NTSE ST I-2012 MAT Nov - pdfMachine from Broadgun Software,...

(NTSE – STAGE - 1) MAT

Time for marking all 90 Questions : 1:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 90

NOTE

1. This question booklet contains 90 questions numbered from 1 to 90 and each question carries 1 mark.

All questions are compulsory. There is no-negative marking.

2. Tally the number of pages along with no. of questions printed on cover page of the booklet. Also check that

question booklet contains the questions of all relevant subjects/topics, as required and stated above and no

repetition or omission of questions is evident.

3. If any discrepancy is found in the Question Booklet, the same can be replaced with another correct Question

Booklet within first 15 minutes.

4. Before answering the questions please read carefully the instructions printed on the back cover page of the

question booklet and strictly follow them. Indicate your answers by blacking bubbles carefully only on the

O.M.R. Answer Sheet provided.

5. Use of any type of calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment and log table etc. is strictly

prohibited.

NTSE- Stage-{I}Sample Paper-{8} Page 1

NTSE-ST-I-(2012-13)-MAT-SOL-1

1. Anshu correctly remembers that his sisters bday is before 20th but after 15th Oct. but her father correctly remembers that his daughters bday is before 17th Oct. Anshus sisters bday falls on which day?

(1) 19th Oct (2) 16th Oct (3) 18th Oct (4) 15th Oct 1. (2) Anshus sisters birthday before 20th but after 15th Oct. i.e. her birthday possible 16th, 17th, 18th,

19th but according to father her birthday before 17th Oct. i.e. Anshus sister birthday falls 16th Oct. 2. Sink is to float. In the dame way, Destroy is to: (1) Enemy (2) Alive (3) Peace (4) Create 2. (4) Float is the antonym of sink, similarly in same way create is antonym of destroy. 3. Author is related to Book. In the same way, is related to .. (1) Human, Society (2) Engineer, Building (3) Mason, Building (4) Fruits, Tree 3. (3) Author create the book in the same way Mason create the building 4. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of PS : TW? (1) JM : RQ (2) AD : DI (3) AD : EH (4) FC : ZE 4. (3)

16 19 20 23 P S : T W

in the same way

A D E H 1 4 : 5 8

+3 +3 5. Which of the following will come in the place of question mark in the given series? BYA, CXB, ?, EVD : (1) DVE (2) DCW (3) DXB (4) DWC 5. (4) 1st letter B C D E 2nd letter Y X W V 3rd letter A B C D Directions: (Q. 6 to 8): Select the alternative which is different from others. 6. (1) 729 (2) 343 (3) 576 (4) 512 6. (3) Except 576, remaining all the cubes. 7. (1) 1764 (2) 1875 (3) 1321 (4) 1542



7. (3) 1764 = 1 + 7 + 6 + 4 = 18 1875 = 1 + 8 + 7 + 5 = 21

1321 = 1 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 07 1542 = 1 + 5 + 4 + 2 = 12 except 1321 all are divisible by 3.

8. (1) HMNG (2) VQRU (3) KDPJ (3) SUVT 8. (3)

H M N G, K D P J

+12

4 16

V Q R U, S U V T

+1

+1

+1 8. (4)

H M N G, K D P J

+1 +1

V Q R U, S U V T

+1 1 9. When Amir saw Manjeet, he recalled that he is son of the father of the mother of his daughter.

Manjeet is Amirs: (1) Brother-in-law (2) Brother (3) Cousin (4) Uncle 9. (1) Amirs daughters mother i.e. Amirs wife Amirs wifes fathers son (Manjeet) i.e. brother of Amirs wife hence Manjeet is Amirs brother in

law. Directions: (Q. 10 to 14): Complete the given series in each questions: 10. 50, 55, 61, 68, .. (1) 81 (2) 80 (3) 75 (4) 76 10. (4)

50, 55, 61, 68 76

+5 +6 +7 +8 11. 144, 121, 100, 81, .. (1) 80 (2) 72 (3) 64 (4) 60 11. (3)



144, 121, 100, 81 64

(12)2 (11)2 (10)2 (9)2 (8)2

12. ZA13, YB15, XC17, (1) WC19 (2) WD18 (3) WD20 (4) WD19 12. (4)

Z, Y, X, W

1

First Alphabet

1 1

A, B, C, D

+1

Second Alphabet

+1 +1

13 15 17 19 +2

Third Number +2 +2

13. BNQ, CMR, DLS, . (1) FOT (2) EGT (3) FGT (4) EK 13. (4)

B, C, D, E

+1

First Alphabet

+1 +1

N, M, L, K

1

Second Alphabet

1 1

Third Alphabet Q, R, S, T

+1 +1 +1 14. MAHENDRA, MAHENDA, MAHEDRA (1) MHENDRA (2) AHENDRA (3) MAHNDRA (4) MAENDRA 14. (4) In every step from the last even number of alphabet is removed every time, then we get the next

step. 15. 3 out of 4 words are alike in some way and form a group. Which one does not belong to the

group? (1) Tyre (2) Engine (3) Speed (4) Fuel 15. (3) Except speed all are form a group. Directions: (Q. 16 to 18): In each of the following questions, four groups of three words each are given.

Only one group in each does not share the underlying principle that combines the words. Find that group:



16. (1) Arm, Hair, Legs (2) Car, Tyre, Steering (3) Tree, Leaf, Trunk (4) Universe, Solar System, Galaxy 16. (1) In remaining three, 2nd and 3rd are the parts of first one. 17. (1) Orange, Pineapple, Sweet lime (Mausmbi) (2) Mango, Plum, Peach (3) Banana, Guava, Grapes (4) Melon, Watermelon, Cucumber 17. (3) Except (3) all belongs to a particular group. 18. (1) India, China, Japan (2) Canada, Mexico, Australia (3) South Africa, Kenya, Zimbabwe (4) United kingdom, France, Spain 18. (2) Canada, Mexico are in North America and Australia itself a continent. Except (2) all are in one continent. 19. Race : Fatigue: : .. : (1) Fast : Hungry (2) Fast : Energy (3) Fast : Food (4) Fast : Fatigue 19. (1) As race leads to Fatigue in the same way fast leads to Hungry. 20. Penology : Punishment : Seismology : .. (1) Law (2) Earthquake (3) Liver (4) Medicine 20. (2) Penology is the studied by punishment in the same say seismology is the studied of earthquake. Directions: (Q. 21 to 26): Choose the odd one out: 21. (1) Steel (2) Copper (3) Bronze (4) Brass 21. (2) Except (2) rest all are alloys. 22. (1) Seismograph (2) Earthquake (3) Cyclone (4) Tsunami 22. (1) Except (1) all are natural disaster. 23. (1) K (2) (3) (4) $ 23. (1)

Except (1) all are authentic symbols. 24. (1) Bhopal (2) Mumbai (3) Hyderabad (4) Allahabad 24. (4) Except (4) rest of all are capitals. 25. (1) 145 (2) 120 (3) 90 (4) 105 25. (1) Except (1) rest of all are divisible by 3.



26. (1) 67 (2) 79 (3) 69 (4) 97 26. (3) Except (3) rest of all are prime numbers. 27. Amit is now 6 times as old as his son. Four years from now, the sum of their ages will be 43

years. Determine Amits present age: (1) 30 years (2) 32 years (3) 34 years (4) 28 years 27. (1) Let present age of Amits son = x yrs. and age of Amit = 6x yrs. Four yrs from now, 6x + x + 8 = 43 7x = 35 x = 5, i.e., present age of Amit = 30 yrs. 28. Aman starts walking in south and walks for 7 km, then turns left and walks for 2km, Then, once

again turns left and walks for 12km, turns left one more time and walks for 2km. How much distance he has to cover to reach the starting point?

(1) 7km (2) 12km (3) 4km (4) 5km 28. (4)

12km

2km

2km

7km

5km

29. A is 3 times more efficient than B. Hence, he takes 60 days less in painting a room. In how many

days, work will be completed, if A and B both work together? (1) 30 days (2) 45 days

(3) 2212

days (4) 1712

days

29. Efficiency A : B n = 3n 3n n = 60 n = 30 A = 30, B = 90

(A + B) = 30 90 1

22120 2

.

Directions: (Q. 30 to 31): Complete the series using one of the alternatives. 30. Bulgaria, Ecuador, Germany, Norway, . (1) Russia (2) India (3) Afghanistan (4) Africa 30. All are arranged in dictionary order. 31. 2197, 2744, 3375, 4096, .. (1) 4761 (2) 4232 (3) 4913 (4) 3291 31. (3) 133, 143, 153, 163, 173 i.e., 4913



32. Arrange the words in the correct order: (A) Tissues (B) Cells (C) Organ System (D) Body (E) Organ (1) B, A, C, E, D (2) C, A, B, E, D (3) A, E, C, D, B (4) B, A, E, C, D 32. (4) is the correct order 33. If the position of the letters in the word GOVERNMENT are re-arranged in such a way that the

position of the 1st and 2nd letters are interchanged, similarly the position of the 3rd and 4th letters are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the 3rd from the right end after the re-arrangement?

(1) M (2) F (3) V (4) R 33. (1) OGEVNREMTN 34. A girl facing north turns 90° in the anticlock direction and then turns 45° in the clockwise direction

and then again turns 135° in the anticlockwise, Which directions in she facing now? (1) South (2) East (3) North (4) West 34. (1) South 35. The ration of boys to girls in a school is 5 : 2. The number of boys is more by 450 than that of

girls. How many students are there in that school? (1) 650 (2) 1050 (3) 400 (4) 950 35. (2) Boys : Girls 5n : 2n 5n 2n = 450 3n = 450 n = 150 Total = 5n + 2n 7n 1050. 36. A train travels 92.4km/hr. How many metres will it travel in 10 minutes? (1) 15400 (2) 1540 (3) 154 (4) 15.40 36. (1)

92.40 10

60

15.4 km 15400 m.

37. Given that : x + y z + 100 = 350. If x = 2y and y = 2z, then z = ? (1) 30 (2) 50 (3) 70 (4) 90 37. (2) z = 50 38. Srawn spends 20% of his monthly salary on food, 40% of the remaining on house rent and

balance amount spends on other items of routine expense. What is his yearly salary if he spends Rs. 5760 per month on other items of routine expenses?

(1) Rs 1, 20, 000 (2) Rs 2, 44, 000 (3) Rs 1, 44, 000 (4) Rs 1, 54, 000



38. (3) Monthly salary = x Food expenses = x/5

House Rent = 8x25

Hence 12x

576025

x = 12000 and 12x = 144000. 39. If the simple interest on a certain sum of money @ 4% for 5 years is Rs. 800, find the sum. (1) Rs 4, 000 (2) Rs 9, 000 (3) Rs 12, 000 (4) None of the above 39. (1)

800 100

4 5

= Rs. 4000.

40. The weight of a sand bag is 40kg. In a hurry it was weighted as 40.8kg. The error percentage is: (1) 1% (2) 0.5% (3) 1.5% (4) 2% 40. (4)

Error % = 40.8 40

100 2%40

.

41. The product of two positive numbers is 120 and the sum of their square is 289. The difference

between them is: (1) 7 (2) 7 (3) 2 (4) 14 41. (1) 82 + 152 = 289 difference is 15 8 = 7. 42. If A : B = 6 : 7 and B : C = 8 : 9. Find the value of C : A?

(1) 96

(2) 1621

(3) 2116

(4) 69

42. (3) A : B = 6 : 7 B : C = 8 : 9

C : A = 63 2148 16

.

43. The value of 0.525 0.525 0.275 0.275

0.525 0.275

is:

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8 43. (4)

0.525 0.275 0.525 0.275

0.525 0.275

= 0.8



44. The smallest number which when reduced by 7 is divisible by 12, 16 and 18: (1) 199 (2) 223 (3) 295 (4) 287 44. (3) 295 45. In a class of 250 students, 75.8% took French and 49.4% took Latin. How many students took

both French and Latin? (1) 189.0 (2) 123.0 (3) 63.0 (4) 90.0 45. (3) 25.2% of 250 = 63.0. (Approx.) Directions: (Q. 46 to 49): Read the statements and choose the letter of the region which coreectly

represents the statement.

46. Students who took science but opted neither maths nor history: (1) b (2)e (3) d (4) g 46. (1) 47. Students who took maths and history both: (1) c (2)a (3) e (4) g 47. (3) 48. Students who took all three subjects i.e. maths, history and science: (1) f (2) g (3) e (4) d 48. (2) 49. Students who took science and history both: (1) g (2) e (3) f (4) d 49. (4) 50. Solve the following problem: 27 3(4 + 5) 17 + 9 2 (1) 17 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 69 50. (3)



51. In a basket, th3

4 of the total fruits are apples,

rd23

of the remaining are peach and the rest 300 are

oranges. Find the total number of fruits in the basket. (1) 2000 (2) 2400 (3) 3000 (4) 3600 51. (4) 8.5% = 300 100% = 300 12 = 3600. 52. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. How many days will 4 men take to complete the

task? (1) 60days (2) 45 days (3) 54 days (4) 48 days 52. (4)

12 16

4

= 48 days.

53. In a certain code Them is written as 1234 and WHEN is written as 5238. How is MENT

written in that code? (1) 3418 (2) 3481 (3) 4381 (4) 4318 53. (3) M E N T 4 3 8 1 54. In a certain code language, NOTE is coded as OPUF. Similarly, TASK is coded as UBTL.

How will CORE be coded in the same code language? (1) BNRE (2) PSFD (3) DSFP (4) DPSF 54. (4) C O R E +1 +1 +1 +1 D P S F 55. Which one is in the descending order in the following? (1) 6/7, 4/5, 3/4, 7/9 (2) 6/7, 4/5, 7/9, 3/4 (3) 3/4, 7/9, 4/5, 6/7 (4) 7/9, 3/4, 6/7, 4/5 55. (2) 56. In a row of twenty five children Raman is 14th from the right end. Varun is third to the left of

Raman. What is Varuns position from the left end of the row? (1) Eighth (2) Ninth (3) Seventh (4) Tenth 56. (2)

9th Left Right

Varun Raman

14th

57. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RAZORS each of which has as many

letters between them as in the English alphabet series: (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three



57. (3)

R A Z O R S

Directions: (Q. 58 to 61): Refer to the following pie charts and answer.

Distribution of protein in human Body Distribution of elements in human body 58. What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of proteins

in the bones? (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 18 (4) 18 : 1 58. (2)

1 1

: 2 : 13 6

.

59. What percentage of the total weight of the human body is equivalent to the weight of the skin in

the human body? (1) 1.6 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.016 (4) Insufficient data 59. (4) 60. To show the distribution of proteins and other dry elements in the human body, the arc of the

circle should subtend at the centre an angle of: (1) 120° (2) 54° (3) 108° (4) 252° 60. (3)

360 30108

100

.

61. What is the quantity of water in the body of a person weighing 50 kg? (1) 35kg (2) 120kg (3) 71.42kg (4) 20kg 61. (1)

Human body constitutes 70% of water 70

50 35Kg100

62. Pointing to a boy, Mamta said, he is the only son of my father-in-laws only child. How is the boy

related to Mamta? (1) Brother (2) Daughter (3) Son (4) Husband 62. (3)



Mamtas father-in-laws only child is Memtas husband and only childs only son is her husbands only son i.e. Memtas son.

63. Complete the series: 5, 6, 10, 19., 35, (1) 50 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 70 63. (2) 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, .. gap is perfect square 1, 4, 9, 16 so next gap should be 25, so 35 + 25 = 60. Directions: (Q. 64 to 67): Read the data carefully and answer the questions. LAP BUT CAR SON HID (New words to be formed may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.) 64. If the positions of the 1st and the 3rd alphabets of each of the word are interchanged, which of the

following would form meaningful words with the mew arrangement? (1) HID (2) SON (3) TUB (4) CAR 64. (3) BUT when interchanged will term a meaningful word TUB. 65. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from the left to

right, which of the following will be 4th from the left? (1) LAP (2) BUT (3) CAR (4) SON 65. (1) The order of words in dictionary will be BUT, CAR, HID, LAP, SON 66. Which alphabet is one same place in two words given in the question? (1) u (2) i (3) a (4) n 66. (3) LAP and CAR both have A at the same position. 67. If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical

order, how many words having no vowels will be formed? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) More than three 67. (4) All 5 will have no vowels. 68. If road is called water, water is called ice, ice is called Sugar and Sugar is called

bowl. Then, on what the vehicles move? (1) Ice (2) Bowl (3) Sugar (4) Water 68. (4) vehicles moves on road and road is called water. 69. Arrange the following according to dictionary and determine the one at 4th place: (1) Zamaica (2) Zidane (3) Zeast (4) Zinedine 69. (4) The order will be Zamaica, Zeast, Zidane, Zinedine



70. In a 729 ml mixture milk and water are in the ratio of 7 : 2. How much quantity of water shouls be added in the new mixture so that the ratio of milk and water becomes 7 : 3?

(1) 72 ml (2) 81ml (3) 85ml (4) 90ml 70. (2)

original quantity of water is 729 ml mixture = 2

729 162ml9

let x its of water is to be added to get milk and water ratio as 7 : 3

so 3

729 X 162 x10

2187 + 3X = 1620 + 10x 567 = 7x x = 81 ml 71. The total surface area of a cube is 384 m2. Its volume will be: (1) 343m3` (2) 616m3 (3) 512m3 (4) 660m3 71. (3) Total surface area of cube = 6 side2 = 384 m2 side2 = 64 side = 8m so, its volume = (side)3 = (8)3m3 = 512m3 72. When the price of TV set was increased by 30%, then number of TV sets sold decreased by 20%.

What was the effect on the sales? (1) 8% decrease (2) 8% increase (3) 4% decrease (4) 4% increase 72. (4) For any two dimension change

Use the formula = a + b + a b100

effect on sale = (30) + (-20) + 30 20

100

= 30 20 -600100

= 4

If answer is +ve so sale in increased by 4%, if it is ve so sale is decreased. Directions: (Q. 73 to 74): Select the alternative which correctly depicts how a paper will appear, when it

is folded along the dotted line? 73.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 73. (4) 74.



(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 74. (3) 75.

2 4 22 24 12 14 6 8 26 28 16 18

(1) 32 38 34 36

(2) 32 34 50 36

(3) 42 44 46 48

(4) 28 30 34 32

75. (3) 76.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

76. (4) 77.



(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

77. (1) inner figure is removed, only boundary is left. 78.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

78. (3) Shaded position is moved 45 degrees in anticlockwise direction. 79.

(1)

(2)



(3)

(4)

79. (2) Outer figure one line is increased and inner lines one line is decreased and line position is also changed its is vertical to horizontal 80.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80. (4) one side is increased in the figure and outer line taken inside and kept down in V shape. 81. Observe the die given below and answer:

(1)

(2)



(3)

(4)

Which number is opposite 3 ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6 81. (3)

46

2

1

5

No. opposite to 4 is 3. Hence no opposite to 3 is 4 82. If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a cubical block is always 7, find the figure which is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82. (2) Directions: (Q. 83 to 84): A paper is folded and a cut is made. Select the alternative which correctly

depicts how the paper will appear when it is opened?



83.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

83. (4) 84.

(1)

(2)



(3)

(4)

84. (2) Directions: (Q. 85 to 90): Complete the given series by choosing the appropriate answer (1, 2, 3 or 4). 85. Problem Figure

Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) 85. (4) Figure broken in two part and folded opposite 86. Problem Figure

Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) 86. (2) has been moved three next parts clockwise. 87. Problem Figure



Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) 87. (3) Inner figure and outer figure position interchanged . 88. Problem Figure

Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) 88. (4) Inner and outer figure both have got increase of one line. 89. Problem Figure

Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) 89. (2) outer figure 1 line increase inner figure 1 line decrease



90. Problem Figure

Answer Figure

(1) (2) (3) (4) 90. (2) Shape is being moved 90° clockwise.


(NTSE – STAGE - 1)

Time for marking all 90 Questions : 1:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 90

SAT NOTE

1 . This paper has Three sections, Science : Social Science : and Mathematics :

2. This question booklet contains 90 questions numbered from 1 to 90 and each question carries 1 mark. All

questions are compulsory. There is no-negative marking.

3. Tally the number of pages along with no. of questions printed on cover page of the booklet. Also check that

question booklet contains the questions of all relevant subjects/topics, as required and stated above and no

repetition or omission of questions is evident.

4. If any discrepancy is found in the Question Booklet, the same can be replaced with another correct Question

Booklet within first 15 minutes.

5. Before answering the questions please read carefully the instructions printed on the back cover page of the

question booklet and strictly follow them. Indicate your answers by blacking bubbles carefully only on the

O.M.R. Answer Sheet provided.

6. Use of any type of calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment and log table etc. is strictly

prohibited.


NTSE-ST-I-2012-SAT-QP-2

91. In the given circuit voltmeter shows a reading of 4V, then the power developed across R resistance will be

(1) 15 mW (2) 14 mW (3) 12 mW (4) 10 mW

10V

2k+

R V

Sol. 3 6 = I × 2000

I = 6

2000= 3 mA

P = VI = 4×3 mW = 12 mW

10V

2k+

R V

92. An electric iron draws a current of 15A from a 220 V supply. What is the cost of using iron for 30

min everyday for 15 days if the cost of unit (1 unit = 1 kW hr) is 2 rupees? (1) Rs. 49.5 (2) Rs. 60 (3) Rs. 40 (4) Rs. 10 Sol. 1 I = 15A, V = 220V, t = 30 min Energy = P × t = VI t

= 220 × 15 ×3060

×15

= 3300 ×12

× 15 W hr

= 3.3 kWx 7.5 hr

= 24.75 kW hr Cost = 24.75 × 2 = 49.50 Rs. 93. Two different sources of light A and B have wavelength 0.7m and 0.3 m respectively. Then

which of the following statement is true (1) A has greater energy then B (2) B has greater energy then A (3) Both has equal energy (4) None of the above Sol. 2 6A 0.7 10 m,

1B 0.3 10 m

hc

E

A B

Hence A BE E 94. The type of radiation absorbed by CO2 molecule in atmosphere are (1) X-rays (2) Gamma rays (3) Infra-red rays (4) UV-rays Sol. 3 CO2 in the atmosphere does not allow infrared rays from the earth to escape causing green

house effect.



95. The speed-time relation of a car whose weight is 1500 kg as shown in the given graph. How much braking force has been applied at the end of 7 sec. to stop the car in 2 sec?

(1) 2000 N (2) 1200 N (3) 4800 N (4) 8400 N

Time (sec)

Spe

ed (

m/s

)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

4

8

12

8 9 10

16

Sol. No option is matching Correct answer is 9000 N

Slope = 212

6 m/s2

F = 1500 × 6 = 9000 N 96. The distance covered by a body moving along X-axis with initial velocity u and uniform

acceleration a is given by 21

x ut at2

. This result is a consequence of

(1) Newtons Ist law (2) Newtons IIst law (3) Newtons IIIst law (4) None of the above Sol. 4 It is the fundamental equation of motion so it is not the consequence of Newtons Laws of motion. 97. A Parachutist of weight W strikes the ground with his legs fixed and come to rest with an upward

acceleration of magnitude 3g. Force exerted on him by the ground during landing is (1) W (2) 2W (3) 3W (4) None of the above Sol. 4 Mg = W N W = 3mg N W = 3W N = 4W 98. The speeds of sound in air and sea-water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s. resp. A ship

sends a strong Signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5 secs. The depth of the sea at that point is

(1) 2.16 kms (2) 1.08 kms (3) 0.51 kms (4) 0.255 kms Sol. 2 Vair = 340 m/s, waterV 1440 m/s

2d 1440 1.5

1440 d 1080.01.5 2

m = 1.08 kms



99. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of e.m.f. dissipate 10 watts of power. What will be the power dissipated in watts if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of e.m.f.?

(1) 10 W (2) 30 W

(3) 90 W (4) 103

W

Sol. 3 1R 3R , P = 10W,

2 2 2

series

V V VP 10 30

R 3R R

2 2V V

P' 3 3 30 90WR / 3 R

100. Eight identical spherical mercury drops charged to a potential of 20 v each are coalesced into a single spherical drop

(1) The internal Energy of the system remains the same (2) The new potential of the drop is 80 v (3) Internal Energy of the system decreases (4) The potential remains the same i.e. 20 v

Sol. 2

kq

V 20Vr

3 34 4

R 8 r R 2r3 3

Q' 8q

kQ' K 8q

V 'R 2r

4kq4 20

r

V ' 80V

101. A technician has 10 resistors each of resistance 0.1 . The largest and smallest resistance that he can obtain by combining these resistors are

(1) 10 and 1 resp. (2) 1 and 0.1 resp (3) 1 and 0.01 resp (4) 0.1 and 0.01 resp.

Sol. 3 sR 10 0.1 1 (largest)

P0.1

R 0.0110

(smallest)

102. Two masses of 1 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear moments is

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 6

Sol. 3

21

K mv2

2mv 2K

2P 2Km

P 2Km P m

1 12 2

P m 1 1P m 4 2



103. If the quantity of metal in a metallic oxide is 60%, then its equivalent weight is:

(1) 15

of molecular weight (2) 12

of molecular weight

(3) 32

of molecular weight (4) 35

of molecular weight

Sol. 2 Let the atomic weight of metal be x

x 60

x 16 100

x = 24, therefore the metal is Magnesium (Mg)

Equivalent weight Molecular weight of metal oxide

Charge on cation

So, Molecular weight

Equivalent weight of Magnesium Oxide2

104. The electronic configuration of an ion M2+ is 2, 8, 14. If its mass is 56, the number of neutrons in

its nucleus is: (1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 42 Sol. 1 M2+ = 2, 8, 14; Electronic Configuration of M = 2, 8, 16 So, Total electrons in M will be = 26 i.e., atomic number (Z) = 26, Mass number (given) = 56 Number of neutrons = A Z = 56 26 = 30 105. The normality of 0.3 M phosphoric acid is: (1) 0.1 (2) 0.9 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.6 Sol. 2 Normality = nfactor Molarity nfactor = 3(for H3PO4) and molarity = 0.3 M (given) Normality = 0.3 3 = 0.9 106. In the presence of H2SO4 concentrated sulphuric acid, acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol to

produce: (1) aldehyde (2) alcohol (3) ester (4) carboxylic acid Sol. 3

2 4conc. H SO3 2 5 3 2 5 2

ester

CH COOH C H OH CH COOC H H O

This reaction is known as esterification. 107. Arrange the following elements in order of their increasing ionization energies O, S, Se, Te, Po: (A) Se, Te, S, Po, O (B) O, S, Se, Te, Po (C) Po, Te, Se, S, O (D) Te, O, S, Po, Se Sol. 3 Ionization energy decreases from top to bottom in a group. So increasing order will be Po < Te < Se < S < O



108. 2 2H S g Cl g 2HCl g S s

The reaction is interpreted as: (1) H2S is getting oxidized and Cl2 is getting reduced (2) H2S is getting reduced and Cl2 is getting oxidized (3) Only H2S is oxidized (4) Both H2S and Cl2 are reduced Sol. 1

1 2 0 1 1 0

2 2H S g Cl g 2HCl g S s

oxidation

reduction 109. Structures of nuclei of three atoms A, B and C are given below: A has 90 protons and 146 neutrons B has 92 protons and 146 neutrons C has 90 protons and 148 neutrons Based on the above data, which of these atoms are isotopes and which are isobars? (1) A and C are isotopes; B and C are isobars (2) A and B are isotopes; A and C are isobars (3) B and C are isobars; A and B are isotopes (4) A and C are isotopes; A and B are isobars Sol. 1 236 238 23890 92 90A, B, C

A and C are isotopes (having same atomic number) B and C are isobars (having same mass number) 110. Which of the following is the functional group for carboxylic acids?

(1) C O

(2) C

H

O

(3) OH (4) C

OH

O

Sol. 4

C

OH

O

Carboxylic acid group C O

Ketone group;

C

H

O

Aldehyde group and OH alcohol group.



111. Which one of the following metal oxides shows both acidic and basic characters? (1) Na2O (2) K2O (3) CuO (4) Al2O3 Sol. 4 Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide. Rest of them are basic. 112. Which of the following will have equal number of electrons? (1) Cl and Br (2) Na+ and Mg2+ (3) Ar and Ne (4) Mg2+ and Ca2+ Sol. 2 Na+ and Mg2+ are isoelectronic in nature having 10 electrons each. 113. Which of the following gases is known as tear gas? (1) Methyl isocyanide (2) Sulphur dioxide (3) Chloropicrin (4) Nitrous oxide Sol. 3 Chloropicrin is commonly used as tear gas. Its chemical formula is CCl3NO2. 114. Mg has three natural isotopes whose isotopic masses and relative abundances are respectively

23.98(78.60%), 24.98(10.11%) and 25.98(11.29%). The atomic mass of Mg will be (1) 23.42 (2) 24.31 (3) 24.95 (4) 23.95 Sol. 2

Atomic mass of Mg 78.6 10.11 11.29

23.98 24.98 25.98100 100 100

= 18.85 + 2.53 + 2.93 = 24.31 115. Mitosis (1) leads to recombinant daughter cells (2) is a reduction division (3) leads to formation of parental type of daughter cells (4) occurs in gametes Sol. 3 Daughter cells carry diploid no. of chromosomes after mitosis cell division so its known as

equational division. There is no crossing over takes place in mitosis cell division. 116. Wings of birds and insects are (1) vestigial organs (2) Homologous organs (3) Paralogous organs (4) Analogous organs Sol. 4 Analogous organs they are similar in function but are anatomically different and unrelated. 117. Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are similar because (1) Both have nuclei (2) Both have 80s ribosomes (3) Both have DNA (4) Both have single membrane envelope Sol. 3 Both are semiautonomous organelles. Both of these possess circular DNA.



118. Cut leaves remain green for longer time if dipped in (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinins (3) Ethylene (4) Gibberellins Sol. 2 Cytokinins delay senescence (ageing) so chrolophyll will be retained and leaves will remain green

for longer time. 119. Neurons have a unique property that makes them to communicate with other cells via: (1) Nerve cords (2) Glial cells (3) Synapses (4) Schwann cells Sol. 3 Synapses It is a junction between two neurons. 120. Which layer of planet earths atmosphere protects it from the harmful UV radiations of the Sun? (1) Stratosphere (2) Ozonosphere (3) Troposphere (4) Ionosphere Sol. 1 Stratosphere has ozone which protects from harmful UV rays. 121. Cramps in the leg muscle after running a long distance are because of (1) Build up of acetic acid (2) Build up of oxalic acid (3) Build up of lactic acid (4) Build up of Pyruvic acid Sol. 3 In scarcity of O2, muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration. In this type of respiration partial

breakdown of glucose takes place and lactic acid is formed which leads to cramps. 122. The enzyme pepsin is secreted by (1) Inner lining of oesophagus (2) Gastric lining of stomach (3) Inner lining of duodenum (4) Gall bladder Sol. 2 Chief cells are present in the lining of stomach which secrets pepsin enzyme. 123. Pick the odd one out (1) Down syndrome (2) Haemophilia (3) Malaria (4) Phenylketonuria Sol. 3 Malaria is a communicable (protozoan) disease caused by Plasmodium vivax while others are

congential (genetic) disorders. 124. Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new plants from: (1) Stem, roots and leaves (2) Leaves, flowers and seeds (3) Stem, roots and seeds (4) Fruits, seeds and spores Sol. 1 Vegetative propagations refers to formation of new plants from vegetative (stem, leaves, root) of

the plants.



125*. Which one of the following is a correct statement? (1) Dominant trait can be expressed in homozygoul condition only (2) Recessive trait can be expressed in homozygoul condition only (3) Dominant trait cannot be expressed in heterozygoul condition (4) Recessive trait cannot be expressed in heterozygoul condition Sol (i). 2, 4 According to Mendelian Inheritance an allele which cannot express itself in presence of other is

recessive, hence can be expressed only in homozygous condition. Sol (ii). 2 Exceptions are there in non Mendelian Inheritance (incomplete dominance, co-dominance). 126. A shopkeeper mixes 80 kg sugar worth of Rs. 6.75 per kg with 120 kg of sugar worth of Rs. 8 per

kg. He earns a profit of 20% by selling the mixture. He sells it at the rate (1) Rs. 7.50 per kg (2) Rs. 9 per kg (3) Rs. 8.20 per kg (4) Rs. 8.85 per kg Sol. 2 Total cost = 80 × 6.75 + 120 × 8 = Rs. 1500

Selling price = 120

1500100

= Rs. 1800

S.P. per kg = 1800200

= Rs. 9

127. A shopkeeper prefers to sell his goods at the cost price but uses a weight of 800 gm instead of

1 kg weight. He earns of profit of (1) 2% (2) 8% (3) 20% (4) 25% Sol. 4 Let CP of 1 gm = Rs 1 Given he sells 800 gm instead of 1000 gm So CP of 800 gm = 800 Rs. SP of 800 gm = CP of 1000 gm = 1000 Rs. Profit 1000 800 200

Profit % = 200

100 25%800

128. The compound interest on a certain sum for two years is Rs. 618 whereas the simple interest on

the same sum at the same rate for two years is Rs. 600. The ratio of interest per annum is (1) 18% (2) 9% (3) 6% (4) 3% Sol. 3

2

rP 1 P 618

100

and

P r 2600

100

2r 2r

P 1 1 618100 100 100

and

600 100P

2 r

600 100 r 2

r 6182 r 100 100 100

r = 6%



129. If 1

x 3x

, then the value of 66

1x

x is

(1) 927 (2) 114 (3) 364 (4) 322 Sol. 4

1

x 3x

33

1 1x 3 x 27

xx

33

1x 27 9 18

x

22 6

3 6

1 12x x

x x

Now 66

1x 2 324

x

66

1x 322

x

130. If log1227 = a, then log616 is

(1)

4 3 a

3 a

(2)

4 3 a

3 a

(3)

3 a

4 3 a

(4)

3 a

4 3 a

Sol. 1 12log 27 a

log27

alog12

= 3log3 = a[2log2 + log3] = 3log3 alog3 = 2a log2

= 2alog2

log33 a

..... (1)

Now 6log16

log 16log6

= 4log2

log2 log3 ..... (2)

= 4log2

2alog2log2

3 a

{By (1) and (2)}

= 4(3 a)

3 a

131. If the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = k2x2 17x + k + 2, (k > 0) are reciprocal of each other, then the value of k is

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1



Sol. 1

, 1

are the roots of k2x2 17x + (k + 2)

2

1 k 2

k

k2 = k + 2 k2 k 2 = 0 k = 2 and k = 1 But k > 0 k = 2 132. A bag contains 20 balls out of which x are black. If 10 more black balls are put in the box, the

probability of drawing a black ball is double of what it was before. The value of x is (1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 40 Sol. 2

Probability of black balls = x

20

Probability of black balls (New) = x 10

30

x 10 2x

30 20

(Given)

x = 5 133. For the distribution Marks Number of students Below 5 10 Below 10 25 Below 15 37 Below 20 57 Below 25 66 the sum of the lower limits of the median class and the modal class is (1) 15 (2) 25 (3) 30 (4) 35

Sol. 2 Marks f cf 0 5 10 10 5 10 15 25 10 15 12 37 15 20 20 57 20 25 9 66 Median class is 10 15 Modal class is 15 20 Sum of lower limits = 25 134. The sum of all two digit numbers each of which leaves remainder 3 when divided by 5 is (1) 952 (2) 999 (3) 1064 (4) 1120

Sol. 2 13, 18, ..... 98 In this A.P. we have 18 terms



1818

S [2 13 17 5]2

= 999

135. If cosA + cos2A = 1, then the value of sin2A + sin4A is

(1) 1 (2) 12

(3) 2 (4) 3 Sol. 1 cos A + cos2 A = 1 cos A = 1 cos2 A = sin2 A Now sin2 A + sin4 A = sin2 A + (sin2 A)2 = sin2 A + cos2 A = 1 136. In right triangle ABC, BC = 7 cm, AC AB = 1 cm and B = 90º. The value of cos A + cos B +

cos C is

(1) 17

(2) 3224

(3) 3125

(4) 2531

Sol. 3 AC2 = AB2 + 49 (AC AB)(AC + AB) = 49 AC + AB = 49 AC = 25, AB = 24

cos A + cos B + cos C = 24 7 31

025 25 25

A

B C

7

24 25

137. The angles of elevations of the top of the tower from two points in the same straight line and at a

distance of 9 m. and 16 m. from the base of the tower are complementary. The height of the tower is

(1) 18 m (2) 16 m (3) 10 m (4) 12 m Sol. 4

h

tan9

h

tan(90 )16

2h

tan cot9 16

A

B D

9

h

C 90º

16 h = 3 × 4 = 12 138. Four circular cardboard pieces, each of radius 7 cm. are placed in such a way that each piece

touches the two other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by the four pieces is (1) 21 cm2 (2) 42 cm2 (3) 84 cm2 (4) 168 cm2 Sol. 2



Area of space enclosed by the circles = Area of square of side 14 cm 4 (Area of quadrant of radius 7 cm)

= 2 1 22

14 4 7 74 7

7 7 7

7

7

7 7 7

= 196 154 = 42 cm2

139. ABC ~ PQR and area ABC 16area PQR 9

. If PQ = 18 cm and BC = 12 cm. then AB and QR are

respectively (1) 9 cm, 24 cm (2) 24 cm, 9 cm (3) 32 cm, 6.75 cm (4) 13.5 cm, 16 cm Sol. 2

2 2

16 AB BC9 PQ QR

2

16 AB9 18

and 2

16 129 QR

4 AB3 18 and

4 123 QR

AB = 24 cm QR = 9 cm

140. E and F are respectively, the mid points of the sides AB and AC of ABC and the area of the quadrilateral BEFC is k times the area of ABC. The value of k is

(1) 12

(2) 3

(3) 34

(4) 4

Sol. 3 ABC ~ AEF

2

ar. ( AEF) AE 1ar. ( ABC) AB 4

Area of quadrilateral BEFC = ar. ( ABC) Ar. ( AEF)

= Ar. ( ABC) 14

ar. ( ABC)

= 34

ar. ( ABC)

141. In the figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is the tangent at P such that QPT = 70º. Then the measure of PRQ is equal to

(1) 135º (2) 150º (3) 120º (4) 110º

O Q

R P T

Sol. 4



PSQ = QPT = 70º (Angles in alternate segment of circle are equal) PRQ = 180º PSQ = 180º 70º = 110º

O Q

R P T

S 70º

110º

70º 142. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle such that AB = 10 cm and CD = 24 cm. If the

chords are on the opposite sides of the centre and the distance between them is 17 cm, the radius of the circle is

(1) 14 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 13 cm (4) 15 cm

Sol. 3 2 2r x 25

2 2r (17 x) 144

Now 22x 25 17 x 144

x = 12

10 A B

C D 24

0 r r

x

17x

2r 144 25 r = 13 cm 143. From a 25 cm × 35 cm rectangular cardboard, an open box is to be made by cutting out identical

squares of area 25 cm2 from each corner and turning up the sides. The volume of the box is (1) 3000 cm3 (2) 1875 cm3 (3) 21875 cm3 (4) 1250 cm3 Sol. 2 Length of box = 25 cm Breadth of box = 15 cm Height of box = 5 cm Volume of box = 15 × 25 × 5 = 1875 cm3

5

5 5

5

5

5

5

5

35

25

144. Let P(4, k) be any point on the line y = 6 x. If the vertical

segment PQ is rotated about yaxis, the volume of the resulting cylinder is

(1) 32 (2) 16

(3) 323

(4) 8

P

Q Sol. 1 P(4, k) lies on y = 6 x k = 2

Volume of cylinder = 2

4 2 32 145. Coordinates of P and Q are (4, 3) and (1, 7). The abscissa of a point R on the line segment PQ

such that PR 3PQ 5

is

(1) 185

(2) 175

(3) 1 (4) 178



Sol. 3 P(4, 3) and Q(1, 7) PR : RQ = 3 : 2

Abscissa = 4 2 ( 1) 3

13 2

146. When France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold. This was the remark of? (1) Bismarck (2) Metternich (3) Mazzini (4) Napoleon Sol. 2 Metternich said this and he meant that whatever happens in France, affects the rest of Europe. 147. Until medieval times Jews lived in separately marked areas known as: (1) Ghettos (2) Lebensraum (3) Synagogues (4) Gas Chambers Sol. 1 A part of the city which is predominantly occupied by an ethnic group. 148. In 1860 the famous expedition of the thousand to South Italy was led by: (1) Mazzini (2) Garibaldi (3) Victor Emmanuel II (4) Count Cavour

Sol. 2 Garibaldi led thousands of armed volunteers in 1860 to south Italy

149. The Dutch started Scientific forestry at: (1) Sumatra (2) Kalimantan (3) West Irian (4) Java

Sol. 4 The Dutch started scientific forestry at Java

150. The slavs belong to a geographical region: (1) Russia (2) Balkans (3) Hungary (4) Germany

Sol. 2 The people living in Balkan region where known as Slavs

151. In 1940 Vietnam was occupied by (1) China (2) France (3) Japan (4) Germany

Sol. 3 Japan, during the Second World War attacked and occupied Vietnam in 1940.

152. A city that was a group of seven Islands under Portuguese control in the Seventeenth century: (1) Surat (2) Bombay (3) Calcutta (4) Madras Sol. 2 Bombay was occupied by the Portuguese initially and later on handed over to the British. 153. The novel that deals with Indian Peasantry: (1) Godan (2) Rangbhoomi (3) Anandmath (4) Padmarag



Sol. 1 Godan, written by Premchand dealt with the life of an Indian peasant.

154. Samburu National Park is in: (1) Kenya (2) Tanzania (3) Namibia (4) Zimbabwe Sol. 1 Sambru National Park is in Kenya 155. The Swaraj flag designed by Gandhiji consorted of following three colours: (1) red, green and white (2) red, white and green (3) red, yellow and green (4) red, white and yellow Sol. 1 By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag. It was again a tricolour (red, green and white)

and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance.

156. Which of the following common foods did not come from the New World? (1) Potatoes and Tomatoes (2) Maize and Chillies (3) Groundnut and Sweet Potatoes (4) Sugarcane and shali variety of rice

Sol. 4 Potatoes, tomatoes, chilies, groundnuts, maize and sweet potatoes were introduced by the

travelers and explorers. 157. Indicate the correct chronological order in which of the following artisans helped in cloth

production? A. Stapler B. Weavers C. Fullers D. Spinners E. Dyers (1) A E B D C (2) A C B E D (3) A B C E D (D) A D B C E Sol. 4 A merchant clothier in England purchased wool from a wool stapler, and carried it to the

spinners; the yarn (thread) that was spun was taken in subsequent stages of production to weavers, fullers, and then to dyers.

158. Which of the following countries does not share its boundaries with India? (1) Bhutan (2) Tajikistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Nepal Sol. 2 Tajikistan is the only country which does not share its boundary with India. 159. The Eastern most longitude of India is (1) 97° 25 E (2) 77° 6 E (3) 68° 7 E (4) 82° 32 E

Sol. 1 97° 25 E is the Eastern most longitude of India.



160. Under which of the following type of resources can tidal energy be classified? (1) Replenishable (2) Human made (3) Abiotic (4) Non Recyclable Sol. 1 Tidal energy is renewable as long as long as we have the ocean water and the moon. 161. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop? (1) Jowar (2) Pulses (3) Millets (4) Sesamum

Sol. 2 Pulses are an example of leguminous crops. 162. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley? (1) Mahanadi (2) Tungabhadra (3) Krishna (4) Narmada

Sol. 4 Narmada is the only river in India which flows through a rift valley. 163. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab? (1) Deforestation (2) Over Irrigation (3) Over grazing (4) Intensive cultivation Sol. 4 Intensive cultivation enhanced by excessive use of chemical fertilizers has caused land

degradation in Punjab. 164. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral? (1) Lead (2) Copper (3) Tin (4) Limestone Sol. 4 Lime stone is a non metallic mineral 165. Which of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants? (1) HAIL (2) SAIL (3) Tata Steel (4) MMTC Sol. 2 SAIL is responsible for the marketing of steel for the public sectors in India. 166. Which of the following is an Inland Riverine Port? (1) Kandla (2) Kolkata (3) Mumbai (4) Tuticorin Sol. 2 Kolkata is an inland riverine port 167. Which of the following states is not connected with the Hazira-Vijaypur-Jagdishpur (H. V. J.)

Pipeline? (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Gujarat (4) Uttar Pradesh



Sol. 2 HVJ pipeline starts from Hazira in Gujarat via Vijaypur in Madhya Pradesh to Jagdishpur in Uttar

Pradesh. 168. In which of the following States is Black soil found? (1) Jammu and Kashmir (2) Rajasthan (3) Maharashtra (4) Jharkhand Sol. 3 Black soil is mainly found in Maharashtra 169. Which type of drainage pattern is formed when the river channel follows the slope of the terrain? (1) Radial (2) Rectangular (3) Trellis (4) Dendritic Sol. 4 The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain. A river

joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a trellis pattern. A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly jointed rocky terrain. The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome like structure.

170. The constitution of India declares India to be: (1) India is a Union of States (2) India is a federation (3) India is a Unitary States (4) India is a Union of provinces

Sol. 1 The constitution of India declares India to be a Union of States

171. Which of the following states enjoy special status according to the constitution? (1) Jammu and Kashmir (2) Punjab (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Kerala

Sol. 1 Under Article 370 of the constitution J & K enjoys a special states. 172. Which institution of the following institutions reserves seat for women? (1) Lok Sabha (2) Rajya Sabha (3) Vidhan Sabha (4) Panchayat

Sol. 4 50% seats are reserved for women in Panchayats.

173. Coalition Government means: (1) Government formed by two or more parties (2) Government that remains in power for five years (3) Government formed with the State parties (4) Government that makes law with consensus

Sol. 1 A coalition government, or coalition cabinet, is a cabinet of a parliamentary government in which

several parties cooperate. 174. Party that remained in power for 30 years without any break and believes in Marxism: (1) Communist Party of India (2) Communist Party of India Marxist (3) Communist Party of India Marxist Leninist (4) Communist Alliance



Sol. 2 Communist Party of India Marxist has remained in power in West Bengal for 30 years and Jyoti

Basu as the longest serving Chief Minister of any State of India.

175. What do you understand by the term defection? (1) Change of party allegiance from the party on which a person got elected to a legislation body

to a different party (2) Change of the preference of the voters (3) Internal politics of Party (4) Change of the party before election

Sol. 1 In politics, a defector is a person who gives up allegiance to one party in exchange for allegiance

to another, in a way which is considered illegitimate by the first party. 176. Who was the Chairperson of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India? (1) Dr. BR Ambedkar (2) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (3) Abdul Kalam Azad (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Sol. 1 Dr. BR Ambedkar was the Chairperson of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of

India. 177. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission of India? (1) President of India (2) Prime Minister (3) Member of Parliament (4) Chief Justice of India Sol. 2 Prime Minister is the Ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission of the India. 178. How many Fundamental Rights are there in Indian Constitution? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 Sol. 3 The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution include: 1. Right to Equality, 2. Right to

Freedom, 3. Right against Exploitation, 4. Right to Freedom of Religion, 5. Cultural and Educational Rights, 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

179. Which article of the Indian Constitution is regarded as the Soul of Indian Constitution? (1) Art. 21 (2) Art. 31 (3) Art. 19 (4) Art. 32 Sol. 4 Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee called Art. 32 the Fundamental

Right to Constitutional Remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. According to this right, a person can move the Supreme Court in case of violation of their fundamental rights.

180. What does the term Secular mean in the Indian Context? (1) No State Religion (2) One State Religion (3) No Religion (4) Sarvadharma Sambahav Sol. 1 Secular means in the Indian Context that there is no official religion for the Indian state.


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