NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION(NTSE 2021) STAGE - 1

STATE : PUNJAB PAPER : MATDate : 20/12/2020__________________________________________________________

Max. Marks : 100 SOLUTIONS Time : 120 mins.

Directions for (1 - 8): There is a number series following a pattern. One place is

left blank. Find the correct ans. from given options:

Question 1. 65, 64, 60, 51, 35, ______

a. 15

b. 10

c. 20

d. 25

Answer: (b)

Solution:

65 – (1)2 = 64

64 – (2)2 = 60

60 – (3)2 = 51

51 – (4)2 = 35

35 – (5)2 = 10

So, the answer is 10.

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Question 2. 5, 16, 51, 158, _______

a. 474

b. 478

c. 481

d. 483

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Question 3. 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, ......

a. 9

b. 10

c. 7

d. 11

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Question 4. 1, 2, 10, 37, 101, ......

a. 215

b. 218

c. 226

d. 229

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Question 5. 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ......

a. 180

b. 200

c. 210

d. 230

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Question 6. 28, 34, 35, 37, 41, _______

a. 46

b. 49

c. 42

d. 44

Answer: (d)

Solution: Adding non-negative difference of digits of the number i.e. |x–y| for

next term.

28 ⇒ |2 − 8| = 6 ⇒ 6 + 28 = 3434 ⇒ |3 − 4| = 1 ⇒ 1 + 34 = 35: : : :

: : : :

41 ⇒ |4 − 1| = 3 ⇒ 3 + 41 = 44

Question 7. 4, 10, 28, ....., 244, 730

a. 88

b. 90

c. 82

d. 78

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Question 8. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, .....

a. 12

b. 14

c. 16

d. 13

Answer: (d)

Solution:

2, 3, 5, 7, 11

This is a prime number series.

So, the next number is 13.

Directions for (9 - 11): The letters follow a definite pattern. Find the missing

letters to complete the pattern.

Question 9. _ aa _ ba _ bb _ ab _ aab

a. aaabb

b. babab

c. bbaab

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d. baabb

Answer: (c)

Solution:

_ aa _ ba _ bb _ ab _ aab

The pattern of this series is ba, ab, ba, ab, .....

So, the sequence will be

baabbaabbaabbaab ⇒ bbaab

Question 10. 2 _ 5 _ 114 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 _ 1

a. 354321

b. 123452

c. 345234

d. 542341

Answer: (c)

Solution:

2 _ 5 _ 114 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 _ 1

Total 15 numbers are there. They are in 3 pairs having 5 numbers in each.

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Question 11. c _ bba _ cab _ ac _ ab _ ac

a. bcbac

b. cabcb

c. accbc

d. acbcd

Answer: Bonus

Solution:

c a bba c cab b ac c ab b ac

The following sequence is cab, bac, cab, bac, ....

So, acbcb.

Question 12. If PAINT = 74128, EXCEL = 93596 then ACCEPT = ?

a. 455978

b. 459578

c. 457958

d. 459758

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Question 13. If HANDWASH = 225, SANETIZER = 81 then VITAMINCD = ?

a. 196

b. 256

c. 324

d. 169

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Writing the alphabet in their alphabetical order we get

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Question 14. A boy who was born on 29th February 1896, when did he celebrate

his first birthday?

a. 29th February 1897

b. 29th February 1900

c. 29th February 1904

d. 29th February 1908

Answer: (c)

Solution:

A boy was born on 29th Feb 1896.

As we know leap year repeats after every 4 years but in century years, it was

repeated after 8 years.

So, his 1st birthday will be in the next leap year i.e. 1904

Hence, 29th Feb 1904 is the correct option.

Question 15. What was the day of the week on 9th October 1944?

a. Friday

b. Sunday

c. Tuesday

d. Monday

Answer: (d)

Solution: 9th October 1944

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Total odd days = 1 + 6 + 5 + 1 = 15 ⇒ 1 (odd day)

So, 9th October 1944 was a Monday.

Directions for (16 - 18): Using the relation between the items which of the

following is the most suitable diagram:

Question 16. Flowers, Clothes, Red

a.

b.

c.

d.

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Answer: (c)

Solution:

Question 17. Mountains, Sea, Island

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (d)

Solution:

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Question 18. Earth, Forest, Mountain

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Directions for (19 - 22): Developing a relationship among items on the left side

of sig :: find a relationship on the right side of : by choosing from given options.

Question 19. Contamination : food :: infection : ?

a. Germs

b. Disease

c. Body

d. Microbes

Answer: (c)

Solution:

As the food is affected by contamination.

So, the body is affected by infections.

Question 20. Arc: Circle:: line : ?

a. Point

b. Rectangle

c. Ellipse

d. Sphere

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Arc is a part of the circle.

Similarly, the line is a part of the rectangle.

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Question 21. 85 : 40 :: 77 : ?

a. 44

b. 48

c. 49

d. 50

Answer: (c)

Solution:

85 : 40 :: 77 : ?

85 ⇒ 8 × 5 = 40

Similarly, 77 ⇒ 7 × 7 = 49

Question 22. 8 : 32 : 10 : ?

a. 42

b. 50

c. 44

d. 60

Answer: (b)

Solution:

8 : 32 : 10 : ?

x⇒ 8 82 = 32

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Similarly, x10 ⇒ 10 102 = 50

Directions for (23 - 25): Cube of edge 12 cm is painted on all of its faces and thendivided into number of cubes each of edge 2 cm, Based on this ans. thefollowing questions:

Question 23. How many cubes have only two faces painted?

Edge of cube = 12 cmEdge of smaller cube = 2 cmSo, the number of cubes

= , where ‘n’ =( 𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒 )3 𝑠𝑖𝑧𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒

𝑠𝑖𝑧𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒

𝑛3 = ( 122 )3 = 63 = 216

a. 48

b. 56

c. 64

d. 8

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Number of cubes with 2 faces painted

= 12(n–2)

There n-2 cube which are painted with only 2 sides painted and there are 12 suchedges

= 12 × (6 – 2)= 48 cubes

Question 24. How many cubes have no face painted?

a. 56

b. 48

c. 96

d. 64

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Number of cubes have no face painted

= (n–2)3

= (6 – 2)3

= 43 = 64 cubes

Question 25. How many cubes have at least two faces painted?

a. 56

b. 48

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c. 96

d. 64

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Number of cubes with at least 2 faces painted= number of cubes with 2 faces painted + number of cubes with 3 faces painted

Number of cubes with 2 faces painted is given by

= 12(n–2)

There n-2 cube which are painted with only 2 sides painted and there are 12 suchedges

= 12 × (6 – 2)= 48 cubes

number of cubes with 3 faces painted = 8 (corner cubes)

= 48 + 8= 56 cubes

Directions for (26 - 30): Find the missing item that will come in place of question

mark?

Question 26.

a. 16

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b. 21

c. 24

d. 22

Answer: (a)

Solution:

(84 ÷ 12) × 2 (81 ÷ 9) × 2

⇒ 7 × 2 = 14 9 × 2 = 18

Similarly (88 ÷ 11) × 2

8 × 2 = 16

Question 27.

a. 760

b. 425

c. 875

d. 607

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Here we have to multiply the opposite number and and then write them in

respective order.

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Similarly

Therefore, the number becomes ⇒ 760

Question 28.

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a. 42

b. 44

c. 46

d. 48

Answer: (c)

Solution:

First row is – 1 = 2452

Second row is – 5 = 7692

Similarly, third row will be – 3 = 4672

Question 29.

a. 8

b. 10

c. 14

d. 16

Answer: (c)

Solution: Here, every succeeding number is added with twice the previous

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number.

Question 30.

a. M42

b. M48

c. N64

d. M33

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Directions: (31-33)

Following questions are based upon multiplication. Each letter has unique value

and for unique value, there is a unique letter.

AMDX DA

-----------------------MPR

+JMSX-----------------------

BPSR

Question 31. Value of A

a. 5

b. 3

c. 2

d. 8

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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2 5 3

x 3 2

_____

5 0 6

7 5 9 x

______

8 0 9 6

______

Value of A is 2

Question 32. Value of P

a. 8

b. 7

c. 0

d. 3

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Value of P is = 0

Question 33. Value of B

a. 7

b. 8

c. 5

d. 3

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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Value of B is 8

Directions: (34-35)

Find correct group of signs to solve the equation.

Question 34. 24* 34* 2* 5*12

a. + ÷ × =

b. ÷ + = −c. = ÷ + −d. = ÷ − +

Answer: (d)

Solution:

a. 24 + 34 ÷ 2 × 5 = 12 (Not correct)

b. 24 ÷ 34 + 2 = 5 – 12 (Not correct)

c. 24 = 34 ÷ 2 + 5 – 12 (Not correct)

d. 24 = 34 ÷ 2 – 5 + 12 (Correct)

Question 35. 7* 4*8* 2* 24

a. × = ÷ +

b. + − = ×

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c. × = ÷ −d. × + ÷ =

Answer: (a)

Solution:

a. 7 × 4 = 8 ÷ 2 + 24 (Correct)

b. 7 + 4 – 8 = 2 × 24 (Not correct)

c. 7 × 4 = 8 ÷ 2 – 24 (Not correct)

d. 7 × 4 + 8 ÷ 2 = 24 (Not correct)

Question 36. A person is facing northwest. He turns 90° in the clock wise

direction and then turns 180° anticlockwise direction and now turns 90° in the

same direction. In which direction is he facing now?

a. South West

b. West

c. South East

d. South

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Question 37. A and B start walking from a point in opposite directions. Acovers 3 km and B covers 4 km, then A turns right and walks 4 km whileB turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point?

a. 4 km, 5 km

b. 5 km, 5 km

c. 10 km, 4 km

d. 8 km, 4 km

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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The distance of A from its starting point P

PR = 𝑃𝑄2 + 𝑄𝑅2

PR = 9 + 16PR = 25PR = 5

And the distance of B from its starting point P

PR’ = (𝑃𝑄')2 + (𝑄'𝑅')2

PR’ = 16 + 9PR’ = 25PR’ = 5

Therefore, both A and B are 5 km away from their starting point.

Question 38. What will be the angle between the hour hand and the minute

hand of a clock when the time is 3:27?

a. 581°2

b. 471°2

c. 60°

d. 57°

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Angle moved by hour hand per minute = 360/60 = 6°

Angle moved by hour hand per minute = 360/12 x 60 = 0.5°

Net angle made between them per minute 6° - 0.5° = 5.5°

Angle made in 27 minute after 3 o’ clock = 27 x 5.5° = 148.5°

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But they already has 90°

Net angle at 3:27 = 148° - 90° = 58.5°

Question 39. In a class tournament each of seven players will play with every

other player exactly once. How many matches will be played during the

tournament?

a. 12

b. 14

c. 21

d. 18

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Number of matches played by n players =𝑛(𝑛 − 1)

2

n = 7

Number of matches =7(7 − 1)

2

= 7 × ⇒ 2162

Question 40. A mirror is placed in front of the clock, the clock shows time 5:40.

What time will be of its reflection in the mirror?

a. 4:40

b. 6:40

c. 6:20

d. 7:20

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Answer: (c)

Solution:

Question 41. How many numbers from 3 to 90 are there each of which is exactly

divisible by 4 and also its one of digit as 4?

a. 21

b. 10

c. 20

d. 7

Answer: (d)

Solution:

The numbers from 3 to 90 which are exactly divisible by 4 are

4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48, 52, 56, 60, 64, 68, 72, 76, 80, 84, 88

But each number should have 4 as its digit.

∴ The required number are

4, 24, 40, 44, 48, 64, 84

Hence, the total number is 7.

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Question 42. Anuj is twelfth from the right and fifth from the left in a line of

boys. How many boys should be added to the line such that there may be 30

boys in a line?

a. 16

b. 14

c. 15

d. 12

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Left ___ 12th____ Right

5 boys Anuj 11 boys

∴ Total boys on both sides of Anuj = 11 + 5 = 16

To make it 30, we need to add = 30–16 = 14

Directions: (43-45)

A is son of B. B’s sister C has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of

D. Based on above information answer questions (43-45)

Question 43. How is A related to D?

a. Nephew

b. Cousin

c. Uncle

d. Brother

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Answer: (b)

Solution:

A is the cousin of D.

Question 44. How many nephews does F have?

a. None

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

Answer: (d)

Solution:

We can see from diagram that A and D are the two Nephews of F

Question 45. How is E related to F?

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a. Wife

b. Sister

c. Niece

d. Daughter

Answer: (c)

Solution:

We can see from the diagram that E is the niece of F.

Question 46. In a certain code, BEAT is written as YVZG then what will be the

code of MILD?

a. ONRW

b. ONWR

c. NROW

d. NOWR

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Here we need to write the alphabet in reverse order and place them against them,

to get the corresponding letter.

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Question 47. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7 then what is a code for

GOVERNMENT?

a. 8

b. 10

c. 9

d. 6

Answer: (c)

Solution:

R E A S O N

(Total number –1) ⇒ 6 – 1 = 5

BELIEVED

(Total number –1) ⇒ 8 – 1 = 7

GOVERNMENT

(Total number –1) ⇒ 10 – 1 = 9

Question 48. If sky is called sea, sea is called water, water is called air, air is called

cloud, cloud is called river then what we drink when thirsty?

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a. Sky

b. Water

c. Air

d. Sea

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Sky → sea

Sea → water

Water air→Air → cloud

So we drink water and water is called ‘Air’.

So, air is the answer.

Question 49. If in a certain code: ‘Where are you’ ‘written as ‘pit ka ta’

‘Are they there’ written as ‘sa da ka’

‘They may Come’ written as ‘da na ja’

Then how ‘there’ will be written in that language?

a. da

b. sa

c. ka

d. ta

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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Are is ‘ka’

they is ‘da’

From first statement we get

There is ‘sa’

Directions: (50-53)

Read the information carefully and answer questions (50-53). Six persons are

sitting in a circle. A is facing B. B is to the right of E and left of C. C is to the left

of D. F is to the right of A. Now D exchanges his seat with F and E exchanges

with B.

Question 50. Who will be sitting to the left of D?

a. B

b. F

c. E

d. A

Answer: (d)

Solution:

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All person face centers

Question 51. Who will be sitting to the left of C?

a. E

b. F

c. A

d. B

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Question 52. Who will be sitting opposite to A?

a. E

b. F

c. D

d. B

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Question 53. Who will be sitting opposite of C?

a. E

b. D

c. B

d. A

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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Question 54. Which of the following words can be formed from CORRIGENDUM?

a. ERROR

b. MURDER

c. DANGER

d. GENDER

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Direction: (55-58)

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Read the information represented by Figure and ans. the questions

In figure, rectangle, square, circle and triangle represents the regions of wheat,

gram, maize and rice cultivation respectively.

Question 55. Which area is cultivated by all four crops?

a. 7

b. 8

c. 9

d. 2

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Question 56. Which area is cultivated by wheat and maize only?

a. 8

b. 6

c. 5

d. 4

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Question 57. Which area is cultivated by rice only?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 5

d. 11

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Question 58. Which area is cultivated by rice and maize only?

a. 9

b. 8

c. 2

d. 7

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Directions: (59-63)

Study the given information carefully and ans. the questions.

– Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are the members of a club and play different

games football, cricket,

Tennis, Basketball, Badminton and Volleyball.

– T who is taller than P and S, plays tennis.

– The tallest among them plays basketball

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– The shortest among them plays volleyball.

– Q and S neither play Volleyball nor Basketball.

– R plays Volleyball

– T is between Q who plays football and P in order of height.

Question 59. Who among them is taller than R but shorter than P?

a. Q

b. U

c. S

d. T

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Filing the table as per condition we get

Longest/Tallest U Basketball→ →Q Football→T Tennis→P Cricket/Badminton→S Cricket/Badminton→

Shortest R Volleyball→ →

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order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

Question 60. Who will be at the second place if they are arranged in descending

order of their heights?

a. Q

b. R

c. S

d. T

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Longest/Tallest U Basketball→ →Q Football→T Tennis→P Cricket/Badminton→S Cricket/Badminton→

Shortest R Volleyball→ →

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

Q is in second position.

Question 61. Who among them plays basketball?

a. Q

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b. R

c. T

d. U

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Longest/Tallest U Basketball→ →Q Football→T Tennis→P Cricket/Badminton→S Cricket/Badminton→

Shortest R Volleyball→ →

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

U plays basketball.

Question 62. Who among them is shortest in height?

a. P

b. Q

c. R

d. S

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Longest/Tallest U Basketball→ →Q Football→T Tennis→P Cricket/Badminton→S Cricket/Badminton→

Shortest R Volleyball→ →

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

R is shortest in height.

Question 63. Who among them is longest in height?

a. T

b. U

c. P

d. S

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Longest/Tallest U Basketball→ →Q Football→T Tennis→P Cricket/Badminton→S Cricket/Badminton→

Shortest R Volleyball→ →

order: U > Q > T > P > S > R

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U is the longest in height.

Directions: (64-65)

In each of the questions arrange the given words in alphabetical order and

choose the one that comes last.

Question 64.

a. Butter

b. Butler

c. Button

d. Butcher

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Butcher → Butler → Butter → Button

Question 65.

a. Colon

b. Collective

c. Colloid

d. College

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Collective → College → Colloid → Colon

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Directions: (66-67)

From the given words, select the words which cannot be formed using the

letters of the given word.

Question 66. DISTRIBUTION

a. TRUST

b. SITUATION

c. TUTION

d. DISTURB

Answer: (b)

Solution:

DISTRIBUTION SITUATION can’t be formed from it, as ‘A’ is not present in→DISTRIBUTION.

Question 67. ARTICULATES:

a. COURTS

b. LATER

c. TALES

d. ARTICLE

Answer: (a)

Solution:

ARTICULATES COURTS can’t be formed from it, as ‘0’ is not present in→ARTICULATES.

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Question 68. The six faces of the die have been written with alphabets A, B, C, D,

E and F respectively. This die is rolled down three times as shown in figure.

Find the alphabet Opposite to A.

a. B

b. C

c. D

d. E

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Form Fig. (ii) and (iii), show, it is clear that C, D, B and F cannot appear opposite E.

So A appears opposite E.

Question 69. Given below are two different positions of a dice. Find the number

of dots on the face opposite to face bearing 3 dots?

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a. 1

b. 6

c. 4

d. 5

Answer: (b)

Solution:

From figure (I)→ 2, 3 and 4 dots are adjacent.

From figure (II)→ 2, 4 and 6 dots are adjacent.

Therefore, 3 and 6 dots must be opposite each other.

Question 70. How many triangles are there in figure given below?

a. 4

b. 12

c. 16

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d. 10

Answer: (b)

Solution:

For total possible triangle = 12

ΔPQW, ΔQXW, ΔQXS, ΔQSR, ΔUXS, ΔSTU, ΔUXW, ΔUVW, ΔQUW, ΔQSU, ΔQSW,ΔSUW

Directions: (71-72)

In each of the following questions choose the correct water –image of figure (X)from amongst four given alternatives.

Question 71.

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a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (d)

Solution:

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Question 72.

a.

b.

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c.

d.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Directions: (73-75)

In each of the following questions a part of questions figure is missing.

Choose the correct answer figure to complete the question that can

replace?

Question 73. (Question figure)

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(Ans. figure)

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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Question 74. (Question figure)

a.

b.

c.

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d.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Question 75. (Question figure)

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a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Directions: (76 - 78)

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Find the figure from Answer figures which will continue the series in question.

Question 76. (Question figure)

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (d)

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Solution:

Question 77. (Question figure)

(Ans. figure)

a.

b.

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c.

d.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

From (a) to (b), the left-bottom curve becomes a vertical line.From (b) to (c), the right-bottom curve becomes a vertical line.From (c) to (d), the left-middle curve becomes a vertical line.

Similarly, in the next figure right-middle curved becomes a vertical line.

Question 78. (Question figure)

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a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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From (a) to (b),

• moves 1 step diagonally upwards.

× moves 1 step to the left.

And a new symbol Δ introduced in the middle of the third row in (b)

From (b) to (c),

• and × moves 1 step diagonally upwards

Δ moves 1 step to the left.

And a new symbol ? introduce in the middle of third row in ©

From (c) to (d),

• moves 1 step to the left,

× and Δ moves 1 step diagonally upwards,

? moves 1 step to the left,

And a new symbol S introduced in the middle of the third row in (d).

Similarly, in next figure,

• and × moves 1 step to the left,

? and Δ moves 1 step diagonally upwards,

S moves 1 step to the left.

A new symbol Y introduces in the middle of the third row in the new figure,

which is in the figure in option (c).

Directions: (79-81)

Find the different from others.

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Question 79.

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Figures in options (A), (C) and (D) are rotations of original image , whereas figure

in option B

is not the rotation of

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Question 80.

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Lines in option (a), (b) and (c) are perpendicular to each other whereas lines in

option (d) are not perpendicular to each other.

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Question 81.

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (d)

Solution:

In the figures in option (a), (b) and (c), there is one box and 3 lines whereas in

option (d), there is one box and 2 lines. Hence, figure in option (d) is different

from others.

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Directions: (82-84)

In each of the following questions there are three figures X, Y and Z showing a

sequence of folding a piece of paper. Figure Z shows the manner in which the

folded paper has been cut. These figures are followed by four other figures from

which you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the

unfolded form of figure (Z).

Question 82.

a.

b.

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c.

d.

Answer: (d)

Solution:

When we unfold we get and further unfolding we

get

Question 83.

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a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (d)

Solution:

When we unfold we get and further unfolding we

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get

Question 84.

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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When we unfold we get and further unfolding we

get

Direction: (85 - 86)

In each of the following questions. Find the figure, out of the answer figures that

can be formed by joining the pieces given in the question figure.

Question 85. (Question figure)

a.

b.

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c.

d.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Label the numbers to the pieces in the question figure as:

Now, when we join these pieces together, we get the given figure

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which is there in option b

Question 86. (Question figure)

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Label the numbers to the pieces in the question figure as:

Now, when we join these pieces, we obtain the figure in option (c) as

Direction: (87 - 88)

Keeping in mind the statements given to be true even if they are variants from

common known facts. Based on the statements, answer the questions?

Question 87. Statements:

All candles are boxes

All boxes are pens

Conclusion:

(I) All pens are candle

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(II) All candles are pens

a. If conclusion I Follows

b. If conclusion II Follows

c. If both conclusions follows

d. Either conclusion I or II follows

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Question 88. Statements:

All fans are watches

Some watches are black

Conclusion:

(I) All watches are fans

(II) All fans are black

a. If conclusion I Follows

b. If conclusion II Follows

c. If both conclusions follows

d. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (d)

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Solution:

(i) All watches are not fan, so this conclusion does not follows

(II) According to figure no relation for fan and black.

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Question 89. A printer number the pages of a book starting with 1 and used

3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

a. 1000

b. 1079

c. 1078

d. 1074

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Taking pages:

1 - 9, every page will be a single digit page number, so there is

1 × 9 = 9 digits

from pages 10 – 99, 2 digit page number will show, so the total of digits is

2 × 90 = 180.

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from page 100 – 999, there is a three digit page number, so the total digit is

3 × 900 = 2700.

Total digit used = 9 + 180 + 2700 = 2889

Remaining digits = 3189 – 2889 = 300

Now, 300/4 for remaining pages comes to 75.

So, the total page is = 9 + 90 + 900 + 75 = 1074.

Question 90. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs are 14 more than

twice the number of heads, find the numbers of cows.

a. 5

b. 7

c. 10

d. 12

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Let there be A cows and B hens. A cow has 4 legs and B hen has 2 legs

⇒ 4A + 2B = 2 (A + B) + 14

⇒ 4A – 2A + 2B – 2B = 14

A = = 7142

Directions: (91-94)

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All the roads of a village are either parallel or perpendicular to one another and

are all straight roads, Roads Parallel to one another are A, B, C, D, E Roads G, H,

I, J, K, L, M are parallel to one another:

1. Road A, is 1 km East of B

2. Road B, is 1 km 2 West of C

3. Road D, is 1 km West of E

4. Road G is 1 km 2 South of H

5. Road I is 1 km North of J

6. Road K is 1 km 2 North of L

7. Road K is 1 km South of M

91. Which is necessarily true?

a. D is 2 km west of B

b. M is 1.5 km north of L

c. E and B intersect

d. I is 1km north of L

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Arrange diagram according to the given relationship

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According Fig (B) M is 1.5 km north of L

Question 92. If road E is between B and C, then distance between A & D is

a. 1 km

b. 1.5 km

c. 1.5 - 2 km

d. ½ km

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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From the figure we can see that if E is placed between B and C then

minimum distance between A and D will be 0.5 (A to C) + 1(ED) = 1.5

maximum distance between A and D will be 1 (A to B) + 1(ED) = 2

Distance between A & D will lie between

1.5 – 2km

Question 93. Which of the following possibilities make two roads coincide?

a. E and B are ½ km apart

b. D is ½ km east of A

c. L is ½ km North of I

d. C is 1 km west of D

Answer: (a)

Solution:

From the diagram we can see that

If E and B are ½ km apart, then E and C will coincide.

Question 94. If E is between B and C, which of the following is false?

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a. D is 2 km west of A

b. D is less than 1 km from B

c. E is less than 1 km from A

d. C is less than 1.5 km from D

Answer: (a)

Solution:

From the diagram we can see that, the distance between A and D is less than 2

km

Hence, the false statement is ‘D is 2 km west of A’.

Directions: (95-96)

In each of the following questions, there is a figure (X) with two dots placed in it.

This figure is followed by four other figures. Only one of which is such as to

make possible the placement of the dots satisfying the same conditions as in

figure (X). Choose the correct answer figure in each case.

Question 95.

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a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

In figure (X), there are two dots.

One dot is common in triangle and square only and the other dot is common in

triangle and circle only. And the answer figure in option (c) is such that it is

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possible to establish one dot in triangle and square only and the other dot in

triangle and circle only.

Question 96.

a.

b.

c.

d.

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Answer: (a)

Solution:

In figure (X), there are two dots.

One dot is common in triangle and circle only and the other dot is common in

square and triangle only. And the answer figure in option (a) is such that it is

possible to establish one dot in triangle and circle only and the other dot in

square and triangle only.

Directions: (97-98)

In each of the following question out of 4 figures, three are similar in a certain

way and one is not like others. Find out the figure which does not belong to the

other three figures.

Question 97.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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Reason: In figure (a) the second symbol is rotated to 180° with respect to the first

symbol. And in the rest of the figures, this relation doesn’t hold true. So, a

dissimilar figure in (a).

Question 98.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

In option (a), (b) and (d), the right part of the figures is the mirror image of the left

part which is not there in option (c). Hence the figure in option (c) does not

belong to the other three figures.

Question 99. When the given figure is converted to cube then which will be the

correct alternative.

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Answer: (b)

Solution:

A is opposite to D,

F is opposite to B,

and E is opposite to C.

Cube in option (a) is not possible as F is not adjacent to B.

Cube in option (c) is not possible as E can’t be adjacent to C

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Cube in option (d) is also not possible as A can’t be adjacent to D.

Only option (b) is possible.

Question 100. How many Rectangles (excluding Square) are there in the given

figure?

a. 19

b. 23

c. 20

d. 22

Answer: (d)

Solution:

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Rectangle (excluding squares):

ABGF, CDKJ, FGPO, ABKJ, CDPO, ABPO, DELK, GHQP, DEQP, HIRQ, JLQO, KMRP,

LNSQ, JMRO, KNSP, JNSO, FHLJ, GIMK, FIMJ, CEHF, CEQO, FIRO

Hence, the total number of rectangles (excluding square) = 22.

.

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NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION(NTSE 2021) STAGE - 1

STATE : PUNJAB PAPER : SATDate : 27/01/2021__________________________________________________________Max. Marks : 100 SOLUTIONS Time : 120 mins.

Question 101. The ratio of the effective resistance between the terminals A and

B of the given circuit with key K open and then K1 closed is given by

a. 1 : 1b. 4 : 3c. 2 : 1d. 2 : 3

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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All resistors are in series.

Req = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 + 12 + 6

(Req)1 = 24 Ω …..(1)

Req = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 + 6 +6

(Req)2 = 18Ω …….(2)

Now dividing eq.(2) by (1),

(𝑅𝑒𝑞)₁(𝑅𝑒𝑞)₂ = 24

18 = 43

Question 102. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. A person with Myopia can see distant objects clearly.

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b. The eyes must be removed within 10-15 hours after the death of eye donor.c. Cataract is the condition of eye when the crystalline lens of some old age

people become milky and cloudy.d. A student sitting in the last row of classroom cannot read clearly the letters

written on black board due to Hyper metropia.

Answer: (c)

Solution:

As the age of a person increases the transparency of the eye lens starts to fade

and flexibility starts to decrease so that it becomes milky and cloudy. This is the

phenomena of cataract.

Question 103.The distance travelled by a body in last two seconds of its motionin straight line is what fraction of the total distance covered in 7 seconds in thegiven velocity time graph?

a.14

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b.23

c.13

d.12

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Distance = area under V-t graph

For a total 7 sec.

S1 = Area of Δ + Area of ܴ + Area of Δ=

12 × 2 × 10 + 2 × 10 + 1

2 × 2 + 10 = 40 𝑚

Distance in last two seconds,

S2 = Area of Δ = × 2 × 10 = 10m12

Now fraction =𝑆₂𝑆₁ = 10

40 = 14

Question 104. A Body has a negative charge of 1 μC. It means the body hasgained

a. One electronb. 106 electronsc. 6.25 × 1018 electronsd. 6.25 × 1012 electrons

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Given, Q = 1 μc

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According to quantization of charge,

Q = ne

n = = 6.25 × 1012 (electron)𝑄𝑒 = 1×10⁻⁶

1.6×10⁻¹⁹

Question 105. Which of the following graphs best represent the graphicalrelationship between Kinetic Energy (K.E.) and momentum (P) of a body inmotion?

a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (b)

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Solution:

Relation between kinetic energy and momentum

EK =𝑃²2𝑀

or P = 2𝑚𝐸

or P2∝ Ek

If compared with the standard equation of parabola,

y2 = 4ax

Question 106.Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2 are in contact and arecoaxial. Its power is same as power of a single lens given by

a.𝑓₁𝑓₂

𝑓₁+𝑓₂

b.𝑓₁+𝑓₂

2

c.𝑓₁𝑓₂

𝑓₁+𝑓₂

d.2

𝑓₁+𝑓₂

Answer: (bonus)

Solution:

Power of lens when two lenses are connected,

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P = P1 + P2

=1𝑓₁ + 1

𝑓₂ = 𝑓₁+𝑓₂𝑓₁𝑓₂ {𝑃 = 1

𝑓 }

Question 107. A stone is dropped into a well having free water surface at depth44.1 m. The splash is heard 3.13 sec after the stone is dropped. Find the velocityof sound in air. (Take g= 9.8 m/s2)

a. 339.2 m/sb. 342 m/sc. 344.3 m/sd. 341.2 m/s

Answer: (a)

Solution:

From the 2nd equation of motion,

S = ut + gt212

44.1 = 0 + × 9.8 × t212

t = 3 sec.This is the time taken by the stone to reach the water surface.But the splash is heard in 3.13 sec.∴ Time interval of sound motion = 3.13 – 3 = 0.13 sec

Now speed of sound =𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑣𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑

𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑

= = 339.2 m/sec.44.10.13

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Question 108. Which of the following statement does not describe the possiblecause of overloading in household circuits?

a. Accidental hike in supply voltageb. Substantial reduction of current in the circuitc. Too many electric appliances connected to a single socketd. Live wire and Neutral wire comes in direct contact

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Overloading has happened due to

⇒ Sudden increase in voltage/current.

⇒ Too many electric appliances connected to a single socket.

⇒ Live and neutral wires coming in direct contact.

Overloading is not possible when substantial reduction of current takes place in

circuit.

Question 109.A bus of mass 2800 kg is travelling at a speed of 90 km/h. Aretarding force of 5600N is applied on it for a distance of 100m. Its velocityreduces to

a. 45 km/hb. 54 km/hc. 36 km/hd. 18.4 km/h

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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Given,

m = 2800kg

U = 90 = 90 × = 25 m/sec𝑘𝑚/ℎ 518

F = 5600 N

S = 100 m

Now, retardation = (–a)

F = Ma

a = = = 2m/sec2𝐹𝑀

56002800

From the 3rd equation of motion,

V2 = u2 + 2as

= (25)2 + 2(–2) × 100 = 225

V = 15 m/sec = 15 × = 54185 𝑘𝑚/ℎ

Question 110. The refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A in thegiven figure is given by

a.32

b.12

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c.3

2

d.12

Answer: (d)

Solution:

According to Snell’s law,

μ sin θ = constant

μAsinθA=μBsinθB

μA sin 30 = μB sin 45°

= μ BA =µ𝐵µ𝐴

𝑠𝑖𝑛30𝑠𝑖𝑛45 =

1212

=12

Question 111. A block of wood having mass 15 kg and dimensions 40cm × 30cm× 20cm is kept on a table top. It is made to lie on the table top in three wayswith its sides of dimensions

(a) 40cm × 30cm

(b) 30cm × 20cm

(c) 20cm × 40cm

The pressure exerted by the wooden block on table top will be

a. Maximum for way (a)

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b. Maximum for way (b)

c. Maximum for way (c)

d. Same for all three ways

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Pressure P =

When A ↓ P ↓

∴ Area is minimum when a = 30cm × 20 cm

Question 112. Figure shows the magnetic field lines of a magnetic field. Thereare three points A, B and C in this field. Choose the correct option regarding fieldstrength.

a. Maximum at A minimum at Bb. Maximum at B minimum at Cc. Maximum at C minimum at Bd. Maximum at A minimum at C

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Answer: (b)

Solution:

As the density of magnetic field lines increases, the magnetic field intensity also

increases i.e. if the distance between two adjacent magnetic field lines is

minimum, magnetic field intensity will be maximum.

Therefore, the correct answer is maximum at B and minimum at C.

Question 113. Identical packets are dropped from two aero planes one abovethe equator and other above north pole both at height h now ge and gp arerespectively the acceleration due to gravity. If t1 and t2 are respectively the timetaken by packets to reach the surface of earth then

a. t1 > t2 because ge < gp

b. t1 > t2 because ge > gp

c. t1 < t2 because gc < gp

d. t1 < t2 because ge < gp

Answer: (a)

Solution:

From 2nd equation of motion

S = ut + at212

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h = gt212

t =2ℎ𝑔

t ∝1𝑔

So,gp>ge

and t1> t2

Question 114. The lustre of a metal is due to

a. Its high densityb. Its high polishingc. Its chemical inertnessd. Presence of free electrons

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Metallic lustre is due to the presence of free mobile electrons which are present inmetal. The electrons release energy in the form of light when they de-excite.

Question 115. Copper sulphate can be safely kept in a container made up of

a. Aluminumb. Leadc. Silverd. Zinc

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Answer: (c)

Solution:

Silver is less reactive than copper due to which copper sulphate can be kept in acontainer made up of silver.

Question 116. Two atoms are said to be isobars if

a. They have same atomic number but different mass numberb. They have same number of protons but different number of neutronsc. They have same number of neutrons but different number of protons and

electronsd. Sum of number of protons and neutrons are same but number of protons is

different

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Isobars are the elements which have a different atomic number but the samemass number.Atomic mass = Number of protons + Number of neutrons

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Atomic Number = Number of protons

Question 117. The visible universe is estimated to contain 1022 stars. How manymoles of stars are present in the visible universe?

a. 1022 molesb. 6.023 × 101 molesc. 0.0166 molesd. 6.022 moles

Answer: (c)

Solution:

1 mole of stars = 6.023 × 1023

No. of moles of stars present

= 0.0166 moles1022

6.023 𝑥 1023

Question 118. Which set of given elements A, B, C, D, E with atomic number 1, 3,7, 10, 11 belongs to same period and same group, respectively.

a. A, B, C and B, C, Db. B, C, E and A, B, Ec. B, C, D and A, B, Ed. C, D, E and A, B, C

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Electronic configuration are as follows:A (Z = 1): 1B (Z = 3): 2, 1C (Z = 7): 2, 5D (Z = 10): 2, 8

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E (Z = 11): 2, 8, 1

Therefore, B, C and D belong to the same period and A, B and E belong to thesame group.

Question 119. The following compound 1 and 2 with identical molecular formulabut different structures are called

a. Homologous seriesb. Unsaturated hydrocarbonc. Structural isomerd. Functional isomer

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Structural isomers are two or more organic compounds that have the samemolecular formula but different structures.

Question 120. An element x forms an oxide X2O3. In which group of Mendeleev’speriodic table, is this element X kept?

a. Group IIb. Group Vc. Group IIId. Group VIII

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Answer: (c)

Solution:

In compound X2O3, X has a valency of 3. The element belongs to group III ofMendeleev’s periodic table.

X2O3→ Xe+3 + O–2

Question 121.In the reaction: 3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3 the oxidising agentis

a. MnO2

b. Alc. Al2O3

d. Mn

Answer: (a)

Solution:

MnO2 oxidises Al and itself get reduced. Therefore, MnO2 behaves as an oxidizingagent.

Question 122. Which of the following functional groups is ketone?R = (–CH3), R is Alkyl group

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a.

b.

c.

d.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Ketone is a functional group in which the carbon atom forms a double bond withO and the two remaining bonds are occupied by alkyl or aryl substituents.

Question 123. Convert 20 gm of water into moles.

a. 2 molesb. 3 molesc. 1.5 molesd. 1.11 moles

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Molecular mass of H2O = 18 g/mole.Given mass = 20 g

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Mole = = = 1.11 moles𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠2018

Question 124. The metal which can form amphoteric oxides with oxygen are

a. Sodium and Aluminiumb. Zinc and Potassiumc. Calcium Sodiumd. Aluminium and Zinc

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Amphoteric oxides are oxygen compounds that show both acidic and basiccharacteristics.

Example: Al2O3, ZnO, SnO2, PbO2 etc.

Question 125. An element X forms two oxides XO and XO2. The oxide XO isneutral but XO2 is acidic in nature. The element X is most likely to be

a. Sulphurb. Carbonc. Calciumd. Hydrogen

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Carbon can form two oxides, i.e. CO (Carbon monoxide) and CO2 (Carbon dioxide).CO is neutral while CO2 is acidic. Calcium being a metal forms basic oxide andhydrogen forms a neutral oxide (H2O).

Question 126. Which of the following does not undergo sublimation?

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a. Camphorb. Silicac. Dry Iced. Iodine

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from solid to the gaseousstate, without passing through the liquid state. Therefore, silica does not undergosublimation.

Question 127. Guard cells are capable of photosynthesis because they have

a. Cytoplasm, nucleus, centriolesb. Cytoplasm, nucleus, centrosomec. Cytoplasm, nucleus, chloroplastsd. Cytoplasm, nucleus, chromosomes

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. Chlorophyll is one of the essential components

required for photosynthesis. Since guard cells have chloroplasts along with

nucleus and cytoplasm, they are capable of performing photosynthesis.

Question 128.DNA is found in nucleus of cell and

a. Golgi bodiesb. Lysosomesc. Vacuolesd. Mitochondria

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Answer: (d)

Solution:

DNA is found in the nucleus of all cells. Apart from that, it is found in mitochondria

and chloroplast also. The DNA found in mitochondria is small and circular.

Question 129. A and B are the two reproductive organs of females. A isresponsible for nourishment of the developing embryo and B is where spermsencounter the egg. A and B respectively are:

a. Vagina and uterusb. Ovary and fallopian tubec. Fallopian tube and uterusd. Uterus and fallopian tube

Answer: (d)

Solution:

(A) The uterus helps in providing nourishment to the embryo.

(B) The sperms encounter the egg in the fallopian tube.

Question 130.Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?

a. Dengueb. T.B. (Tuberculosis)c. Coughd. Aids

Answer: (b)

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Solution:

● Dengue is caused by dengue virus

● T.B (Tuberculosis) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium

tuberculosis

● Coughs are caused due to infections in the respiratory tract. And respiratory

tract infections are mostly caused due to viruses.

● AIDS is caused due to HIV (Human Immuno Virus)

Question 131. Which of the following tissues gives tensile strength againstbending and swaying?

a. Parenchymab. Collenchymac. Sclerenchymad. None of these

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Collenchyma is a simple living tissue in plants. It provides tensile strength against

bending and swaying.

Question 132. Double fertilization is characteristic of

a. Angiospermsb. Gymnospermsc. Bryophytad. Pteridophytes

Answer: (a)

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Solution:

Double fertilization takes place in angiosperms. The following steps happen during

double fertilization:

Male gamete + Female gamete → Zygote

Male gamete + Polar nuclei → Endosperm

Since we have two fusions happening here, it is called double fertilization.

Question 133. Which of the following characteristics of garden pea were nottaken into consideration in the study done by Mendel?

a. Shape of flowerb. Colour of flowerc. Shape of seedd. Colour of seed

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Mendel chose the following characteristics of the garden pea for his study:

● Plant height

● Seed shape

● Seed colour

● Flower colour

● Flower position

● Pod shape

● Pod colour

Mendel did not choose ‘shape of flower’ for his study.

Question 134.Which part of the brain controls salivation and blood pressure?

a. Cerebrum

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b. Medullac. Cerebellumd. Hypothalamus

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Medulla or Medulla oblongata is a part of the hindbrain. It controls involuntary

actions like blood pressure and salivation.

Question 135.Which kind of plastid is more common in flowers and fruits?

a. Chloroplastsb. Leucoplastsc. Chromoplastsd. Proteinoplasts

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Chromoplasts (Chromo means Colour) provide colour to seeds and fruits. So, it is

more commonly found in them.

Question 136. Excretory organs present in annelids

a. Flame Cellsb. Lungsc. Nephridiad. Kidneys

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Nephridia are the tubular excretory structures of annelids.

Question 137. Proteins are synthesized by which part of the cell?

a. Plastidsb. Lysosomesc. Ribosomesd. Golgi apparatus

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Different organelles in cells have different functions. Ribosomes in cells help in the

synthesis of proteins.

Question 138. Glucose is mainly absorbed in which part of the kidney?

a. Distal convoluted tubuleb. Loop of Henlec. Proximal convoluted tubuled. Bowman’s capsule

Answer: (c)

Solution:

The Bowman’s capsule filters the blood and separates out the filtrate. Different

regions of the nephron reabsorbs different substances as the filtrate passes

through it. Glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).

Question 139. Genes are made of :-

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a. Lipoproteinsb. Hydrocarbonc. Histonesd. Poly nucleotides

Answer: (d)

Solution:

DNA is made up of nucleotides. A group of these nucleotides or polynucleotides of

a DNA form a gene. This gene is the functional unit of DNA and it codes for

specific functions.

Question 140. Select the set of analogous organs from the following:

a. Forelimbs of frog and lizardb. The wings of bat and wing of a birdc. Forelimbs of a bird and humansd. Forelimbs of cow and duck

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Analogous organs have similar functions but different origins and structures. For

example, the wings of a bat and the wings of a bird are both used for flying. But

they have different origins and structures.

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Question 141.If = 2x, = 5y and = 7z then what will be the value512 15625 343of x – y + z ?

a. 4b. 6c. 9d. 3

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Given 512 = 2𝑥 ⇒2𝑥 = 292 ⇒ 𝑥 = 9

2

15625 = 5𝑦 ⇒ 562 = 5𝑦

⇒ y = 3

343 = 7𝑍 ⇒ 732 = 7𝑍 ⇒ 𝑍 = 3

2

So, x – y + z =92 − 3 + 3

2 = 3

Question 142.If a + b = 1 then what will be the value of a3 + b3 + 3ab

a. 5b. 1c. 3d. 0

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Given (a + b) = 1

∴ (a + b)3 = 1

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⇒ a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b) =1 ( since (a+b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab (a + b))

⇒ a3 + b3 + 3ab(1) = 1 ⇒ a3 + b3 + 3ab = 1

Question 143. The circumference of a circle exceeds its diameter by 270 cm thenthe length of its diameter will be

a. 252 cmb. 126 cmc. 31.5 cmd. 63 cm

Answer: (b)

Solution:

2πr – 2r = 270 (given)

⇒ 2r(π – 1) = 270 ⇒ 2r( 227 − 1) = 270

⇒ 2r × = 270157

⇒ 2r = 270 ×7

15

⇒ 2r = 126

diameter = 2(radius)

⇒ diameter = 126

Question 144. A number when divided by 6, gives remainder 2 then what will bethe remainder if square of that number is divided by 6?

a. 1

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b. 2c. 3d. 4

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Let the number be m.

Given, m = 6p + 2, p ∈ Z ……(1)

Now, m2 = 6q + R, q ∈ Z, R is the required remainder…..(2)

On squaring both the sides of eq.(1), we get

m2 = (6p + 2)2 = 36p2 + 4 + 24p

= 6(6p2 + 4p) + 4

= 6q + 4 {(6p2 + 4p) = q} …..(3)

From (2) and (3),

R = 4

Question 145.Find the value of ?0. 7 + 2. 7

a. 3. 4b. 2. 77c. 3. 6d. 3. 5

Answer: (d)

Solution:

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⇒ x = , y =0. 7 2. 7

10x = 10 × 0. 7

⇒ 10x – x = –7. 7 0. 7

⇒ 10x – x = 7

⇒ 9x = 7

⇒ x = ….(1)79

Similarly

10y = 10 × 2. 7

⇒ 10y = 27. 7

⇒ 10y – y = 27. 7 − 2. 7

⇒ 9y = 25

⇒ y = …..(2)259

On adding eq.(1) and (2), we get

0. 7 + 2. 7 = 79 + 25

9 = 329 = 3. 5

Question 146. In the adjoining figure, AB = BC, BD = CD and ∠BAC = 37° thenwhat will be the value of x?

a. 32°b. 74°

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c. 106°d. 34°

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Given, AB = BC ⇒ ∠BCA = ∠BAC = 37°

∠CBD = ∠BAC + ∠BCA = 37° + 37° = 74° (Exterior angle property)

Also given, BD = CD

⇒ ∠CBD = ∠BCD = 74°

In ΔBCD,

⇒ ∠BCD + ∠CBD + ∠BDC = 180°

⇒ 74° + 74° + x = 180°

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⇒ x = 32°

Question 147. Find the sum of all the integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by2 or 5.

a. 3000b. 3050c. 3600d. 3100

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Sum of integers divisible by 2

= 2 + 4 + 6 + ……..+ 100

a = 2, l = 100, n = 50

⇒ S50 =502 (2 + 100) = 2550

sum of integers divisible by 5

= 5 + 10 + 15 + …… + 100

a = 5, l = 100, n = 20

⇒ S20 =202 (5 + 100) = 1050

Here number divisible by 10 is counted twice, so need to subtract

Sum of integers divisible by 10

= 10 + 20 + 30 + ……. + 100

a = 10, l = 100, n = 10

S10 =102 (10 + 100) = 550

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Required sum = 2550 + 1050 – 550 = 3050

Question 148. Find the value of xy if (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are vertices ofrhombus taken in order.

a. 6b. 9c. 18d. 24

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Since, every rhombus is a parallelogram so,

Midpoint of PR = mid – point of QS

( 𝑥+12 , 2+6

2 ) = ( 3+42 , 5+𝑦

2 )

( 𝑥+12 , 8

2 ) = ( 72 , 5+𝑦

2 ) ⇒ 𝑥 = 6, 𝑦 = 3

So, xy = 6x3 = 18

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Though this is a parallelogram and not rhombus, the result holds true in both

cases.

Question 149. Evaluate: 6 + 6 + 6 +......

a. 3b. 2c. 6d. 1

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Let y = 6 + 6 + 6 +......

⇒ y = 6 + 𝑦

y2 = 6 + y ⇒ y2 – y – 6 = 0

⇒ (y – 3) (y + 2) = 0

⇒ y = 3, – 2

∴ y = 3 (since y > 0)

Question 150. Evaluate: cos25° + cos210° + cos215° + ....... + cos290°

a. 8 12

b. 8

c. 9 12

d. 9

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Answer: (a)

Solution:

cos25° + cos210° + cos215° + ……. + cos240° + cos245°

+ cos250° + ……….+ cos275° + cos280° + cos285° + (0)2

= cos25° + cos210° + cos215° + ……. + cos240° + ( 12

)2

+ sin240° + ……… + sin215° + sin2 10° + sin25° + (0)2 ( sin (90 – θ) = cosθ)

= (cos25° + sin25°) + (cos210° + sin210°) + (cos215° + sin215°)+ ……..+ (cos240° +

sin240°)+ ( cos2θ + sin2θ = 1)12 + 0

= (1 + 1 + …… –8 times) +12

= 8 + = 812

12

Question 151. A cone of height 24 cm is divided into two parts by drawing aplane through the mid-point of its axis and parallel to its base. Find the ratio ofthe volume of two parts.

a. 1 : 4b. 1 : 7c. 4 : 1d. 2 : 7

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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Given, h = 24 cm

Let V1 be the volume of the cone with height h and V2 be the volume of cone with

height at top.ℎ2

By similar triangles of heights h and , their ratios of radius should be r andℎ2

𝑟2

respectively.

The volume of frustum with height is V1-V2.ℎ2

𝑉1

𝑉2

= ( 𝑟 2ℎ

( 𝑟2 ) 2( ℎ

2 )) = 8

⇒𝑉1

= 8𝑉2

Required ratio =𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ

2

𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑟𝑢𝑠𝑡𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ2

=𝑉

2

𝑉1−𝑉

2=

𝑉2

8𝑉2−𝑉

2=

𝑉2

7𝑉2

= 1: 7

Question 152. If 1960 = 2a5b7c then, find the value of 2–a7b5–c

a.175

8

b.7

200

c.7

2000

d.5625

Answer: (b)

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Solution:

1960 = 2a × 5b × 7c (given)

⇒ 23 × 51 × 72 = 2a × 5b × 7c

⇒ a = 3, b = 1, c = 2

⇒ 2–a .7b .5–c = 2–3 × 71 × 5–2

=7

200

Question 153.In ΔABC, D is a point on side BC such that 2BD = 5DC. If ar(ΔABC) =49 cm2 then ar(ΔABD) = ......

a. 28 cm2

b. 21 cm2

c. 14 cm2

d. 35 cm2

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Height of ΔABC = Height of ΔABD = Height of triangle ΔADC

Hence, ar(ΔABD) and ar(ΔADC) are only dependent upon the lengths of their

bases.

Let the bases be of lengths 5x and 2x for BD and DC respectively.

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Given that,12 (5𝑥 + 2𝑥)ℎ = 𝑎𝑟(Δ𝐴𝐵𝐶) = 49

Solving we get

𝑥ℎ = 7 × 2 = 14

𝑎𝑟(Δ𝐴𝐵𝐷) = 12 (5𝑥)ℎ = 1

2 × 5 × 14 = 35 𝑐𝑚 2

Question 154.A natural number when increased by 6 equals 280 times of itsreciprocal. Find the number

a. 20b. 14c. -20d. 6

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Let the natural number be P.

Now, P + 6 = (given)280

𝑃

⇒ P2 + 6P – 280 = 0

⇒ (P + 20) (P – 14) = 0

⇒ P = – 20, 14

⇒ P = 14 (natural number can’t be negative)

Question 155.If a = 2, b = 3, c = 4 then find the value of𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏𝑐 + 𝑐𝑎 − 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 − 𝑐2

3𝑎𝑏𝑐 − 𝑎3 − 𝑏3 − 𝑐3

a.18

b. 9c. 8

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d.19

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Given a = 2, b = 3 and c = 4

Now,𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏𝑐 + 𝑐𝑎 − 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 − 𝑐2

3𝑎𝑏𝑐 − 𝑎3 − 𝑏3 − 𝑐3 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2 − 𝑎𝑏 − 𝑏𝑐 − 𝑐𝑎

𝑎3 + 𝑏3 + 𝑐3 − 3𝑎𝑏𝑐

=𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2 − 𝑎𝑏 − 𝑏𝑐 − 𝑐𝑎

(𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐)(𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2 − 𝑎𝑏 − 𝑏𝑐 − 𝑐𝑎)

1(𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐) = 1

2 + 3 + 4 = 19

Question 156. In a two digit number, the digit at ten’s place is three times the digitat unit place. The sum of the number and the digit at unit place is 32. Find thenumber.

a. 26b. 31c. 62d. 23

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Let the number be 10a+b

a = 3b and (10a + b) + b = 32

10a + 2b = 32⇒

30b + 2b = 32⇒

32b = 32 b = 1⇒ ⇒

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a = 3b = 3

So, required number = 10(3) + 1 = 31

Question 157. Mean of 8, 12, 6, 22, 10 and 4 is 12. If each observation isincreased by 25% then the resulting mean is

a. 9b. 15c. 12d. 16

Answer: (b)

Solution:

(given)𝑋 = 12

MeanNew 𝑋1 = 𝑋 + ( 25100 𝑋)

= 𝑋(1 + 14 ) = 12( 5

4 ) = 15

Question 158. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

a.57

b. 0.57c. 7%

d.1817

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Answer: (d)

Solution:

Probability of an event because probability always lie from 0 to 1

Here , rest all are less than 11817 > 1

Question 159. In given figure, EB and DA are perpendicular to AB if OE = 5 cm,OD = 7 cm, and ar(∆BOE) = 150 cm2 then ar(∆AOD) =_________

a. 294𝑐𝑚2

b. 210 𝑐𝑚2

c. 150 𝑐𝑚2

d. 324 𝑐𝑚2

Answer: (a)

Solution:

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∠BOE = ∠AOD

And ∠EBO = ∠DAO

Clearly, By A-A Rule, ∆𝑂𝐵𝐸 ∼ ∆𝑂𝐴𝐷

𝑎𝑟(∆𝐵𝑂𝐸)𝑎𝑟(∆𝐴𝑂𝐷) = ( 𝑂𝐸

𝑂𝐷 )2

(From theorem: Ratio of areas of similar triangles is directly proportional to

square of their heights)

150𝑎𝑟(∆𝐴𝑂𝐷) = ( 5

7 )2

⇒ 𝑎𝑟(∆𝐴𝑂𝐷) = 150 × 4925 = 294 𝑐𝑚2

Question 160. In the given figure PQ is the diameter of the circle. If PR = 5 cmand QR = 12 cm then find the area of the shaded region.

a. (25π – 30)cm2

b. (26π – 30)cm2

c. (169π – 30)cm2

d. ( π – 30)cm21694

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Answer: (d)

Solution:

Given:

PR = 5 cm, QR = 12 cm

∠PRQ = 90°(angle subtended by diameter)

PR2 + QR2= PQ2 (By Pythagoras theorem)

⇒ 52 + 122 = 𝑃𝑄

PQ = 13 cm⇒

r =⇒ 132 𝑐𝑚 (𝑟 = 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟

2 )

Shaded area = x PR X QR)⇒ π𝑟2 − ( 12

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= x 5 X 12) =π( 132 )

2− ( 1

2 ( 1694 π − 30)𝑐𝑚2

Question 161. What is the latitudinal extent of India?

a. N to 6` N4∘8` 37∘

b. 4` N to 6` N8∘ 37∘

c. 4` N to 6` S8∘ 37∘

d. N to N10∘ 40∘

Answer: (b)

Solution:

India is located in the northern hemisphere. The main land of India extendsbetween latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E.

Question 162. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on which one of the following rivers?

a. Narmadab. Tapic. Gangad. Satluj

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Sardar Sarovar Dam was built on the Narmada river. It is located in the village ofKevadia in the state of Gujarat. It provides electricity and supplies water fordrinking and irrigation to Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Question 163. Which of the following has been declared the Union Territory(U.T.) by Government of India recently?

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a. Bhopalb. Ladakhc. Gangtokd. Kerala

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Ladakh became a Union Territory in August 2019. Earlier, It was a part of the stateof Jammu and Kashmir. Ladakh is headed by a lieutenant governor.

Question 164. Marble is a

a. Metamorphic Rockb. Igneous Rockc. Basalt Rockd. Sedimentary Rock

Answer: (a)

Solution:Igneous or sedimentary rocks turn (metamorph) to metamorphic rocks due tointense heat and pressure within the Earth’s crust. Slate, marble are suchmetamorphic rocks. Clay changes into slate and limestone into marble.

Question 165. Kaziranga Sanctuary is situated in which one of the followingstates?

a. Haryanab.Himachal Pradeshc.Assamd.Punjab

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Kaziranga Sanctuary is situated in the district of Golaghat and Nagaon in Assam. Itis famous for its one-horned rhinos. Apart from many species of plants, it is hometo many animals like Hoolock Gibbon, Tiger, Leopard, Indian Elephant, Sloth Bear,Wild water buffalo, swamp deer, etc.

Question 166. Match the following(i) Iron a. Digboi

(ii) Coal b. Singhbhnm(iii) Manganese c. Balaghat

(iv) Oil d. Raniganj

a. (i)d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

b. (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a

c. (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-c, (iv)-a

d. (i)-a, (ii) -b,(iv)-a, (iii)-c

Answer: (c)

Solution:

The following list provides the names of minerals and respective mining areas.

Mineral Mining regions

Iron Singhbhnm (Jharkhand)

Coal Raniganj (West Bengal)

Manganese Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh)

Oil Digboi (Assam)

Question 167. The Dried and flat area extending from southern part of Punjaband Haryana to the Rann of Kutch is known as

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a.The Thar Desertb. The Aravali Hillsc. The Himalayasd. The Northern plains.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Dried and flat area extending from the southern part of Punjab and Haryanato the Rann of Kutch is known as the Thar Desert. It lies towards the westernmargins of the Aravali Hills. This arid region receives very low rainfall below 150mm per year.

Question 168. Which one of the following states receives rainfall in winterseason

a. Punjabb. Uttar Pradeshc. Gujaratd. Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Tamil Nadu receives rainfall during the winter season. During October andNovember, the northeast monsoon brings moisture from the Bay of Bengal. Itcauses torrential rain over the Tamil Nadu coast, southern Andhra Pradesh,southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala.

Question 169. Which one of the following states produce more Coffee?

a. Karnatakab. Andhra Pradeshc. Tamil Nadud. Madhya Pradesh

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Answer: (a)

Solution:

Karnataka is the leading coffee-producing state in India. During 2018-19,Karnataka produced 2,19,550 metric tonnes of coffee. The coffee plantations aremajorly located in the districts of Chikkamagaluru, Hassan, and Kodagu inKarnataka.

Question 170. Which one of the following countries is not a member of SouthAsia Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

a. Bhutanb. Indiac. Nepald. China

Answer: (d)

Solution:

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organizationof South Asian nations. It was founded in 1985 in Dhaka, Bangladesh. It isdedicated to economic, technological, social, and cultural development of theregion with emphasis on collective self-reliance. It has eight members: India,Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Bhutan, Afghanistan, Pakistan.

Question 171. What do you understand by the term 'Loo'?

a. Sea breezeb. Land breezec. Hot and dry windd. cold windAnswer: (c)

Solution:

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Loo is the name given to strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing during the day overthe north and northwestern India during the hot weather season. Loo is commonin states like Punjab, Haryana, Eastern Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 172. Which Viceroy made Delhi the capital of India in 1911 A.D?

a. Lord Curzonb. Lord William Bentinckc. Lord Hardinged. Lord Mountbatten

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Hardinge announced that the capital or the seat of the British Raj would shift fromCalcutta to Delhi in 1911 AD. He made this announcement during the Delhi Durbaron 12th December 1912. It was on the occasion of George V, the then emperor ofIndia’s visit to India.

Question 173. In 1519 A. D. Zahir - Ud - Din Unbnr was the king of

a. Kabulb. Farganac. Afghanistand. Kandhar

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Zahir-Ud-Din Babur attacked Kabul in 1519 AD. He also laid the foundation of theMughal Empire in the Indian subcontinent. The Mughal Empire went on to rulethe Indian subcontinent till the 19th century.

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Question 174. When was the battle of Samugarh fought?

a. 1658 A. D.b. 1659 A. D.c. 1657 A.D.d. 1660A.D.

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Battle of Samugarh was fought in 1658 AD. It was a battle of successionbetween Dara Shikoh and his brothers, Aurangzeb and Murad Baksh. They werethe sons of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.

Question 175. Which Guru Sahib composed 'Thit' bani?

a. Guru Ramdasjib. Guru Amardas Jic. Guru Angad Dev Jid. Guru Nanak Dev Ji

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Guru Nanak Dev Ji is the founder of Sikhism. He composed several banis like theThit, Onkar, Japuji Sahib, Var Malhar, Var-Majh, Var Asa, Bara Mah and manyothers at Kartarpur.

Question 176. When did French troops Land in Vietnam?

a. 1856 A.D.b. 1854 A.D.c. 1858 A.D.d. 1830 A.D.

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Answer: (c)

Solution:

Napoleon made the decision to attack Vietnam in 1857 AD. The French troopslanded in Vietnam in 1858 AD. The French wanted a market for their goods after aboom in their production due to industrialisation.

Question 177. Print technology of China was brought to Italy by the greatexplorer-

a. Marco Polob. Vasco Da Gamac. Columbusd. Magellan

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Marco Polo was a Venetian traveller who visited China in the thirteenth centuryduring the reign of Kublai Khan. There, he learnt about the print technology andbrought it to Italy. His travelogues helped future explorers find their way acrossthe Atlantic Ocean.

Question 178. During India's freedom struggle, which one of the following led tothe first 'All India Hartal'

a. Protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacreb. Protest against Rowlatt Actc. Arrest of Mahatma Gandhid. Arrival of Simon Commission

Answer: (b)

Solution:

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The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March, 1919.The act allowed British administrators to arrest dissenters without any trial. Inorder to protest against this draconian law, Mahatma Gandhi along with otherleaders called for an All India Hartal. This was the first pan India hartal.

Question 179. On 31 January 1930, Mahatma Gandhi sent a letter to ViceroyIrwin stating - demands.

a. 10b. 11c. 12d. 13

Answer: (b)

Solution:

During the Civil Disobedience Movement, Mahatma Gandhi put forth 11 demandsto Irwin, the then Viceroy of India with an ultimatum to accept or reject it byJanuary 31st, 1930. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March, 1931.According to this peace pact, Irwin agreed to release political prisoners exceptthose who were involved in violence and to allow Indians to make salt fordomestic use. In return, Gandhi agreed to call off the Civil Disobediencemovement and to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Question 180. Nationalism aligned with which factor led Europe to disaster in1914?

a. Liberalismb. Isolationismc. Imperialismd. Nonintervention

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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Nationalism aligned with imperialism led Europe to a disaster in 1914. MajorEuropean powers used imperialist policies to advance themselves in lands awayfrom the European mainland. This caused severe discontent among the commonmasses. This imperial war amongst European powers also led to World War I.

Question 181. When did Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee to be inexistence?

a. 16 November 1920b. 14 December 1920c. 18 November 1920d. 29 December 1920

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee came into existence on 16November, 1920. It is the apex body responsible for the maintenance ofgurudwaras and other places of Sikh importance in India and Pakistan.

Question 182. In which year Neta ji Subash Chander Bose passed the ICSexamination?

a. 1919 A.D.b. 1920 A.D.c. 1921 A.D.d. 1922 A.D.

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Netaji Subash Chander Bose passed the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination in1920 AD. He left it and was a part of the Indian National Congress for some time.Later, he went on to be a part of the Indian National Army. He is an importantfigure in the Indian National Movement.

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Question 183. The constitution of India was enforced on

a. 26 January 1949b. 26 January 1950c. 20 January 1948d. 28 January 1950

Answer: (b)

Solution: The Constitution of India was drafted by the Constituent Assembly andwas signed on 26th November, 1949. But the major part of it was brought intoforce from 26th January, 1950 for historical reasons. Therefore, India celebrates26th January as Republic day.

Question 184. Which chapter includes the fundamental rights of the citizens?

a. Chapter 3b. Chapter 4c. Chapter 5d. Chapter 6

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Constitution of India guarantees six fundamental rights to the citizens of Indiawhich are defined in part III or chapter 3 of the constitution. Articles 12 to 35 ofthe Indian Constitution deal with fundamental rights.

Question 185. Total fundamental duties includes into the constitution are :

a. 10b. 11c. 12

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d. 13

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Fundamental Duties are moral obligations of the citizens of India. To promote aspirit of unity and fraternity under the common nationhood the Constitution ofIndia originally enlisted 10 fundamental duties. However, the 86th amendment in2002 added one more fundamental duty to be fulfilled by the citizens of India andmade it 11 altogether.

Question 186. What is the minimum age to become the president of India?

a. 25 yearsb. 30 Yearsc. 35 Yearsd. 40 Years

Answer: (c)

Solution:

According to Article 58 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be eligible forelection as President unless he is a citizen of India, has completed the age of 35years and is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.

Question 187. How many members President can nominate in the council ofstates ?

a. 8b. 12c. 2d. 10

Answer: (b)

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Solution:

The Constitution empowers the President of India to nominate 12 members out ofthe total 250 members in the Rajya Sabha or the council of states. The 12members are nominated on the basis of expertise in the fields of literature,science, art and social service.

Question 188. How much delay the council of states can cause in the passing ofMoney Bill?

a. 14 daysb. 20 daysc. 25 daysd. 30days

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Council of states or the Rajya Sabha can simply delay the money bill by 14days from the day of receiving it from the Lok Sabha. However, the money bill isconsidered to be passed by both the houses if the Rajya Sabha returns the bill tothe Lok Sabha with or without recommendations within a span of 14 days.

Question 189. The judges of the Supreme court retire after completing the ageof

a. 60 yearsb. 62 yearsc. 65 yearsd. 70 years

Answer: (c)

Solution:

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According to Article 124 (2) of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court Judgescan retire after the age of 65 years.

Question 190. Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to the membersof union council of ministers?

a. Presidentb.Vice Presidentc. Chief Justice of the Supreme Courtd. Prime Minister

Answer: (a)

Solution:

According to Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India shalladminister the oath of office and secrecy to the members of the union council ofministers.

Question 191. How many members are there in Punjab legislature assembly?

a. 117b. 119c. 120d. 122

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The Punjab Legislative assembly consists of 117 members directly elected fromthe 117 constituencies in the state of Punjab. Punjab follows a unicamerallegislature which means it has only the legislative assembly and not the legislativecouncil.

Question 192. The electoral college for the election of the vice presidentincludes.

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a. Lok Sabhab. Rajya Sabhac. State Legislative Assemblyd. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (d)

Solution:

The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting ofmembers of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system ofproportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and thevoting in such elections is by secret ballot.

Question 193. Which type of Investment is passed on the volume of profit andincome?

a. Autonomous Investmentb. Induced Investmentc. Net Investmentd. Total Investment

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Induced investments are those investments made by an individual or an

institution depending on various economic considerations like volume of profit

and income. Induced investments aim to generate a profit. It increases or

decreases in response to economic growth levels.

Question 194. Rahul installed computerized machine in his a factory. Someworkers of his factory become unemployed due to having no knowledge ofcomputer, which type unemployment is this?

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a. Seasonal unemploymentb. Disguised unemploymentc. Volunteer unemploymentd. Technical unemployment

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Technical unemployment results in the loss of workers' jobs when they lack therequired knowledge and skills to complete their respective work. Technicalunemployment is considered as a structural problem since lack of skills is amacro-issue related to factors such as education, skill development programmesand institutional support.

Question 195. In which state of the India has maximum population underpoverty line?

a.Biharb. Punjabc. Keralad. Haryana

Answer: (a)

Solution:

According to the report by NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) AayogSDG (Sustainable Development Goals) India Index, Baseline report, Bihar contains33.74 percent of its total population living in BPL or below poverty line.

Question 196. Which Co-operative Society sells milk products in Gujarat?

a. Amulb. Verka

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c. Mother Dairyd. Sudha

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Amul (Anand Milk-producers Union Limited), formed in 1946, is a dairycooperative movement in India. It is a brand name managed by an apexcooperative organisation, Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd.(GCMMF), which today is jointly owned by some 2.41 million milk producers inGujarat.

Question 197. Name the Indian who won the Nobel Prize in Economics.

a. Dr. Rajindra Prasadb. RabindranathTagorec. Mother Teresad. Dr. Amartya Sen

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Amartya Sen is a renowned economist in India who won the Nobel Prize in1998 for his contribution to welfare economics. Amartya Sen has authoredimportant works like “The Argumentative Indian” and “Development asFreedom” which is used widely by academicians and policy makers.

Question 198. In India which means of transport is considered morecheaper and better?

a. Water transportb. Air transportc. Railway transportd. Road transport

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Answer: (a)

Solution: Waterways is an important mode of transport for both passengerand cargo traffic in India. It is the cheapest means of transport and is mostsuitable for carrying heavy and bulky material. It is a fuel-efficient andeco-friendly mode of transport.

Question 199. What are called those industries which produce that goodsthat are used for the production of other goods?

a. Capital goods industriesb. Intermediate goods industriesc. Basic industriesd. Consumer goods industries

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Capital goods industries are those industries which can produce goods likemachine tools, iron and steel etc which are, in turn, used for producingother goods and articles for final consumption.

Question 200. Find growth rate in India, if per capita in 1996 isRs.8000/-and in 1997 is Rs. 10,000 in India.

a. +80%b. +20%c. -20%d. +25%

Answer: (d)

Solution:

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An economic growth rate is the percentage change in the value of all of thegoods and services produced in a nation during a specific period of time, ascompared to the previous period.Here,per capita in 1996 is Rs.8,000/per capita in 1997 is Rs.10,000/Therefore,

Growth Rate = x 100𝑃𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑖𝑛 1996 − 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑖𝑛 1997

𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑖𝑛 1996

Growth Rate = x 10010,000−8,000

8,000

Growth Rate = 25 %

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