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Pioneer Education CBSE - PSA Pioneer Education {The Best way to success.} www.pioneermathematics.com SCO: 320 & 326 sector 40-d Chandigarh. 0 Pioneer’s CBSE (PSA 2014-15) [Test Name: 14P04] Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 60 Name: School : Roll Number: Address(House): Contact No. Important Instructions: 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open this Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B & C. A candidate is required to attempt all the three sections. There are 24 questions in Section A, 18 questions in Section B and 18 questions in Section C. Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) Section B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42) Section C : Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60). 3. All the three Sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these are passage based MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet against the question. 4. Each question carries one mark. For each correct response candidate will get one mark. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no mark. 5. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HANDOVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take this Test Booklet with them. 6. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the invigilator. 7. Use blue/black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and wring or marking responses on Answer Sheet.

Transcript of Pioneer Education CBSE - PSA Pioneer’s CBSE (PSA … PSA Tes… · Pioneer Education CBSE - PSA...

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Pioneer’s CBSE (PSA 2014-15)

[Test Name: 14P04]

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 60

Name: School :

Roll Number: Address(House):

Contact No.

Important Instructions: 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open this Test Booklet, take

out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B & C. A candidate is required to

attempt all the three sections. There are 24 questions in Section A, 18 questions in Section B and 18 questions in Section C. Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) Section B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42) Section C : Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60).

3. All the three Sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these are passage based MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet against the question.

4. Each question carries one mark. For each correct response candidate will get one mark. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no mark.

5. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HANDOVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take this Test Booklet with them.

6. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the invigilator.

7. Use blue/black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and wring or marking responses on Answer Sheet.

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Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24)

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 -8) Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from

each list according to the corresponding number in the passage.

1. Disability refers to any kind of physical or mental incapacity that limits a person's

2. ability to work. Yet it is seldom that we have thanked God for the gift of good

3. health and well being. The smallest actions like seeing the sunrise, brushing our teeth,

4. popping peanuts into your mouth come so naturally and effortlessly and yet we

5. are never satisfied, always discontented. It is not so for the disabled. For them,

6. it requires emmense concentration, effort, will power, energy and a lot of time.

7. Despite this, it could be a long way of perfection. It takes great courage and

8. determinationto cope with disability. We can make life easier for them by becoming

9. moresensitive to their handicap, their needs and their problems.

1. In line 1, the word 'incapacity' could be replaced with

(a) inability (b) sufficiency (c) health (d) wellness

2. In line 2, the word 'seldom' could be replaced with

(a) usually (b) frequently (c) normally (d) rarely

3. In line 4, the word 'popping' could be replaced with

(a) darting (b) eating (c) jumping (d) pusing

4. In line 5, the word 'discontented' could be replaced with

(a) pleased (b) happy (c) unhappy (d) curious

5. Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word 'emmense'?

(a) Imminse (b) Immense (c) Emmence (d) Immence

6. In line 8, the word 'cope' could be replaced with

(a) settle (b) endure (c) fight (d) go through

7. In line 8, the word 'determination' could be replaced with

(a) perseverance (b) hesitation (c) vacillation (d) hard work

8. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to 'sensitive' as used in line 9 above?

(a) Unsensitive (b) Non-sensitive (c) Less sensitive (d) Insensitive

Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from list

to fit the corresponding gap.

In any organised group of mammals, no matter how cooperative, there is always a __9__ for social

dominance. As he pursues this, each adult individual __10__a particular social rank, giving him his

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position or status in the group hierarchy. The situation never remains __11__for very long, largely

because all the status strugglers are __12__older.

9. Which of these fits gap 10?

(a) desire (b) inherits (c) acquires (d) gains

10. Which of these fits gap 11?

(a) unstable (b) stable (c) equitable (d) equal

11. Which of these fits gap 12?

(a) growing (b) heading (c) looking (d) feeling

12. Which of these fits gap 9?

(a) stress (b) feel (c) struggle (d) war

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-16) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from list

to fit the corresponding gap.

Rajendra tried to recollect the __13__of events as it had happened that night. He stringed his thoughts

_14_ to put all the pieces of the jigsaw in place. This helped the police in drawing a _15_of the accused. It

was, later, _16_to the public.

13. Which of these fits gap 14?

(a) together (b) ultimately (c) stressfully (d) himself

14. Which of these fits gap 15?

(a) painting (b) personality (c) individuality (d) sketch

15. Which of these fits gap 16?

(a) bought (b) released (c) dismantled (d) thrown

16. Which of these fits gap 13?

(a) parts (b) sequence (c) story (d) position

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-20) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from list

to fit the corresponding gap.

'Would you like to buy a box of matchsticks, mister?' the little girl asked. The man __17__she approached

did not even __18__to answer her. He shuffled __19__in his great coat, eager to get home __20_his cosy

fireplace.

17. Which of these fits gap 18?

(a) think (b) looked (c) stop (d) behaved

18. Which of these fits gap 19?

(a) for (b) like (c) to (d) away

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19. Which of these fits gap 20?

(a) to (b) in (c) inside (d) towards

20. Which of these fits gap 17?

(a) which (b) whom (c) that (d) whose

Directions (Q. Nos. 21 -24). Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from list

to fit the corresponding gap.

Trinity college was __21__by Sir Thomas Pope in 1555. A devout catholic with no surviving children,

Thomas Pope saw the foundation of an Oxford college as a means of __22__that he and his family would

always be remembered in the prayers and masses of its members. He came from a family of small

__23__in Oxfordshire, trained as a lawyer, and rose rapidly to prominence __24__Henry VIII.

21. Which of these fits gap 22?

(a) securing (b) ensuring (c) clinching (d) verifying

22. Which of these fits gap 23?

(a) owners (b) landowners (c) freeholders (d) mistresses

23. Which of these fits gap 24?

(a) with (b) on (c) under (d) because

24. Which of these fits gap 21?

(a) founded (b) set (c) begin (d) starting

Section B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42)

25. Which of the following statement reflects the similarity between the three words

Forgery : Fabrication : Counterfeit

(a) Smuggling (b) Deceit (c) Falsity (d) Designed

26. Idioms are saying that convey more than a surface or literal meaning.

Select the correct, deeper meaning for the following idiom.

There are 'a black sheep' in every community.

(a) Good leaders (b) Bad characters (c) Poor persons (d) Intelligent people

27. Consider the relationships within this statement.

'Latex' is to 'rubber' as 'flax' is to 'linen'

Which of the words below completes the following statements?

'Algae' is to 'water' as 'virus' is to

(a) Man (b) Host (c) Surrounding (d) Soil

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28. If the words are organised according to alphabetical order which would come first?

(a) Project (b) Problem (c) Property (d) Protein

29. An old man ask you for a lift for a location which is not in your way, you are getting late for your office.

You will

(a) not listen to his request and rush to your office

(b) take the old man on your board and drop him to his location and then rush to the office

(c) inform your boss that you will be late and then drop the old man to his location

(d) drop the old man to a near location which is on your way

30. The application of the psychology of colour understood as conveying emotional information has its

maximum exponents in design, architecture, marketing and advertising, more that in

informationsvisualisation itself.

The meaning associated to colour in western culture

Red : Danger, excitement, passion

Purple : Wealth, royalty, sophistication

Blue : Quiteness, serenity, truth.

Black : Elegance, power, rebellion

White : Purity, cleanness, luminosity

Yellow : Warmth, brightness, joy

Green : Nature, Fresh, Health

Use the above information to answer the following question

For an airline company the colour chosen would most likely be

(a) Red and Purple (b) Blue and Black (c) Black and White (d) Yellow and Green

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-36) Read the following information in passage and answer the question given

below.

Just One Touch

I am sitting in a chair next to Momma's bed. I am watching her get ready for a party.

She opens the beautiful jewellery box on her nightstand. It is the size of a shoe box. It is wooden. It has

colourful stones on top. They arc red, green, yellow and blue. To me, the box looks magical. It looks like it

has special powers. "Now, you know you must never touch this box, right?" Momma says. I feel like she

knows exactly what I am thinking;.

I just want to touch it. I just want to open it.

I just want to try on all the jewellery inside and dance around the room!

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"Yes Momma," I say. "I know."

What do I know?

I know Momma has always told me not to touch the box.

She has said it since I was little girl.

"You are not old enough to wear my jewellery," Momma says.

I am almost eleven years old! What is the big deal?

I know that when Momma puts on the rings and bracelets from the box, she looks she looks different.

She seems to glow.

There is one necklace with a yellow stone like a tiger’s eye.

When Momma puts this on, she seems to float instead of walk. Her feet do not seem to touch the ground.

She moves lightly and gracefully, she moves without effort.

Momma kisses me good night. She leaves for the party. I run to the window to wave to her, but she is

already gone.

Tonight I am very curious.

Just one touch.

I sit on the edge of Momma's bed. I place my hand on the nightstand, I pause. I think.

My hand moves up and resets on the jewellery box. The box quickly flips on pen by itself Jewels fly into

the air. They dance I wake up in a place I have never seen before.

31. Where is Momma going?

(a) To a play (b) To a party (c) To a concert (d) To a magic show

32. Which word best describes how the girl feels about the jewellery box?

(a) Angry (b) Curious (c) In love (d) Scared

33. What does the jewelry box look like?

I. It is brown.

II. It is wooden.

III. It is the size of a shoebox.

(a) Only I (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) All of these

34. What does Momma tell her daughter about the box?

(a) That it is magical (b) That she must never touch it

(c) That the jewels are expensive (d) That she can touch it when she is older

35. Where does most of this story take place?

(a) At a party (b) In a pretend place (c) Outside a window (d) In Momma's bedroom

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36. Who is telling the story?

(a) Momma (b) A young girl (c) Momma's friend (d) A pretend person

Directions (Q. Nos. 37- 42) Read the following information in passage and answer the questions given

below.

(i) Out of every 1000 women in rural areas, just 279 are employed but the proportion is lower for cities,

with only 175 in the labour force, according to the Labour Ministry's report on employment and

unemployment survey 2011-12.

(ii) More males are employed in rural areas than in urban India. While 760 out of every 1000 males in

rural India was part of the labour force, only 719 urban males had a job.

(iii) Across India, only 515 people per 1000 members of the population were engaged in labour

activities, the report shows. In the case of males, 749 per 1000 members of the population was part of

the labour force but for women it is an abysmal 252.

(iv) The data shows that involvement in labour activities was highest in Himachal Pradesh, with a ratio

of 638 workers per 1000 people, followed by Sikkim (637) and Dadra and Nagar Haveli (620).

(v) Male participation in labour activities was highest in Dadra and Nagar Haveli (857 per 1000 people,

followed by Tripura (827) and Gujarat (788). Participation of women was greatest in Sikkim (508 per

1000 people), Himachal Pradesh (503) and Andhra Pradesh (45).

37. How many women are employed out of 1000 in the rural areas?

(a) 279 (b) 379 (c) 479 (d) 579

38. How many women are employed out of 1000 in the urban areas?

(a) 160 (b) 175 (c)225 (d)310

39. How many more males are employed in rural area than the urban areas?

(a) 36 (b) 39 (c) 41 (d) 50

40. Across India, how many member of the population were engaged in labour activities out of 1000?

(a) 515 (b) 615 (c)715 (d) 815

41. According to data, which state shows the highest involvement of labour?

(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Andhra Pradesh

42. Male participation in labour activities is highest in

(a) Sikkim (b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Gujarat (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

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Section C : Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60)

Direction (Q. No. 43) Observe the pie chart given below and answer the questions.

Budget estimated by a family for their monthly expenses

43. What is the budget estimated by the family on clothing and grocery together?

(a) Rs 8850 (b) Rs 8690 (c) Rs 8780 (d) Rs 8960

44. Some parallel rays of light strike a plane mirror at some angle.

Which of the following is correct?

(a) The reflected rays will be in different directions

(b) The reflected rays will be perpendicular to the mirror

(c) The reflected rays will be parallel to the mirror

(d) The reflected rays will be parallel to each other

Direction(Q. No. 45) Read the information and answer the questions given below.

Number of boys and girls studying in five different colleges

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45. What is the respective ratio of girls to boys in college T?

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 8 (d) 4 : 7

46. A sum of Rs 13.50 is made of 38 coins, which are either 50 paise or 25 paise. Find the number of 25 paise

coins.

(a) 16 (b)24 (c)18 (d)22

47. Sudhir has to travel from town A to town B, which is certain distance apart. 30% of the distance was

travelled by car 40% of the remaining by bus, 50% of the remaining by train and he still has 210 km to

reach town B. What is the total distance between town A and town B?

(a) 1200 km (b) 1100km (c) 1000 km (d) 1050 km

48. There were 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 7, the expenses of mess

increase by Rs 42 per day while the average expenditure per head diminishes by Rs 1. Find the original

expenditure of the mess.

(a) Rs 320 (b) Rs 420 (c) Rs 160 (d) Rs 158

49. A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 35 cm. If it is bent into the shape of a rhombus, then what is the

side of the rhombus?

(a) 32 cm (b) 70 cm (c) 55 cm (d) 17 cm

50. A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock gains 25 s/h. What is the correct time when this clock shows 3 pm

the next day?

(a) 50 min past 2 pm(b) 24 min past 3 pm (c) 12 min past 3pm (d) 48 min past 2 pm

51. A gain of 20% is made by selling the mixture of two types of ghee at Rs 230 per kg. If the ghee costing Rs

250 per kg is mixed with 225 kg of the other, then how many kg of the forms was mixed?

(a) 115kg (b) 85 kg (c) 69 kg (d) Cannot be determined

52. Mrs. Arpita is on tour and she has Rs 360 for her expenses. If she exceeds her tour by 4 days, she must

cut down daily expenses by Rs 3. The number of days of Mrs. Arpita tour programme is

(a) 20 days (b) 24 days (c) 40 days (d) 42 days

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-56) These questions are based on the following information.

Reflection is the change in direction of a wave front at an interface between two different media so that

the wavefront returns into the medium from which it originated. Common examples include the

reflection of light, sound and water waves. Sound propagates through air as a longitudinal wave. The

speed of sound is determined by the properties of the air and not by the frequency or amplitude of the

sound.

If a sound is not absorbed or transmitted when it strikes a surface, it is reflected. The law for reflection is

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the same as that of light, i.e., the angle of incidence of a sound wave equals the angle of reflection, just as,

if it were produced by a 'mirror image' of the stimulus on the opposite side of the surface.

The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens is expressed in terms of its

power. The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. It is represented by the letter P.

A lens of power-2.5 D has a focal length of-0.40 m.

53. What happens to sound, if it is not absorbed? (a) The sound is reflected (b) It is not reflected (c) The sound is originated (d) None of the above

54. Which one is correct? (a) i< r (b) i> r (c) i = r (d) All of these

55. Which type of lens is discussed? (a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens (c) Prisms (d) Concave lens and convex lens There are different types of lenses which are shown below.

56. Match the lenses.

Column I Column II 1. A P. Plano-concave 2. B Q. Biconcave 3. C R. Plano-convex 4. D S. Biconvex

(a) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P (b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

(c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (d) 1 -S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

Directions (Q. Nos. 57-60) These questions are based on the following information.

SONAR is a system that uses transmitted and reflected underwater sound waves to detect and locate

submerged objects or measure the distances underwater. It has been used for submarine and mine

detection, depth detection, commercial fishing, diving safety and communication at sea. The SONAR

device will send out a subsurface sound wave and then listens for returning echoes, the sound data is

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relayed to the human operators by a loudspeaker or by being displayed on a monitor. Two types of

technology share the name 'SONAR', passive SONAR is essentially listening for the sound made by

vessels; active SONAR is emitting pulses of sounds and listening for echoes. SONAR may be used as a

means of acoustic location and of measurement of the echo characteristics of 'targets' in the water.

Acoustic location in air was used before the introduction of Radar. SONAR may also be used in air for

robot navigation and SONAR upward looking in-air sonar is used for atmospheric investigations. "It is

also used for the equipment used to generate and receive the sound. The acoustic frequencies used in

SONAR systems vary from very low (infrasonic) to extremely high (ultrasonic). The study of underwater

sound is known as underwater acoustics or hydro acoustics.

The sound sent is reflected back from the sea bed which is known as echo.

Let the depth of the ocean be D.

For perpendicular focusing of the SONAR

V=2D/t D = Vt/2

Where, V = speed of sound in water

t = time after the echo is detected.

Thus, depth of the ocean is evaluated. When the transmitter and receiver are separated it is bistatic

operation. When more transmitters (or more receivers) are used, again spatially separated, it is

multistatic operation. Most SONAR is used monostatically with the same array often being used for

transmission and reception.

The frequencies on which SONAR is used vary widely. Human hearing is usually cited as ranging as from

20 cycles per second(Hertz) to 20000 cycles per second. SONARs are used for short range underwater

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applications operate on a slightly higher frequency than those that are designed to look over long

distances. But there are a lot of SONARs which use frequencies far outside the range of human hearing.

Medical imaging is the most popular use of SONAR. These frequency used by these devices are ranging

from 2 million cycles per second to 18 million cycles per second. These frequencies are far above what

humans can hear.

57. Find the time, when echo was detected, if the speed of sound in water is 1496 m/s and the depth of

ocean is 11 km.

(a) 15.75 (b) 17.75 (c) 16.75 (d) 14.75

58. What is acronym for SONAR?

(a) Symantec Online Network for Advanced Response

(b) Solar Near-Surface Active-Region Rendering

(c) Sound Navigation and Ranging

(d) Source of Noise and Reason

59. Which type of technology does SONAR share?

(a) Passive SONAR (b) Active SONAR

(c) Passive SONAR or Active SONAR (d) Passive SONAR and Active SONAR

60. The frequencies on which SONAR operates, varies from

(a) 0 to 20 Hz (b) 30 to 50 kHz (c) 20 to 2000 Hz (d) None of these