OPEN MOCK SAT - usaunivquest.com · This test contains 154 questions and the maximum time allowed...

OPEN MOCK SAT

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INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions

1. This test contains 154 questions and the maximum time allowed is 180 minutes

2. The questions in this test are split into four sections as given below:

Section Number of Questions Time Allocated (minutes)

Section 1 (Reading Test) 52 65

Section 2 (Writing and Language Test) 44 35

Section 3 (Math Test – No Calculator) 20 25

Section 4 (Math Test - Calculator) 38 55

3. Time limit for each section is predetermined and you are not allowed to open subsequent sections unless told to

do so by the invigilator.

4. Unless specifically mentioned all questions are multiple choice questions with four options each.

5. No marks will be given for un-attempted questions.

6. No marks will be deducted for incorrect answers.

7. Use of simple calculators is permitted only in the fourth section.

8. Your OMR sheet must not have any stray marks/folds.

9. You are not allowed to carry this question paper or the OMR sheet outside this classroom.

B. Information About the sealing of the question paper:

1. First Seal: complete question paper.

2. Following Seals: Each Section sealed individually (Total of Four sections).

C. Instructions on the Order and Process to remove Seals:

1. The first seal for the complete question paper is to be removed first.

2. The following seals of the sections are to be removed one at a time as per the time slot of the section defined.

3. No two seals of the sections are to be removed simultaneously.

4. No candidate is allowed to open any other section through its seal, until at its time slot.

5. Candidates are not allowed to toggle (move) from one section to other at any time.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.

AT THE END OF THE TEST, THIS TEST BOOKLET HAS TO BE RETURNED TO THE INVIGILATOR/SUPERVISOR.

SECTION 1

DO NOT OPEN THIS SECTION UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.

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SECTION 1

Reading Test

Time – 65 minutes

52 Questions

Turn to Section 1 of your OMR sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Directions: Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph).

Questions 1-10 are based on the following

passage.

This passage is adapted from Daniel Defoe, Robinson Crusoe. Originally published in 1719. The narrator of this story, a plantation owner turned adventurer, has journeyed out on a boat that is about to be shipwrecked on the way to Brazil.

In this distress, the wind still blowing very hard, one of our men early one morning cried out, “Land!” and we had no sooner run out of the cabin to look out, in hopes of seeing

5 whereabout in the world we were, than the ship struck upon the sand, and in a moment, her motion being so stopped, the sea broke over her in such a manner that we expected we should all have perished immediately…

10 Nothing can describe the confusion of thought which I felt when I sank into the water; for though I swam very well, yet I could not deliver myself from the waves so as to draw breath, till that wave having driven me, or rather carried

15 me, a vast way on toward the shore, and having spent itself, went back and left me upon the land, almost dry, but half dead with the water I took in... The wave that came upon me again buried me at once twenty or thirty feet deep in

20 its own body, and I could feel myself carried with a mighty force and swiftness toward the shore a very great way; but I held my breath and assisted myself to swim still forward with all my might. I was ready to burst with holding my

25 breath when, as I felt myself rising up, so, to my immediate relief, I found my head and hands shoot out above the surface of the water; and though it was not two seconds of time that I could keep myself so, yet it relieved me greatly,

30 gave me breath and new courage...

I resolved to hold fast by a piece of the rock, and so to hold my breath, if possible, till the wave

went back. Now, as the waves were not so high as at first, being nearer land, I held my hold till

35 the wave abated, and then fetched another run, which brought me so near the shore, that the next wave, though it went over me, yet did not so swallow me up as to carry me away; and the next run I took I got to the mainland; where, to

40 my great comfort, I clambered up the clifts and sat upon the grass, free from danger and quite out of the reach of the water, I was now landed and safe on shore, and began to look up and thank God that my life was saved, in a case

45 wherein there was some minutes before scarce any room to hope. I believe it is impossible to express, to the life, what the ecstasies and transports of the soul are, when it is so saved, as I may say, out of the very grave: and I do not

50 wonder now at that custom, when a malefactor, who has the halter about his neck, is tied up, and just going to be turned off, and has a reprieve brought to him—I say I do not wonder that they bring a surgeon with it, to let him bleed that

55 very moment they tell him of it, that the surprise may not drive the animal spirits from the heart, and overwhelm him, for sudden joys, like griefs, confound at first.

I walked about on the shore, lifting up my

60 hands, and my whole being, as I may say, wrapped up in a contemplation of my deliverance; making a thousand gestures and motions, which I cannot describe; reflecting upon all my comrades that were drowned, and

65 that there should not be one soul saved but myself; for, as for them, I never saw them afterward, or any sign of them, except three of their hats, one cap, and two shoes that were not fellows.

1. Over the course of the passage, the narrator’s attitude shifts from

A. joy about the expedition to grief over it.

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B. despair of survival to gratitude for it.

C. misgivings about the voyage to resolve for it.

D. contempt for his expedition to relief from it.

2. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A. Lines 5-9 (“the ship . . . immediately”)

B. Lines 18-22 (“The wave . . . way”)

C. Lines 31-33 (“I resolved . . . back”)

D. Lines 46-49 (“I believe . . . grave”)

3. As used in line 7, “broke over her” most nearly means

A. crashed against the ship.

B. destroyed the ship immediately.

C. caused the ship to hit the sand.

D. fragmented the ship’s frame.

4. The sentence in lines 39-46 (“where, to . . . hope”) mainly serves to

A. prove that the power of the sea was stronger than the narrator anticipated.

B. stress the narrator’s thankfulness for having survived.

C. reveal the narrator’s belief that he will be able to stay out of the water.

D. declare a religious side of the narrator not previously seen.

5. The reference the narrator ponders in lines 49-53 (“I do . . . him”) most nearly implies that

A. he now understands another situation based on his own experience of survival.

B. the surgeon who lets a patient bleed should be deemed irresponsible.

C. the noose was once about the narrator’s neck and he likens it to escaping the sea.

D. the narrator will never completely understand what it’s like to be a criminal.

6. As used in line 56, “drive” most nearly means

A. cause. B. accelerate.

C. imply. D. expel.

7. As used in line 61, “contemplation of my deliverance” most nearly means

A. reflection on an escape to safety.

B. foresight into a redemption.

C. expectation of a salvation.

D. understanding of an exemption.

8. The narrator indicates that the other shipmates on the voyage have

A. had different motivations for the journey than his own.

B. lost their lives in the waters.

C. discovered land and found shelter.

D. failed to determine whereabout in the world they were.


A. Lines 1-6 (“In this . . . sand”)

B. Lines 38-46 (“and the . . . hope”)

C. Lines 55-58 (“that the . . . first”)

D. Lines 63-69 (“reflecting upon . . . fellows”)

10. Which choice best describes the narrator’s view of his struggle to safety?

A. Confident but hazardous

B. Fearful but gratifying

C. Harrowing but relieving

D. Impossible but intriguing

Questions 11 - 21 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

This passage is excerpted from Enrico Moretti, The New Geography of Jobs. © 2012 by Houghton Mifflin Harcourt. Moretti is a professor of economics at the University of California, Berkeley.

The idea is that no matter where people live, they can share knowledge and move products at virtually no cost. According to this view, the good jobs, now concentrated in high-cost

5 locations such as Silicon Valley and Boston, will quickly disperse to low-cost locations, both in the United States and abroad. An experienced software engineer in India makes $35,000.

The same person in Silicon Valley makes

10 $140,000. Why would U.S. firms keep hiring in Silicon Valley when they could save so much by outsourcing? By the same token, if labor costs are three times higher in Silicon Valley than in Mobile, Alabama, companies will eventually

15 relocate to Alabama. This process of dispersion, the argument goes, will be faster than the dispersion of manufacturing jobs, because moving software codes across DSL lines is easier than moving bulky goods across borders. In this

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20 vision of the future, the great innovation hubs of American will disappear from the map and innovation jobs will disperse evenly across the country. The key prediction of this view is the convergence of American communities. Low-

25 cost areas will attract more and more of the new, high-paying jobs. Cities that have been lagging behind—the Clevelands, the Topekas, and the Mobiles—will grow much faster. Bogged down by their high costs, San Francisco, New York,

30 Seattle, and similar cities will decline.

But the data don’t support this view. In fact, the opposite has been happening. In innovation, a company’s success depends on more than just the quality of its workers—it also depends on

35 the entire ecosystem that surrounds it. This is important, because it makes it harder to delocalize innovation than traditional manufacturing. A textile factory is a standalone entity that can be put pretty much anywhere in

40 the world where labor is abundant. By contrast, a biotech lab is harder to export, because you would have to move not just one company but an entire ecosystem.

A growing body of research suggests that

45 cities are not just a collection of individuals but complex, interrelated environments that foster the generation of new ideas and new ways of doing business. For example, social interactions among workers tend to generate learning

50 opportunities that enhance innovation and productivity. Being around smart people makes us smarter and more innovative. By clustering near each other, innovators foster each other’s creative spirit and become more successful.

55 Thus, once a city attracts some innovative workers and innovative companies, its economy changes in ways that make it even more attractive to other innovators. In the end, this is what is causing the Great Divergence among

60 American communities, as some cities experience an increased concentration of good

jobs, talent, and investment and others are in free fall. It is a trend that is reshaping not just our economy but our entire society in profound

65 ways. It implies that a growing part of inequality in America reflects not just a class divide, but a geographical divide.

This does not mean there is no merit to the view that low-cost areas are destined to catch

70 up. At a global level, the most important economic development of the past decade is the incredible improvement in the standard of living in developing nations such as Brazil, China, Poland, Turkey, India, and even some African

75 countries. Their strong economic performance has greatly reduced the gap between these countries and rich nations, thus contributing to a marked convergence in income levels. This is welcome news. Although seldom recognized,

80 inequality has plummeted when measured at a global level. The catch-up experienced by the American South over the past fifty years is another example of convergence. Many southern states were significantly poorer than the rest of

85 the country in the 1960s but grew more rapidly in the following decades.

Yet in both cases the process of catching up was geographically uneven. Some southern cities—Austin, Atlanta, Durham, Washington,

90 D.C., Dallas, and Houston, for example—grew much faster than others, thus increasing the disparity among communities in the South. Developing countries exhibit similar regional differences. In China, Shanghai has reached a

95 per capita income close to that of a rich nation. Its students outperform American and European students in standardized tests by a wide margin. Its public infrastructure is better than that of most American cities. But agricultural

100 communities in western China have made much less progress. The regional differences in China have clearly grown, even if the difference between China and richer countries has shrunk.

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11. According to the passage, which type of industry would be the most difficult to relocate?

A. A biotech lab

B. A textile factory

C. A shipping company

D. A tobacco farm

12. Which choice best summarizes the third paragraph of the passage?

A. Workers must engage with each other socially for a company to be successful.

B. Factors that influence city growth are more wide-ranging than the simple exchange of information.

C. A city can only grow if it attracts smart people and innovative businesses.

D. Increased access to cell phones and the Internet allows Americans to relocate to less expensive cities.

13. As used in line 46, “foster” most nearly means

A. nurse. B. encourage.

C. shelter. D. entertain.

14. According to the passage, which choice best describes the economic development of some developing countries?

A. Similar improvements as those in the American south due to comparable demographics

B. Increased income inequality due to the uneven dispersal of technology

C. Reduced disparity between the developing countries and rich nations related to an improved standard of living

D. Slowed growth due to geographic conditions


A. Lines 70-75 (“At a global . . . countries”)

B. Lines 79-81 (“Although seldom . . . level”)

C. Lines 81-83 (“The catch-up . . . convergence”)

D. Lines 83-86 (“Many southern . . . decades”)

16. As used in line 88, “uneven” most nearly means

A. rugged. B. unequal.

C. intermittent. D. bumpy.

17. The passage implies that Shanghai, China

A. has the smartest students in the country.

B. is an accurate representation of China as a whole.

C. has a large income disparity between its richest and poorest people.

D. is making greater advances than other regions of China.


A. Lines 75-78 (“Their strong . . . levels”)

B. Lines 88-92 (“Some southern . . . South”)

C. Lines 94-95 (“In China . . . nation”)

D. Lines 99-101 (“But agricultural .. . progress”)

19. According to Figure 1, the years 1993–1997 were characterized by

A. a consistent decline in manufacturing jobs.

B. a variation in the trend evident in all the other years.

C. a permanent reversal of an earlier trend.

D. no significant change in the number of jobs.

20. The author of the passage would most likely consider the information in Figure 2 to be

A. inconsistent with information in the passage.

B. potentially relevant but too biased to be completely useful.

C. illustrative of the author’s own experiences.

D. statistical evidence of statements made in the passage.

21. Figure 2 indicates which of the following about the population changes in the United States from 1980– 2010?

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A. The South experienced more growth in the 1990s than did any other region in that decade.

B. All regions experienced their highest levels of growth in the 1990s.

C. The West experienced the highest levels of growth in all three decades.

D. All four regions had their lowest population growth in the 2000s.

Questions 22 - 31 are based on the following passage.

This passage is from Loren Grush, “A Genetic Mutation Renders One Family Unable to Sweat.” © 2014 by Popular Science.

In Pakistan, there lives a family of five with a unique—and tragic—condition. Several of their children cannot sweat. It’s an extremely rare disorder called anhidrosis, and while it may

5 seem like a nice trait to have, the ability to sweat is crucial for regulating body temperature. In order to remain cool, the kids spend their days in their house’s cellar, because in daylight, they’d overheat and go unconscious. Too much

10 sun could ultimately kill them.

Now a group of scientists are decoding the mystery surrounding this bizarre disorder. By mapping the genome of each individual in this family, researchers from Uppsala University in

15 Sweden identified a single genetic mutation responsible for the condition. Known as ITPR2, the gene is responsible for controlling sweat production, and knocking it out can stop sweat secretion altogether. Lead researcher Niklas

20 Dahl stumbled upon the rare family in his quest for understanding single-gene diseases, also known as Mendelian disorders. Dahl notes that anhidrosis has been seen before, but usually in conjunction with other skin defects. This family

25 is the first he knows of to have anhidrosis as a primary isolated defect.

After analyzing the genomes of the family members, Dahl and his team zeroed in on the culprit, ITPR2, which encodes a protein called

30 IP3R2. This protein forms a calcium channel in the brain that releases calcium when opened, triggering a chain of events in the body that eventually result in sweat secretion. “In the brain, you have temperature sensitive cells, and

35 they send signals to the nervous system, which send signals to the periphery, then to skin and to

the sweat glands, and that induces sweating,” Dahl, a genetics expert at Uppsala, tells Popular Science. For the members of the Pakistan family,

40 their calcium channels never open. The researchers further demonstrated this defect by creating a series of genetically engineered mice without any IP3R2 production. Sure enough the rodents had reduced sweating.

45 Understanding the mechanisms behind sweating can actually help researchers develop drugs to reduce excessive sweating, a condition that affects two percent of the population. People with this disorder, called hyperhidrosis,

50 start sweating in their palms, soles of their feet, chest, armpits, and other areas of the body without any provocation. Some patients will even wear plastic underneath their clothing to avoid an embarrassing situation. Botox has

55 proven to be somewhat effective against hyperhidrosis, but the treatments can be painful and awkward (getting injections in your armpits cannot be fun). Dahl says that lowering IP3R2 protein levels may be a much simpler solution.

60 “We have found a way to inhibit production of this calcium channel,” Dahl says. “It is targeted and very specific at least from a design point of view. We can reduce peripheral sweating by 60 percent.”

65 Dahl also says their research highlights just how important our pungent skin secretions are from an evolutionary perspective. Humans have the highest capacity for sweating on Earth, in relation to our body size and lack of hair. This

70 gives us the advantage of being able to exercise for very long periods of time—up to 10 hours a day.

“Fast animals run faster than us, but they can only run for a few minutes. For humans, we

75 could move over enormous areas because of this ability, making us very good hunters,” says Dahl. “Sweat glands made us develop this capability of walking and jogging for miles and miles without stopping.”

80 So thank you, sweat, for helping to keep us at the top of the food chain.

22. The primary purpose of this passage is to

A. describe one family’s struggles with a rare disorder.

B. present a scientific answer to a medical mystery.

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C. evaluate new technologies in the medical field.

D. offer an alternate solution to a previously-solved problem.

23. The author’s attitude toward genome mapping is best described as one of

A. disapproval. B. concern.

C. elation. D. esteem.

24. The phrase “decoding the mystery” (line 11) most directly suggests that

A. genetic study is helping scientists determine the cause of a disorder.

B. scientists are close to finishing a genome map for the Pakistani family.

C. no one knows why the family keeps the children in the basement.

D. Mendelian disorders are only understood by researchers.

25. As used in line 12, “bizarre” most nearly means

A. eccentric. B. ludicrous.

C. offbeat. D. unusual.

26. What does the author suggest about sweat production disorders such as anhidrosis and hyperhidrosis?

A. They are all single-gene disorders.

B. They require those affected to wear plastic under their clothes at all times.

C. They are rarely seen in isolation from other disorders.

D. They affect two percent of the population.


A. Lines 3-6 (“It’s an . . . temperature”)

B. Lines 22-24 (“Dahl notes . . . defects”)

C. Lines 58-59 (“Dahl says . . . solution”)

D. Lines 67-69 (“Humans have . . . hair”)

28. According to the passage, which of the following is true of ITPR2?

A. It is inhibited by protein IP3R2.

B. It releases calcium into the brain.

C. Its mutation can cause physical disorders.

D. It sends signals to temperature sensitive cells.


A. Lines 3-6 (“It’s an . . . temperature”)

B. Lines 27-30 (“After analyzing . . . IP3R2”)

C. Lines 30-33 (“This protein . . . secretion”)

D. Lines 60-63 (“We have . . . view”)

30. Which of the following does the author suggest about “Botox” mentioned in line 54?

A. It inhibits production of the calcium channel.

B. It can reduce excessive sweating by 60%.

C. It is a useful but unpleasant treatment.

D. It increases pungent human skin secretions.

31. The most likely purpose of the parenthetical information in lines 57-58 is to

A. justify a description.

B. define an expression.

C. identify a conclusion.

D. resolve a discrepancy.

Questions 32 - 41 are based on the following passage.

Passage 1 is adapted from Alexander Hamilton, The Federalist Papers. Originally published in 1788. Passage 2 is adapted from Richard Henry Lee, The Anti-Federalist Papers. Originally published in 1788.

Passage 1

The President is “to nominate, and, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, to appoint ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, judges of the Supreme Court, and all

5 other officers of the United States whose appointments are not otherwise provided for in the Constitution... The President shall have power to fill up all vacancies which may happen during the recess of the Senate, by granting

10 commissions which shall expire at the end of their next session…”

I proceed to lay it down as a rule, that one man of discernment is better fitted to analyze and estimate the peculiar qualities adapted to

15 particular offices, than a body of men of equal or perhaps even of superior discernment.

The sole and undivided responsibility of one man will naturally beget a livelier sense of duty and a more exact regard to reputation. He will,

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20 on this account, feel himself under stronger obligations, and more interested to investigate with care the qualities requisite to the stations to be filled, and to prefer with impartiality the persons who may have the fairest pretensions to

25 them. He will have fewer personal attachments to gratify, than a body of men who may each be supposed to have an equal number; and will be so much the less liable to be misled by the sentiments of friendship and of affection. A

30 single well-directed man, by a single understanding, cannot be distracted and warped by that diversity of views, feelings, and interests, which frequently distract and warp the resolutions of a collective body. The suffrages of

35 the party, will be more considered than those which fit the person for the station.

In the last, the coalition will commonly turn upon some interested equivalent: “Give us the man we wish for this office, and you shall have

40 the one you wish for that.” This will be the usual condition of the bargain. And it will rarely happen that the advancement of the public service will be the primary object either of party victories or of party negotiations.

Passage 2

45 Officers may be appointed by the president alone. It has been almost universally found, when a man has been authorized to exercise power alone, he has never done it alone; but, generally, [was] aided [in] his determinations

50 by, and rested on the advice and opinions of others. And it often happens when advice is wanted, the worst men, the most interested creatures obtrude themselves, the worst advice is at hand, and misdirects the mind of him who

55 would be informed and advised. It is very seldom we see a single executive depend on accidental advice and assistance; but each single executive has, almost always, formed to itself a regular council, to be assembled and consulted

60 on important occasions. This proves that a select council, of some kind is, by experience, generally found necessary and useful.

But in a free country, the exercise of any considerable branch of power ought to be under

65 some checks and controls. As to this point, I think the constitution stands well. The legislature may, when it shall deem it expedient, from time to time, authorise the president alone to appoint particular inferior officers; and when

70 necessary, to take back the power. His power, therefore, in this respect, may always be increased or decreased by the legislature, as experience, the best instructor, shall direct—always keeping him, by the constitution, within

75 certain bounds…

This power of distributing appointments, as circumstances may require, into several hands, in a well formed disinterested legislature, might be of essential service not only in promoting

80 beneficial appointments, but also in preserving the balance in government. A feeble executive may be strengthened and supported by placing in its hands more numerous appointments; an executive too influential may be reduced within

85 proper bounds, by placing many of the inferior appointments in the courts of law, and heads of departments; nor is there much danger that the executive will be wantonly weakened or strengthened by the legislature by thus shifting

90 the appointments of inferior officers. Since all must be done by legislative acts which cannot be passed without the consent of the executive, or the consent of two-thirds of both branches, a good legislature will use this power to preserve

95 the balance and perpetuate the government. Here again we are brought to our ultimatum—is the legislature so constructed as to deserve our confidence?

32. In Passage 1, Hamilton indicates that political appointments made by a single individual differ from those made by a group mainly in their

A. neutrality and focus.

B. power and esteem.

C. liveliness and exactness.

D. convenience and efficiency.

33. As used in line 14, “peculiar” most nearly means

A. conventional. B. distinctive.

C. eccentric. D. wonderful.

34. As used in line 22, “stations” most nearly refers to

A. political offices.

B. municipal headquarters.

C. transfer locations.

D. local buildings.

35. It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage 2 that Lee views the president’s ability to appoint qualified officials as

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A. unfairly biased toward the politically connected.

B. less desirable than a general election.

C. largely an overreach of power.

D. most effective when bound by the legislature.

36. How would Lee most likely respond to Hamilton’s statement in lines 12-16, Passage 1 (“I proceed . . . discernment”)?

A. He would agree that a single person is better suited to appoint U.S. officials than is a body of men.

B. He would contend that officials in free countries should be appointed differently than those in dictatorships.

C. He would argue that allowing one person to make official appointments can negatively affect the government.

D. He would claim that the president should not make appointments because he is advised by selfish men.


A. Line 45-46 (“Officers may . . . alone”)

B. Lines 46-51 (“It has . . . others”)

C. Lines 76-81 (“This power . . . government”)

D. Lines 96-98 (“Here again . . . confidence”)

38. Which choice describes how Hamilton would most likely have reacted to Lee’s remarks in lines 76-81 (“This power . . . government”)?

A. With doubt, because a man working alone owes fewer favors than a man working with a group.

B. With support, because in order to maintain order in the country, balance in the government must be preserved.

C. With scorn, because Hamilton felt that a President needed a system of checks and balances.

D. With criticism, because Lee neglected to mention how the disinterested legislature would be formed.

39. Which choice provides the best evidence for answer to the previous question?

A. Lines 7-11 (“The President . . . session”)

B. Lines 25-29 (“He will . . . affection”)

C. Lines 34-36 (“The suffrages . . . station”)

D. Lines 41-44 (“And it . . . negotiations”)

40. Which choice best states the relationship between the two passages?

A. Passage 2 provides specifics to clarify general statements in Passage 1.

B. Passage 2 presents a contemporary view of a historical idea in Passage 1.

C. Passage 2 addresses the solution to a problem presented in Passage 1.

D. Passage 2 formulates arguments against the main argument of Passage 1.

41. The main purpose of both passages is to

A. offer a solution to the problem of creating political offices.

B. consider the best way to establish a competent legislature.

C. clarify an opinion about the duties of the President.

D. explain the government’s system of checks and balances.

Questions 42 - 52 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

This passage is adapted from Samuel D. Arman and Gavin J. Prideaux, “Behaviour of the Pleistocene Marsupial Lion (T. carnifex) Deduced from Claw Marks in a Southwestern Australian Cave.” © 2016 by Scientific Reports.

When humans first set foot in Australia around 50,000 years ago they entered a unique landscape occupied by large reptiles, birds and mammals seen nowhere else. These included

5 the anatomically-bizarre Thylacoleo carnifex. The ubiquity of this species and its evocative depiction in Aboriginal rock art suggest an important role in Australian ecosystems, but despite numerous skeletal studies,

10 interpretations have remained controversial. The species was initially described by Richard Owen in 1859 as “one of the fellest and most destructive of predatory beasts,” a view to which he was largely led by its greatly enlarged

15 slicing premolar. The species has been speculatively portrayed as a consumer of crocodile eggs, a hyaena-like scavenger, a melon specialist, a leopard-like predator that dragged prey into trees, a slow- to medium-paced runner

20 incapable of climbing, a terrestrial version of a cookie-cutter shark or raider of kangaroo pouches, and a bear-like super-predator. Trace

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fossils, such as trackways or burrows, can provide insights into locomotory abilities and

25 behaviours unobtainable via functional analyses of the skeleton alone. However, it is seldom possible to associate skeletal and trace fossils. This underscores the significance of a claw-mark assemblage in the main chamber of Tight-

30 Entrance Cave (TEC), southwestern Australia, where a now-blocked entrance in the ceiling provided access to the surface for species capable of navigating the steep, convoluted cave terrain. Thousands of claw marks, V-shaped in

35 cross section, are patchily distributed through the TEC main chamber on a range of surfaces differing in hardness, including limestone boulders, mud encrustations and soft moonmilk. The largest TEC ichnofossil scratch marks can

40 only have been made by T. carnifex.

The most parsimonious interpretation of the TEC evidence is that marsupial lions were primarily responsible for the claw-mark assemblage. Devils clearly used the cave at times

45 during the depositional interval of 140,000 to 30,000 years ago, but it is improbable that the two species cohabited the chamber given the intense interspecific antagonism displayed by carnivores, especially in cave settings.

50 The distribution of claw marks indicates a significant bias toward juveniles. One possibility is that, at any one time, the chamber was occupied by a lone mother looking after a single litter, as in D. maculatus, where a female may

55 raise up to six young in a cave den.

Marsupial lions, like all marsupials, would have given birth to extremely underdeveloped young that could not be left alone until becoming at least partially weaned. Carrying

60 older pouch young while hunting probably constrained predatory efficiency or prey size range. As in numerous extant carnivores, adult marsupial lions likely left semi-independent young to shelter in the cave while they went off

65 to hunt before returning to bring food and to rest. The TEC claw-mark size distribution shows that, as individuals grew, they spent less time in the cave, presumably venturing out increasingly to learn from adults and contribute to hunting.

70 Given that marsupial lions were apparently adapted to apprehending and consuming large prey and potentially social, it is feasible that, as in all extant group-living mammalian predators, they were cooperative hunters. As body mass,

75 group living and group hunting are seen as co-adaptations for procuring large prey, it is plausible that marsupial lions were pack hunters. Such a strategy would have allowed them to prey upon the largest marsupial, the

80 rhinoceros-sized Diprotodon optatum, bones of which have been found with incidental marsupial lion tooth marks.

42. The main purpose of the passage is to

A. identify the life cycle and hunting patterns of marsupials.

B. outline the nature of various Australian marsupials.

C. identify how researchers examine claw-mark fossil evidence.

D. outline research connecting the Tight Entrance Cave to marsupial lions.

43. Over the course of the passage, the focus shifts from

A. the evaluation of skeletal structures to pack behaviors of large predators.

B. an analysis of an overwhelming ecosystem to a simpler overview.

C. an explanation of certain physical evidence to its probable implications.

D. a discussion of trace fossil remains to an innovative way of examining tooth marks.

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44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the previous question?

A. Lines 15-22 (“The species . . . super-predator”)

B. Lines 22-26 (“Trace fossils . . . alone”)

C. Lines 51-55 (“One . . . cave den”)

D. Lines 78-82 (“Such . . . tooth marks”)

45. The author uses the phrase “its evocative depiction” (line 6-7) most likely to

A. support the claim that Thylacoleo carnifex was a noticeable component of the Australian ecosystem.

B. indicate that researchers carefully studied the presence of Thylacoleo carnifex in Aboriginal art.

C. suggest that representations of Thylacoleo carnifex were a source of inspiration.

D. demonstrate that the author admires the Aboriginal illustrations of Thylacoleo carnifex.

46. What does the author suggest is the most likely primary purpose once served by the Tight Entrance Cave?

A. A den for devils

B. A den for marsupial lions

C. Hyena hunting grounds

D. Diprotodon optatum hunting grounds


A. Lines 15-22 (“The species . . . super-predator”)

B. Lines 41-44 (“The most . . . assemblage”)

C. Lines 50-51 (“The distribution . . . juveniles”)

D. Lines 78-82 (“Such a . . . marks”)

48. As used in line 44, the phrase “Devils clearly used the cave” implies that

A. several species of juvenile marsupials used the cave.

B. devils were seen in the cave.

C. marsupial lions eventually forced devils out of the cave.

D. the evidence requires an explanation beyond the presence of marsupial lions.

49. Which choice best supports the claim that the cave was not primarily inhabited by adult marsupial lions?

A. Lines 28-34 (“This underscores . . . terrain”)

B. Lines 34-38 (“Thousands . . . soft moonmilk”)

C. Lines 44-49 (“Devils . . . cave settings”)

D. Lines 66-69 (“The TEC . . . hunting”)

50. According to the data in the figure, the greatest frequency of inter-digital spacing occurred at what measurement?

A. 5 mm B. 7 mm

C. 9 mm D. 11 mm

51. Both the passage and the figure suggest that strong support for the presence of marsupial lions in the cave is provided by claw marks with a spacing

A. between 3 and 5 mm.

B. of 7 mm.

C. of 11 mm.

D. between 20 and 32 mm.

52. What statement is best supported by the data presented in the figure?

A. Adult marsupial lions most likely left their young in the cave when they went out hunting.

B. The spacing of marks which occurred with the greatest frequency is not likely to have been made by adult marsupial lions.

C. The higher frequency of claw marks spaced around 7 mm supports the presence of juvenile marsupial lions.

D. The V-shaped cross sections of the claw marks add support for the author’s theory.

SECTION 2


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SECTION 2

Writing and Language Test

Time – 35 minutes

44 Questions


Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

No Simple Story

“Whose writings will be cherished while truth, simplicity, and feelings, command public attention”: these are the words carved on the headstone of Elizabeth Inchbald, who died in 1821. While the words may not ring as true as they might for a more commonly remembered figure, 1 yet they do, alongside Inchbald’s life, present some interesting questions regarding what it means to study literary history.

The novel as a form came to prominence in the middle of the 18th century in England. As one might expect, historical accounts of the novel were for many years dominated by male authors. The most famous of these early novels today is probably Gulliver’s Travels (1726) by

1. A. NO CHANGE

B. or

C. so

D. DELETE the underlined portion.

Jonathan Swift. Many of Swift’s contemporaries 2 have been listed among the luminaries of English fiction since the earliest days of literary history. These men are typically considered the progenitors of the novel as we know it.

Since the 1970s, 3 therefore, critics have been more sensitive to the idea that literary work, 4 expressions of an artistic variety, and cultural pursuits are not the exclusive province of dead white men. In studies of English literature, this has meant paying special 5 intending to writers of color and to women. One such beneficiary of this reconsideration has been Elizabeth Inchbald, an actress and playwright whose novel A Simple Story (1791) is now acknowledged as one of the great classics 6 of these eras.

2. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following information.

—among them Henry Fielding, Daniel Defoe, and Samuel Richardson—

Should the writer make this addition here?

A. Yes, because it explains the reason for the lasting fame of Swift’s novel.

B. Yes, because it provides specific examples relevant to the passage.

C. No, because it unnecessarily delays the discussion of female authors.

D. No, because it interrupts the sentence with an irrelevant discussion.

3. A. NO CHANGE B. furthermore,

C. thus, D. however,

4. A. NO CHANGE

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B. works of expression in art,

C. painting pictures,

D. artistic expression,

5. A. NO CHANGE B. intends

C. attending D. attention

6. A. NO CHANGE B. of the early era.

C. for them in the era. D. to them for the era.

Inchbald’s case is particularly interesting because she was so well-known in her own day. She was the author of as many as eighteen plays that were performed on the London stage, and she was known to many as an actress in many more plays besides. One of her plays, Lovers’ Vows (1798), 7 which feature prominently in Mansfield Park (1814), an early novel by the incontestably canonical Jane Austen. It did not seem so optimistic to assume, as Inchbald’s epitaph did, that she would be read, 8 to admire, and studied for many years to come, except as a footnote to a greater author.

What happened? 9 The obvious answer is that history and education were for a long time controlled by one group. The contributions of women were ignored by this group, white men. This is no doubt true, but it doesn’t tell the whole story—after all, this era is not completely without major female authors. 10 Perhaps the remaining mystery can be addressed with another question: what is literary history? Is it the study of great works or great figures? Is it the study of an era’s culture or its greatest works? Of what the elites were reading and seeing or what everyone was reading and seeing?

7. A. NO CHANGE B. which features

C. features D. feature

8. A. NO CHANGE B. admired,

C. readers admired, D. admiring,

9. Which choice most effectively combines the underlined sentences?

A. White men were inclined to ignore the contributions of women; this ignoring group was for many years in control of history and education, making for an obvious answer.

B. Many white men who ignored the contributions of women were answering the obvious question of controlling history and

education for many years.

C. The obvious answer is that history and education were for a long time controlled by one group; this group, white men, had an inclination to ignore the contributions of women.

D. The obvious answer is that history and education were for a long time controlled by white men who were often inclined to ignore the contributions of women.

10. Which choice most effectively sets up the

question given at the end of the sentence?

A. NO CHANGE

B. One interesting question that will generate discussion is this:

C. One question that has always baffled literary historians is as follows:

D. Elizabeth Inchbald had a strange allure for her contemporaries:

These questions may be unanswerable, but raising them has produced many interesting revelations. Elizabeth Inchbald is just one. What else could we have missed?

11 Literary history can always reveal new secrets to us, as long as we ask it the right questions.

11. Which choice most clearly ends the passage with a restatement of the writer’s primary claim?

A. NO CHANGE

B. There are assuredly many more women whose work has been neglected in other arts and in other countries as well.

C. The challenge inherent in studying historical documents is that it’s hard to know the context in which they were produced.

D. The biggest struggle for women artists at the time was that they were not given the same respect as men.


From 9 to 5 to 24

—1—

The “9-to-5” employee represents, for many, the standard working individual in the United

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States. The phrase itself is of unknown origin, but it became popular in the years after World War II. 12 Suburbanization and a huge influx of employees reentered the workforce and came to see the 9 a.m.-to-5 p.m., Monday-through-Friday office job as a symbol of the American dream. As 13 scholar Phaedra Milner’s, “The Workplace in American Life” argues, “The weekday hours of 9 to 5 were nearly as sacred to most Americans as Sunday mornings.” As that dream was altered and deconstructed over the following decades, this same job became the symbol of corporate 14 dominance and represented to critics the oppression of workers. However, the phrase itself persisted.

12. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence.

The end of World War II is often identified as a turning point for Civil Rights, when many Americans realized that they could no longer oppress people who fought to keep them all free.


A. Yes, because it explains some of the shifts that took place in the American workplace after the Second World War.

B. Yes, because it provides an important historical background for the idea of the 9-to-5 workday.

C. No, because it suggests that recent changes in workplace flexibility are only available to certain races.

D. No, because it is not directly related to the paragraph’s main discussion of the American workplace.

13. A. NO CHANGE

B. scholar Phaedra Milner’s

C. scholar, Phaedra Milner’s,

D. scholar, Phaedra Milner’s

14. A. NO CHANGE B. dominance,

C. dominance, it D. dominance, the shift

—2—

The opposite side contends that the “9-to-5” model is obsolete in modern times with our 15 age’s defining technology: the Internet. There is very little that one can do at an office that one can’t do in an Internet-connected home or on a smartphone. The important thing, these anti-“9-

to-5”ers argue, is that work gets 16 done. It gets done within sight of a boss or that it gets done within certain hours. No business, they argue, can guarantee that its issues can all be resolved within an arbitrarily determined set of hours. This is particularly true in an age of international conglomerates—if you have an office in the United States and another in India, then whose “9-to-5” matters more?

15. A. NO CHANGE

B. ages defining technology,

C. age’s defining technology;

D. ages defining technology:

16. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences in the underlined portion?

A. done—it B. done, although

C. done while it D. done, not that it

—3—

The phrase continues even to this day, despite the fact that work in the United States and much of Europe has strayed so far from it, and 17 businesses structured policies toward employee time that reflect the change.

18 Nevertheless, one of the hottest topics in the workplace today is the concept of “flexibility.” The traditionalists continue to argue for “9-to-5” as a kind of ideal, while 19 the unemployment rate goes through cycles of boom and bust.

17. A. NO CHANGE B. businesses structure

C. business’s structure D. business structuring

18. A. NO CHANGE B. On the contrary,

C. Deservedly, D. For example,

19. Which choice illustrates the contrast in a way that is most similar in structure to the argument already presented in the sentence?

A. NO CHANGE

B. many people argue that it is hard enough to find a job they like.

C. some employees find that rush-hour traffic makes it difficult to start at 9 a.m.

D. the new school of thought identifies it as a relic of a past age.

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—4—

Those in favor of the traditional in-office work arrangement argue from a few perspectives. An in-office employee, they say, is good for bosses: very few employees have the discipline to work reliably at home, and if those employees are in the office, then the people paying them can be sure that they are working. Imagine if all of your homework was to be done on the honor system—wouldn’t you slack a little bit? Moreover, 20 knowing that their work day will end at a specific time, the “9-to-5” structure also benefits the employees themselves. Otherwise, work can bring its normal amount of stress during the worker’s day, often persist well into the worker’s home life, and 21 the worker has no chance of developing any kind of personal life.

—5—

There are no easy solutions to the question of workplace flexibility. Even so, as connectivity increases and evolves over the coming decades, the question will take on additional importance. Indeed, we may not only dispense entirely with the idea of a “9-to-5” but with the idea of “going to work” altogether.

Question 22 asks about the previous passage as a whole.

20. A. NO CHANGE

B. knowing that their work day will end at a specific time, the employees themselves benefit from the “9-to-5” structure.

C. the employees themselves benefit from the “9-to-5” structure, who know that their work day will end at a specific time.

D. the “9-to-5” structure, knowing that their work day will end at a specific time, benefits the employees themselves.

21. Which choice most closely matches the stylistic pattern established earlier in the sentence?

A. NO CHANGE

B. personal life cannot develop because its possibility is removed for the worker.

C. remove any chance for the worker to develop a personal life.

D. removing the worker’s chance to develop any kind of social life.

Think about the previous passage as a whole as you answer question 22.

22. To make the passage most logical, paragraph 2 should be placed

A. where it is now. B. after paragraph 3.

C. after paragraph 4. D. after paragraph 5.

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

Sport of the Gods

[1] The modern world is immersed in sports— professional leagues exist in nearly all countries, and the airwaves broadcast 23 a variety of sports at all times of the day. [2] While some of the season-long sports may be of limited interest to non-fans, one series of events, the Olympics, never fails 24 . [3] Of the world’s 7 billion people, nearly half are purported to watch at least a minute of the Olympics every two years. [4] No other televised event can come close to generating such levels of popular attention.

23. A. NO CHANGE

B. from the variety of them

C. a variety of it

D. a variety of them

24. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following information.

to draw a tremendous international crowd Should the writer make this addition here?

A. Yes, because it explains why the Olympics are the most popular TV event in the United States.

B. Yes, because it clarifies the relationship between typical crowds and the crowds for the Olympics.

C. No, because it mentions international crowds, drawing the focus away from American viewers.

D. No, because it undermines the paragraph’s claim that sports are only interesting to a small section of the population.

25. Where is the most logical place in this paragraph to add the following sentence?

The logos of professional sports teams

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appear regularly on apparel, billboards, and seemingly anywhere else one might look.

A. After sentence 1 B. After sentence 2

C. After sentence 3 D. After sentence 4

The Olympics are unique for a number of reasons. One involves the variety of bizarre sports—how many of us keep up with horse dressage or curling in the offseason? Even for those with a vested interest in one of the more 26 boring sports—hockey, basketball, soccer, tennis—the Olympics add an additional degree of drama to the familiar.

This drama is no doubt the result of the Olympics’ truly unique feature: their long history and tradition.

27 They’re not a mere coincidence that the games take their name from Mount Olympus. This mountain,

28 which lives in myth as the home of the gods and was a kind of heaven in the pre-Christian era. The Greeks founded the Olympics thousands of years ago to honor the almost metaphysical, as the name 29 implies, “talents of its greatest athletes.

26. A. NO CHANGE B. mainstream

C. interesting D. athletic

27. A. NO CHANGE B. It’s

C. Its D. There

28. A. NO CHANGE

B. which lives on in myth as the home of the gods, it was

C. living in myth as the home of the gods, was

D. living in myth as the home of the gods, it was

29. A. NO CHANGE B. implies talents

C. implies, talents D. implies—talents

While the contest faded with the rise of other more powerful nations, a resurgence of interest in classical antiquity brought a renewed focus on the games in the nineteenth century. Contests throughout Britain in particular were frequently touted as restoring the glory of the original Olympic games. 30 By contrast, the shrinking of the world via new forms of

transportation gave the games an international reach they could not have had in the earlier era.

Indeed, the Olympics as we know them today are largely a result of Baron Pierre de Coubertin (1863-1937), a French aristocrat with a specific fondness for sport and Greek history. Coubertin organized the International Olympics Committee (IOC) in 1894 and garnered true international support. The first running of the modern games was held in Greece in 1896, a callback to the classical heritage that Coubertin and the rest of the IOC hoped to restore to 31 a world being increasingly fractious.

30. A. NO CHANGE B. For example,

C. Nevertheless, D. Moreover,

31. A. NO CHANGE

B. the fact of the world being more fractious.

C. the world having increasingly more factions.

D. an increasingly fractious world.

The Olympics have changed and evolved since that time. Even with all of these changes, Olympic athletes and organizers remain committed to the idea that great athleticism and internationalism should be celebrated above all. The growth in international popularity is nowhere more evident than in the cost of hosting the Olympics: the cost for Beijing to host the Summer Olympics 32 was over six times that of Athens four years earlier (see chart). Truly, the Olympics can still attract an impressive audience, including even those with no usual interest in sports, simply by adhering to the near universal principles that the ancient Greeks once ascribed to the gods who lived, 33 it was supposed, on, the mountain that gives the ceremony its name.

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32. Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of the data in the chart?

A. NO CHANGE

B. was the most significant cost since Sydney hosted the Summer Olympics

C. was significantly less than the amount London spent four years later

D. was more than triple that of Atlanta twelve years earlier

33. A. NO CHANGE B. it was supposed, on

C. it was supposed; on D. it was supposed on,


Waste Not, Wastewater Yes?

California’s drought in recent years has been a concern for many reasons. The first concern is always 34 human, therefore—will we have enough clean water to drink? This is a problem 35 with which we are not often faced in the United States. Granted, we can do without watering our lawns, and we can take shorter showers, but what happens when these measures fail?

Fortunately, the drought doesn’t have the taps 36 perambulating dry just yet. However, the drought has hit the agricultural industry particularly hard. In years with little or no rain, water is an especially precious commodity, and the cost of obtaining clean water can be too high for some farmers to pay. And California’s agricultural sector is tremendous—cuts in production would lead not only to economic consequences for the state but also 37 to nutritional consequences for the entire country.

34. A. NO CHANGE

B. human—

C. human, for example:

D. human, thus—

35. A. NO CHANGE B. for those

C. wherein D. from that

36. A. NO CHANGE B. running

C. drinking D. spouting

37. Which choice provides information that best

supports the claim made by this sentence?

A. NO CHANGE

B. some of the best fruits and vegetables come from California.

C. the almond and pecan industry are particularly damaged.

D. a dry climate can be sweltering in the desert heat.

Fortunately, when humans are not directly 38 involved; controversy can be quieted, and experts can debate the merits of particular topics without interference from uneducated politicos. One issue of particular interest in light of California’s drought has been the use of wastewater in irrigation. The California legislature, 39 which debates the issue regularly, has proposed this solution in years past, but only 6% of the trillions of gallons of water used in California irrigation is wastewater. Could the number safely 40 be raising? Some figures say yes: in Israel, for instance, nearly half the water used in irrigation is wastewater.

The problem is not precisely what one might think. It’s not an issue of the waste but of the treatment. 41 Using wastewater directly would have dire and disgusting consequences. All wastewater that flows through sewers is reclaimed—that is, its toxins and contaminants are removed, and the purified water is recirculated.

38. A. NO CHANGE B. involved

C. involved, D. involved—

39. A. NO CHANGE B. they debate

C. who debating D. that debated

40. A. NO CHANGE B. rise?

C. raise? D. be rising?

41. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence.

Unfortunately, in countries that cannot afford the infrastructure, the difference between wastewater and clean water is scant.


A. Yes, because it warns of what could happen if water-treatment plants are not maintained properly.

B. Yes, because it contextualizes the California

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drought amid other serious global crises.

C. No, because it restates information that is given elsewhere in the paragraph.

D. No, because it inserts information that does not have an essential connection to the rest of the paragraph.

Much of it is subsequently deposited into basins, which lead to lakes, rivers, and other bodies of water, where it is then reintegrated with natural waterways 42 like oceans.

[1] While this might sound a little gross, it should be a safe solution. [2] If water-treatment plants function as they should, the water should be as clean as if it had just fallen from a cloud. [3] Trace amounts of these chemicals would have no 43 affect on the average human, but the large and unpredictable mixtures that are involved in trillions of gallons of water can add up to something more dangerous, to wildlife as well as humans. [4] In terms of irrigation, some of these chemicals could even make their way to the crops themselves, which are after all at least partly made up of the water used to grow them. [5] Unfortunately, many studies have shown that this water is far from pure, containing traces of pharmaceuticals and other chemicals. 44

42. A. NO CHANGE

B. in nature.

C. for example.

D. DELETE the underlined portion, and end the sentence with a period.

43. A. NO CHANGE B. affect, with

C. effect with D. effect on

44. To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5 should be placed

A. where it is now. B. before sentence 2.

C. before sentence 3. D. before sentence 4.

SECTION 3


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SECTION 3

Math Test – No Calculator

Time – 25 minutes

20 Questions


Direction:

For question 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For question 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the direction before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

Notes:

1. The use of calculator is not permitted.

2. All variables and expression used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.

3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.

4. All figure lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x) is a real number.

Reference:

1. What is the solution set for x if 2 10 19x x

A. {1} B. {1, 15}

C. {15} D. {-1, 15}

2. The perimeter of a rectangle is 32. If the length and breadth are both integers, which of the following could NOT be the area of the rectangle?

A. 36 B. 39

C. 48 D. 55

3. Carlos decreased his daily caloric intake by 20%, and Carol increased her daily caloric intake by 20%. If they both now consume the same number of calories, how much percent greater was Carlos’s original caloric intake than that of Carol?

A. 37% B. 40%

C. 48% D. 50%

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4. If 1

54

y x

is parallel to the line

13,

2y mx what is the value of m in decimal

form?

A. 0.5 B. 0.6

C. 0.7 D. 0.8

5. South Park Road is closed during the last three months of the year and the first two months of the new year. If n stands for the number of the month (January corresponds to 1, February corresponds to 2, etc.), which of the following equations describes the months during which South Park Road is closed?

A. 2 0n

B. 2 6n

C. 4 6n

D. 6 4n

6. Which of the following equations is equivalent to 8 8 4 481 16 9 4 ?x t x t

A. 4 49 4 0x t

B. 42 23 2 0x t

C. 2 2 2 23 2 3 2 1x t x t

D. 2 2 2 2 4 43 2 3 2 9 4 1x t x t x t

7. If ABCD is a square, what are the coordinates of C?

A. 3, 3 B. 3, 1 3

C. 2 3, 3 D. 1 3, 3

8. In the complex number system, 2 1

?1 1

i

i i

A. 22

2

i B. 2 i

C. 2

1

i

i

D. 1 i

9. The length and breadth of a rectangular yard are 11 meters and 5 meters respectively. If each

dimension were reduced by x meters to make the ratio of length to breadth 8 : 3, what would be the value of x?

A. 1.4 B. 1.6

C. 1.8 D. 2.0

10. If n is an odd integer, then which of the following is even?

(I) n2

(II) n2 + 1

(III) 3n2 - 1

A. (I) only B. (II) only

C. (III) only D. (II) and (III) only

11. An integer from 100 through 999, inclusive, is to be chosen at random. What is the probability that the number chosen will have 0 as at least 1 digit?

A. 19

900 B.

81

900

C. 90

900 D.

171

900

12. Tom was given a number. He was supposed to multiply by 5, and then add three. Instead, he made the mistake of adding three first, then multiplying by 5. He got the result T. How would we have to change T to get the correct answer?

A. Change to 5T+3 B. Change to T+3

C. Change to T-15 D. Change to T-12

13. A certain barrel is 1

5 full. When ‘k’ liters of liquid

are added to the barrel, it becomes 2

3 full. In

terms of ‘k’, what is the capacity of the barrel, in liters?

A. 3

8k B.

7

15k

C. 15

7k D.

7

3k

14. Ten students wrote a test, and the distribution of scores is shown on the frequency table. If the average (arithmetic mean) score is 62, what is the value of x?

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A. 62 B. 65

C. 71 D 76

15. A survey of a high school track team asked the 40 members how many hours per week (rounded to the nearest hour) they spend running outside of team practices. The 40 responses are summarized in the histogram below:

The track coach decides to show the data of the team in a circle graph (pie chart). What should the measure of the central angle of the sector for 4 hours be?

A. 36° B. 74°

C. 81° D. 90°

Directions:

For question 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly.

2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.

3. No question has a negative answer.

4. Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer

5. Mixed numbers such as 1

32

must be

gridded as 3.5 or 7/2. (If is

entered into the grid, it will be interpreted as

31

2 , not

13

2.)

6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.

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16. If 53 ,t t a b what is the maximum possible

value of ab (product of a and b), if a and b are integers?

17. The equation of a circle is as follows: 2 2 10 6 110.x y x y What is the diameter?

18. A necklace is made up of three different colored beads: red, blue, and green. If the ratio of blue to red beads is 1:3 and red to green beads is 2:3, what is the fewest number of beads that could be on the necklace if the total number of beads on the necklace is greater than sixty?

19. For every four magazines Wanda sells during the book drive, she gets 50 cents commission. If she makes a total of $20.50, how many magazines does she sell?

20. In a school election for President of the Student Body, 100 students each cast three votes: a first place vote, worth 5 points, a second place vote, worth 3 points, and a third place vote, worth one point. The results are shown in the table below.

Let N be the minimum number of second-place votes that should have gone for Wendell, rather than Thomas, in order for Wendell to be the clear winner of the election. What is N?

SECTION 4


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SECTION 4

Math Test - Calculator

Time – 55 minutes

38 Questions


Direction:

For question 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For question 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the direction before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

Notes:

1. The use of calculator is permitted.

2. All variables and expression used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.

3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.

4. All figure lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x) is a real number.

Reference:

1. If 5 0,a 2 26 69 0.a a What is the value of

a?

A. 3 B. 23

C. 3, 23 D. 26

2. '2 'x y years ago, Roberto was '3 'x y years

old. How many years old was Roberto ‘x’ years ago?

A. 4 2x y B. 5 2x y

C. 6 2x y D. 6 3x y

3. Which of the following is the value of 240° in radians?

A. 2

3

B.

3

4

C. 3

8

D.

4

3

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4. In the xy-coordinate system, line k passes through points (-5m, 0) and (0, 2m). Which of the following is a possible equation of line k?

A. 2

25

y x m B. 5

52

y x m

C. 5

22

y x m D. 2

25

y x m

5. A cube with edges 3 inches long is inscribed in a sphere, so that each vertex of the cube touches the sphere. What is the radius of the sphere, in inches?

A. 3 3

2 B.

3 2

3

C. 3

D. 3 3

6. If 2

( ) 122

xf x and (2 ) 2 ,f k k what is one

possible value for k?

A. 2 B. 3

C. 4 D. 5

7. In a state election, 40% of the total who voted were from Campton. Of these voters, 30% voted for candidate X. Those voters not from Campton were twice as likely to vote for Candidate X as were the voters from Campton. If a total of 500,000 from the state voted in the election, how many of these voters did not cast a vote for candidate X?

A. 45,000 B. 60,000

C. 240,000 D. 260,000

8. The equation 16x4 – 1 = 0 has how many positive solutions?

A. Zero B. One

C. Two D. Four

9. What is the approximate value of ( )f a if

( 5) ?f a

A. – 6 B. – 3

C. 3 D. 6

10. Isosceles triangle ABC, in which each side equals an integer, has sides of length five and six. What is the area of triangle ABC, if the altitude from the base of ABC is also an integer?

A. 8 B. 10

C. 11 D. 12

11. If 2 3 2( 1)( 1) 3 3 1.x x nx x x x What is

the value of n?

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

12. According to a conservation biologist, the number of bison in a national park is declining at an annual rate of 1.74%. If the current population is 18,000, which of the following expressions appropriately models the population of bison five years from now?

A. 18,000 (1 - .01745) B. 18,000 (1 - .0174)5

C. 18,000 - (.0174)5 D. (18,000 - .0174)5

13. The quadratic formula gives the two

roots 2 4

2

b b acx

a

for the equation

2 0.ax bx c What are the two roots of the

equation 2 6 10 3?x x

A. 3 1 B. 3 2

C. 6 4 D. 8 22

and 5 5

14. If the function 216 64 2h t t t gives the

height (in feet) of a football after t seconds. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The football is kicked from a height of 2 feet.

B. The football reaches a maximum height of 64 feet.

C. The football hits the ground after 6 seconds.

D It takes 4 seconds for the football to reach its maximum height.

15. If 1

,2

g x f x for all values of x, which of

the following is a true statement describing the graph of g in comparison with the graph of f?

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A. It is narrower and opens upward

B. It is the same width but opens upward

C. It is wider and opens downward

D. It is wider and opens upward

16. If ,5

xy then what is the ratio of 2x to 3y?

A. 2

15 B.

3

10

C. 3

2 D.

10

3

17. Points Q, R, S, and T are integers that lie on a number line in that order. The distance between Q and R is twice the distance between R and T. If point S is the midpoint of R and T, then which of the following could be the distance between Q and S?

A. 4 B. 6

C. 10 D. 12

18. Jack has 5 cats and 1 dog. If the dog’s weight is 3 times the average (arithmetic mean) weight of the cats, then the dog’s weight is what fraction of the total weight of all 6 animals?

A. 1

4 B.

1

3

C. 3

8 D.

3

7

19. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, when

0a and 0,b the graph of 2x b

f xx a

has

a vertical asymptote at:

A. y a B. y a

C. 2x a D. x a

20. If n is positive and less than 1, then which of the following is true?

(I) 2 0n n

(II) 3n n

(III) 1 1n

A. (I) only B. (II) only

C. (III) only D. (I) and (II) only

21. The equation 1 1

0a a has

A. an infinite number of solutions

B. no solutions

C. 1 solution only

D. 2 solutions only

22. A camping supply store rents a fully collapsible tent for ‘t’ dollars for the first week. Each additional week after that, the price is 10% less than it was for the preceding week. How much would it cost to rent the tent for three weeks?

A. 0.8t B. 0.81t

C. 0.9t D. 2.71t

23. If the circle with center O has area 9π, what is the area of equilateral triangle ABC?

A. 9 3 B. 18 3

C. 12 3 D. 24 3

24. A printer that can print 1 page in 5 seconds shuts down for 3 minutes to cool off after every hour of operation. How many minutes will the printer take to print 3600 pages?

A. 300 B. 312

C. 315 D. 1800

25. If 3 apples and 4 bananas costs $1.37, and 5 apples and 7 bananas costs $2.36, what is the total cost of 1 apple and 1 banana?

A. $0.15 B. $0.23

C. $0.38 D. $0.41

26. A store is experiencing high sales of a popular item. The store receives a shipment of up to 100 of the item over the weekend, and a smaller shipment of about 20 items midday Wednesday. The graph shows the number of these items in the store, on the shelves, at the close of each day over a two-week period. On average over this two-week period, on what day of the week were sales the highest?

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A. Monday B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday D. Thursday

27. In the right triangle shown, .d e f The

expression 1 1sin cosd d

f f

is equal to

which of the following?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 90°

D. 1 1sin cosd d

e e

28. For every positive 2-digit number ‘x’, with tens digit ‘t’ and units digit ‘u’, let y be the 2-digit number formed by reversing the digits of ‘x’. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to x – y ?

A. 9 (t – u) B. 9 (u – t)

C. 9t – u D. 9u – t

29. A formula to estimate the monthly payment, p

dollars, on a short-term loan is

1

212

ary ap

y

where a dollars is the amount of the loan, r is the annual interest rate expressed as a decimal, and y years is the length of the loan. When a is multiplied by 2, what is the effect on p ?

A. p is divided by 6

B. p is divided by 2

C. p is multiplied by 6

D. p is multiplied by 2

30. Galaxy X is 72.4 10 light years away from the

Milky Way. If the distance between Galaxy Y and the Milky Way is the square root of the distance in light years between the Milky Way

and Galaxy X, approximately how many light years is Galaxy Y from the Milky Way?

A. 35 10 B. 52.5 10

C. 32.5 10 D. 55 10

Directions:

For question 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly.

2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.

3. No question has a negative answer.

4. Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer

5. Mixed numbers such as 1

32

must be

gridded as 3.5 or 7/2. (If is

entered into the grid, it will be interpreted as

31

2 , not

13

2.)

6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more digits than the grid can accommodate, it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.

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31. If 7xy and 5,x y then what is the value of

2 2 ?x y

32. What would ‘a’ have to be so that 3 25 6x x ax is divisible by (x + 2)?

33. One of the x-intercepts of a parabola is at (-6, 0). If the vertex is at (2, 8), what is the y-coordinate of the y-intercept of the parabola?

34. If n is a positive integer such that

!342,

2 !

n

n

what is the value of n?

35. A fair six-sided dice has faces bearing the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. When the dice is thrown, the numbers on the five visible faces are added. What is the probability that this sum is greater than 18?

36. Students in an 11 th grade history class are randomly divided into three teams of five students for a history trivia contest. Each student takes a trivia test with 100 total points and their scores are posted below. The team with the highest average score (rounded to the nearest whole number) wins the contest.

A sixth student is added to each team. What is the lowest minimum score (assuming all individual student scores are whole umbers) that the sixth student on Team 3 could achieve that would guarantee Team 3 still wins the trivia contest?

37. Line A passes through point (4, 2) and (1, t). Line B, which is perpendicular to Line A, is expressed

by the equation of 4 4 ,x y k where k is a

negative constant. What is the slope of Line C if it passes through (–t, 2) and the origin?

38. A ball, when dropped, will bounce 1/3 of the height from which it was dropped. If the ball is dropped from 54 feet, what is the total distance in feet the ball will have traveled the moment it hits the ground for the third time?

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ESSAY

Student Name : _______________________________________________________________________

Registration No. :

Test Center : _____________________________________________ __________________

Name of the Test Center Room No.

SAT –ESSAY (Optional)

DIRECTIONS

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively

you can read and comprehend a passage and write an essay

analyzing the passage. In your essay you should demonstrate

that you have read the passage carefully, present a clear and

logical analysis, and use language precisely.

Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer

sheet booklet; except for the planning page of the answer

booklet, you will receive no other paper on which to write.

You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid

wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable

size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your

handwriting will read what you write. Try to write so that

what you are writing is legible to those readers.

You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay

in response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.

REMINDER

— Do not write your essay

in this booklet. Only what

you write on the lined

pages of your answer

booklet will be evaluated.

— An off-topic essay will not

be evaluated.

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ESSAY

Adapted from Phil Roster, “Leave the Sidewalk Where It Is.” ©2016

1 As a boy, I spent many long days lost in the “forest” that sprawled out behind my

neighborhood and that seemed to wander endlessly. While the treeline would harden to

concrete with a wrong turn, there were paths through thickets and clearings which never

failed to reveal new undiscovered wonders. But within a few short years of those days, that

wilderness had been absorbed to make room for other neighborhoods like mine. While our

growing communities offer wonders of their own, the value of unbroken forestland ought to

be seriously considered.

2 Our species learned to walk in a world unaltered by human hands, and a full tenth of that

land was forest. Now, only forty percent of those trees remain standing, and many of us have

little experience with truly wild land beyond a camping trip or two. Our preference for an

ever more “convenient” globe, at the expense of the world’s forests, has a devastating impact.

3 Scientists at a recent U.N. Convention on Biological Diversity estimated that as many 150

species may disappear each day, and statistics published by the International Union for

the Conservation of Nature suggest that close to 30% of all species may be classified as

threatened. An extraordinary number of these vanished and struggling species disappear

due to deforestation. While a small patch cut through a forest to make way for expanding

development may seem like a fine compromise, forest ecosystems depend on continuous

landscapes. Separate fragments of previously vast forest are often unable to support their

suddenly isolated populations, and fade into lonely stands of trees.

4 We depend on forests ourselves, as many innovations in medicine and technology spring

from the trees, shrubs, spiders, frogs, fungi, fruits, and roots that push shoulder-to-shoulder

through paths and glades. Over 120 prescription medications in worldwide use come from

chemicals produced by some plant or animal of the forest. When the spider webs that wave

between the trunks find their way to scientists’ labs, new advances in super-strong fabrics

and nanotube reinforced fibers emerge to change the limits of what we’re capable of creating

next. Deforestation collapses these vibrant ecosystems like a pierced hot-air balloon, and

As you read the passage below, consider how Phil Roster uses • evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims. • reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence. • stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to emotion, to

add power to the ideas expressed.

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ESSAY

with them go the unimagined creations of tomorrow. Scientists estimate that they have

experimented and tested less than a single percent of the unknown resources of even what

remains hidden in the world’s forest. What miracles did we never even know we lost?

5 In a modern, buzzing, neon society of smartphones and broadband networks, the sudden

stillness of deep forest can seem an almost alien reminder of an ancient communion with

nature. Forest caves and clearings have long been the homes of hermits and sages in our

myths, and generations of explorers and wanderers have returned with entrancing stories of

their experiences. From Cooper to Thoreau, what would literature be like without the trees?

The words written on pages that were born in leaf-green sunlight continue to speak to our

hearts throughout the years.

6 Tragically, the forests continue to fall. From 2000 to 2012, nearly 900,000 square miles of

forest were destroyed. While that number is staggering on its own, the remaining amount of

Earth’s forests is only 2,400,000 square miles. Maps that once showed large sections of green

now offer only patches and remnants. Some claim that all the world’s tropical forests will

have been erased by the middle of this century. Those lucky among us who felt the air among

the trees may find ourselves passing the stories along to grandchildren who didn’t realize that

we were old enough to remember forests.

7 The decline of the forests is not inevitable. Efforts by many world organizations have been

bent toward stopping the march of deforestation, and a variety of creative solutions continue

to be developed. There are new innovations in agriculture, designed to reduce the amount

of land needed to grow crops, and the permaculture movement has found ways to produce

food within a forest environment, with promising results. Forest management programs work

to reduce loses, and reforestation efforts have seen some surprisingly significant increases

in forested land. The Chinese government responded to a dramatic amount of deforestation

with a stunningly effective campaign that increased the country’s forested land by 34% over

twenty years. Perhaps the most effective solution, however, can only come from a realization

that the price of expanding city limits may have become too high.

Write an essay in which you explain how Phil Roster builds an argument to persuade

his audience that natural forests should be preserved. In your essay, analyze how Roster

uses one or more of the features listed in the box above (or features of your own choice)

to strengthen the logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis

focuses on the most relevant aspects of the passage.

Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Roster’s claims, but rather

explain how Roster builds an argument to persuade his audience.

OPEN MOCK SAT - usaunivquest.com · This test contains 154 questions and the maximum time allowed...

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