Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CM303315048 … · Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper...

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only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination

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2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

Important Instructions /

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSEPHASE : MLF,MLG,MLH,MAZA & MAZB

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Papercode and Your Form No.

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Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

TEST DATE : 16 - 03 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM303315048

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 02

Hin

di

PHYSICS : Propert ies of matter and Fluid Mechanics ,

Thermal Physics-I(Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer)

Thermal Physics-II (Behavior of Perfect Gases and KTG,

Thermodynamics)

Oscillations (SHM, damped and forced oscillations &

Resonance)

Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect

CHEMISTRY : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Hydrogen

s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)

p–Block Elements (Group - 13 & 14)

p–Block Elements (Group - 15, 16, 17 & 18)

The d and f-block Elements

BIOLOGY : Plant Physiology : (i) Transport in Plants (ii) Mineral Nutrition

(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (iv) Respiration in Plants

(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme

Human Physiology : (i) Digestion and Absorption

(ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and

circulation

(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination

(v) Locomotion and Movement

(vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear

(vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 16 - 03 - 2016

SYLLABUS – 2

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLF, MLG, MLH, MAZA & MAZB)

H-1/361001CM303315048

Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. One end of a long metallic wire of length L area

of cross section A and Young’s modulus Y is tied

to the ceiling. The other end is tied to a massless

spring of force constant K. A mass m hangs freely

from the free end of the spring. It is slightly pulled

down and released. Its time period is given by-

(1) m

2K

(2) mYA

2KL

(3) mK

2YA

(4) m(KL YA)

2KYA

2. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant.

The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is:

(1) 1

T(2)

2

T(3)

3

T(4)

4

T3. One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm and two

litres of nitrogen at a pressure of 0.5 atm are

introduced into a vessel of volume 1L. If there is

no change in temperature, the final pressure of the

mixture of gas (in atm) is:

(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 2 (4) 4

4. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes one

third in 2 sec. If its amplitude after 6 sec is 1/n times

the original amplitude then the value of n is

(1) 32 (2) 3 2 (3) 3 3 (4) 33

5. A source of sound is travelling at 100

m /sec3

along a road, towards a point A, when the source

is 3 m away from A, a person standing at a point

O on a road at perpendicular position. The distance

of O from A at that time is 4m. If the original

frequency is 640 Hz,then the value of apperent

frequency listen by person is :-

(speed of sound is 340 m/sec) :-

A

4m

0

3m Source

(1) 620 Hz (2) 680 Hz

(3) 720 Hz (4) 840 Hz

1. L A Y K m

(1) m

2K

(2) mYA

2KL

(3) mK

2YA

(4) m(KL YA)

2KYA

2. PT2 = :-

(1) 1

T(2)

2

T(3)

3

T(4)

4

T3. 1 1 0.5

2 1 :(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 2 (4) 4

4. 2 sec 6 sec 1/n n -

(1) 32 (2) 3 2 (3) 3 3 (4) 33

5. 100

m /sec3

A

, 3 m A O 4m 640 Hz :-( , 340 m/sec )

A

4m

0

3m Source

(1) 620 Hz (2) 680 Hz

(3) 720 Hz (4) 840 Hz

H-2/36

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016

1001CM303315048

6. A drop of water of volume 0.05 cm3 is pressed

between two glass plates, as a consequence of

which it spreads and occupies an area of 40 cm2.

If the surface tension of water is 70 dyne/cm, then

the normal force required to separate out the two

glass plates will be in Newton -

(1) 90 (2) 44.8 (3) 22.4 (4) 448

7. When the temperature of a rod increases from t

to (t + t), its moment of inertia increases from

I to (I + I). If be the coefficient of linear

expansion of the rod, then the value of I

I

is:

(1) 2 t (2) t (3) t

2

(4)

t

8. The amount of heat energy required to raise the

temperature of 1 g of helium from T1K to T

2K is:

(1) a B 2 1

3N k (T T )

2 (2) a B 2 1

3N k (T T )

4

(3) 2

a B

1

3 TN k

4 T

(4) a B 2 1

3N k (T T )

8

9. A particle performs simple harmonic oscillation of

period T and the equation of motion is given by;

x a sin( t / 6)

After the elapse of what fraction of the time period

the velocity of the particle will be equal to half

of its maximum velocity?

(1) T/3 (2) T/12 (3) T/8 (4) T/6

10. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle

displacement is given by : y = a sin 2(bt – cx)

where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle

velocity will be twice the wave velocity if:

(1) 1

ca

(2) c = a (3) b = ac (4) b = 1

ac

11. A hollow sphere has inner volume half the outer

volume. Its 4/5th part is submerged when placed

in water. The density of material is -

(1) 1.4 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 1.5 × 103 kg/m3

(3) 1.6 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 17 × 103 kg/m3

12. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and

16 g of oxygen. The ratio (Cp/ C

v) of the mixture is:

(1) 1.4 (2) 1.54 (3) 1.59 (4) 1.62

6. 0.05 cm3 40 cm2 70 dyne/cm

- :-(1) 90 (2) 44.8

(3) 22.4 (4) 448

7. t (t + t)I (I + I)

I

I

:

(1) 2 t (2) t (3) t

2

(4)

t

8. 1 g T1K T

2K

:

(1) a B 2 1

3N k (T T )

2 (2) a B 2 1

3N k (T T )

4

(3) 2

a B

1

3 TN k

4 T

(4) a B 2 1

3N k (T T )

8

9. T -

x a sin( t / 6)

:-(1) T/3 (2) T/12

(3) T/8 (4) T/6

10. y = a sin 2(bt – cx) a, b c :

(1) 1

ca

(2) c = a (3) b = ac (4) b = 1

ac

11. 4/5th -(1) 1.4 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 1.5 × 103 kg/m3

(3) 1.6 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 17 × 103 kg/m3

12. 16 g 16 g (C

p/ C

v) :

(1) 1.4 (2) 1.54 (3) 1.59 (4) 1.62

H-3/361001CM303315048


13. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) A gas has two specific heats only.

(2) A gas has infinite number of specific heats.

(3) A material will have only one specific heat

always.

(4) None of the above.

14. The equation of SHM of a particle is given

as

2

2

d x2 32x 0

dt

where x is the displacement from the mean position

of rest. The period of its oscillation (in seconds) is

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3)

2 2

(4) 2

15. The length of open organ pipe is L and

fundamental frequency is f. Now it is immersed

into water upto half of its length now the frequency

of organ pipe will be

(1) f (2) 2f (3) f/2 (4) 4f

16. Water is flowing with a velocity of 2m/s in a horizontal

pipe where cross-sectional area is 2 × 10–2 m2 at

pressure 4 × 104 pascal. The pressure at

cross-section of area 0.01 m2 in pascal will be

(1) 32 (2) 3.4

(3) 3.4 × 104 (4) 3.4 × 105

17. A body cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes

and to 42ºC in the next 10 minutes. The

temperature of the surrounding is:

(1) 16°C (2) 26°C (3) 36°C (4) 21°C

18. A solid material is supplied with heat at constant

rate and the temperature of the material changes

as shown below. From the graph, the false

conclusion drawn is:

(1) AB and CD of the graph represent phase changes.

(2) AB represent the change of state from solid

to liquid.

(3) latent heat of fusion is twice the latent heat

of vaporization.

(4) CD represents the change of state from liquid

to vapour.

13. -(1) (2) (3)

(4) 14.

2

2

d x2 32x 0

dt

x () -

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3)

2 2

(4) 2

15. f L :-(1) f (2) 2f

(3) f/2 (4) 4f

16. 2 2 × 10–2m2 4 × 104

0.01 m2 -(1) 32 (2) 3.4

(3) 3.4 × 104 (4) 3.4 × 105

17. 62°C 50°C 10 42ºC 10 :(1) 16°C (2) 26°C (3) 36°C (4) 21°C

18. :

(1) AB CD (phase)

(2) AB

(3)

(4) CD

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1001CM303315048

19. A pendulum clock is in elevator–

(1) Shows correct time always

(2) Shows correct time always when desends with

constant accleration

(3) Shows correct time when descends with

constant speed

(4) Cannot shows correct time when elevator

moves

20. The amplitude of a wave represented by

displacement equation :

y =1

asin t ±

1

bcos t

will be :

(1) a b

ab

(2)

a b

ab

(3) a b

ab

(4)

a b

ab

21. A copper wire (Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2) of length 6 m

& a steel wire ( Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2) of length

4 m each of cross section 10–5 m2 are fastened end

to end & stretched by a tension of 100 N. The

elongation produced in the copper wire is-

(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.4 mm

(3) 0.6 mm (4) 0.8 mm

22. A metal rod of length 2 m has cross-sectional areas

2A and A as shown in the following figure. The

two ends are maintained at temperatures 100ºC and

70ºC. The temperature of middle point C is :

2A A

70ºC

A

CB100ºC

1m 1m

(1) 80ºC (2) 85ºC

(3) 90ºC (4) 95ºC

23. The surface temperature of the sun which has

maximum energy emission at 500 nm is 6000 K.

The temperature of a star which has maximum

energy emission at 400 nm will be:

(1) 8500 K (2) 4500 K

(3) 7500 K (4) 6500 K

19. –(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

20.

y =1

asin t ±

1

bcos t

:

(1) a b

ab

(2)

a b

ab

(3) a b

ab

(4)

a b

ab

21. 6 (Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2)

4 (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2),

10–5 m2 100 N -(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.4 mm

(3) 0.6 mm (4) 0.8 mm

22. 2m -2A A 100ºC 70ºC C

2A A

70ºC

A

CB100ºC

1m 1m

(1) 80ºC (2) 85ºC

(3) 90ºC (4) 95ºC

23. 6000 500 nm

400 nm (1) 8500 K (2) 4500 K

(3) 7500 K (4) 6500 K

H-5/361001CM303315048


24. The displacement-time graph of a particle

executing SHM is as.

T4

T2

T 5T4

t3T4

x

(Which of the following statement is wrong)

(1) The force is zero at 3T

t4

(2) The acceleration is maximum at 4T

t4

(3) The potential energy is equal to kinetic energy

at t = T

2

(4) The velocity is maximum at t = 3T

4

25. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The velocity

of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance travelled (in

meters) by the sound during the time in which the

tunning fork complete 32 vibrations is :

(1) 21 (2) 43

(3) 86 (4) 129

26. Water drop whose radius is 0.0015 mm is falling

through the air. If the coefficient of viscosity of air is

1.8 × 10–5 kg/m-s, then assuming buoyancy force as

negligible the terminal velocity of the dorp will be

(1) 2.72 × 10–4 m/s (2) 2.72 × 10–3 m/s

(3) 2.72 × 10–2 m/s (4) 2.72 × 10–1 m/s

27. In the given (V-T) diagram, what is the relation

between pressure P1 and P

2 is :

(1) P2 > P

1(2) P

2 < P

1

(3) P2 = P

1(4) None of these

24. SHM -

T4

T2

T 5T4

t3T4

x

(1)3T

t4

(2)4T

t4

(3) t = T

2

(4) t = 3T

4

25. 256 344 ms–1 32 (1) 21 (2) 43

(3) 86 (4) 129

26. 0.0015 mm 1.8 × 10–5 kg/m-s -(1) 2.72 × 10–4 m/s (2) 2.72 × 10–3 m/s

(3) 2.72 × 10–2 m/s (4) 2.72 × 10–1 m/s

27. (V-T) P1 P

2

:

(1) P2 > P

1 (2) P

2 < P

1

(3) P2 = P

1(d)

Key Filling

H-6/36


1001CM303315048

28. A body of area 1 cm2 is heated to a temperature

1000 K. The amount of energy radiated by the

body in 1 second is:

(Stefan's constant = 5.67 × 10–8 W m–2K–4)

(1) 5.67 joule (2) 0.567 joule

(3) 56.7 joule (4) 567 joule

29. An engine is moving towards a wall with a

velocity 50 ms-1 emits a note of 1.2 kHz. The speed

of sound in air is 350 ms–1. The frequency of the

note after reflection from the wall as heard by the

driver of the engine is :

(1) 2.4 kHz (2) 0.24 kHz

(3) 1.6 kHz (4) 1.2 kHz30. Two simple harmonic motions are represented

by the equations 1y 0.1sin 100 t3

and

y2 = 0.1 cos100 t. The phase difference of the

velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity

of particle 2 is

(1) –

3

(2)

6

(3)

–

6

(4)

3

31. If a capillary tube is tilted to 45º and 60º from the

vertical then the ratio of length 1 and

2 of liquid

columns in it will be -

(1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

32. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle

PQRSP process. The net work done by the system is:

(1) 20J (2) -20 J

(3) 400J (4) -374 J

33. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first

becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow

and finally turns to white hot. The correct

explanation for the above observation is possible

by using:

(1) Wien’s displacement Law

(2) Kirchhoff’s Law

(3) Newton’s Law of cooling

(4) Stefan’s Law

28. 1 cm2 1000 K1 :( = 5.67 × 10–8 W m–2K–4)

(1) 5.67 (2) 0.567 (3) 56.7 (4) 567

29. 50 1.2 350 :(1) 2.4 kHz (2) 0.24 kHz

(3) 1.6 kHz (4) 1.2 kHz30.

1y 0.1sin 100 t3

y2 = 0.1 cos100 t

2 1 :-

(1) –

3

(2)

6

(3)

–

6

(4)

3

31. 45º 60º

1

2

-

(1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

32. PQRSP :-

(1) 20J (2) -20 J

(3) 400J (4) -374 J

33. (flame)(white hot) (1) (2) (3) (4)

H-7/361001CM303315048


34. A sound absorber attenuates (decreases) the sound level

by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of :

(1) 100 (2) 1000 (3) 10000 (4) 1035. A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic

motion with a time period T. If the length of the

pendulum is increased by 21%, the percentage

increase in the time period of the pendulum of

increased length is

(1) 10% (2) 21% (3) 30% (4) 50%

36. A soap bubble (S.T = 30 dyne/cm) has radius of

1 cm. The work done in doubling its radius would

be -

(1) 96 erg (2) 113.5 erg

(3) 20 erg (4) 2261 erg

37. When a system is taken from state i to state f along

the path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal and

W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. Work

done along the path ibf will be :

(1) 6 cal (2) 16 cal

(3) 66 cal (4) 14 cal

38. Given diagram shows an ideal gas taken from state

1 to 2 through optional paths, A,B,C. Let Q,W and

U represent the heat supplied to, the work done by

gas and the internal energy of the gas, respectively.

Then which of the following conditions is true?

(1) QA

< QB < Q

C

(2) WA>W

B> W

C

(3) U1 – U

2= Q

A–

W

A

(4) QA–W

A< Q

B–W

B< Q

C– W

C

39. Wavelength of the light from a star is 0.4 % more than

the corresponding wavelength on the earth, the

velocity of the star with respect to the earth is:

(1) 1.2 × 106 km/sec (2) 1.2 × 103 km/sec

(3) 1.2 × 104 km/sec (4) 1.2 × 105 km/sec

34. 20 (factor) (1) 100 (2) 1000 (3) 10000 (4) 10

35. T 21% :-(1) 10% (2) 21%

(3) 30% (4) 50%

36. (= 30 dyne/cm) 1 cm. -(1) 96 erg (2) 113.5 erg

(3) 20 erg (4) 2261 erg

37. i f iaf Q = 50 cal W = 20 calibf Q = 36 cal

ibf :-

(1) 6 cal (2) 16 cal

(3) 66 cal (4) 14 cal

38. 1 2 ABC Q,W U:

(1) QA

< QB < Q

C

(2) WA>W

B> W

C

(3) U1

– U2= Q

A–

W

A

(4) QA–W

A< Q

B–W

B< Q

C– W

C

39. 0.4 :(1) 1.2 × 106 km/sec (2) 1.2 × 103 km/sec

(3) 1.2 × 104 km/sec (4) 1.2 × 105 km/sec

H-8/36


1001CM303315048

40. A particle at the end of a spring executes simple

harmonic motion with a period t1, while the

corresponding period for another spring is t2. If

the period of oscillation with the two springs in

series is T, then

(1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T2 = t12 + t2

2

(3) T–1 = t1–1 + t2

–1 (4) T–2 = t1–2 + t2

–2

41. The height of water in a tank is H. The range of

the liquid emerging out form a hole in the wall

of the tank at a depth 3H

4 from the upper surface

of water, will be :-

(1) H (2) H

2(3)

3H

2(4)

3H

2

42. A bubble is at the bottom of the lake of depth h. As

the bubble comes to sea level, its radius increases

three times. If atmospheric pressure is equal to

metres of water column, then h is equal to:

(1) 26 (2)

(3) 8 (4) 27

43. The mean kinetic energy of one mole of gas per

degree of freedom (on the basis of kinetic theory

of gases) is:

(1) 1

kT2

(2) 3

kT2

(3) 3

RT2

(4) 1

RT2

44. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain

temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in

helium (He) at the same temperature will be :

(assume both gases to be ideal)

(1) 1420 ms–1 (2) 500 ms–1

(3) 650 ms–1 (4) 330 ms–1

45. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position

(1) Kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy

is maximum

(2) Both kinetic and potential energies are

maximum

(3) Kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy

is minimum

(4) Both kinetic and potential energies are

minimum

40. t1 t2 T :-

(1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T2 = t12 + t2

2

(3) T–1 = t1–1 + t2

–1 (4) T–2 = t1–2 + t2

–2

41. H

3H

4

:-

(1) H (2) H

2(3)

3H

2(4)

3H

2

42. h h :(1) 26 (2)

(3) 8 (4) 27

43. (per degree of freedom) :

(1) 1

kT2

(2) 3

kT2

(3) 3

RT2

(4) 1

RT2

44. (O2)

460 ms–1(He) :( )(1) 1420 ms–1 (2) 500 ms–1

(3) 650 ms–1 (4) 330 ms–1

45. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

H-9/361001CM303315048


46. Which of the following statement regarding H2O

2

is correct :-

(1) It is prepared by electrolysis of dil.H2SO4

(2) The bleaching action of H2O2 is temporary

(3) It can be concentrated by boiling

(4) the speed of decompositon of H2O

2 can be

retarded by using urea.

47. The product obtained when silica reacts with

hydrogen fluoride is

(1) SiF4

(2) H2SiF

6

(3) H2SiF

4(4) H

2SiF

3

48. Which of the following has maximum solubility

in water ?

(1) LiHCO3 (2) NaHCO3

(3) KHCO3

(4) RbHCO3

49. Born Haber cycle may be used to calculate

I. eg

H

II. Mass number

III. Electronegativity

IV. Lattice energy

(1) I (2) I, III (3) II, III (4) I, IV

50. The –bond between Cl–O in ClO4– is formed by

the overlapping of ______ orbitals :-

(1) sp3 – 2p (2) 2p – 3p

(3) 2p – 3d (4) 3p3 – 3d

51. Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) Hardness of water effects soap consumption.

(2) Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of

Ca and Mg.

(3) Permanent hardness is due to soluble

sulphates, chlorides of Ca and Mg.

(4) Permanent hardness can be removed by

boiling watter.

52. The reaction of elemental P4 and aqueous NaOH

gives

(1) PH3, NaH

2PO

2(2) PH

3, Na

3PO

4

(3) NaHPO4, Na

3PO

4(4) Na

3P, Na

3PO

4

53. Which of the following is a pseudohalogen

analogues of inter halogen–

(1) HSCN (2) ICN (3) BrF3(4) C

2N

2

54. The correct order of lattice energy of the

following compounds

(1) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al

2O

3

(2) Al2O

3 > MgBr

2 > CaO > NaCl

(3) MgBr2 > Al

2O

3 > CaO > NaCl

(4) Al2O

3 > CaO > MgBr

2 > NaCl

46. H2O

2 :-

(1) H2SO4

(2) H2O2 (3) (4) H2

O2

47.

(1) SiF

4(2) H

2SiF

6

(3) H2SiF

4(4) H

2SiF

3

48.

(1) LiHCO3 (2) NaHCO3

(3) KHCO3 (4) RbHCO3

49.

I. eg

H

II. III. IV. (1) I (2) I, III (3) II, III (4) I, IV

50. ClO4– Cl–O –______

:-(1) sp3 – 2p (2) 2p – 3p

(3) 2p – 3d (4) 3p3 – 3d

51. :-(1)

(2) Ca Mg

(3) Ca Mg

(4) 52. P

4 NaOH

(1) PH3, NaH

2PO

2(2) PH

3, Na

3PO

4

(3) NaHPO4, Na

3PO

4(4) Na

3P, Na

3PO

4

53. –

(1) HSCN (2) ICN (3) BrF3 (4) C2N2

54.

(1) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al

2O

3

(2) Al2O

3 > MgBr

2 > CaO > NaCl

(3) MgBr2 > Al

2O

3 > CaO > NaCl

(4) Al2O

3 > CaO > MgBr

2 > NaCl

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1001CM303315048

55. In the following reaction, the Cl – P – Cl bond

angles:

5 4PCl PCl Cl

(1) All increase

(2) All stay the same

(3) All decrease

(4) Some increase and some decrease

56. Product formed when calcium carbide reacts with

heavy water :-

(1) CaD2(2) Ca

2D

2O

(3) C2D

2(4) CD

2

57. True acidic anhydride is

(1) CO (2) NO

(3) ClO2

(4) N2O

5

58. The correct order of Ka in aqueous solution at 298

K.

(1) H2O > H

2S > H

2Se > H

2Te

(2) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O

(3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S

(4) None of these

59. Correct order of ionic character

(1) AlCl3 > MgCl

2 > NaCl

(2) MgO > NaCl > CaCl2

(3) RbCl > CsCl > NaCl

(4) CsCl > RbCl > NaCl

60. In order that the diagram below correctly depict

the structure of ICl2– , at what position should the

Cl atoms be drawn ?

I1

4

5

2

3

(1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 4

(3) 2, 3 (4) 4, 5

61. The electronic configuration of Curium

(Atomic number 96) is

(1) [Rn]5f3 6d5 7s2 (2) [Rn] 5f76d2 7s1

(3) [Rn] 5f76d1 7s2 (4) [Rn] 5f8 6d6 7s2

62. Sequence of acidic character is

(1) SO2 > CO

2 > CO > N

2O

5

(2) SO2 > N

2O

5 > CO > CO

2

(3) N2O

5 > SO

2 > CO > CO

2

(4) N2O

5 > SO

2 > CO

2 > CO

55. Cl – P – Cl

5 4PCl PCl Cl

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 56.

:-(1) CaD

2(2) Ca

2D

2O

(3) C2D2 (4) CD2

57. (1) CO (2) NO

(3) ClO2

(4) N2O

5

58. 298 K Ka

(1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te

(2) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O

(3) H2O > H

2Te > H

2Se > H

2S

(4) 59.

(1) AlCl3 > MgCl

2 > NaCl

(2) MgO > NaCl > CaCl2

(3) RbCl > CsCl > NaCl

(4) CsCl > RbCl > NaCl

60. Cl ICl2–

I1

4

5

2

3

(1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 4

(3) 2, 3 (4) 4, 5

61. Curium ( 96) (1) [Rn]5f3 6d5 7s2 (2) [Rn] 5f76d2 7s1

(3) [Rn] 5f76d1 7s2 (4) [Rn] 5f8 6d6 7s2

62. (1) SO

2 > CO

2 > CO > N

2O

5

(2) SO2 > N

2O

5 > CO > CO

2

(3) N2O

5 > SO

2 > CO > CO

2

(4) N2O

5 > SO

2 > CO

2 > CO

H-11/361001CM303315048


63. Which produce alkaline solution when dissolved

in water

(i) Borax (ii) Potash alum

(iii)SO2(iv) SO

2(OH)

2

(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (i)

64. Which of the following have maximum boiling

point?

(1) Acetone (2) Diethyl ether

(3) Methanol (4) Ethanol

65. Choose the molecules in which hybridisation

occurs in the ground state ?

(i) BCl3

(ii) NH3

(iii) PCl3

(iv) BeF2

The correct answer is -

(1) i, ii, iv (2) i, ii, iii

(3) ii, iii (4) iii, iv

66. Among chalcogens, the correct order of amount

of energy released during electron gain

(electron gain enthalpy) is:

(1) S >O > Se > Te

(2) O < S < Se < Te

(3) Te < Se > S > O

(4) O < Te < Se < S

67. The melting point of Zn is lower as compared to

those of the other elements of 3d series because–

(1) the d–orbitals are completely filled

(2) the d–orbitals are partially filled

(3) d–electrons do not participate in metallic

bonding

(4) (1) and (3) both

68. Which of the following acid is normally handled

in metal apparatus made of Cu because it attacks

on glass–

(1) HF (2) HCl

(3) HNO3 (4) Chromic acid

69. Which overlap results in the formation of strongest

bond:

(1) s–s (2) p–p (axial)

(3) s–p (4) p–p(sidewise)

63.

(i) Borax (ii) Potash alum

(iii)SO2 (iv) SO2(OH)2

(1) (i) (iii) (2) (i) (ii)

(3) (i), (ii) (iii) (4) (i)

64.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

65.

(i) BCl3

(ii) NH3

(iii) PCl3

(iv) BeF2

(1) i, ii, iv (2) i, ii, iii

(3) ii, iii (4) iii, iv

66.

(1) S >O > Se > Te

(2) O < S < Se < Te

(3) Te < Se > S > O

(4) O < Te < Se < S

67. Zn 3d

(1) d–

(2) d–

(3) d–

(4) (1) (3)

68.

–

(1) HF (2) HCl

(3) HNO3 (4) Chromic acid

69.

(1) s–s (2) p–p ()

(3) s–p (4) p–p()

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

H-12/36


1001CM303315048

70. IE1 IE

2 IE

3 IE

4 P Q

(IE1 + IE

2) (IE

3 + IE

4 )

(P) 2.45 KJ/mol 8.82 KJ/mol

(Q) 2.85 KJ/mol 6.11 KJ/mol

:(1) P2+ Q2+ (2) P4+ Q4+ (3) P4+ Q4+ (4) (1) (3)

71. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO

2 + Na [B(OH)

4] +H

2O

(1) -1, 2 (2) (3) -1, 2 (4) Na

2HPO

4

72. Cr (1) Cr2+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Cr4+ (4) Cr6+

73.

N = N = N

(1) –1, –1, +1 (2) –1, +1, –1

(3) +1, –1, –1 (4) +1, –1, +1

74. S8

I. P–P

II. III. S sp3 (1) I, III (2) II, III (3) I, II (4) II

75. (Bracket) (1) S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ ()(2) C < N < F < O (2nd )(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl ()(4) Na+ > Mg2+ >Be2+ >Al3+ ()

76. SO2

:-(1) (2) KMnO

4

(3) H2S

(4)

70. The sum of IE1 and IE

2. IE

3 and IE

4 for elements

P and Q are given below

(IE1 + IE

2) (IE

3 + IE

4 )

(P) 2.45 KJ/mol 8.82 KJ/mol

(Q) 2.85 KJ/mol 6.11 KJ/mol

then according to given information the incorrect

statements is/are :

(1) P2+ is more stable than Q2+

(2) P4+ is more stable than Q4+

(3) P4+ is less stable than Q4+

(4) Both (1) & (3)

71. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO

2 + Na [B(OH)

4] +H

2O

How can this reaction is made to proceed in

forward direction?

(1) Addition of cis1, 2 diol

(2) Addition of Borax

(3) Addition of trans-1, 2 diol

(4) Addition of Na2HPO

4

72. The most stable oxidation state of Cr in aq.

medium is –

(1) Cr2+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Cr4+ (4) Cr6+

73. In the following electron dot structure, correct

calculation of the formal charge from left to right

nitrogen atom is

N = N = N

(1) –1, –1, +1 (2) –1, +1, –1

(3) +1, –1, –1 (4) +1, –1, +1

74. What is true about S8 molecule ?

I. There is no P–P

bonds present in the molecule

II. There are eight lone pair of electronsIII. Each S atom is sp3 hybridised

(1) I, III (2) II, III (3) I, II (4) only II

75. Which of the following order is correct for the

property mentioned in brackets?

(1) S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ (Ionisation energy)

(2) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy)(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (electronegativity)

(4) Na+ > Mg2+ >Be2+ >Al3+ (Ionic radius)76. SO

2 is a strong reducing agent however it can also

act as an oxidising agent. Which of the followingshows its oxidising nature :-(1) Bleaching action(2) Decolourising of acidified KMnO

4 solution

(3) Reaction with H2S to give sulphur

(4) Tuming acidified dichromate paper green

H-13/361001CM303315048


77. The yellow colour of chromates changes to orange

on acidification due to formation of–

(1) Cr3+ (2) Cr2O

3(3) Cr

2O

72– (4) CrO

4–

78. In 2O , O

2 and 2

2O , the total number of

antibonding electrons respectively are

(1) 7, 6, 8 (2) 1, 0, 2

(3) 6, 6, 6 (4) 8, 6, 8

79. The density of water is greater than that of ice

because of

(1) dipole-dipole interaction

(2) hydrogen bond forming open cage structure

in ice

(3) dipole-induced dipole interaction

(4) covalent bond formation

80. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the

fact that :

(1) Zr & Y have about the same radius

(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state

(3) Zr and Hf have almost the same radius

(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

81. When H2SO

4 react with PCl

5 the obtained product

is/are

(1) SO2Cl

2(2) POCl

3

(3) HCl (4) All of these

82. Group 13 elements show +1 and +3 oxidation

states. Relative stability of +3 oxidation state may

be given as

(1) Tl3+ > In3+ > Ga3+ > Al3+ > B3+

(2) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+

(3) Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+ > B3+

(4) Al3+ > B3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+

83. Compound X is anhydride of sulphuric acid. The

number of – bonds and the number of – bonds

present in X are respectively

(1) 3, 3 (2) 4, 2 (3) 2, 4 (4) 4, 3

84. The hybridization of carbon involved in the

C2–C

3 single bond in the molecule CHC–CH=CH

2 is :

(1) sp3–sp2 (2) sp3–sp3

(3) sp2–sp (4) sp2–sp2

85. Which one of the following orders represents the

correct sequence of increasing basic nature of

given oxides ?

(1) Na2O < K

2O < MgO < Al

2O

3

(2) K2O < Na

2O < Al

2O

3 < MgO

(3) Al2O

3 < MgO < Na

2O < K

2O

(4) MgO < K2O < Al

2O

3 < Na

2O

77. (1) Cr3+ (2) Cr

2O

3(3) Cr

2O

72– (4) CrO

4–

78.2O , O

2 2

2O

(1) 7, 6, 8 (2) 1, 0, 2

(3) 6, 6, 6 (4) 8, 6, 8

79.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 80. (lanthanide)

:(1) Zr Y (2) Zr Nb (3) Zr Hf (4) Zr Zn

81. H2SO

4 PCl

5

(1) SO

2Cl

2(2) POCl

3

(3) HCl (4) 82. 13 +1 +3

+3 (1) Tl3+ > In3+ > Ga3+ > Al3+ > B3+

(2) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+

(3) Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+ > B3+

(4) Al3+ > B3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+

83. X (anhydride) X

(1) 3, 3 (2) 4, 2 (3) 2, 4 (4) 4, 3

84. CH C–CH=CH2 C

2-C

3

(1) sp3–sp2 (2) sp3–sp3

(3) sp2–sp (4) sp2–sp2

85. (1) Na

2O < K

2O < MgO < Al

2O

3

(2) K2O < Na

2O < Al

2O

3 < MgO

(3) Al2O

3 < MgO < Na

2O < K

2O

(4) MgO < K2O < Al

2O

3 < Na

2O

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1001CM303315048

86. The following compounds have been arranged in

order of their increasing thermal stabilities.

Identify the correct order.

I. K2CO

3II. MgCO

3

III. CaCO3

IV. BeCO3

(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I

(3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < III < I

87. Which of the following compounds is not matched

correctly with its structure ?

(1)

N

B

N

B

B

N

H

H

H

H

H

H

– Borazine

(2)H

H

H

H

B

H

H

B – Diborane

(3)Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

AlCl

Al

Cl – Aluminium chloride

(4)Cl

Cl

B — Cl – Boron trichloride

88. The bond angle and % d-character in S-atom in

SF6 are

(1) 120°, 20% (2) 90°, 33%

(3) 105°, 25% (4) 90°, 25%

89. The correct sequence of bond order is:

(1) 2 2 2O O O (2) 2 2 2O O O

(3) 2 2 2O O O (4) 2 2 2O O O

90. The process requiring absorption of energy is :

(1) N N

(2) F F

(3) Cl Cl

(4) H H

86.

I. K2CO

3II. MgCO

3

III. CaCO3

IV. BeCO3

(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I

(3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < III < I

87.

(1)

N

B

N

B

B

N

H

H

H

H

H

H

– Borazine

(2)H

H

H

H

B

H

H

B – Diborane

(3)Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

AlCl

Al

Cl –Aluminium chloride

(4)Cl

Cl

B — Cl – Boron trichloride

88. S- d-% SF6

(1) 120°, 20% (2) 90°, 33%

(3) 105°, 25% (4) 90°, 25%

89. :

(1) 2 2 2O O O (2) 2 2 2O O O

(3) 2 2 2O O O (4) 2 2 2O O O

90. (absorption) :

(1) N N

(2) F F

(3) Cl Cl

(4) H H

H-15/361001CM303315048


91. On the basis of following given diagram, select

correct option

A

BC

D

E

F

Synapse comprises –

(1) B, D and E (2) A, C and D

(3) B, C and E (4) C, D and E

92. Find out the correct matching–

(1) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children

causes cretinism

(2) Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which

promotes movement of calcium ion from

blood into bones during calcifications

(3) Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after

puberty

(4) Pancreas – Delta cells of islets of Langerhans

secrete a hormone which stimulates

glycogenolysis in liver.

93. Read the following statements carefully and

choose the correct answer from the options given

below.

(A) Digestion of biomacromolecules takes place

in jejunum and ileum of small intestine.

(B) The adrenal medulla contains centres which

control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes

and gastric secretions.

(C) Due to cancer of the thyroid gland or due to

development of nodules of the thyroid glands,

the rate of synthesis and secretion of the

thyroid hormones is increased to abnormal

high levels leading to a condition called

hyperthyroidism which adversely affects the

body physiology.

(D) All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae.

(1) A and B are correct, C, D are incorrect

(2) C is correct, A, B and D are incorrect

(3) A and D are correct, B and C are incorrect

(4) A and B are incorrect, C and D are correct

91.

A

BC

D

E

F

(1) B, D E (2) A, C D

(3) B, C E (4) C, D E

92. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

93. (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A B C D

(2) C A, B D

(3) A D , B C

(4) A B , C D

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1001CM303315048

94. In which condition, oxygen dissociation curve of

haemoglobin shift to right of normal curve?

(1) Decrease in pH

(2) Decrease in CO2 concentration

(3) Decrease in acidity

(4) Decrease in temperature

95. Which one of the following statements in regard

to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

(1) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of

reabsorbing 3HCO .

(2) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate

is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.

(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is

impermeable to electrolytes.

(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle is

impermeable to water.

96. Match the Columns

A Thiamine 1 Pellagra

B Riboflavin 2 Beri-Beri

C Niacine 3 Cheilosis

D Folic acid 4Megaloblastic

anaemia

Vitamin Deficiency Diseases

(1) ABCD/2341 (2) ABCD/2314

(3) ABCD/2134 (4) ABCD/2143

97. In circulatory system, valves are found in

(1) All arteries & vein

(2) Heart & veins

(3) Only in veins

(4) Only in heart

98. Which of these is the primary component of the

phloem sap?

(1) Fructose

(2) Sucrose

(3) Glucose

(4) Sulphuric Acid

99. During fermentation, the immediate fate of the

electrons in NADH is that they are :-

(1) transferred to the electron transport chain.

(2) transferred to an organic molecule.

(3) transferred to O2

(4) used to make CO2

94. (1) pH (2) CO

2

(3) (4)

95.

(1) 3HCO

(2) 99

(3)

(4)

96.

A Fkkbfeu 1 iSysxzk

B jkbcks¶ysfou 2 csjh& csjh

C fu;kflu 3 fpyksfll

D Qksfyd vEy 4esXkkyksCykfLVd

jDrkYirk

foVkfeu viw.kZrk jksx

(1) ABCD/2341 (2) ABCD/2314

(3) ABCD/2134 (4) ABCD/2143

97.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

98.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

99. NADH

(1)

(2)

(3) O2

(4) CO2

H-17/361001CM303315048


100. Chemiosmotic hypothesis excludes

(1) Splitting of water molecules on inner site of

membrane.

(2) Protons & hydrogen that are produced by

splitting of water accumulate within Lumen

of thylakoids.

(3) As electrons moves through photosystem,

electrons are transports across the membrane.

(4) NADP reductase enzyme is located on stroma

side of membrane.

101. How many statement/s is/are incorrect?

(i) Cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract

of nerve fibres called corpus callosum.

(ii) Cerebral cortex is referred to as a white matter

due to its whitish appearance.

(iii) The thalamus contains a number of centres

which control body temperature, urge for

eating and drinking including respiratory and

cardiovascular reflexes.

(iv) Cerebellar aqueduct canal passess through the

mid brain.

(v) The medulla contains centre for gastric secretion.

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

102. Secretion of mineralocorticoids is under control

of–

(1) FSH (2) TSH

(3) ADH (4) ACTH

103. Foramen of Monro provides a passage connecting

(1) Brain and spinal cord

(2) Lateral ventricles with third ventricles in brain

(3) Fourth ventricles with optic ventricle

(4) Middle ear with pharynx

104. What is vital capacity of our lungs?

(1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory

reserve volume.

(2) Total lung capacity minus residual volume.

(3) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume.

(4) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve

volume.

100. Chemiosmotic (1) Thylacoid

(2) Protons hydrogen thylakoids Lumen

(3) Electrons photosystem Thylakoid

(4) NADP reductase enzyme

101.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102. (1) FSH (2) TSH

(3) ADH (4) ACTH

103. (1) (2) (3) IV (4)

104. (1)

(2) (3) (4)

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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1001CM303315048

105. Which one of the following correctly explains the

function of a specific part of a human nephron?

(1) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for

the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule.

(2) Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major

substances from the glomerular filtrate.

(3) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of

K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries.

(4) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away

from the glomerulus towards renal vein.

106. Which of the following nutrients requires sodium

ions during their absorption

(1) Glucose and Fructose

(2) Fructose and Fatty acids

(3) Glucose and Fat

(4) All of the above

107. Which of the following has lowest action

potential?

(1) S.A. node

(2) Purkinje fibre

(3) Bundle of His

(4) A-V node

108. Which force pushes water into the xylem as

osmosis moves water into the root?

(1) Water stress

(2) Atmospheric pressure

(3) Root pressure

(4) Pulling pressure

109. Flowering in pinapples is promoted by

(1) Auxins (2) Cytokinin

(3) Gibberellin (4) ABA

110. ______ are organic compounds that are tightly

bound to the apoenzyme.

(1) Apoenzyme (2) Coenzymes

(3) Prosthetic group (4) Cofactors

111. Sequence of ear ossicles from fenestra ovalis to

tympanum–

(1) Malleus, Incus and Stapes

(2) Malleus, Stapes and Incus

(3) Stapes, Incus and Malleus

(4) Stapes, Malleus and Incus

112. Which of the following hormones influences the

production of oestrogen at puberty–

(1) FSH and LH (2) ACTH

(3) TSH (4) GH

105. (1)

(2)

(3) K+

(4)

106. (1) (2) (3) (4)

107. (1) (2) (3) (4) (

108. (1) (2) (3) (4)

109. (1) (2) (3) (4) ABA

110. (1) Apoenzyme (2) Coenzymes

(3) Prosthetic group (4) Cofactors

111. (1) (2) (3) (4)

112. (1) FSH LH (2) ACTH

(3) TSH (4) GH

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113. Which one of the following is the correct

difference between rod cells and cone cells of our

retina?

Rod cells Cone cells

(1) Visual

activity

Very low Low

(2) Visual

pigment

contained

Iodopsin Rhodopsin

(3) Overall

function

Vision in poor

light

Colour vision

and detailed

vision in

bright light

(4) Distribution More

concentrated in

centre of retina

Evenly

distributed all

over retina

114. Read the following events occured during muscle

contraction, arrange them in correct sequence and

select the correct option given below-

(A) Hydrolysis of ATP and formation of cross bridge

(B) During power stroke, thin filaments moves

towards the centre of A band.

(C) Release of Acetylcholine

(D) Generation of action potential in sarcolemna

(E) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum,

increases sarcoplasmic Ca+2 level

(F) Binding of Ca+2 with troponin and masking

activities removed.

(1) b – a – c – d – e – f (2) c – d – e – f – a – b

(3) c – d – e – f – b – a (4) c – d – e – a – b – f

115. Which one of the following statements is correct

with respect to kidney function regulation?

(1) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH

release is suppressed.

(2) Exposure to cold temperature of body

stimulates release of ADH.

(3) An increase in glomerular blood flow

stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.

(4) During summer when body loses lot of water

by evaporation, the release of ADH is

suppressed.

113.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

114.

(A) ATP

(B) A-band

(C)

(D)

(E) Ca+2 Ca+2

(F) Ca+2

(1) b – a – c – d – e – f (2) c – d – e – f – a – b

(3) c – d – e – f – b – a (4) c – d – e – a – b – f

115. (1) ADH

(2) ADH

(3) II

(4) ADH

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116. A. PEM are widespread in South and South East

Asia, South Africa and West and Central America.

B.Both disorder Marasmas and K washiorkar can

be found in children, if mother’s milk is not

available.

(1) Only A correct

(2) Only B correct

(3) Both correct

(4) Both wrong

117. Find out A, B and C respectively in given figure–

AB

C

(1) Alveolar wall, Basement substance and Red

blood cell

(2) Basement substance, Alveolar wall and red

blood cell

(3) Red blood cell, Basement substance and

Alveolar wall

(4) Red blood cell, Alveolar wall and Basement

substance

118. What type of facilitated diffusion is represented

in the following diagram?

Carrier protein

Membrane

A

B

(1) Uniport (2) Antiport

(3) Symport (4) Simple diffusion

119. In the synthesis of one mole of glucose by C3 and

C4 plants, the number of moles of ATP used by

C3 and C

4 plants is respectively:

(1) 15 and 30 (2) 10 and 20

(3) 18 and 30 (4) 15 and 20

116. A. PEM

B.

(1) A

(2) B

(3)

(4)

117. A, B C

AB

C

(1)

(2) ,

(3)

(4)

118.

Carrier protein

Membrane

A

B

(1) (2) (3) (4)

119. C3 C

4

ATP

(1) 15 30 (2) 10 20

(3) 18 30 (4) 15 20

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120. Figure shows the effect of light on the rate of

photosynthesis based on the figure select the

correct option

I. A - represent condition when light is limiting.

II. D - represents light saturation point.

III. B - represents condition when light is optimum.

(1) I and II (2) II and III

(3) I and III (4) I, II and III

121. The inner layer of eye is retina and it contains three

layers of cells from outside to inside–

(1) Ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor

cells.

(2) Bipolar cells, ganglion cells and photoreceptor

cell.

(3) Photoreceptor cell, bipolar cells and ganglion

cells.

(4) Photoreceptor cell, ganglion cells and bipolar

cells.

122. In the figure given below A, B, C and D are–

A

B

CD

(1) Ilium, Patella, Pubis, Ischium

(2) Patella, Ilium, Pubis, Ischium

(3) Pubis, Ilium, Patella, Ischium

(4) Ischium, Ilium, Pubis, Patella

120.

I. A - II. D - saturation point III. B - (1) I II (2) II III(3) I III (4) I, II III

121. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

122. A, B, C D

A

B

CD

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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123. Cornea transplant in human is almost never

rejected. This is because

(1) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria

(2) It has no blood supply

(3) It is composed of enucleated cells

(4) It is a non-living layer

124. Which of the following is correct matching pair

1 Fibrous Joint p Between atlas and axis

2Cartilagenous

Jointq

Between Mandible and

Maxilla

3 Gliding Joint r Between the carpals

4 Saddle Joint sBetween Pectoral girdle

and humerus

Type of Joints Location

125. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes

is found in

(1) Reptiles and Bird

(2) Birds and Annelids

(3) Amphibians and Reptiles

(4) Insects and Amphibians

126. Read the following statements

(a) Albumin primarily are involved in osmotic

balance.

(b) Globulin help in osmotic balance.

(c) Serum is plasma without clotting factors.

(d) Clotting factors of blood are in active

form.

(e) Graveyard of RBC is spleen.

Correct option is :

(1) a, d (2) b,c, and d

(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e

127. Which condition is not required for right shift of

oxygen dissociation curve?

(1) High pO2 at tissue level

(2) High pCO2 at tissue level

(3) High pH at tissue level

(4) High temperature at tissue level

128. Connecting link between respiration (citric acid

cycle) and protein synthesis is

(1) -ketoglutaric acid

(2) Citric acid

(3) Succinic acid

(4) Fumaric acid

123.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

124.

1 rarqe; laf/k p ,Vyl vkSj v{kh; dk e/;

2 mikfLFky laf/k q esafMcy vkSj eSfDlyk ds e/;

3 foliZ.k laf/k+ r dkiZYl ds e/;

4 lSMy laf/k s va'k es[kyk vkSj áwejl ds e/;

laf/k dk izdkj LFkku

125. (1) (2) (3) (4)

126. (a) Albumin

(b) Globulin (c)

(d) (e)

:

(1) a, d (2) b,c, d(3) b, c e (4) a,c e

127. (1) pO2

(2) pCO2

(3) pH

(4) 128.

(1) -(2) (3) (4)

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129. Match the following :

A Priestley i Role of light in

photosynthesis

B Jan

ingenhoustz

ii Action spectrum

C Englemann iii Role of air in

photosynthesis

D Van Niel iv Role of suitable

oxidisable compound

Column-I Column-II

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

130. Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

A. Sulphur i. Chlorophyll

B. Zinc ii. Nitrogenase

C. Magnesium iii. Methionine

D. Molybdenum iv. Auxin

(1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv

(2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii

(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii

(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i

131. In the wall of alimentary canal, the muscularis is

formed by

(1) Smooth muscles usually arranged into an

outer circular and inner longitudinal layer

(2) Smooth muscles usually arranged into an

inner circular and outer longitudinal layer

(3) Striated muscles usually arranged into an outer

circular and inner longitudinal layer

(4) Striated muscles usually arranged into an inner

circular and outer longitudinal layer

132. Mark the incorrect statement–

(1) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder

affecting neuromuscular junctions leading to

fatigue, weakness and paralysis of skeletal

muscle.

(2) Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degenration

of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder.

(3) Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles due to low

Na+ in sarcoplasm

(4) Gout inflammation of joints due to

accumulation of uric acid crystal

129. :

A i

B ii

C iii

D iv

-I -II

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

130.

I II

A i

B ii

C iii

D iv

(1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv

(2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii

(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii

(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i

131. (muscularis) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

132. (1)

(2)

(3) Na+

(4)

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133. Given below is diagrammatic cross section of a

single loop of human cochlea.

Which one of the following options correctly

represents the names of three different parts?

(1) B-Tectorial membrane, C-Perilymph,

D-Secretory cells

(2) C-Endolymph, D-Sensory hair cells, A-Serum

(3) D-Sensory hair cells, A-Endolymph,

B-Tectorial membrane

(4) A-Perilymph, B-Tectorial membrane,

C-Endolymph

134. Mandible bone of lower jaw articulated with

which of the following cranial bone ?

(1) Spnenoid

(2) Temporal bone

(3) Occipital bone

(4) Both Temporal and Occipital

135. Identify the correct match of source of gland and

its secretion -

Source gland

Hormone Function

(1) Anterior pituitary

Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child

birth(2) Posterior

Pituitary

Vasopressin Stimulates reabsorption

of water in the distal tubules in the nephron

(3) Corpus luteum

Estrogen Supports pregnancy

(4) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level

133.

(1) B- C- D-

(2) C-D-

A-

(3) D- A- B-

(4) A-B- C-

134.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135.

1

2

3

4

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136. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) Complex QRS - ventricular systole

(b) Distance between two P-wave increases in

tachycardia condition.

(c) The end of the T-wave marks the end of

ventricular systole.

(d) Diastolic pressure minus systolic pressure is

said to be pulse pressure.

(1) a,b,c (2) a,c,d

(3) b,d (4) only a

137. Consider the given statements–

(a) Rhodopsin is also called as visual purple.

(b) Fovea is a point of visual acuity.

(c) Human eyes photo pigments is composed of

opsin and retinal.

(d) Vitreous chamber is filled by transparent gel.

How many above statement is/are correct–

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

138. Identify the product marked A and B in the

following pathway

3–Phosphoglyceric acid

(A) Pyruvate

NAD

NADH + H

(B)

CO2

(1) (A) 2-Phosphoglycerate; (B) Acetyl Co-A

(2) (A) PEP; (B) Lactic acid

(3) (A) PEP; (B) Ethyl alcohol

(4) (A) PEP; (B) Acetly Co-A product

136. ECG

?

(a) QRS -

(b) P-wave

(c) T-

(d)

(pulse pressure)

(1) a,b,c (2) a,c,d

(3) b,d (4) a

137.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

138. (A) (B)

3–

(A)

NAD

NADH + H

(B)

CO2

(1) (A) 2-; (B) Co-A

(2) (A) PEP; (B)

(3) (A) PEP; (B)

(4) (A) PEP; (B) Co-A

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139. In the given diagram if TP of cell 'B' increases to 18,

what would be the net direction of water movement?

OP = 12TP = 6

E

OP = 20TP = 14

BOP = 15TP = 9

D

OP = 8TP = 2

A

OP = 6TP = 0

C

(1) A to B and B to E (2) E to B and A

(3) B to E and E to A (4) B to E and A

140. Development is considered as the sum of

(1) Cell division and cell elongation

(2) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis

(3) Growth and differentiation

(4) Morphogenesis

141. Which of the following correctly represent the

different anatomical regions of human stomach

A

B

C

D

E

(1) A-Trachea, B-Cardiac, C-Pyloric,

D-Fundus, E-Duodenum

(2) A-Foodpipe, B-Fundus, C-Cardiac,

D-Pyloric, E-Duodenum

(3) A-Oesophagus, B-Cardiac, C-Fundus,

D-Pyloric, E-Duodenum

(4) A-Oesophagus, B-Pyloric, C-Cardiac,

D-Duodenum, E-Fundus

142. Passage of ova through female reproductive tract

is facilitated mainly by–

(1) Amoeboid movement

(2) Ciliary movement

(3) Muscular movement only

(4) Pseudopodial movement

139. B TP 18 ?

OP = 12TP = 6

E

OP = 20TP = 14

BOP = 15TP = 9

D

OP = 8TP = 2

A

OP = 6TP = 0

C

(1) A B B E (2) E B A(3) B E E A (4) B E A

140. (1) (2) (3) (4)

141.

A

B

C

D

E

(1) A-, B-, C-, D-,

E-

(2) A-, B-, C-, D-,

E-

(3) A-, B-, C-, D-,

E-

(4) A-, B-, C-, D-,E-

142.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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143. People living at sea level have around 5 million

RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas

those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have

around 8 million. This is because at high altitude

(1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and

more oxygen is available.

(2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more

RBCs are needed to absorb the required

amount of O2 to survive.

(3) There is more UV radiation which enhances

RBC production.

(4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more

RBCs are formed.

144. Ultrafiltration occurs when

(1) Hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure.

(2) Osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure.

(3) Capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds

glomerular hydrostatic pressure.

(4) Blood Colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular

pressure remain lesser than glomerular

hydrostatic pressure.

145. A health disorder that results from the deficiency

of thyroxine in adults and characterised (i) a low

metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight and

(iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is

(1) simple goitre (2) myxoderma

(3) cretinism (4) hyperthyroidism

146. Read the following ?

(a) Frog (i) Double circulation

(b) Pigeon (ii) Single circulation

(c) Fish (iii) Incomplete double circulation

(d) Human

(A) c ii (B) d i, b i

(C) a iii, b ii (D) c i

Which of the following is true?

(1) A and C (2) A and B

(3) B and C (4) Only B

147. Plants require iron and magnesium for–

(1) Translocation of carbohydrates

(2) Opening and closing of stomata

(3) Synthesis of chlorophyll

(4) Energy transfer during photosynthesis and

respiration

143. 50 5400 80 (1)

(2) O2

O2

(3) UV

(4)

144. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

145. (i) , (ii) (iii) (1) (2) (3) (4)

146. ?

(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (A) c ii (B) d i, b i

(C) a iii, b ii (D) c i

(1) A C (2) A B(3) B C (4) B

147. (1) (2) (3) (4)

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148. Which of the following synthetic product is used

commercially for fruits ripening ?

(1) IBA

(2) NAA

(3) BAP

(4) Ethephon

149. In the above scheme of nitrogen metabolism

number 1 and 2, stand for :

Decaying biomass

NH3 NO2

–

NO3

–

1 2

(1) Nitrogen fixation and nitrification respectively.

(2) Nitrification and ammonification respectively.

(3) Ammonification and nitrogen fixation

respectively.

(4) Ammonification and nitrification respectively.

150. How many oxygen atoms are required to oxidise

one mole of pyruvic acid in mitochondria?

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Five (4) Six

151. Read the following statements (A to D)–

(A) Principal organ of digestion and absorption

of nutrients is small intestine

(B) Absorption of water, some minerals and drugs

takes place in large intestine

(C) Absorption of water, simple sugars, small fatty

acids and alcohol takes place in stomach

(D) Certain drugs come in contact with the mucosa

of oral cavity are absorbed into blood capillaries

How many statements are correct–

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) four

152. Mark the feature which is not associated with

white muscle fibres?

(1) Lighter in colour

(2) These muscles have a fast rate of contraction

but for a short period

(3) They depend mainly on glycolysis for energy

production and soon get fatigued

(4) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum compared to red

muscle fibres

148.

(1) (IBA)

(2) (NAA)

(3) (BAP)

(4) (Ethephon)

149. 1 2

:

NH3 NO2

–

NO3

–

1 2

(1) N2

(2)

(3) N2

(4)

150.

O2

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

151. (A D)–

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

152.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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153. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d)

and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal

human adult.

Respiratory

Volumes

a. Residual volume 2500 mL

b. Vital capacity 3500 mL

c. Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL

d. Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL

Respiratory Capacities

Which one of the following is the correct matching

of two capacities and volumes?

(1) c. 1200 mL d. 2500 mL(2) d. 3500 mL a. 1200 mL

(3) a. 4500 mL b. 3500 mL(4) b. 2500 mL c. 4500 mL

154. Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism

of urine formation in man

(1) The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml

per minute.

(2) The ultrafiltration is opposed by the colloidal

osmotic pressure of plasma.

(3) Tubular secretion takes place in the PCT.

(4) The counter current system contribute in

diluting the urine.

155. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but

not vice versa.

(2) Neurons regulate endocrine activity but not

vice versa.

(3) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and

nervous system regulates endocrine glands.

(4) Neither hormones control neural activity nor

the neurons control endocrine activity.

156. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) The walls of ventricle are much thinner than

that of Atria.

(2) Heart is Autoregulated and Auto excitable.

(3) Cardiac output = stroke volume Blood pressure.

(4) Heart sound dup is produced by closing of

A-V valve.

153. (a-d)

a. 2500 mL

b. 3500 mL

c.

1200 mL

d. 4500 mL

(1) c. 1200 mL d. 2500 mL(2) d. 3500 mL a. 1200 mL

(3) a. 4500 mL b. 3500 mL(4) b. 2500 mL c. 4500 mL

154.

(1) 125 ml

(2)

(3) PCT

(4)

155. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

156.

(1)

(2)

(3) ×

(4) A-V

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1001CM303315048

157. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for

photosynthesis?

(1) Sunlight

(2) Oxygen

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Water

158. What type of growth is represented in the follow-

ing diagram ?

(1) Arithmetic

(2) Geometric

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

159. Which statement is wrong ?

(1) Anaerobic respiration takes place in the cytoplasm.

(2) All the enzymes which are involved in the

Krebs cycle are present in the matrix.

(3) ATPase enzyme is present in the inner

mitochondrial membrane.

(4) Maximum ATP formation takes place in the

matrix.

160. During translocation of food :-

(1) ATP required during both loading and

unloading.

(2) ATP required only during loading

(3) ATP required only during unloading

(4) ATP release during unloading

157.

(1)

(2)

(3) CO2

(4)

158.

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) (2)

(4)

159. ?

(1)

(2)

(3) ATPase

(4) ATP matrix

160. :-

(1) ATP

(2) ATP

(3) ATP

(4) ATP

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161. Which of the following is the correct sequence of

digestion and absorption of fats–

(1) Fats bile salts

Emulsified fat bile salts

fatty acid and glycerol bile pigments

Chylo micron micelle Lymph capllaries

(2) Fats bile pigments Emulsified fat

bile salts fatty acid and glycerol

bile salts micelle Chylo micron

Blood capllaries

(3) Fats bile pigments Emulsified fat

Lipase fatty acid and glycerol

bile pigments micelle Chylo micron

Blood capllaries

(4) Fats bile salts

Emulsified fat Lipase

fatty acid and glycerol bile salts micelle

Chylo micron Lymph capllaries

162. Select the answer with correct matching of the

structure, its location and function.

Structure Location Function(1) Blind spot Near the place

where optic nerve leaves the eye

Rods and cones

are present but inactive here

(2) Eustachian

tube

Anterior part of

internal ear

Equalizes air

pressure on either sides of tympanic

membrane

(3) Cere-bellum

Mid brain Controls respiration and gastric secretion

(4) Hypo-thalamus

Fore brain Controls body temperature, urge

for eating and drinking

161.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

162.

lajpuk fLFkfr dk;Z(1) va/k fcanq ml LFkku ds lehi

tgk¡ n`f"V raf=kdk vka[k ls ckgj vkrh gSA

'kykdk,sa ,oa 'kadq gksrs gS ijarq ;gk¡ ij fuf"Ø; gSA

(2) ;wLVsf'k;u ufydk

var%d.kZ dk vxz Hkkx d.kZZiV f>Yyh ds nksuksa vksj ok;q nkc dks leku cuk;s j[kuk

(3) vuqefLr"d e/; efLr"d 'olu rFkk vkek'k;h L=kkoksa dk fu;a=k.k

(4) gkbiksFkSysel vxz efLr"d 'kjhj rkieku rFkk [kkus ihus dh mRrstuk dk fu;a=k.k

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163. Mammalian lungs contain an enormous number

of minute alveoli. This is to allow

(1) More space for increasing the total volume of

inspired air.

(2) More surface area for diffusion of gases.

(3) More spongy texture for keeping lungs in

proper shape.

(4) More nerve supply to keep, the organs working

more efficiently.

164. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline

drip because

(1) Cl– ions are important component of blood plasma.

(2) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body.

(3) Na+ ions are important in transport of

substances across membrane.

(4) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in

stomach for digestion.

165. Hormones involves in carbohydrate metabolism are

(1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathomone.

(2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and

glucocorticoids.

(3) Insulin, glucagon, glucocorticoid and calcitonin.

(4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin.

166. Which of the following is correct regarding

cardiac cycle?

(1) Atrial systole and ventricular diastole is

coincide for 0.3 sec.

(2) Atrial distole and ventricular systole coincide

for 0.3 sec.

(3) During joint diastole, all valves of heart is

closed.

(4) Rapid filling of blood in to ventricle is last

phase of joint diastole.

167. The micronutrient used for the synthesis of IAA

is

(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Mn

168. What is not correct about Kreb's cycle?

(1) ATP/GTP is formed

(2) Two decarboxylations steps

(3) Acetyl CoA combines with OAA

(4) First compound has 3 carbons

163.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

164.

(1) Cl– (2) Na+

(3) Na+

(4) Cl– HCl

165.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

166.

(1) 0.3

(2) 0.3

(3)

(4)

167. IAA

(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Mn

168.

(1) ATP/GTP

(2) decarboxylation)

(3) , OAA

(4) 3

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169. The inhibitors which react with protein side chain,

can not stop...........

(1) Diffusion

(2) Facilitated Diffusion

(3) Active transport

(4) Symport

170. Law of limiting factor was given by

(1) Liebig

(2) Blackman

(3) Calvin

(4) Arnon

171. Hormone useful in suppressing allergies,

rheumatoid arthritis and tissue inflammation is–

(1) Mineralocorticoid

(2) Glucocorticoid

(3) Thyroxine

(4) Adrenaline

172. When a neuron is stimulated to generate nerve

impulse, the electrical potential on the inside of

the nerve membrane changes

(1) From negative to positive and remains positive

(2) From negative to positive and restore to negative

(3) From positive to negative and remains negative

(4) From positive to negative and back to positive

173. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage

in man?

(1) Nasal cavity pharynx trachea larynx

bronchi bronchioles alveoli

(2) Nasal cavity pharynx larynx trachea


(3) Nasal cavity larynx pharynx trachea


(4) Nasal cavity larynx bronchi pharynx

trachea bronchioles alveoli

174. Compounds having a role in mechanism of

concentration of the filtrate are :-

(1) KCl and Urea

(2) NaHCO3 and Urea

(3) NaCl and Urea

(4) All of the above

169.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

170.

(1) Liebig

(2) Blackman

(3) Calvin

(4) Arnon

171.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

172.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

173.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

174.

:-

(1) KCl

(2) NaHCO3

(3) NaCl

(4)

H-34/36


1001CM303315048

175. Identify 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively in the given structure

of a section of small intestinal mucosa showing villi

12

3

456

(1) Lacteal, villi, artery, vein

(2) Lacteal, capillaries, artery, vein

(3) Capillaries, lacteal, artery, vein

(4) Lacteal, capillaries, artery, crypt

176. What is the function of platelets and RBC

respectively?

(1) Immunity and O2 transport

(2) Clotting and Hb formation

(3) Clotting and O2 transport

(4) O2 transport & clotting

177. How many ATP are required in biological nitro-

gen fixation of 1 molecule of NH3?

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 16 (4) 12

178. What is the correct sequence of following events ?

(a) Plasmatic growth

(b) Differentiation

(c) Senescence

(1) (a) – (b) – (c)

(2) (b) – (c) – (a)

(3) (c) – (a) – (b)

(4) (c) – (b) – (a)

175.

2, 3, 4 5

12

3

456

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

176. PlateletsRBC ()

(1) O2

(2) Hb

(3) O2

(4) O2

177.

ATP

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 16 (4) 12

178.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) (a) – (b) – (c)

(2) (b) – (c) – (a)

(3) (c) – (a) – (b)

(4) (c) – (b) – (a)

H-35/361001CM303315048


179. A living organism growing in a natural

environment, shows which type of curve ?

(1)

Time

Hei

gh

t o

f P

lan

t

(2)

Time

Stationary Phase

Log PhaseHei

ght

of

Pla

nt

(3)

Time

Stationary Phase

Lag PhaseSiz

e w

eig

ht o

f P

lan

t

(4) Both (1) & (3)

180. EMP pathway

(1) Is energy dependent process

(2) Is reducing

(3) Named as Ernst Haeckel, Mayerhalf & J. Parnas

(4) Is pathway of C4

cycle

179.

(1)

Time

Hei

gh

t o

f P

lan

t

(2)

Time

Stationary Phase

Log PhaseHei

ght

of

Pla

nt

(3)

Time

Stationary Phase

Lag PhaseSiz

e w

eig

ht o

f P

lan

t

(4) Both (1) & (3)

180. EMP pathway

(1)

(2) (3) Named as Ernst Haeckel, Mayerhalf & J. Parnas

(4) C4

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

H-36/36


1001CM303315048

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

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