the Nitrogen cycle shown below questions 22 and 23.

22. In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with nitrogen gas are: a. nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules b. nitrogen-fixing soil bacteria c. nitrifying bacteria d. denitrifying bacteria

23. Ammonification is the process of: a. formation of ammonia/ammonium ions from nitrogen by denitrifying bacteria b. formation of ammonia/ammonium ions from amino acids by decomposers c. formation of ammonia/ammonium ions from nitrates by nitrogen fixers d. formation of ammonia/ammonium ions from nitrates by nitrifying bacteria 24. What results from the unequal sharing of electrons between atoms? a. a nonpolar covalent bond b. a polar covalent bond


c. an ionic bond d. a hydrogen bond25. The diagram shown below is a solute molecule surrounded by a hydration shell of water. Based on the polarity of water molecules, what is the charge of the solute molecule? a. Positively charged b. Negatively charged c. Without charge d. Hydrophobic

26. Why does ice float in liquid water? a. The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking. b. Molecules within ice have more kinetic energy allowing it to stay afloat. c. Ice floats in water because it is less dense than liquid water. d. The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.

27. Which of the following solutions has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions [H+]? a. Gastric juice at pH 2 b. Vinegar at pH 3 c. Black coffee at pH 5 d. Household bleach at pH 12

28. What is the functional group in the molecule below? a. Amino group b. Carbonyl group c. Carboxyl group d. Hydroxyl group

29. Researches conducted a seven year study of a rabbit population and its predators in an ecosystem. During the first two-and-a-half years of the study, the rabbit population rose steadily then declined to the lowest level in the fourth year. The rabbit population rose again during the last three years of the study. Which of the graphs below shows how the population of rabbit predators would be expected to change during the same period in the ecosystem? Ans is letter D, not B


30. What molecule is illustrated in the figure to the right?

a. a saturated fatty acid b. an unsaturated fatty acid c. a polyunsaturated triglyceride d. a steroid similar to cholesterol

31. Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a salt solution become limp and soft. What can be deduce from these two statements? a. hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution b. hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution c. hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution d. hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution

32. Which membrane activity below does NOT require energy from ATP hydrolysis? a. facilitated diffusion b. active transport c. Na+ ions moving out of the cell d. proton pumps

Use the diagram below for questions #33 and 34.

33. Which structure is the site of protein synthesis? a. A b. B

c. C d. D

34. The organelle required for aerobic respiration is a. A b. B c. C d. D

35. Which term describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? a. catalysis b. anabolism

c. dehydration d. catabolism

36. How does a non-competitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction? a. by binding to the active site of the enzyme b. by changing the structure of the enzyme c. by increasing the free energy of the reaction d. by decreasing the activation energy of the reaction


https://dlc.dcccd.edu/images/biology/lesson3/saturated_and_unsaturated_fatty_acid_models.jpg

37. Why are some bacteria metabolically active in hot springs? a. they are able to maintain a cooler internal environment b. they use molecules other than proteins as their main catalysts c. their enzymes have high optimal temperature d. their enzymes are insensitive to temperature

38. An experiment is set up with two chambers that are connected by an opening through which molecules can freely pass. Chamber A contains 28% Helium gas and Chamber B contains 10% Helium gas. Which of the following will occur? a. The net movement of helium will be from Chamber A to Chamber B b. The net movement of helium will be from Chamber B to Chamber A c. Helium will remain concentrated in Chamber A d. All the helium will move to Chamber B 39. What is the primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration? a. combine with carbon forming carbon dioxide b. combine with lactate forming pyruvate c. act as an acceptor of electrons and hydrogen, forming water d. yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passing down the respiratory chain

40. What is the primary function of the Calvin’s cycle? a. use ATP to release carbon dioxide b. synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide c. split water and release oxygen d. transport RuBP out of the chloroplast

41. What is the name for the region marked with a ? mark on a duplicated chromosome that holds the sister chromatids together? a. centrosome b. centromere c. centriole d. chromatin


42. Environmentalists conducted a field study to determine if there is a correlation between the age of a whitetail buck and the range of its territory. The data table below shows their findings. Which graph (A, B, C, or D) represents the data collected during this field study?

43. Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=16 a. The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes b. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes c. There are 8 homologous pairs d. A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes

The diagrams below show 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis. Refer to the diagrams below for questions # 44, 45, and 46.

44. Crossing-over between non-sister chromatids would take place during_______________ stage: a. 1 b. 2

c. 4 d. 6

45. Which diagram represents metaphase of mitosis? a. 2 b. 3

c. 5 d. 6

46. Which diagram represents a stage when homologous chromosomes separate? a. 2 b. 3

c. 4 d. 6

47. What is genetic cross between an individual showing a dominant phenotype (but of unknown genotype) and a homozygous recessive individual called? a. a test cross b. a hybrid cross c. an F1 cross d. a self-cross


48. Black fur (B) in mice is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the offspring of the cross BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails? a. 1/16 b. 3/16 c. 3/8 d. 1/2 49. The ostrich and emu look very similar and live in similar habitats. They are not very closely related. The ostrich and emu is an example of …….a. divergent evolution b. convergent evolution

c. adaptive radiation d. sympatric speciation

50. Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following? a. sexual selection b. stabilizing selection

c. random selection d. directional selection

51. How is the Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured? a. the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce b. the number of mates it attracts c. the physical strength d. how long it lives 52. Gene flow is a concept used to describe an exchange between…… a. species b. males and females

c. populations d. individual

53. All of the following are criteria for maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two species except a. there must be frequent immigration and emigration b. there should be no natural selection c. matings must be random d. populations must be large

54. Observe the cycle diagrams above which depict nutrient cycles in nature. Which of the tables below correctly identifies the diagram numbers with the correct cycle?


55. The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to a. insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids b. incorporate genes into viruses c. make DNA from RNA transcripts d. make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA

Use the diagram on the right side with questions # 56 and 57.

56. A codon a. may code for the same amino acid as another codon b. consists of separate amino acid regions c. catalyzes RNA synthesis d. is found in all eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes

57. What is the sequence of the peptide based on the mRNA sequence 5᾿ UUUUCUUAUUGUCUU 3᾿

a. lys-arg-ile-thr-glu b. cyc-phe-tyr-cys-leu c. phe-ser-tyr-cys-leu d. leu-pro-asp-lys-gly

58. What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication? a. the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction b. the relative amounts of the four nucleotides in the cell c. the nucleotide sequence of the template strand d. the primase used in the reaction

Use the figure below to answer questions # 59 and 60. 59. The common ancestor of both species C and E could be at position number

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

60. Which species are extinct? a. A and E b. A and B c. C and D d. D and E



Biology I Answer Key Blue Test Date: April 11, 2019

Record onto the area record the # correct afc = all full credit 1 A 16 B 31 C 46 C 2 C 17 D afc 32 A 47 A 3 B 18 D 33 A 48 D 4 B 19 A 34 B 49 B 5 D 20 A 35 D 50 B 6 A 21 C 36 B 51 A 7 A 22 D 37 C 52 C 8 A 23 B 38 A 53 A 9 D 24 B 39 C 54 B 10 B 25 B 40 B 55 D 11 C 26 C 41 B 56 A 12 A 27 A 42 C 57 C 13 A 28 D 43 C 58 C 14 E afc 29 B D 44 B 59 D 15 D afc 30 A 45 B 60 A


Dates for 2019 Season Thursday April 11, 2019

All areas and schools must complete the April exam and mail in the results by April 30, 2019 No area may take the April exam during the first week of April or the first week of May

New Jersey Science League PO Box 65 Stewartsville, NJ 08886-0065

Phone # 908-213-8923 no fax scan then email: [email protected] Web address: http://entnet.com/~personal/njscil/html/

What is to be mailed back to our office? PLEASE RETURN THE AREA RECORD AND ALL TEAM MEMBER ANSWER SHEETS (ALL STUDENTS

PLACING 1ST, 2ND, 3RD, AND 4TH). If you return answer sheets of alternates, then label them as ALTERNATES.



response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be ...

Documents

Transcript of response on the scantron. If you change your answer, be ...