Pre 2021 Booster series PART-1

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Pre 2021 Booster series PART-1 Page | 1 www.leadersiasacademy.com Q1. Which of the following schemes are part of the ‘Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan’? 1. Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme 2. Partial Credit Guarantee Scheme 3. Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme 4. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1, 2 and 3 only B) 2, 3 and 4 only C) 1, 2 and 4 only D) 1, 3 and 4 only Answer: C) 1, 2 and 4 only Some of the schemes being implemented as a part of the ‘Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan’ are: 1. Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme 2. Partial Credit Guarantee Scheme 3. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) 4. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana 5. Scheme for Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (FME) 6. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana 7. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana 8. Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi Scheme 9. Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) Scheme 10. Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund 11. Agri Infrastructure Fund Q2. An RTI application can be rejected: 1. If the information sought is not related to a public authority. 2. If the information sought would disproportionately divert the resources of a public office. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: A) 1 only The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has denied a Right to Information (RTI) request related to the PM-CARES Fund on the grounds that providing it would “disproportionately divert the resources of the office”. Section 7(9) of the Act says, “An information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought unless it would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority or would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question.” However, a High Court judgment and multiple orders of the Central Information Commission (CIC) have previously held that, under the RTI Act, this rationale can only be used to change the format of information provided, not deny it altogether. Q3. The term ‘Duraprot technology’ was in news recently, it is:

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Q1. Which of the following schemes are part of

the ‘Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan’?

1. Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme

2. Partial Credit Guarantee Scheme

3. Prime Minister Employment Generation

Programme

4. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 2 and 4 only

D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C) 1, 2 and 4 only

Some of the schemes being implemented as a

part of the ‘Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan’

are:

1. Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme

2. Partial Credit Guarantee Scheme

3. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana

(PMMSY)

4. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana

5. Scheme for Formalisation of Micro Food

Processing Enterprises (FME)

6. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana

7. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana

8. Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar

Nidhi Scheme

9. Affordable Rental Housing Complexes

(ARHCs) Scheme

10. Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development

Fund

11. Agri Infrastructure Fund

Q2. An RTI application can be rejected:

1. If the information sought is not related to a

public authority.

2. If the information sought would

disproportionately divert the resources of a public

office.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A) 1 only

The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) has denied a

Right to Information (RTI) request related to the

PM-CARES Fund on the grounds that providing

it would “disproportionately divert the

resources of the office”.

Section 7(9) of the Act says, “An information shall

ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is

sought unless it would disproportionately divert

the resources of the public authority or would be

detrimental to the safety or preservation of the

record in question.”

However, a High Court judgment and multiple

orders of the Central Information Commission

(CIC) have previously held that, under the RTI

Act, this rationale can only be used to change

the format of information provided, not deny it

altogether.

Q3. The term ‘Duraprot technology’ was in

news recently, it is:

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A) Glass coating on Mobile and LED screen

making then scratch and water resistant.

B) Wash Resistant Textile coating used on face

masks for making them anti-bacterial and antiviral.

C) Gene editing applied on SARS-COV-2 to make

an antiviral medicine.

D) Breakthrough achieved in treatment for

HIV/AIDS making it curable.

Answer: B) Wash Resistant Textile coating used

on face masks for making them anti-bacterial and

antiviral.

Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay has

developed a wash-resistant antiviral and

antibacterial coating for textiles. Known as the

Duraprot technology, the coating crosslinks

antibacterial and antiviral components on to the

textile’s fibres through a simple dipping process.

The coating is retained even after several wash

cycles.

Q4. The Reserve Bank of India manages the

‘public debt’. Consider the following statements

in this regard:

1. RBI manages the public debt of both the Union

and the state governments.

2. RBI can act as public debt manager for the state

government only after an agreement with the

concerned state.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C) Both 1 and 2

Niti Aayog has advocated the creation of a

separate public debt management agency (PDMA).

At present RBI manages the public debt of the

Central and the state governments.

It also acts as a banker to them under the

provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

(Section 20 and 21).

However, it can also undertake similar functions

for the state governments after agreement with the

Government of the respective state (under Section

21 A).

Q5. Consider the following statements about

Rural Infrastructure Development Fund

(RIDF), currently operational in India:

1. It was initially operationalised under NABARD.

2. Corpus of this fund comes from penalties

charged on financial institutions for shortfall in

their Priority Sector Lending targets.

3. Projects in certain identified sectors can only be

taken up for financing under this fund.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the Above

Answer: D) All of the Above

The Central Government established a fund to be

operationalised by NABARD namely, the Rural

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Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), which

was set-up within NABARD during 1995-96 by

way of deposits from Scheduled Commercial

Banks operating within the country from the

shortfall in their agricultural/priority sector/weaker

sections lending.

The eligible activities for financing under RIDF

are classified under three broad categories i.e.,

agriculture and related sector, social sector & rural

connectivity.

Q6. Tamarind seeds and cotton waste may soon

be used to make cost-effective electrode

material for making affordable supercapacitor

devices. Consider the following statements in

this regard:

1. Supercapacitors store energy by means of a

static charge as opposed to electrochemical-

reactions in a battery.

2. Supercapacitors do not lose their storage

capabilities over time when compared to batteries.

3. The amount of energy supercapacitors can store

per unit weight is very large, particularly when

compared to batteries.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Supercapacitor is a next-generation energy storage

device. They are also known as ultracapacitors.

It has significant advantages such as high power

density, long durability, and ultrafast charging

characteristics as compared to conventional

capacitors and Lithium-Ion batteries (LIB).

The main shortcoming of supercapacitors is

their low energy density, meaning that the

amount of energy supercapacitors can store per

unit weight is very small, particularly when

compared to batteries.

Q7. BSISO (Boreal Summer Intra Seasonal

Oscillation) is an important summer intra-

seasonal variation that lasts around 3-4 months

and its active phase creates significant:

A) Heal wave conditions in the northern States of

India.

B) Increased intensity of cyclones during the

Monsoon.

C) Increased lightning activity during its active

phase during the Monsoon.

D) Significant wave activity over the Northern

Indian Ocean.

Answer: D) Significant wave activity over the

Northern Indian Ocean.

BSISO (Boreal Summer Intra Seasonal

Oscillation) is an important summer intra-

seasonal variation that lasts around 3-4 months

and its active phase creates significant wave

activity over the Northern Indian Ocean (NIO)

during summer monsoon season (June-September)

and high waves are seen over the Arabian Sea.

BSISO is the movement of convection (heat) from

Indian Ocean to western Pacific Ocean roughly

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every 10-50 days during the monsoon (June-

September).

They represent the monsoon’s ‘active’ and ‘break’

periods, in which weeks of heavy rainfall give way

to brilliant sunshine before starting all over again.

The active phase also enhances monsoon winds

and hence the surface waves.

Q8. Kallakathal is a colloquial term used by

Kerala and Tamil Nadu fishermen to refer to

flash coastal flooding phenomena from the sea

water. Consider the following statements

regarding the differences between Tsunami and

Kallakkadal:

1. While tsunamis are caused by landslides or

earthquakes in the ocean bottom, Kallakkadal are

caused by meteorological conditions in the

Southern Indian Ocean.

2. While tsunamis can be predicted in advance, no

advance warning can be given with the present

technology in case of Kallakkadal.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A) 1 only

Kallakathal is a colloquial term used by Kerala

and Tamil Nadu fishermen to refer to flash coastal

flooding phenomena, and a team of researchers

was successful in giving three days’ advance

warning to the coastal community about the swell

surge which is caused by swells coming from the

distant Southern Indian Ocean, a distance of

over 7,000 km.

Tsunami and Kallakkadal are entirely two

different mechanisms. Tsunamis are caused by

landslides or earthquakes in the ocean bottom,

whereas Kallakkadal are caused by meteorological

conditions in the Southern Ocean, 30° South.

Q9. India recently invited bid for its

(OSOWOG) Programme. The OSOWOG

Programme is related to:

A) Grid interconnection for sharing green energy

sources.

B) Joint development, with transfer of technology,

of a sixth-generation fighter jet.

C) Control of locusts invading crops in various

States of India.

D) Development of vaccine for COVID-19.

Answer: A) Grid interconnection for sharing

green energy sources.

One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG)

Programme

Context: India has invited bid for One Sun One

World One Grid to take on China’s Belt and Road

Initiative.

Analysis

The ambitious task unveiled has been taken up

under the technical assistance program of the

World Bank.

The plan has been spread across three phases.

The first phase deals with the Middle East—South

Asia—-South East Asia (MESASEA)

interconnection for sharing green energy sources

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such as solar for meeting electricity needs

including peak demand.

While the second phase deals with the MESASEA

grid getting interconnected with the African power

pools; the third and final phase is about global

interconnection (about 140 countries).

Q10. Consider the following statements

regarding the differences between Disinflation

Vs Deflation:

1. While in deflation the inflation rate declines but

remains positive, in disinflation the inflation rate

actually contracts.

2. While deflation is the drop in general price

levels in an economy, disinflation occurs when

price inflation slows down temporarily.

3. While deflation is the opposite of inflation,

disinflation shows the rate of change of inflation

over time.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Disinflation Vs Deflation

When the inflation rate declines over time, but it

remains positive (that is, prices grow at 1% instead

of 5%), it is called “disinflation.” When the

inflation rate actually contracts (that is, prices

reduce by 1% instead of growing at 5%), it is

called “deflation.”

Deflation is the drop in general price levels in an

economy, while disinflation occurs when price

inflation slows down temporarily.

Deflation, which is harmful to an economy, can be

caused by a drop in the money supply, government

spending, consumer spending, and corporate

investment.

Central banks will fight disinflation by expanding

its monetary policy and lowering interest rates.

Disinflation can be caused by a recession or when

a central bank tightens its monetary policy.

Deflation, which is the opposite of inflation, is

mainly caused by shifts in supply and demand.

Disinflation, on the other hand, shows the rate of

change of inflation over time.

Q11. The concept of district metering area

(DMA) was recently in news in the context of:

A) Draft Drinking water supply quality

management system — requirements for piped

drinking water supply service regulations, 2020

B) The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection)

Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services

Ordinance, 2020

C) The Inter-State River Water Disputes

(Amendment) Bill, 2019

D) None of the above

A) Draft Drinking water supply quality

management system — requirements for piped

drinking water supply service regulations, 2020

The concept of District Metering Area (DMA)

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has

prepared a draft standard (Labelled ‘Drinking

water supply quality management system —

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requirements for piped drinking water supply

service’) for the supply system of piped drinking

water and has invited comments on it.

The document also states that the concept of

district metering area (DMA) should be adopted

where possible.

DMA is a concept for controlling leakages in the

water network, which is essentially divided into a

number of sectors, called the DMAs, and where

flow meters are installed to detect leaks.

Q12. ‘Bharat Air Fibre’ was in news lately. It is

about

A) Providing Optical Fiber like internet speed

based on Indian satellite network.

B) Providing telecom connectivity solution based

on Radio Network.

C) Beaming of internet services through air filled

balloons in remote areas.

D) None of the above

Answer: B) Providing telecom connectivity

solution based on Radio Network

It is a last mile telecom connectivity solution based

on Radio Network by BSNL.

The Bharat Air Fibre services are introduced by

BSNL as part of digital India initiates by the

Government of India and it aims of providing

Wireless Internet Connectivity in the range of 20

KMs from the BSNL Locations and thus

customers at remote places also will be benefitted.

Q13. Consider the following statements with

respect to ‘Dare to Dream 2.0’:

1. It is an initiative to promote the individuals &

startups for innovation in defence and aerospace

technologies in the country.

2. It has been launched with concerted efforts of

both DRDO as well as Ministry of Defence.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) None of the above

Answer: C) Both 1 and 2

Dare to Dream 2.0

Defence Research and Development Organisation

(DRDO), Ministry of Defence, has launched its

innovation contest ‘Dare to Dream 2.0’ on the

5th death anniversary of former President and noted

scientist Dr APJ Abdul Kalam.

The scheme is being launched for emerging

technologies to promote the individuals & startups

for innovation in defence and aerospace

technologies in the country.

Q14. Often in news, ‘Boko Haram’ - an Islamic

extremist/terror group is mainly operational in:

A) Nigeria

B) Afghanistan

C) Yemen

D) Israel

Answer: A) Nigeria

Boko Haram is an Islamic extremist/terror

group based in north-eastern Nigeria, also

active in Chad, Niger and northern Cameroon.

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Boko Haram has been fighting for a decade to

carve out an Islamic caliphate based in Nigeria.

The violence, which has cost the lives of 30,000

people and displaced millions more, has frequently

spilled over into neighbouring Cameroon, Niger

and Chad.

Q15. National Common Mobility Card

(NCMC) - One Nation, One Card for transport

mobility has been launched. Consider the

following statements about it:

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Road

Transport and Highways.

2. It will enable people to pay multiple kinds of

transport charges across the country and even

withdraw money from the same card.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) None of the above

Answer: B) 2 only

National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) - One

Nation, One Card for transport mobility, an

initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban

Affairs, has recently been launched.

The Indigenous Automatic Fare Collection System

based on One Nation One Card Model is the first

of its kind in India.

The NCMC card has 2 instruments on it – a

regular debit card which can be used at an ATM,

and a local wallet (stored value account), which

can be used for contactless payments, without the

need to go back to the server or additional

authentication.

The One Nation One Card is the first National

Common Mobility Card (NCMC) that will enable

people to pay multiple kinds of transport charges,

including bus travel, parking charges, metro

services and toll tax, across the country and

withdraw money from the same card.

Q16. With respect to the report released on the

scheduled languages of India as a part of 2011

Census, consider the following statements:

1. The percentage of Indian population with Hindi

as their mother tongue has risen to 43.63 per cent.

2. Bengali remains the 2nd most spoken language.

3. Telugu has replaced Marathi in 3rd place.

4. Sanskrit is the least spoken of the country’s 22

scheduled languages.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1, 2 and 4

C) 1, 3 and 4

D) 2 and 4

Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4

The percentage of Indian population with Hindi as

their mother tongue has risen to 43.63 per cent.

Bengali remains the 2nd most spoken language.

Marathi has replaced Telugu in 3rd place.

Sanskrit is the least spoken of the country’s 22

scheduled languages.

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Q17. Species diversity on earth is not uniformly

distributed. It is generally highest in the tropics.

Which of the following statements suitably

explain why there is species richness in the

tropics?

1. Temperate and polar regions were subjected to

frequent glaciations in the past, while tropical

regions have remained relatively undisturbed.

2. Tropics provide relatively constant and

predictable environment.

3. Tropical regions have less seasonal variations.

4. Tropics receive more solar energy which

contributes to greater productivity.

Select the answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 2, 3 and 4

C) 1, 3 and 4

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Temperate and polar regions were subjected to

glaciations during the ice age, while tropical

regions remained more or less undisturbed and

thus, tropics had a long evolutionary time for

species diversification. Tropical latitudes receive

more solar energy, which leads to high primary

productivity. Tropics exhibit less seasonal

variations, i.e. remain stable. This also leads to

high biodiversity.

Q18. Taking another step towards conservation

of elusive snow leopards, India has decided to

open its first Snow Leopard Conservation

Centre at:

A) Lanka, Uttarakhand

B) Keylong, Himachal Pradesh

C) Lachen, Sikkim

D) Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: A) Lanka, Uttarakhand

Taking another step towards conservation of

elusive snow leopards, India’s first Snow Leopard

Conservation Centre will be opened at a place

named Lanka in Uttarkashi forest division in

Uttarakhand.

Q19. Consider the following statements about

the project ‘SECURE Himalayas’:

1. It is an initiative of the United Nations

Environment Programme (UNEP).

2. It looks into conversation of snow leopards and

other threatened species and their habitats, found

in Himalayas.

3. Recently, India’s first Hangul Conservation

Centre was opened under this project.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: B) 2 only

India’s first Snow Leopard Conservation Centre

will be built by the Uttarakhand forest department

along United Nations Development Programme

(UNDP) as part of its six-year long project,

SECURE Himalayas.

The project aims at securing livelihoods,

conservation, sustainable use and restoration of

high range Himalayan ecosystems.

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The project also looks into conversation of snow

leopards and other endangered species and their

habitats, found in Himalayas.

This project was started in 2017.

Q20. Carbon Capture, Utilisation & Storage

(CCUS) programme of the Department of

Science and Technology is one of the identified

innovation challenges in the Mission Innovation

(MI) Programme. Consider the following

statements about the Mission Innovation (MI):

1. Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative to

accelerate the global clean energy innovation.

2. Russia, U.S., and China are members of Mission

Innovation (MI).

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A) 1 only

Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 22

countries and the European Commission (on

behalf of the European Union) to accelerate the

global clean energy innovation.

Russia is not a member of the Mission

Innovation (MI).

Q21. Global Renewable Energy Atlas, the

world’s largest-ever joint renewable resource

data project, is coordinated by:

A) International Energy Agency

B) Breakthrough Energy Coalition

C) International Renewable Energy Agency

D) International Solar Alliance

Answer: C) International Renewable Energy

Agency

The International Renewable Energy Agency

(IRENA)

It is an intergovernmental organization to promote

adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy,

with its headquarters at Abu Dhabi.

Global Renewable Energy Atlas is the world’s

largest-ever joint renewable resource data project,

coordinated by IRENA.

IRENA will create Indian Ocean Region’s first and

most comprehensive map and database of areas

having potential renewable energy generation

capacity.

Q22. In Sikhism, the first Prakash Purab Utsav

marked:

A) Birth of Sikhism's founder, Guru Nanak.

B) Establishment of the town and community of

Ramdaspur or Amritsar.

C) Installation of Guru Granth Sahib in Harmandir

Sahib.

D) Inauguration of Sikhism's orthodox Khalsa

order.

Answer: C) Installation of Guru Granth Sahib in

Harmandir Sahib.

The first Prakash Purab Utsav marked the

installation of Guru Granth Sahib in

Harmandir Sahib, also known as the Golden

temple, in 1604.

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Q23. The National Strategy for Financial

Education (NSFE): 2020-2025 document has

been released by the:

A) Ministry of Finance

B) Financial Stability and Development Council

C) NITI Aayog

D) Reserve Bank of India

Answer: D) Reserve Bank of India

The National Strategy for Financial Education

(NSFE): 2020-2025 document released by the

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently has

recommended a ‘5 C’ approach for dissemination

of financial education in the country.

These include:

emphasis on development of relevant Content

(including curriculum in schools, colleges and

training establishments),

developing Capacity among the intermediaries

involved in providing financial services,

leveraging on the positive effect of Community

led model for financial literacy through

appropriate Communication Strategy, and

lastly, enhancing Collaboration among various

stakeholders.

This NSFE for the period 2020-2025, the second

one after the 2013-18 NSFE, has been prepared by

the National Centre for Financial Education

(NCFE).

Q24. The ‘India-Bangladesh Friendship

Pipeline’ connects which of the following two

places?

A) Kolkata and Khulna

B) Siliguri and Parbatipur

C) Haldia and Sylhet

D) Asansol and Bogura

Answer: B) Siliguri and Parbatipur

India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline

The 130-kilometre India-Bangladesh Friendship

Pipeline Project will connect Siliguri in West

Bengal in India and Parbatipur in Dinajpur

district of Bangladesh.

The capacity of the pipeline will be one million

metric tonnes per annum.

With the Bangladesh-India Friendship Pipeline,

fuel will be supplied from Numaligarh oil

refinery at Siliguri in Assam to Parbatipur Depot

of Dinajpur district, Bangladesh.

A 125-km-stretch of the pipeline is in Bangladesh,

while the remaining 5-km-stretch will be in India.

Q25. ‘Namath Basai’ is a unique programme of

teaching tribal children in their mother tongue.

This is an initiative of which of the following

State governments?

A) Chhattisgarh

B) Jharkhand

C) Madhya Pradesh

D) Kerala

Answer: D) Kerala

Namath Basai

‘Namath Basai’ is the Kerala government’s

unique programme of teaching tribal children in

their mother tongue.

The programme has succeeded in retaining

hundreds of tribal children in their online classes

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by making them feel at home with the language of

instruction.

Pre-recorded classes are offered through a

YouTube channel.

Q26. “Trifood Project” is a joint initiative of

which of the following Ministries?

1. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare

2. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

3. Ministry of Rural Development

4. Ministry of Food Processing

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: D) 2 and 4 only

Trifood Project is being implemented by

TRIFED, Ministry of Tribal Affairs in

association with Ministry of Food Processing

(MoFPI).

It aims to enhance the income of tribals through

better utilization of and value addition to the MFPs

(Minor Forest Produce) collected by the tribal

forest gatherers.

A highlight of this is the production of “Heritage

Mahua” drink. The traditional Mahua tribal drink

will be mainstreamed and marketed all over the

Country under this project.

Q27. Consider the following statements about

‘Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana’:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.

2. It is being implemented by Ministry of

Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

3. It is coterminous with the 14th Finance

Commission cycle.

4. It aims at creation of modern infrastructure from

farm gate to retail outlet.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) All of the above

Answer: C) 1, 3 and 4 only

Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana

(Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and

Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) is a

Central Sector Scheme, being implemented by

Ministry of Food Processing Industries

(MoFPI) for the period 2016-20 coterminous with

the 14th Finance Commission cycle.

PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is a comprehensive

package which will result in creation of modern

infrastructure with efficient supply chain

management from farm gate to retail outlet.

Q28. Consider the following statements about

‘Eat Right Challenge’:

1. It is an initiative of the Food Safety and

Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).

2. It is an annual competition for districts and

cities across the country.

3. Its aim is to strengthen the food safety and

regulatory environment.

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Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

(FSSAI) has kick-started the Eat Right

Challenge, an annual competition for districts

and cities across the country.

The aim of the competition is to encourage them

to strengthen the food safety and regulatory

environment and awareness among consumers to

make better food choices.

Key focus areas

Some of the key focus areas of the challenge will

be to come up with measures:

to broaden the reach of registration/licensing,

enforcement and surveillance efforts at the State

level,

creation of Eat Right Food environments, and

nudge consumers to make better food choices.

This is part of the FSSAI’s large-scale initiative

called Eat Right India (ERI) under the aegis of

the Ministry of Health, to improve public health

and combat negative nutritional trends to fight

lifestyle diseases.

Q29. The National Highways Authority of India

(NHAI), a public sector undertaking under the

Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, has

developed a mobile App called ‘Harit Path.’ It

aims to:

A) Keep a track of the material used in the

construction of the highways so as to achieve a

zero carbon-footprint.

B) Monitor targets and achievements of each of its

field units for each and every plant under all

plantation projects.

C) Provide a real-time update on the length of

highways constructed using environment-friendly

materials only.

D) Link the NHAI with prospective innovators to

use national highways for small-scale renewable

energy development projects.

Answer: B) Monitor targets and achievements of

each of its field units for each and every plant

under all plantation projects.

The National Highways Authority of India

(NHAI), a public sector undertaking under the

Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, has

developed a mobile App called ‘Harit Path.'

It aims to monitor location, growth, species details,

maintenance activities, targets and achievements

of each of its field units for each and every plant

under all plantation projects.

Q30. Consider the following statements:

1. National Science Day is celebrated every year

on 28th February to commemorate the

announcement of the discovery of the ‘Raman

Effect’ by Sir C.V. Raman for which he was

awarded the Nobel Prize in 1930.

2. National Council for Science & Technology

Communication (NCSTC) acts as a nodal agency

to support, catalyze and coordinate the celebration

of the National Science Day.

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3. National Awards for Science Popularization are

presented every year on National Science Day.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

National Science Day

National Science Day is celebrated every year on

28th February to commemorate the announcement

of the discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’ by Sir C.V.

Raman for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize

in 1930. Government of India designated 28

February as National Science Day (NSD) in 1986.

Since then, theme-based science communication

activities are carried out all over the country on

this occasion.

National Council for Science & Technology

Communication (NCSTC), Department of Science

and Technology (DST) acts as a nodal agency to

support, catalyze and coordinate the celebration of

the National Science Day.

DST also instituted National Awards for Science

Popularization in 1987 to stimulate, encourage and

recognize outstanding efforts in the area of science

and technology communication and popularization

as well as inculcating scientific temper among

masses.

These awards are presented every year on National

Science Day.

Q31. ‘Kedar Nath judgment’, which was

recently in news, is concerned with:

A) Privacy

B) Sedition

C) Gender discrimination

D) Right to internet

Answer: B) Sedition

Kedar Nath judgment

A citizen has a right to say or write whatever he

likes about the Government, or its measures, by

way of criticism or comment, so long as he does

not incite people to violence against the

Government established by law or with the

intention of creating public disorder.

Q32. Consider the following statements:

1. National Ambient Air Quality Standards are the

standards for ambient air quality set by the Central

Pollution Control Board (CPCB) that are

applicable nationwide.

2. The power to set the standards for ambient air

quality has been conferred by the

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A) 1 only

Ambient air quality refers to the condition or

quality of air surrounding us in the outdoors.

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National Ambient Air Quality Standards are the

standards for ambient air quality set by the Central

Pollution Control Board (CPCB) that is applicable

nationwide.

The CPCB has been conferred this power by the

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,

1981.

Q33. India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral

Highway aims to connect which of the

following?

A) Moreh-Tamu-Mae Sot

B) Kolkatta-Naypyidaw-Bangkok

C) Moreh- Naypyidaw-Bangkok

D) Kolkatta-Tamu-Mae Sot

Answer: A) Moreh-Tamu-Mae Sot

India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway will

connect Moreh-Tamu on the India-Myanmar

border to Mae Sot on the Myanmar-Thailand

border.

Q34. The ‘open unemployment rate’ measures

which of the following?

1. Disguised unemployment

2. Informal poor quality jobs

3. Unemployment in the formal sector

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: C) 3 only

Open unemployment is a condition in which

people have no work to do. They are able to work

and are also willing to work but there is no work

for them. ... Hence it is called open

unemployment.

The open unemployment rate does not measure

disguised unemployment and informal poor quality

jobs that abound in the economy.

Q35. Which of the following are among the

measures that are to be taken by the Centre

under the National Clean Air Programme

(NCAP)?

1. Setting up a web-based system for monitoring of

compliance with NCAP targets.

2. Compliance by all thermal power plants with the

emission norms by December 2022.

3. Switch over to gaseous fuels in industries,

including small and medium enterprises by

December 2022.

4. Mandatory waste segregation at source and state

level air pollution action plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Some of the important measures that are to be

taken by the Centre under NCAP include:

setting up a web-based system for monitoring of

compliance with NCAP targets;

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a comprehensive regional plan to be formulated

by incorporating inputs from regional source

apportionment studies, such as a regional plan for

the Indo-Gangetic plain region;

compliance by all thermal power plants with the

emission norms by December 2022;

switch over to gaseous fuels in industries,

including small and medium enterprises by

December 2022;

enforcement of new and stringent sulphur dioxide

(SO2)/ oxides of nitrogen (NOx) / PM2.5

standards for industries using solid fuels by 2020;

mandatory waste segregation at source and state

level air pollution action plan, among others.

Q36. Some State governments’ recent decision

to reserve all government jobs for “children of

the state” raises questions relating to the

fundamental right to equality. Consider the

following statements in this regard:

1. Article 16 of the Constitution guarantees equal

treatment under law in matters of public

employment.

2. Article 16 of the Constitution prohibits the state

from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or

residence.

3. Parliament/State Legislature may make a law

“prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs

in a particular state.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees

equal treatment under law in matters of public

employment, prohibits the state from

discriminating on grounds of place of birth or

residence.

Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on

grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,

descent, place of birth, residence or any of

them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in

respect or, any employment or office under the

State”.

However, Article 16(3) of the Constitution

provides an exception by saying that Parliament

may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of

residence for jobs in a particular state.

This power vests solely in the Parliament, not

state legislatures.

Q37. G5 Sahel is a UN-backed initiative of

which of the following countries of the Sahel?

1. Burkina Faso

2. Chad

3. Mauritania

4. Nigeria

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) All of the above

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

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G5 Sahel is a UN-backed initiative of the countries

of the Sahel (Burkina Faso, Chad, Mali,

Mauritania and Niger).

Q38. National Aeronautics and Space

Administration (NASA) has reported a splitting

dent in Earth’s magnetic field, called the South

Atlantic Anomaly (SAA), over the southern

Atlantic Ocean which can be bad news for

satellites. The cause for this anomaly is:

A) Gravitational waves originated due to the

merging of two blackholes.

B) Active phase of Sunspots during its eleven year

cycle.

C) Growth of a localized field with reversed

polarity.

D) Changes in the overlying Jet Stream due to

Global Warming.

Answer: C) Growth of a localized field with

reversed polarity.

National Aeronautics and Space Administration

(NASA) has reported a splitting dent in Earth’s

magnetic field over the southern Atlantic Ocean

which can be bad news for satellites.

This unusual weak spot in Earth’s magnetic field is

called the South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA).

More specifically, a localized field with reversed

polarity grows strongly in the SAA region, thus

making the field intensity very weak, weaker than

that of the surrounding regions.

Q39. Which of the following Schemes, being

implemented by the Minorities Affairs Ministry

for the educational development of minorities,

have been correctly matched?

1. Naya Savera - Free Coaching for minority

communities to get employment in Government

Sector/ Public Sector Undertakings, jobs in private

sector and admission in reputed institutions etc.

2. Nai Udaan - a scheme for providing support to

minority candidates clearing Prelims conducted by

Union Public Service Commission, State Public

Service Commissions etc., to adequately equip

them to compete for appointment to Civil Services

in the Union and the States.

3. Nai Manzil – It provides financial assistance to

students from notified minority communities, to

pursue higher education such as M. Phil and Ph. D.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Nai Manzil - A scheme to provide education and

skill training to the youth from minority

communities.

Maulana Azad National Fellowship Scheme

provides financial assistance to students from

notified minority communities, to pursue higher

education such as M. Phil and Ph. D.

Q40. Nagar Van Scheme (PIB) has been

launched by the Ministry of Environment,

Forest & Climate Change to:

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A) Transform conservation reserves located in and

around urban areas into National Parks/Wildlife

Sanctuaries.

B) Create a belt of dense trees surrounding the

urban areas whose rank in the National Air Quality

Index is below the national average.

C) Develop 200 Urban Forests across the country

in next five years.

D) Introduce wildlife in urban gardens which can

adjust with life in and around human habitations.

Answer: C) Develop 200 Urban Forests across the

country in next five years.

Nagar Van Scheme (PIB)

It was announced by the Ministry of Environment,

Forest & Climate Change on the occasion of

World Environment Day.

The Nagar Van Scheme aims to develop 200

Urban Forests across the country in next five years

with a renewed focus on people’s participation and

collaboration between Forest Department,

Municipal bodies, NGOs, Corporates and local

citizens.

Warje Urban Forest in Pune, Maharashtra, will be

considered as a role model for the Nagar Van

Scheme.

World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated on

5th June every year.

This year, the theme was biodiversity – a concern

that is both urgent and existential.

The environment ministry held virtual celebrations

of World Environment Day on this year’s theme

with focus on Nagar Van (Urban Forests).

The finances for the scheme will be paid for by

the CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund

(CAF) Act, 2016) funds.

Q41. ‘Ninja Unmanned Aerial Vehicles’ were

recently in news in the context of:

A) Surveillance of India’s coastal waters along the

Arabian Sea.

B) Enhancement of security at railway stations,

tracks and workshops.

C) Monitoring of tigers by the National Tiger

Conservation Authority.

D) Delivery of goods by e-commerce companies.

Answer: B) Enhancement of security at railway

stations, tracks and workshops.

Ninja Unmanned Aerial Vehicles

These have been introduced by the Railways to

deploy a drone-based surveillance system to

enhance security at railway stations, tracks and

workshops.

The drones can also be used at disaster sites for

helping in rescue efforts.

Q42. Which of the following are among the

criteria for a celestial body to be called a dwarf

planet?

1. It should orbit around the Sun.

2. It should not be a moon/satellite.

3. It should have cleared the neighbourhood

around its orbit.

4. It should have enough mass for its gravity to

pull it into a roughly spherical shape.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

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A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: D) 1, 2 and 4 only

The four criteria set by the International

Astronomical Union (IAU) for a celestial body to

be called a dwarf planet are:

that the body orbits around the Sun;

it is not a moon;

has not cleared the neighbourhood around its

orbit (which means it is not the dominant body in

its orbit around the Sun and this is what

differentiates a planet from a dwarf planet); and

has enough mass for its gravity to pull it into a

roughly spherical shape.

Q43. Consider the following statements

regarding the ‘Very Large Telescope Array

(VLT)’:

1. It is a joint initiative of NASA and Japanese

Space Agency.

2. Rather than being a single telescope, it consists

of a series of telescopes working together.

3. It is located on the mountain Cerro Paranal in

Chile.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Very Large Telescope Array (VLT)

It is the world's most advanced optical instrument,

consisting of a series of telescopes working

together, to form a giant ‘interferometer’, the ESO

(European Southern Observatory) Very Large

Telescope Interferometer, allowing astronomers

to see details up to 25 times finer than with the

individual telescopes.

Very Large Telescope (VLT) observatory is

located on the mountain Cerro Paranal in Chile.

Q44. Consider the following statements about

the National Financial Reporting Authority

(NFRA):

1. The need for this authority arose as a response

to various corporate scams in recent times

2. It has been established by the Ministry of

Finance.

3. It was one of the key changes brought in by the

Companies Act, 2013.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: C) 1 and 3 only

National Financial Reporting Authority

(NFRA)

For enforcement of auditing standards and

ensuring the quality of audits, the Ministry of

Corporate Affairs has established the National

Financial Reporting Authority as an

independent regulator.

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It aims at Improving investor and public

confidence in the financial reporting of an entity.

The NFRA was one of the key changes brought in

by the Companies Act, 2013.

Supposedly, the need for this authority arose as a

response to various corporate scams in recent

times.

The NFRA has the power to investigate and also

conduct quality reviews for a certain prescribed

class of companies/bodies corporate or persons

(auditors) only.

The Companies Act requires the NFRA to have a

chairperson (a Chartered Accountant and a person

of eminence having expertise in accountancy,

auditing, finance or law) who will be appointed by

the Central Government and a maximum of 15

members.

Q45. Consider the following statements about

“Swasthya”:

1. It is a first of its kind e-portal of the Ministry of

Health and Family Welfare.

2. It provides all health and nutrition related

information of the school-going children in a

single platform.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D) Neither 1 nor 2

Swasthya

It is a first of its kind e-portal of the Ministry of

Tribal Affairs, providing all health and nutrition

related information of the tribal population of

India in a single platform.

Q46. Which of the following domains are used

to calculate the ‘Global Youth Development

Index’?

1. Education

2. Social inclusion

3. Health and well-being

4. Political and civic participation

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) All of the above

Answer: C) 1, 3 and 4 only

The Global Youth Development Index:

The Global YDI is a composite index of 18

indicators that collectively measure multi-

dimensional progress on youth development in

183 countries, including 49 of the 53

Commonwealth countries.

It has five domains measuring levels of

education, health and well-being, employment and

opportunity, political participation and civic

participation for young people.

The Global YDI is guided by the Commonwealth

definition of youth as people between the ages of

15 and 29.

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Q47. The Indian Computer Emergency

Response Team (CERT-In) is an office within

which of the following?

A) Ministry of Home Affairs

B) Ministry of Finance

C) NITI Aayog

D) Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology

Answer: D) Ministry of Electronics and

Information Technology

The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team

(CERT-In) is an office within the Ministry of

Electronics and Information Technology.

It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber security

threats like hacking and phishing.

Q48. Which of the following are among the

reasons to have elections to both the Legislative

assemblies and the Parliament together?

1. Massive expenditure

2. Criminalisation of politics

3. Impact on governance due to the model code of

conduct

4. Disruption to normal public life

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 3 and 4 only

D) All of the above

Answer: C) 1, 3 and 4 only

Simultaneous elections to Parliament and all

State Assemblies results in the following

problems:

Massive expenditure; diversion of security and

civil staff from primary duties; impact on

governance due to the model code of conduct, and

disruption to normal public life.

Q49. Consider the following statements about

the New Millennium Indian Technology

Leadership Initiative scheme:

1. It is being implemented by the Council of

Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).

2. Under the scheme, unsecured, soft-loans can be

awarded to develop new technologies and to

encourage start-ups.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C) Both 1 and 2

It is being implemented by the Council of

Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).

Under the scheme, unsecured, soft-loans can be

awarded to develop new technologies and to

encourage start-ups.

Q50. Which of the following treaties represents

the only binding commitment in a multilateral

treaty to the goal of disarmament by the

nuclear-weapon States?

A) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty

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B) International Convention on the Suppression of

Acts of Nuclear Terrorism

C) Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons

D) Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear

Weapons

Answer: D) Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of

Nuclear Weapons

The NPT is a landmark international treaty whose

objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear

weapons and weapons technology, to promote

cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy

and to further the goal of achieving nuclear

disarmament and general and complete

disarmament.

The Treaty represents the only binding

commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal

of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.