Chapter 1 - Introduction to Windows Server 2003

1.What is the name of the first domain installed within the Active Directory database?Answer: Forest root domain

2.Assuming a user name of John Doe with a user account located in the Sales OU of the domain Dovercorp.net, what would be the object’s distinguished name?Answer: CN=John Doe, OU=Sales, DC=Dovercorp, DC=NET

3.In Windows Server 2003, a two-way, transitive trust relationship is maintained between which of the following?Answer: Child and parent domains

4.What is the absolute minimum RAM requirement for Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition?Answer: 128MB

5.Which of the following are not supported features or configurations for a Windows Server 2003, Web Edition system? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Domain controller

6.Which edition of Windows Server 2003 cannot be configured as an Active Directory domain controller?Answer: Windows Server 2003 Web Edition

7.How often does Active Directory replication between sites take place by default?Answer: Every 3 hours

8.What is the recommended minimum CPU speed for Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition?Answer: 733MHz

9.How many seconds after a change notification process is triggered does replication between domain controllers occur?Answer: 15

10.The global address list (GAL) for Exchange 2000 e-mail systems is stored on which of the following systems?Answer: Global catalog server

11.Which group has administrative privileges in all forest domains by default but exists within the forest root domain only?Answer: Enterprise Admins

12.Which of the following domain controllers will become global catalog servers by default?Answer: First domain controller in the forest root domain

13.If a customer network needs to support Windows Server 2003 systems configured in a 4-node cluster, which edition(s) of Windows Server 2003 could be used?Answer: Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition, Windows Server 2003 Datacenter Edition

14.Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded to Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition?Answer: Windows 2000 Server, Windows NT Server 4.0 (SP5)

15.Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded to Windows Server 2003, Web Edition?Answer: None of the above

16.Which of the following Windows Server 2003 editions are capable of running on Itanium-based systems?Answer: Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition, Windows Server 2003 Datacenter Edition

17.What is the maximum number of CPUs supported in an SMP configuration on a Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition, system running on the x86 platform?Answer: 32

18.Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded to Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition?Answer: Windows 2000 Server, Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition, Windows NT Server

4.0 (SP5), Windows 2000 Advanced Server

19.Which of the following logical Active Directory components is created mainly for the delegation of administrative authority and the implementation of group policy settings?Answer: Organizational Unit

20.Which of the following statements best describes an Active Directory forest?Answer: A collection of domains that share a common schema

Chapter 2 - Managing Hardware Devices

1.Which of the following is the list of hardware devices certified for Windows Server 2003?Answer: Windows Server Catalog

2.What is the default driver signing option in Windows Server 2003?Answer: Warn

3.Which of the following are driver signing options on a Windows Server 2003 system? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Block, Allow, Warn

4.Which of the following resources is used for communication between a hardware device and the operating system?Answer: Memory Address

5.Which of the following resources allows a hardware device to directly access RAM?Answer: DMA Channel

6.Which of the following resources does a hardware device use to send a notification to the CPU?Answer: IRQ

7.Which of the following tools can be used to diagnose a resource conflict in Windows Server 2003? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Device Manager, System Information

8.Which IRQ does Windows Server 2003 use for PCI steering?Answer: 9

9.Which of the following tools is used to verify digital signatures for system files and device drivers?Answer: SIGVERIF

10.Which File and Printer Sharing setting optimizes memory use for a small LAN with 64 or fewer users?Answer: Balance

11.Which File and Printer Sharing setting optimizes the memory used on servers with 10 or fewer simultaneous network users?Answer: Minimize Memory Used

12.How many hardware profiles are configured on a Windows Server 2003 system by default?Answer: 1

13.Which Windows Server 2003 feature allows you to return to a previous driver version with a push of a button?Answer: Roll Back Driver

14.What is the name of the file used by virtual memory on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: Pagefile.sys

15.Which tab in the properties of a hardware device would be used to determine the IRQ assigned to the device?Answer: Resources

16.Which of the following would most likely be referred to as a legacy device?Answer: ISA Modem

17.Which of the following is not required in order for Plug and Play to function correctly?Answer: Driver signing

18.What would the initial page file size be by default for a Windows Server 2003 system with 1 GB of RAM?Answer: 1.5GB

19.The Windows paging file must reside on drive C. (True or False?)Answer: False

20.Which IRQ does a floppy disk controller typically use by default?Answer: 6

Chapter 3 - Creating and Managing User Accounts

1.Which of the following tools can be used to modify the properties of existing user accounts from the command line?Answer: DSMOD

2.Which of the following tools can be used to create new user accounts?Answer: DSADD

3.Which of the following tools can export user objects to a comma-separated text file?Answer: CSVDE

4.Which of the following tools can import settings in LDAP Interchange Format?Answer: LDIFDE

5.Which of the following is not a tool to create user accounts?Answer: DSMOD

6.The Default Domain Policy specifies that a user password must be how long by default?Answer: Seven Characters

7.Which of the following is not a required element in a complex password?Answer: Minimum of Eight Charachters

8.After how many days must a domain user change their password by default?Answer: 42

9.Active Directory user accounts are configured to lockout after 3 incorrect logon attempts. (True or false?)Answer: False

10.When a user account template is copied, group membership information is also copied. (True or false?)Answer: True

11.How many user passwords are remembered by a domain controller as part of password history setting by default?Answer: 24

12.On which tab of a user account’s properties is the user’s home directory configured by default?Answer: Profile

13.When a new user account is created in Active Directory Users and Computers, which group is it a member of by default?Answer: Domain Users

14.Which type of user profile does not save user settings when the user logs off?Answer: Mandatory

15.What type of user profile is used by default when a user logs on to a Windows XP system in an Active

Directory domain?Answer: Local

16.Which authentication protocol do Windows 2000 clients logging on to a Windows Server 2003 domain use?Answer: Kerberos

17.Which authentication protocol is not configured with the Active Directory Client Extensions software used by Windows NT 4.0 clients when logging on to a Windows Server 2003 domain?Answer: NTLM

18.Logging on to an Active Directory domain from the console of a Windows XP system is referred to as which type of authentication?Answer: Interactive

19.Which of the following folders in not part of a user profile?Answer: Networks

20.Creating a mandatory user profile involves renaming which file?Answer: NTUSER.DAT

Chapter 4 - Implementing and Managing Group and Computer Accounts

1.Which of the following are considered group types? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Security, Distribution

2.Which of the following are considered group scopes? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Global, Universal, Domain Local

3.Which of the following objects can be added to a global group when a domain is configured to the Windows Server 2003 domain functional level?Answer: User, Global Groups

4.Which of the following objects can be added to a domain local group when a domain is configured to the Windows 2000 mixed domain functional level?Answer: User, Global Groups, Universal Groups

5.Which of the following group types cannot be created when a domain is configured to the Windows 2000 mixed domain functional level?Answer: Universal Groups

6.A Windows Server 2003 Active Directory domain is configured to the Windows 2000 mixed domain functional level by default. (True or False?)Answer: True

7.When can a domain local group be converted to a universal group?Answer: When the domain local group does not contain any other domain local groups as members

8.When can a global group be converted to a universal group?Answer: When the global group is not a member of any other global groups

9.When can a universal group be converted to a domain local group?Answer: Always

10.Which of the following command-line utilities can be used to covert a group’s scope?Answer: DSMOD

11.Which of the following command-line utilities is used to obtain a listing of all group members?Answer: DSGET

12.Which of the following command-line utilities is used to create new group objects?Answer: DSADD

13.Which of the following built-in global groups are all user accounts added to automatically?Answer: Domain Users

14.Which of the following built-in global groups are all workstations and member servers added to automatically?Answer: Domain Computers

15.Which of the following tools is used to reset a computer account?Answer: Active Directory Users and Computers, NETDOM

16.Which of the following group scopes contains global groups as a member in a domain configured to the Windows 2000 mixed functional level?Answer: Domain Local Groups

17.What is indicated when a domain local group cannot be converted to a universal group?Answer: The functional level of the domain is set to Windows 2003 mixes

18.Which of the following built-in groups is only found in the forest root domain?Answer: Enterprise Admin, Schema Admins

19.Which tab in the properties of a user account is used to view that user’s group membership information?Answer: Member Of

20.Which tab in the properties of a group account is used to view the other groups that are members of this group?Answer: Members

Chapter 5 - Managing File Access

1.What is the default permission assigned to a shared folder?Answer: Allow Read to the Everyone Group

2.Which of the following tools can be used to create shared folders on a Windows Server 2003 system? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Computer Managment, Windows Explorer, The NET SHARE command

3.Which of the following are shared folder permissions on a Windows Server 2003 system? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Read, Change, Full Control

4.Which of the following shared folders would be hidden in My Network Places?Answer: Documents$

5.Assuming that a user is granted the Allow Read shared folder permission as a member of one group and the Deny Full Control permission as a member of another group for the same folder, what is the user’s effective permission?Answer: Deny Full Control

6.Which of the following are NTFS folder permissions? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Read & Execute, List Folder Contents, Read

7.Which of the following are NTFS file permissions? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Read & Execute, Read, Modify

8.Which of the following file systems support local security?Answer: NTFS

9.Which of the following commands would be used to convert drive D from FAT32 to NTFS?Answer: Convert d: /fs:ntfs

10.Which of the following NTFS permissions would allow a user to change the permissions associated with a file?Answer: Full Control

11.Which of the following commands would be used to share a folder from the command line?Answer: Net Share

12.Assuming that a user is granted the Allow Full Control NTFS permission as a member of one group and the Allow Read permission as a member of another group for the same folder, what is the user’s effective permission?Answer: Allow Full Control

13.Assuming that a user is granted the Allow Modify NTFS permission as a member of one group and the Deny Modify shared folder permission as a member of another group for the same folder, what is the user’s effective permission locally?Answer: Deny Modify

14.Assuming that a user is granted the Allow Full Control NTFS permission as a member of one group and the Allow Read shared folder permission as a member of another group for the same folder, what is the user’s effective permission remotely?Answer: Allow Read

15.Which of the following file systems allow folders to be shared? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: NTFS, FAT, FAT32

16.Which acronym is used to describe an entry in an access control list?Answer: ACE

17.A denied permission always takes precedence over an allowed permission. (True or False?)Answer: True

18.Which tool can be used to determine the ultimate set of permissions that impact a user trying to access resources on an NTFS partition?Answer: The Effective Permission Tab

19.Which of the following are not standard NTFS permissions on a file? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Change, List Folder Contents

20.Which of the following are not standard NTFS permissions on a folder? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Change

Chapter 6 - Managing Disks and Data Storage

1.What is the maximum number of primary partitions that a basic disk can support?Answer: 4

2.What is the maximum number of extended partitions that a basic disk can support?Answer: 1

3.Which of the following can be created on a dynamic disk?Answer: Simple Volume, Spanned Volume

4.What term is used to describe an installed dynamic disk that originated from another server?Answer: Foreign Disk

5.If only one hard disk is installed on a Windows Server 2003 system, what disk number will it be assigned?Answer: 0

6.Which of the following can be created on a basic disk?Answer: RAID-5 Volume, Logical Drive

7.RAID-5 volumes can be created on a basic disk. (True or False?)Answer: False

8.Which of the following volumes cannot be extended on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: System Volume, Boot Volume

9.Which of the following file systems supports the ability to extend existing volumes?Answer: NTFS

10.What is the minimum number of hard disks required for implementing a RAID-5 volume?Answer: 3

11.What is the maximum number of hard drives supported for a striped volume on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: 32

12.What term is used to describe disk mirroring when each drive is connected to its own hard disk controller?Answer: Disk Duplexing

13.What term is used to describe the volume the Windows folder is located on?Answer: Boot Volume

14.How many partitions can be marked active on a Windows Server 2003 system at any point in time?Answer: 1

15.Which of the following RAID levels provides no fault tolerance?Answer: RAID level 0

16.All access to a spanned volume is lost if one disk on which the spanned volume resides fails. (True or False?)Answer: True

17.Which of the following tools can be used to view and remove unnecessary files on a particular partition or volume?Answer: Disk Cleanup

18.Which of the following command-line utilities can be used to defragment files?Answer: DEFRAG

19.An extended partition is formatted with a file system. (True or False?)Answer: False

20.A volume can be mounted to an empty folder on a drive formatted with the FAT32 file system. (True or False?)Answer: False

Chapter 7 - Advanced File System Managment

1.Which of the following is not a standard attribute?Answer: Compressed

2.Which of the following attributes can be configured from the properties of a folder residing on a FAT32 volume?Answer: Hidden, Read-Only, Archive

3.Which of the following attributes combined to make a file or folder “super hidden”? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Hidden, System

4.When a folder’s encryption attribute is configured, which of the following cannot be configured at the same time?Answer: Compression

5.Which of the following is used to encrypt a file encryption key with EFS?Answer: A user's public key

6.Which of the following users can access an EFS-encrypted file by default?Answer: The user who encrypted the file, The data recovery agent

7.Which of the following file systems support the ability to implement disk quotas?Answer: NTFS

8.Which of the following tools can be used to encrypt files from the command line?Answer: CIPHER

9.Which of the following tools can be used to compress files from the command line?Answer: COMPACT

10.Which of the following tools can be used to review disk quota settings from the command line?Answer: FSUTIL

11.What would be the result of issuing the command attrib –s –h file1.txt from the command line?Answer: File1.txt will have the system attribute removed, File1.txt will have the hidden attribute removed

12.Which of the following are DFS models supported in Windows Server 2003? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Domain-based DFS, Standalone DFS

13.What term is used to describe alternative copies of a DFS link stored on other servers?Answer: Replice

14.A standalone DFS root is not fault tolerant. (True or False?)Answer: True

15.Which of the following file systems are capable of natively supporting both encryption and compression? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: NTFS

16.What is the result of copying a compressed file to another folder on the same NTFS volume?Answer: The file inherits the compression attribute of the target folder

17.What is the result of copying an EFS-encrypted file to a folder on a FAT32 partition?Answer: The copied file is encrypted

18.What happens when the COMPACT command is issued in a directory without any additional switches specified?Answer: The compression attributes of files are listed

19.The disk quota feature in Windows Server 2003 allows disk quotas to be configured on a server-wide basis. (True or False?)Answer: False

20.Disk quotas can be configured according to group membership. (True or False?)Answer: False

Chapter 8 - Implementing and Managing Printers

1.Which of the following is not a print permission in Windows Server 2003?Answer: Full Control

2.Which of the following permissions allows a user to pause not only their own print jobs, but also those of other users?Answer: Manage Documents

3.Printers installed on a Windows Server 2003 system are published to Active Directory by default. (True or False?)Answer: True

4.Which of the following must be used to invoke the Prncnfg.vbs command from the command line?Answer: Cscript

5.Which of the following is the highest printer priority on a Windows Server 2003 system?

Answer: 99

6.Which of the following scripts can be used to publish printers in Active Directory?Answer: Pubprn.vbs

7.When a new printer is installed, drivers will be made available for which of the following operating systems by default?Answer: Windows 2000, Windows Server 2003

8.What term is used to describe a printer that can send output to more than one print device?Answer: Printer Pooling

9.The output from a configured printer is garbled. What is most likely the cause of the problem?Answer: The wrong driver is installed

10.When documents appear to be stuck in the print queue, which of the following services should be restarted?Answer: Printer Spooler

11.What is the default printer permission assigned to the Administrators group on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: Print, Manage Documents, Manage Printers

12.A page that contains user information and prints before a user's print job is called what?Answer: Separator Page

13.In order to use the Internet Printing Protocol, which of the following services must be installed?Answer: Internet Information Services

14.Which of the following represents the correct URL syntax to connect to a printer named Printer1 on Server01?Answer: http://server01/printers/printer1/.printer

15.The printer spool folder is located on the same partition or volume as the WINDOWS folder by default. (True or False?)Answer: True

16.In order for a printer to be made available to network users, it must be shared. (True or False?)Answer: True

17.Only the drivers supplied with Windows Server 2003 can be used when installing a printer. (True or False?)Answer: False

18.Which of the following script files is used to view the print jobs queued on a printer?Answer: Prnjobs.vbs

19.Which of the following script files is used to set the default printer on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: Prnmngr.vbs

20.Only one printer can be designated as the default printer at any point in time on a Windows Server 2003 system. (True or False?)Answer: True

Chapter 9 - Implementing and Using Group Policy

1.Which of the following MMC snap-ins is used to configure Group Policy settings?Answer: Group Policy Object Editor

2.Which command-line tool can be used to view effective Group Policy settings?Answer: GPRESULT

3.Joe attempts to publish an application to a computer, but the publish setting is disabled. What is wrong?

Answer: Applications can only be published to users

4.What is the order in which GPOs are applied?Answer: Local, Site, Domain, OU

5.Group policy settings cannot be applied to which fo the following?Answer: Security Groups, Distribution Groups

6.Which of the following permissions should be applied to ensure that GPO settings apply to users?Answer: Apply Group Policy, Read

7.Two user accounts in a certain OU need to be configured without a GPO application, while the remaining users still need restrictions. How can this be accomplished? Answer: Deny the Apply Group Policy permission for these users

8.Published applications are resilient in that they reinstall automatically if any files become corrupt. (True or False?)Answer: False

9.Assigned applications are added to Add or Remove Programs, allowing them to be installed by a user if necessary. (True or False?)Answer: False

10.When a GPO is created, its content is actually stored in which two locations on the server? (Choose two.)Answer: The Group Policy container within the Active Dicrectory database, The Group Policy template in the Sysvol folder

11.You have created a GPO that removes the Run command and have linked it to the domain level. At the OU level, you have created a GPO to enable the Run command. Which GPO takes effect for a user in this OU?Answer: The GPO applied to the OU

12.You have just made a change to the computer portion of a Windows Server 2003 GPO and want to manually refresh the policy settings. Which command accomplishes this?Answer: GPUPDATE

13.A GPO can use a ZAP file to publish an application for which an MSI file is not available. (True or False?)Answer: True

14.If an application has been assigned to a computer using Group Policy, when is the application installed?Answer: The next time the computer is restarted

15.A user has accidentally deleted a required file on his local machine for an application that you had previously assigned to the domain using an MSI file and Group Policy. What must you do to make sure that the application continues to function?Answer: Do nothing; the application automatically fixes itself

16.Which removal option allows users to continue to work with an installed application but prevents any new installations?Answer: Optional Removal

17.In which folder do scripts have to be stored to ensure proper functioning and replication to all domain controllers?Answer: The Sysvol folder

18.For Group Policy settings to apply to a user, that user must be a member of a group with both the Read and Apply Group Policy permissions set to Allow. (True or False?)Answer: True

19.You need to redirect the My Documents folder to a server location based upon security group memberships. Which setting do you choose?Answer: Advanced

20.Both the GPRESULT and Resultant Set of Policy tools can be used to view the aggregated Group Policy settings that apply to a user. (True or False?)Answer: True

Chapter 10 - Server Administration

1.Which of the following allows a user to run certain administrative tools or issue commands using alternate credentials?Answer: Secondary Logon

2.Which of the following file extensions is associated with a saved MMC?Answer: MSC

3.Which of the following tools simplifies the administration of administrative authority?Answer: Delegation of Control Wizard

4.What is the recommended minimum CPU requirement for a Windows Server 2003 system running SUS?Answer: PIII 700 MHz

5.What is the recommended minimum RAM requirement for a Windows Server 2003 system running SUS?Answer: 512 MB

6.When configured according to the minimum requirements, what is the maximum number of clients that a single SUS server can support?Answer: 15000

7.Which of the following should be done prior to installing software that will be accessed by multiple users on a Windows Server 2003 system running Terminal Services?Answer: Issue the change user /install command

8.Which of the following pieces of client software can potentially be used to connect to a Windows Server 2003 system running Terminal Services?Answer: Remote Desktop Connection, Internet Explorer

9.Which of the following is not a Terminal Services administrative tool?Answer: Terminal Services Applications

10.Which piece of software must be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional system to allow it to interact with an SUS server?Answer: Automatic Updates client

11.Which tab in the properties of a user account is used to configure a maximum session time and disconnect options for a Terminal Service session?Answer: Sessions

12.Which tab in the properties of a user account is used to configure a program to automatically run when the user connects to the terminal server?Answer: Environment

13.A Windows Server 2003 system cannot support both Terminal Services and Remote Desktop for Administration sessions concurrently. (True or False?)Answer: False

14.The secondary logon feature is available to administrators only. (True or False?)Answer: False

15.Which of the following commands is used to initiate secondary logon from the command line?Answer: Runas

16.Which of the following services must be installed in order to install SUS on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: IIS

17.Which of the following features enables you to define a simplified administrative environment from which shortcuts to common tasks can be created?Answer: Taskpad

18.Only an administrator can create user accounts in Active Directory, with no exceptions. (True or False?)Answer: False

19.SUS cannot be installed on a domain controller. (True or False?)Answer: False

20.Which of the following should be used to configure client Automatic Updates settings in an Active Directory environment?Answer: Group Policy

Chapter 11 - Monitoring Server Performance

1.Which of the following Task Manager tabs allows the priority of a running process to be configured?Answer: Processes

2.Which of the following methods can be used to access the Task Manager utility?Answer: Press CTRL+ATL+DELETE, then click Task Manager; Right-Click on taskbar, click Task Manager

3.Which of the following are logs found in Event Viewer on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: System Log, Application Log, Security Log

4.Which of the following Task Manager tabs can be used to view the current status of a foreground program?Answer: Applications

5.Operating system events are always written to the application log in Event Viewer. (True or False?)Answer: False

6.Which of the following tools are included in the Performance console?Answer: System Monitor, Performance Logs and Alerts

7.Which of the following is not an action associated with an alert?Answer: Disable a service

8.Which of the following counters is displayed by default in the System Monitor display when the Performance console is opened?Answer: Page/sec, Avg.Disk Queue Length, % Processor Time

9.What term is used to describe a service that must be running in order for another service to function?Answer: Dependency

10.Windows Server 2003 systems will only log information events in the system log in Event Viewer by default. (True or False?)Answer: False

11.System Monitor can be used to monitor performance information on a remote computer. (True or False?)Answer: True

12.Disk performance counters are enabled by default on a Windows Server 2003 system. (True or False?)Answer: True

13.Which command is used to enable or disable disk counters on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: DISKPERF

14.Which of the following is not a type of event stored in the system log in Event Viewer?Answer: Success

15.The data displayed on the Task Manager Performance tab can be exported to a text file. (True or False?)Answer: False

16.Which of the following is a valid Recovery action in the event of a service failure?Answer: Take No Action, Restart the Service, Run a Program

17.Which of the following are available views in the System Monitor tool? (Choose all that apply.) Answer: Report, Histogram, Graph

18.The CPU column on the Task Manager Processes tab displays point-in-time CPU usage information. (True or False?)Answer: True

19.Which of the following are valid performance objects in System Monitor on a Windows Server 2003 system? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Memory, Processor, Server, System

20.It is not possible to monitor objects on more than one server at the same time using System Monitor. (True or False?)Answer: False

Chapter 12 - Managing and Implementing Backups and Disaster Recovery

1.Which of the following backup types backs up all selected files and folders and changes their archive attribute?Answer: Normal

2.Which of the following backup types backs up all files that have changed since the last incremental or normal backup?Answer: Incremental, Differential

3.Which of the following backup types backs up only the selected files and folders that have changed since the last differential or normal backup and does not change their archive attribute? Answer: Differential

4.Which of the following backup types backs up only the selected files and folders that have changed since the last incremental or normal backup and changes their archive attribute?Answer: Incremental

5.Which of the following backup types only backs up the selected files and folders that have changed on the current day?Answer: Daily

6.Which of the following backup types backs up all selected files and folders and not change their archive attribute so as not to interfere with any existing backup process?Answer: Copy

7.Members of which of the following groups can back up any files and folders on a Windows Server 2003 domain controller?Answer: Administrators, Backup Operators, Server Operators

8.Which of the following permissions allows a user to back up files and folders that they do not own?Answer: Read, Read & Execute, Full Control, Modify

9.Individual users can be granted rights that allow them to back up and restore files on a Windows Server 2003 system if necessary. (True or False?)Answer: True

10.Having only the Read permission to a file is sufficient to allow a user to back up that file. (True or False?)Answer: True

11.Which of the following advanced startup options will allow a user to access the network on a Windows

Server 2003 system?Answer: Safe Mode with Networking, Enable Boot Logging

12.What must be installed on a client workstation in order for a user to access previous versions of files in shared folders?Answer: Previous Versions Client

13.Which of the following features allows an administrator to create floppy disks that can be used in conjunction with the Windows Server 2003 CD to restore a server?Answer: Automated System Restore

14.Which of the following advanced startup options boots Windows Server 2003 using a basic video driver?Answer: Enable VGA mode

15.The Backup utility included with Windows Server 2003 allows backup jobs to be scheduled. (True or False?)Answer: True

16.How much disk space is required to enable the Shadow Copies of Shared Folders feature for a particular volume?Answer: 100 MB

17.Which of the following options are available to a user from the Previous Versions tab in the properties of a file stored in a shared folder?Answer: View, Copy, Restor

18.A normal user cannot restore a file from the Previous Versions tab without the intervention of an administrator. (True or False?)Answer: False

19.Which of the following switches is used in conjunction with the WINNT32 command to install the Recovery Console?Answer: /cmdcons

20.Any user can log on to a Windows Server 2003 installation using the Recovery Console. (True or False?)Answer: False

Chapter 13 - Administering Web Resources

1.You are planning to install a Web-enabled e-mail package in your organization. Which IIS service is used to enable the sending of e-mail messages?Answer: SMTP

2.IIS is automatically installed during a standard installation of Windows Server 2003. (True or False?)Answer: False

3.Which of the following are the two user accounts automatically created during an installation of IIS? (Choose two.)Answer: IWAM_servername, IUSR_servername

4.Master properties can be configured to set the IP address and TCP port for all sites located on the server. (True or False?)Answer: False

5.Individual site properties override master properties by default. (True or False?)Answer: True

6.You are a network administrator responsible for maintaining your company’s Web servers. There have recently been several hot fixes released for IIS 6.0. What tool can you use to determine the hot fixes currently installed on your Web servers?Answer: MBSA

7.A client is reporting that he is unable to connect to your server running IIS. Which of the following could be causing the problem?Answer: TCP/IP parameters assigned to the client

8.Which of the following IIS permissions can be assigned to a virtual directory?Answer: Read, Write

9.You have configured a new FTP site on your Web server. The site has been configured to only allow Read access. You have also enabled Anonymous access using the IUSR_Server1 account. In addition, you also notice that the following NTFS permissions are in place: Users: Full Control; IUSR_Server01: Modify; and Guests: Modify. What type of permission do users have to your new FTP site?Answer: Read

10.You are the administrator of your company’s Web server. You changed the FTP port from 21 to 1223. Clients report that they are not able to access the FTP server. What is most likely causing the problem?Answer: Clients are connecting to the default port

11.Directory security can be configured using which of the following?Answer: IP Address, Network Address

12.You are configuring directory security for your FTP site. You select the granted access option and add the IP network group address:129.10.0.0. You also add the single computer IP address: 135.15.121.10. Which of the following statements are true?Answer: All computers on the 129.10.0.0 network are granted access to your FTP site, The IP 135.15.121.10 is granted access to your FTP site

13.Which protocol does FTP use to establish a session?Answer: TCP

14.When you are creating a virtual directory, which of the following are possible options for the location of the directory? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: A directory other than the home directory, a URL, a directory in a remote computer

15.Which of the following options can be used to back up the configuration settings of your IIS Server?Answer: Use the backup program included with Windows, The IISBACK.VBScript, Use the backup program within the ISS console, Use third-party backup software

16.Which TCP port number does HTTP use by default?Answer: 80

17.What TCP port number does HTTPS use by default?Answer: 443

18.You are configuring authentication for your IIS server. You want all users to provide their Windows Server 2003 user name and password before gaining access to the Web resources. You also do not want the user names and passwords sent in clear text. Which authentication method should you configure?Answer: Intergrated Windows authentication

19.You want to configure a maximum connection limit for all sites configured on your Web server. At what level should you make the configuration change?Answer: Master

20.Which of the following are valid IIS authentication methods? (Choose all that apply.)Answer: Anonymous access, Basic authentication, Digest authentication, Intergrated Windows authentication

Chapter 14 - Windows Server 2003 Security Features

1.Which of the following Event Viewer log files are success and failure events written to?Answer: Security

2.What is the default size of the Security log on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: 16 MB

3.Which of the following is not a default security template included with Windows Server 2003?Answer: Rootsec.inf

4.Which of the following audit settings should be configured to audit access to files and folders?Answer: Audit object access

5.Which of the following audit settings should be configured to audit server reboots?Answer: Audit system events

6.Which of the following audit settings should be configured to audit the creation of group objects?Answer: Audit account managment

7.Which of the following audit settings should be configured to audit successful password changes?Answer: Audit account managment

8.No auditing settings are configured for domain controllers by default on Windows Server 2003 systems. (True or False?)Answer: False

9.Which of the following security features is used to encrypt data as it is transmitted over a network?Answer: IPSec

10.Which of the following security features is used to encrypt files and folders stored on an NTFS volume?Answer: EFS

11.Which of the following security features is used to validate the identity of a user on a Windows Server 2003 network?Answer: Authentication

12.Which of the following security features is used to secure files and folders on an NTFS partition?Answer: Access Control

13.Which of the following security templates contains the default security settings applied to a Windows Server 2003 system by default?Answer: Setup Security.inf

14.Security template settings can be applied via Group Policy. (True or False?)Answer: True

15.Which of the following command-line tools can be used to create and apply security templates?Answer: SECEDIT

16.Which of the following is not a supported switch with the SECEDIT command in Windows Server 2003?Answer: /refresh

17.Where are security templates stored by default on a Windows Server 2003 system?Answer: C:\Windows, C:\Windows\Security, C:\Windows\security\templates

18.Which of the following MMC snap-ins can be used to compare current server security settings to those stored in a security template?Answer: Security Configuration and Analysis

19.Which security template is automatically applied to a Windows Server 2003 system when it is promoted to the role of domain controller?Answer: DC Security.inf

20.True or False? It is possible to configure access control settings on Active Directory objects such as user accounts. (True or False?)