NEET MODEL PAPER - eenadupratibha.net · (1) Rabbit (2) Seal (3) Fish (4) All of these 11. The...

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NEET MODEL PAPERINSTRUCTIONS:

1. This Question paper contains 180 questions in Physics, Chemistry and Biology

(Botany and Zoology).

2. Each objective question has four options, in which student has to select one best option.

3. Each corrrect option will be rewarded with four marks. However if the attempt of

answering a question is wrong there will be -1 mark.

4. Maximum time allot to answer this paper is three hours (180 minutes).

BIOLOGY1. Read the following statements and answer the given question.

(a) Porin protein is found in all the bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplast.

(b) Root pressure developed when the rate of transpiration decreases.

(c) Transportation of sucrose from mesophyll cell to phloem is called phloem unloading.

(d) Xylem vessels explain apoplastic movement of water

How many statements are correct

(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4

2. Read the following characters.

(a) Diadelphous condition

(b) vaxillary aestivation

(c) Non-endospermic seed

the above characters belongs to family

(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae (3) Cruciferae (4) Gramineae

3. Read the following features.

(i) Nerve chord is Dorsal, hollow & single (ii) Gill clefts are found in pharynx

(iii) Notochord absent (iv) Ventral heart

Out of these which are the features shown by a typical chordate animal?

(1) Only (i) & (iv) (2) Only (ii) & (iii)

(3) All (i) to (iv) (4) Only (i), (ii) & (iv)

4. In addition to malpighian tubules which other structures also help in excretion in cockroach?

(1) Nephrocytes (2) Uricose gland (3) Urate cells (4) All

5. Polysome is

(1) Several ribosomes attached to a DNA (2) Several ribosomes attached to a single m-RNA

(3) Several ribosomes attached to ER (4) All of the above

6. Spleen contains cords of billoroth, these are

(1) Red pulp (2) White pulp (3) Muscle (4) Only nerve fiber

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7. The blood disorder caused by following substitution mRNA GAG → GUG can be exhibited by whichof the following pedigree chart?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

8. Consider the following statements (A - D).

(A) When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are in a way looking back in time.

(B) Stellar distance measured in light year.

(C) Stars emitted light started it's journey million of year back & from trillions of kilometres away &reaching our eyes now.

(D) When we see stars in our immediate surrounding we see them instantly and hence in the presenttime.

Which of the above statement are correct?

(1) A, B & C (2) B, C & D

(3) A, C & D (4) All of the above

9. During life cycle of malarial parasite it reproduces asexually in

(1) Stomach and intestine of mosquito (2) Salivary gland and RBC of mosquito

(3) Liver and RBC of human host (4) Only in RBC of human host

10. Which of the following will not suffer from minimata disease?

(1) Rabbit (2) Seal (3) Fish (4) All of these

11. The Darwin of the 20th Century

(1) Linnacus (2) Ramdev (3) Ernst Mayr (4) Santapau

12. Which one of the following statement about human sperm is correct?

(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting infertilization.

(2) The middle piece possesses numerous mitochondria, which provide energy for the movement of tail.

(3) The sperm head contains an elongated diploid nucleus.

(4) Acrosome serves as sensory structure leading the sperm towards to ovum.

13. How many animals in the list given below are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical andpseudocoelomate?

Ascaris, Facsiola, Ancylostoma, Taenia, Neries, Wuchereria, Pheretima

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

14. Which statement is not correct?

(1) Fluid mosaic model for membrane structure was given by S.J.Singer and G.L.Nicolson.

(2) The middle lamella layer mainly consists of Ca-pectate.

(3) Golgi apparatus synthesise complex polysaccharides for cell wall.

(4) Division of centromere occurs in anaphase first only.



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15. In cyclic photophosphorylation

(1) Light energy not utilised (2) Oxygen not released

(3) NADPH2 forms (4) PS - II involved

16. Volume of air that will remain in the lung after normal inspiration

(1) ERV + TV + RV

(2) TV + ERV

(3) FRC + TV

(4) One & three both correct

17. The phenomenon of ....... was discovered by ....... in the organism .......... It prevents independentassortment of genes.

(1) Linkage, Morgan, Drosophila

(2) Segregation, Mendel, Garden pea

(3) Crossing over, Morgan, Drosophila

(4) Linkage, Sutton and Boveri, Drosophila

18. Universe is very old & vast where as earth itself is almost only a

(1) Clusters of galaxies

(2) Clouds of gas, dust and stars

(3) speck

(4) planet & Sattelite

19. In human body, HIV infects

(1) Macrophages & Neutrophils

(2) Macrophages & T-killer cells

(3) T-killer cells & T-helper cells

(4) T-helper cells & Macrophage

20. DDT is categorised under

(1) Non-biodegradable pollutants (2) Primary pollutants

(3) Qualitative pollutants (4) All of these

21. Which of the following is correct for given diagram?

(1) Bulbils o wheat (2) Leaf bud of Bryophyllum

(3) Leafs of Garlic (4) Bulbils of Agave



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22. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during whichmonth of pregnancy?

(1) Fifth month (2) First month

(3) Fourth month (4) Third month

23. A drop of each of the following is placed separately on fours slides. Which of them will not caugulate?

(1) Blood taken from pulmonary vein

(2) Blood plasma

(3) Blood serum

(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

24. Which one is not exhibited by sucrose solution of 0.3 M concentration?

(1) Ψw (2) Ψp (3) Ψs (4) DPD

25. Three stages of Calvin cycle are described as

(1) Carboxylation, Nitrification, Regeneration

(2) Carboxylation, Reduction, Oxidation

(3) Carboxylation, Reduction, Regeneration

(4) Fixation, Reduction, Amination

26. Which of the following statements are true/false?

(A) Calcitonin regulates the homeostasis of calcium along with PTH

(B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth

(C) "Grave's disease" is caused by malfunctioning of adrenal gland

(D) ADH stimulates absorption of water and increase the urine production

(1) A and C are true, B and D are false

(2) A and B are true, C and D are false

(3) A and D are false, B and C are true

(4) A, B, C are true, D only false

27. Which one of the following option gives the correct match?

A B C

(1) Dicot seed Sunflower Non-albuminous

(2) Monocot seed Pea Non-albuminous

(3) Dicot seed Wheat Albuminous

(4) Monocot seed Maize Albuminous

28. Which of the following are considered as solid evidences of organic evolution?

(1) Homologous and analogous organs

(2) Analogous and vestigeal organs

(3) Homologous organs and palaeontological evidences

(4) Palaeontological and Taxonomic evidences



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29. Which of the following shows hallucinogenic properties?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

30. Acids (H2SO4 & HNO3) constituent of acid rain are

(1) Primary pollutants (2) Secondary pollutants

(3) Synergism (4) 2 & 3

31. What is scutellum?

(1) Reduced cotyledon in monocots (2) One Tigellum

(3) Endosperm (4) One cotyledon in monocots

32. It is diagramatic presentation of the human foetus within the uterus, choose the correct option aboutA, B and C.

A B C

(1) Cavity of Uterus Umblical cord Embryo

(2) Yolk sac Embryo Placental villi

(3) Placental villi Embryo Yolk sac

(4) Umblical cord Cavity of uterus Yolk sac

33. Read the following statements.

(i) Ascending Limb of Henle's loop is impermeable to water.

(ii) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule.

(iii) Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except the nitrogenous wastes.

(iv) ADH helps in water elimination and making the urine hypotonic.

Out of these how many statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) All of these



N

H

H

O

HO

CH3O

CH3

A

B

Plug of mucurs in cervix

C

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34. Read the following statements carefully.

i) Causes the 25% loss of CO2 fixed by Calvin Benson cycle

ii) Operates is chloroplasts, leaf peroxisomes and mitochondria

iii) Absent in photosynthetic Bacteria

iv) ATP not produced

What is this light dependent phenomenon?

(1) Cyclic ETS (2) Photolysis of water

(3) Photorespiration (4) Pentose phosphate pathway

35. Movement in tendril of cucurbits is

(1) Thigmonasty (2) Thigmotropism (3) Chemotropism (4) None

36. The thymus gland secretes the .... hormone called ..... which play a major role in the differentiation of.... lymphocytes.

(1) Gylcoproteinaceous, thymosin, T (2) Steroid, thymosin, T

(3) Peptide, thymosin, T (4) Peptide, thymosin, B

37. In the diagram given below synergid, male gametes, polar nuclei and filform apparatus arerespectively.

(1) D, A, B, C (2) D, A, C, B (3) D, E, C, B (4) C, A, E, B

38. Big Bang Theory attempts to explains all the following except

(1) Origin of universe

(2) Singular huge explosion

(3) Temperature came down due to expanded universe

(4) Multiple huge explosions creates universe → stars → planet → sattellite

39. Read the following statements.

(a) Tissue matching and blood matching is essential before transplantation.

(b) Symptoms of allergy are rapidly decreased with the use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids.

(c) Pneumonia and common cold are spread to a halthy person through droplets of an infected personby cough and sneezing.

(d) Tumor cells don't show contact inhibition.

How many of above sentences are true?

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One



A

E

B

D

C

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40. Which of the following are unburn hydrocarbon released from vehicle?

(a) CH4

(b) C6H6 (Benzene)

(c) 3 - 4 Benzapyrine

(d) Poly nuclear aeromatic hydrocarbon

(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d (3) a, b, c and d (4) b, c and d

41. Find the incorrect match.

(1) White rust of crucifer Oomycetes

(2) Red rust of Tea Basidiomycetes

(3) Leaf spot disease of rice Deuteromycetes

(4) Aspergelosis Ascomycetes

42. The given below diagram is of female reproductive system. Identify the structures which are markedas A, B, C and D

A B C D

(1) Endometrium Uterine cavity isthmus Vagina

(2) Myometrium Uterine cavity infundibilum Uterus

(3) Endometrium Uterine fundus infundibilum Cervix

(4) Perimetrium Uterine fundus Ampulla Cervix

43. Cartilageneous joint is found in

(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle

(2) Between cranial bones

(3) Between atlas and axis

(4) Between two adjacent vetebrae

44. DCMU treated green plant synthesised ATP in sunlight by

(1) Calvin-cycle (2) C2-cycle

(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Respiration

45. Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of t-RNA?

(1) RNA replicase (2) RNA polymerase

(3) Amino acyl t-RNA synthetase (4) Ribosomal enzyme



Uterine cavity

C

D

A

B

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46. Given below is diagram showing of an eye. Which of the following option is correctly matched withstatements and their labelling?

(i) Visible coloured portion of the eye

(ii) Non vascular, transparent portion

(iii) Photoreceptor cells are absent in this region

(iv) Portion of retina where only the cones are densely packed

(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-E (2) i-A, ii-F, iii-E, iv-C

(3) i-C, ii-E, iii-A, iv-D (4) i-C, ii-A, iii-E, iv-D

47. Find the incorrect statement.

(1) Sewage treatment not only reduces pollution but also produces biogas

(2) Trichoderma not only serves as biocontrol agent but also provides immunosuppressive agent

(3) Production of SCP not only provides alternative sources of protein but also reduces pollution

(4) Mycorhiza not only absorbs phosphorus from soil fertility by performing nitrogen fixation

48.

Consider the following statements regarding the above diagrammatic representation.

(A) Miller experiment at laboratory scale.

(B) Proved theory of Oparin and Haldane that life originated from non-living organic molecules likeR.N.A. and Proteins.

(C) Formation of amino-acids was observed.

(D) Experiment demonstrated that life comes only from pre existing life.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A & B (2) A & C (3) A, B & C (4) All of these



A

C

B

F

D

E

Electrodes

To vacuum pump

Boiling water

CH4NH3H2OH2

Spark discharge (A)

Water out

Condenser

Water in

Water droplets

Water containing organic compounds

Liquid water in trap (B)

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49. Various stage of primary succession in a newly formed fresh water pond are given.

(a) Scrub stage

(b) Reed swamp stage

(c) Submerged plant stage

(d) Phytoplanktons

(e) Forest stage

(f) Floating plant stage

(g) Marsh meadow stage

Arrange these according to their sequence of occurrence.

(1) d, c, f, b, a, g, e (2) d, b, c, f, g, a, e

(3) d, f, c, b, e, g, a (4) d, c, f, b, g, a, e

50.

Labell a, b and c respectively

(1) CO2, H2O + CO2, N2 (2) H2O + CO2, CO, NH3

(3) H2O + CO2, CO, N2 (4) All of these

51. Match the following column.

I Two unequal flagella (a) Rhodophyceae

II 2-8 flagella (b) Phaeophyceae

III Agar-Agar (c) Chlorophyceae

IV Phycobillins (d) Gracilaria

I II III IV

(1) c b d a

(2) b c d a

(3) a b c d

(4) c b a d

52. Birds differ from reptiles in which one of the following character?

(1) Skin has scales

(2) They ley eggs

(3) 12 pair cranial nerve

(4) There is regulation of body temperature



CO (a)

(b)

(c)

Catalytic convertor

HC

NOx

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53. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of Human skull. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D andselect the right option about them?

Option Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) Occipital Bone Temporal Bone Sphenoid Bone Frontal Bone

(2) Occipital condyle Ethmoid Bone Temporal Bone Frontal Bone

(3) Occipital Bone Temporal Bone Frontal Bone Spphenoid Bone

(4) Occipital condyle Sphenoid Bone Parental Bone Frontal Bone

54. Which pair is wrong?

(1) Term ''Phytochrome" → Butler

(2) Allosteric Enzyme → Hexokinase

(3) Abscisic acid → Foolish seeding disease

(4) Aerobic Respiration in E coli → Mesosome and cytosol

55. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because

(1) there are 64 types of t-RNA found in the cell.

(2) there are 44 meaning less codons and 20 codons for amino acids.

(3) there are 64 amino acids to be coded.

(4) genetic code is triplet.

56. In the given figure, what is indicated by 'X'?

(1) Thyroid (2) Parathyroid

(3) Anterior Pituitary (4) Posterior pituitary

57. Distillation of fermented broth is required to produce

(1) Wine and beer (2) Wine and whysky

(3) Brandy and beer (4) Brandy and rum



Hypothalamus

Releasing hormone

Release-inhibiting hormone

stimulates Inhibits

Hormone

X

A

C

D

B

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58.

Select the option with the correct identification of animals (A-D) in the above family tree of dinosaurs.

A B C D

(1) Stegosaurs Pteranodon Triceratops Brachiosaurs

(2) Triceratops Pteranodon Tyrannosaurs Stegosaurs

(3) Triceratops Bat Brachiosaurs Stegosaurs

(4) Tyrannosaurs Archaeopteryx Triceratops Brachiosaurs

59. Guano is the rich source of

(1) Sulphur (2) Nitrogen (3) Carbon (4) Phosphorus

60. When did Euro-IV (Bharat stage-IV) became applicable for 4 wheelers in 13 mega cities of India?

(1) 1st October 2001 (2) 1st April 2005

(3) 1st April 2010 (4) 1st April 2011

61. Reproduction is not a defining property of living organisms due to following exceptions.

(1) Sterile human (2) Worker hony bees

(3) Mules (4) All of the above

62. Scales in cyclostomata are

(1) Ctenoid (2) Cycloid (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Absent

63. Read the following four statements (A-D).

(A) Tricuspid valve is present in between right auricle and right ventricle.

(B) Bicuspid valve is present in between right auricle and right ventricle.

(C) Semilunar valves are present at the opening of pulmonary arch and carotid systemic arch.

(D) All these valves are always be bidirectional.

Out of these how many statements are incorrect?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) None of these



[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

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64. What are the P, Q, R, S in given diagram.

P Q R S

(1) Plastid E.R. Nucleus Mitochondrion

(2) Mitochondria Nucleus Golgibody Cell-membrane

(3) Plasma membrane Golgibody Nucleus Mitochondria

(4) Golgi body E.R. Plastid Ribosome

65. Sugar with 5 ring structure is called

(1) Furanose (2) Pyranose (3) Dextrorotatory (4) Laevorotatory

66. In the match given below which of the following is incorrect?

Blood group Blood group PossibleABO blood group antigen

of father of mother on erythrocyte of progeny

(1) O O None

(2) A B None

(3) AB O None

(4) A O None

67. Observe the diagrams given below of pBR322 plasmid

Presence of which of the following vector in the host will help in screening of transformants that cangrow on ampicillin containing medium but not on that containing tetracycline?

(1) D (2) C (3) B (4) A

68. Artificially acquired active immunity is induced by

(1) Readymade antibodies (2) Vaccination

(3) Colostrum (4) Natural infection



ampR tetR ampR tetR ampR tetR ampR tetR

DNA DNA

DNA

DNA

A B DC

Centrosome

Cytoplasm

Endoplasmic reticulum

Ribosomes

S

R

Q

P

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69. All given are included among 34 biodiversity hot spots of world, except

(1) Indo-Burma (2) Western Ghats, and Sri Lanka

(3) Himalaya (4) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar

70. Hybrid vigour is induced by

(a) Clonal selection

(b) Crossing of suitable plants

(c) Species differentiation

(1) Only b (2) b and c Both

(3) a and c both (4) Only c

71. Presence of xylem vessels and triploid endosperm is the property of

(1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta

72. Petromyzon & myxine is not regarded as true fishes because

(1) They lack unpaired fins

(2) They have scales

(3) In them operculum is absent

(4) There is absence of paired fins & jaws

73. Read the following features of blood vessels

(i) It carries blood from heart to organs

(ii) Mostly carries impure blood

(iii) It's walls are thin and soft

(iv) Their lumen is wide

(v) It's walls contain unidirectional valves

(vi) They don't collapse when they empty

(vii) They are deeply situated in the body

(viii) Blood flows with a low pressure in it

Out of these how many features are correct with regards to veins?

(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven

74. The synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA replication takes place. If the initial amountof DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to ..........

(1) 2C (2) 4C (3) 8C (4) 16C

75. Match the following.

(A) Jaundice (i) Difficulty in breathing

(B) Pernicious anemia (ii) Decreased absorption

(C) Diarrohea (iii) Bile pigment

(D) Asthma (iv) Vit B12

(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv) (2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)

(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii) (4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)



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76. The diagram given here is showing a particular stage of cell divisions. It helps to prove which law ofinheritance?

(1) Law of dominance (2) Law of segregation

(3) Law of independent assortment (4) Law of linkage

77. Which of the following is a technique to provide pest resistance to crop plants?

(1) ANDi (2) RNAi (3) miRNA (4) ELISA

78. Bacterial disease spread due to intake of contaminated food and water

(1) Pneumonia (2) Typhoid (3) Ascariasis (4) Amoebiasis

79. During the past century, the mean temperature of the earth has increased by

(1) 0.4°C (2) 0.2°C (3) 0.6°C (4) 0.9°C

80. Selection is the method of?

(a) Plant physiology (b) Plant breeding

(c) Plant anatomy (d) Cytology

(1) a, b and c (2) Only b (3) Only c (4) Only d

81. Numerical taxonomy

(1) is a modern taxonomy (2) is a most widely used taxonomy

(3) is based on all the characters (4) more than one option are correct

82. In which pair both characters are found without exception in all mammals

(1) Hair & vivipary (2) Vivipary & internal fertilizatioin

(3) Vivipary & Mammary gland (4) Mammary glands & internal fertilization

83. Which of the following cells/organism shows 'Ameoboid movement'?

(i) Hydra (ii) Leucocytes (iii) Erythrocytes

(iv) Macrophases (v) Paramoecium (vi) Amoeba

(1) (ii), (iii) and (vi) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (4) (ii), (iv) and (v)

84. Besides nucleus the Eukaryotic cells have other membrane bound distinct structures called

(1) Mesosome (2) Organelles (3) Chromatophore (4) Inclusion bodies

85. Partial pressure of oxygen in tissue, atmospheric air, oxygenated blood, alveolar air are

(1) 159, 40, 104, 95 (2) 159, 40, 95, 104

(3) 40, 159, 95, 104 (4) 95, 40, 159, 104



A

A

a

a

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86. Read the following statements:

(a) In both grasshopper and Drosophila males have only one X chromosome in their cells.

(b) i gene of Lac operon is expressed only in presence of lactose.

(c) Being repetitive, satellite DNA forms multiple copies of same polypeptide.

(d) Random arrangement of chromosomes at metaphasic plate of meiosis I is the basis ofindependent assortment of genes.

The correct statements are

(a) a, d (2) c, d (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d

87. The second amendment of the Indian Patents Bill has been cleared to prevent?

(1) Biopiracy (2) Biowar

(3) Biodiversity loss (4) Biomagnification

88. Number of chromosomes in a patient of Down's syndrome are

(1) Autosome - 46, Sex chromosomes - 2




89. The most Hazardous metal pollutant form automobile exhaust is

(1) Lead (2) Mercury (3) Copper (4) Cadmium

90. Breeding of crops having high level of minerals, Vitamins and proteins is called

(1) Biomagnification (2) Micropropagation

(3) Somatic hybridisation (4) Biofortification

CHEMISTRY

91. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(1) Mg2+ (2) Ti3+ (3) V3+ (4) Fe2+

92. Phenol (mol. wt. 94) is dimerised to 60% in a solvent, the observed molecular weight of phenol will be

(1) Less than 94 (2) 134.2 (3) 100 (4) 150

93. The ions having highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution is

(1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+

94. Which of the following does not give primary amine?

LIAlH4 LIAlH4(1) CH3CN → (2) CH3NC →

LIAlH4 Br2/NaOH(3) CH3CONH2 → (4) CH3CONH2 →

95. Equivalent weight of As2S3 in the change

As2S3 → AsO4-3 + S (M - molecular weight of As2S3)

M M M M (1) (2) (3) (4)

4 6 3 10



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96. A substance that will reduce Ag+ to Ag but will not reduce Ni2+ to Ni is?

(1) Zn (2) Pb (3) Mg (4) Al

97. Pure water boils at 99.725°C at Shimla. If Kb for water is 0.51 K mol-1kg, the boiling point of0.69 molal urea solution will be

(1) 100.35 (2) 100.08 (3) 99.37 (4) None of these

98. Match List-I with List-II and select the answer the codes given below

Code List-I Code List-II

A XeF4 i Distorted octahedral

B XeF6 ii Tetrahedral

C XeO3 iii Square planar

D XeO4 iv Trigonal pyramidal

(1) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii (2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv

(3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii (4) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii

99. Biuret test is not given by

(1) Urea (2) Protein

(3) Carbohydrate (4) Polypeptides

100. For a lyophilic sol

(1) Surface tension & Viscosity are less than that of the medium

(2) Surface tension & viscosity are more than that of medium

(3) Surface tension & viscosity are equal to that of medium

(4) Surface tension is less but viscosity is more than that of medium

101. In the equation

SnCl2 + 2 HgCl2 → Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4

The equivalent weight of stannous chloride (molecular weight - 190) will be?

(1) 190 (2) 95 (3) 47.5 (4) 154.5

102. An exothermic reaction X - Y is spontaneous in the backward direction. What will be the sign of S forthe forward reaction?

(1) +ve (2) -ve

(3) May be +ve or -ve (4) S will be zero

103. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3

- and NH4+ are

(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively

(2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively

(3) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively

(4) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively

104. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis gives

(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde

(3) n-Propyhl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol



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105. Select the incorrect order.

(1) [M(H2O)6]3+< [M(NH3)6]3+

< [M(NO2)6]3-Absorbed light 'λ' order

(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+< [Cr(H2O)6]3+

< [Fe(H2O)6]3+- Paramagnatism

(3) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] < [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] < [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2] - No. of Geometrical isomer

(4) [Mn(CO)5]- < [Co(CO)6] < [Co(CO)6]+C - O bond order

106. Bredic arc method cannot be be used to prepare colloidal solution of?

(1) Pt (2) Fe (3) Ag (4) Au

107. The number of atoms is 270 g of an element present in bcc system with edge 300 pm and density6 g cm-3 is

(1) 3.33 × 1022 (2) 3.33 × 1024 (3) 3.33 × 1026 (4) 3.33 × 1020

108. Bond order of nitric oxide is

(1) 1.0 (2) 2.5 (3) 2.0 (4) 1.5

109. Number of stereoisomers of the molecule is

(CH3)2C = CHCH(Br)CH(OH)CH = CHCH3

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 16

110. The sum of no. of unpaired e- in following compounds

[Ni(CN)4]2- [NiCl4]2-, [CuCl4]2- [Cu(CN)4]2-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

111. A first order reaction is 20% completed in 10 minutes, calculate time taken for the reaction to go to75% completion?

(1) 62.18 minute (2) 72.18 minute (3) 90 minute (4) 79 minute

112. Largest jump between second and third ionisation energy is for

(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) C

113. The increasing thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 follows the sequence

(1) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te (2) H2Te, H2Se, H2S, H2O

(3) H2S, H2O, H2Se, H2Te (4) H2Se, H2S, H2O, H2T

PCl3114. CH3 - CH - CH2 - OH → A → B

AlCl3CH3

Find product B.

Ph

(1) CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH3 (2) C(CH3)3

(3) CH3 - CH2 - CH (4) CH - CH3

CH3 CH3



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115. Select the incorrect matched.

(1) Mond process - Purification of Ni

(2) Zone-refining - refining of Si, Ge

(3) Mac-arthur cyanide process - refining of Ag & Au

(4) Cupellation - refining of AgN

116. How much volume of water is required to dilute 500 ml, of HCl into decinormal?2

(1) 2000 ml (2) 2500 ml (3) 3000 ml (4) 1000 ml

117. Which is not applicable to ozone?

(1) It is a bent molecule with bond angle approx 117°

(2) The two O - O bond length are equal

(3) It is an allotrope of oxygen

(4) It has four lone pair of electron on central atom

118. It is observed that chemistry of lanthaindes decided by their +3 oxidation states. Which statement isincorrect?

(1) Size of Ln (III) decrease with increase in atomic number

(2) Compounds of Ln (III) are generally colourless

(3) Hydroxides of Ln (III) are mainly basic in nature

(4) Compounds of Ln (III) are mainly contains ionic bond due to large size of Ln (III)

119. Which of the following is not aromatic?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

120. Leakage of which gas was responsible for Bhopal gas Tragedy in 1984?

(1) CH3NCS (2) CH3CNO (3) CH3CNS (4) CH3NCO

121. Minimum pH will be of

(1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (2) 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 (3) 0.1 M BeCl2 (4) 0.1 M Ba(OH)2

122. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Stability of normal oxides of I A elements decreases down the group

(2) Stability of superoxide of I A elements increases down the group

(3) Stability of hydrides of I A elements increases down the group

(4) Be and Mg does not give flame test

123. What will be the products of the reaction?

CH2 - O OH

(1) CH2 - OH Only (2) CH2 - I + HO OH

(3) CH2 - OH + I OH (4) CH2 - OH + I I



HI

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124. IUPAC name of the following is

(1) 5-Methyl hex-3-en -1-ol (2) 2-Methyl pent-3-en-5-ol

(3) 2-Methyl hex-3-en-6-ol (4) 4-Methyl pent-2-en-1-ol

125. Which of the following is a Homopolymer?

(1) Acrilan (2) PHBV (3) Glyptal (4) Dacron

126. Which of the following is not precipitated with H2S?

(1) Pb+2 (2) Cu+2 (3) Ag+ (4) Sn+2

127. From amongst the following triatomic molecules the least bond angle is in

(1) O3 (2) I3- (3) NO2

-(4) H2S

128. Methyl benzoate can be prepared by

H+(1) C6H5COOH + CH3OH →

∆

Pyridine (2) C6H5COCl + CH3OH →

∆(3) C6H5COOH + CH2N2 →

(4) All of the above methods

129. Assume that during electrolysis of AgNO3, only H2O is electrolysed and O2 is formed as

2 H2O → 4 H+ + O2 + 4 e-

O2 formed at NTP due to passage 2 A of current for 965 s is

(1) 0.112 L (2) 0.224 L (3) 11.2 L (4) 22.4 L

130. Which one of the following is employed as a Antihistaminic drug?

(1) Brompheniramine (2) Ranitidine

(3) Valium (4) Chloramphenicol

131. 20% of PCl5 is not dissociated at 25°C (V = 1 ltr), KC =

(1) 3.2 (2) 1.6 (3) (3.2)-1 (4) 32

132. Boric acid is polymeric due to

(1) Its acidic nature

(2) The presence of hydrogen bonds

(3) Its monobasic nature

(4) Its geometry

133. Among the following compounds most acidic is

(1) p-nitrophenol

(2) p-hydroxy benzoic acid

(3) m-hydroxy benzoic acid

(4) p-methyl benzoic acid



CH3

OH

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134. Consider the given data

Half-cell reaction E°

a. Cr2O72- + 14 H2 + 6 e- 2 Cr3+ + 7 H2O + 133 V

b. Cr3 + 3 e- Cr - 0.74 V

c. Cu+ + e- Cu + 0.52 V

d. Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu + 0.34 V

Eo for the reaction

2 Cr(s) + 3 Cu2+ (aq) 2 Cr3+ + 3 Cu is

(1) -1.08 V (2) -0.70 V

(3) 1.08 V (4) 2.50 V

NaNH2 CH3 - I135. A → B → 2 - pentyne

What is A?

(1) Propyne (2) I - Butyne

(3) Both (I) and (2) (4) None

PHYSICS

136. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the centre ofthe circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is ω, then thedifference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is

rω r2ω2 ω2(1) (2) (3) √

2grω (4) 2g 2g 2gr2

137. A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Which of thediagram shown in figure correctly shows the displacement time curve for its motion?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

138. An ideal gas after going through a series of four thermodynamic states in order, reaches the initial stateagain (cyclic process). The amounts of heat (Q) and work (W) involved in the states are

Q1 = 6000 J; Q2 = -5500 J;

Q3 = -3000 J; Q4 = 3500 J

W1 = 2500 J; W2 = -1000 J;

W3 = - 1200 J; W4 = xJ

The ratio of net work done by the gas to the total heat absorbed by the gas in η. The value of x and ηin percentage are nearly

(1) 500 ; 7.5 (2) 700; 10.5

(3) 1000; 21 (4) 1500; 15



d

t

d

t

d

t

d

t

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139. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a resistance0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the battery of negligibleresistance is

(1) 6 Ω, 5 amp (2) 10 Ω, 0.1 amp

(3) 4 Ω, 1.0 amp (4) 4 Ω, 0.5 amp

140. Two lenses of power - 15 D and + 5 D are in contact with each other. The focal length of thecombination is

(1) -20 cm (2) -10 cm (3) +20 cm (4) + 10 cm

141. A tube of semicircular cross section contains some liquid and is placed vertically. The angle of contactis zero. The ratio of forces due to surface tension for circular and plane portion of the tube is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) π : 2

(3) 2 : π (4) None of these

142. A mass of 5 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass making 600 revolution perminute, its kinetic energy would be

(1) 500 π2 (2) 200 π2 (3) 3600 π2 (4) 1000 π2

143. A uniform spring whose natural length is l has force constant K. The spring is cut into pieces ofunstressed length l1 & l2. Where l1 = nl2 where n being an integer. Now a mass m is made to oscillatewith first spring. The time period of its oscillation would be

mn m(1) T = 2π√

(2) T = 2π √

K(n + 1) K(n + 1)

m m(n + 1)(3) T = 2π√

(4) T = 2π√

nR nK

144. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A thevalue of the required shunt is

(1) 0.09 Ω (2) 0.03 Ω (3) 0.3 Ω (4) 0.9 Ω

145. When a ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface of an equilateral prism.(Refractive index of the material of the prism = 1.5)

(1) emerging ray is deviated by 30°

(2) emerging ray is deviated by 45°

(3) emerging ray just grazes the second refracting surface

(4) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at the second refracting surface

146. The Young's modulus of a metal is 1.2 × 1011 N/m2 and the interatomic force constant is 3.6 × 10-9

N/Angstrom. The mean distance between the atoms of the metal is

(1) 2 A° (2) 3 A° (3) 4.5 A° (4) 5 A°



G

X 6 ΩΩ

B

5 V

A 40 cm 60 cm

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147. A body of mass m kg collides elastically with another body at rest and then continuous to move in theoriginal direction with half of its original speed, then mass of the second body is

2 m m(1) m kg (2) m kg (3) kg (4) kg

3 3 2

148. In case of simple pendulum time period verses length is depicted by (l << R)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

149. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as

5 rρ(r) = ρ0 ( - ) upto r = R, and ρ(r) = 0 for r > R, where r is the distance from the origin. 4 R

The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the origin is given by

ρ0r 5 r 4πρ0r 5 r(1) ( - ) (2) ( - )4ε0 4 R 3ε0 3 R

ρ0r 5 r 4ρ0r 5 r(3) ( - ) (4) ( - ) 4ε0 3 R 3ε0 4 R

150. Light of wavelength 2 × 10-3 m falls on a slit of width 4 × 10-3 m. The approx angular dispersion ofthe central maximum will be

(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 180°

A3B1/2151. A physical quantity P is given by P =

C-4 D3/2

The quantity which brings is the maximum percentage error in P is

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h and of arbitrary shape and stops at the bottombecause of friction. The coefficient of friction may be different for different segment of the path. Workrequired to return the objection to its position along the same path by a tangential force is

(1) mgh (2) 2mgh

(3) -mgh (4) Cannot be calculated

153. At the nodes of a longitudinal stationary wave

(1) The amplitude of oscillation is maximum

(2) The density variation is zero

(3) The pressure variation is maximum

(4) The velocity amplitude is maximum



T

T

T

T

l

l

l

l

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154. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = -a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placedat the origin. The change in the electrical potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small distancex along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to

1(1) x (2) x2 (3) x3 (4)

x

155. In an interference experiment using waves of same amplitude, path difference between the waves at a λ

point on the screen is . The ratio of intensity at this point with that at the central bright fringe is4

(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.5 (4) 2.0

156. Which of the following is the graph between the horizontal velocity (vx) of a projectile & time (t) whenit is projected from the ground

(1) (2) (3) (4)

157. A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in the figure. The net torque produced by theforces 4 N at A, 8 N at B, 6 N at C and 9 N at D at angles indicated is

(1) 5.4 N-m anticlockwise (2) 1.80 N-m clock wise

(3) 2.0 N-m clockwise (4) 5.4 N-m clock wise

158. In the spectrum of light of a luminous heavenly body the wavelength of a spectral line is measured tobe 4747 A° while actual wavelength of the line is 4700A°. The relative velocity of the heavenly bodywith respect to the earth will be

(1) 3 × 105 ms-1 (towards the earth) (2) 3 × 105 ms-1 (away from the earth)

(3) 3 × 106 ms-1 (towards the earth) (4) 3 × 106 ms-1 (away from the earth)

159. An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV, entersa region with uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Determine the trajectory of the electron if the field(a) is transverse to its initial velocity, (b) makes an angle of 30° with the initial velocity.

(1) (a) Straight line (b) Helix (2) (a) Circle (b) Circle

(3) (a) Helix (b) Helix (4) (a) Circle (b) Helix

160. An α-particle of 5 MeV energy strikes with a nucleus of uranium (stationary) at an scattering angle of180°. The nearest distance upto which α-particle reaches the nucleus will be of the order of

(1) 1 A° (2) 10-10 cm (3) 10-12 cm (4) 10-15 cm

161. By what percentage the energy of a satellite has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to

3r2

(1) 15% (2) 33.33% (3) 66.7% (4) 20.3%



Vx

t

Vx

t

Vx

t

Vx

t

4N

6N

9N

8N

B

A

D

C

90°°

30°° 20 cm

90°°

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162. A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency ofparticles motion is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, the angular momentum becomes

L L(1) 2L (2) 4L (3) (4)

2 4

163. A long glass tube is held vertically in water. A tuning fork is struck and held over the tube. Strongresonances are observed at two successive lengths 0.5 m and 0.84 m above the surface of water. If thevelocity of sound is 340 ms-1 then the frequency of the tuning fork is

(1) 128 Hz (2) 256 Hz (3) 384 Hz (4) 500 Hz

164. A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directionsis 60°, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 × 10-2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibriumat an angle of 15° with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field?

(1) 4.4 × 10-3 T (2) 4.4 T (3) 2.2 × 10-3 T (4) 8 T

165. In a sample, ratio of P31 and P32 is 1 : 2, P31 is stable. But P32 is a radioactive and decay in S32 withhalf life T. After how long time ratio of P31 and P32 be equal to 2 : 1

T(1) T (2) 2T (3) 4T (4)

2

166. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis. Which of the following pairs of space and timevarying fields would generate such a wave?

(1) Ez, Bx (2) Ey, Bz (3) Ex, By (4) Ey, Bx

167. An anisotropic material has coefficients of linear thermal expansion α1, α2 and α3 along x, y andz-axis respectively. Coefficient of cubical expansion of its material will be equal to

α1 + α2 + α3(1) α1 + α2 + α3 (2) α1 + 2α2 + 3α3 (3) 3α1 + 2α2 + α3 (4)

3

168. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with aperiod of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between planet and star is proportional to

R-5/2, then T2 is proportional to

(1) R3 (2) R7/2 (3) R5/2 (4) R3/2

169. Figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails B and positioned between the poles ofa permanent magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in three mutual perpendiculardirections. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K. Length of the rod = 15 cm,B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod = 9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be uniform.

What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed? (Velocity of rod = 12 cm/sec)

(1) 5 N (2) 75 × 10-6 N (3) 75 × 10-3 N (4) 7.5 N



N

S

Q

PA

B

K

G

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170. Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency (υ) for a metalused as cathode is photoelectric experiment. The work function of metal is

(1) 1 eV (2) 1.5 eV (3) 2 eV (4) 3 eV

171. A particle of small mass m is joined to a very heavy body by a light string passing over a light pulley.Both bodies are free to move. The total downward force on the pulley is

(1) >> mg (2) 4 mg (3) 2 mg (4) mg

172. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal from the sides of anisosceles triangle ABC right angled at B. The points A and B are maintained at temperatures T and√

2 T respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature of

point C will be

3T T T T(1) (2) (3) (4)

√2 + 1 √

2 + 1 √

3( √

2 - 1) √

2 - 1

173. A mass M is split into two parts, m and (M-m), which are then separated by a certain distance. Whatratio of m/M maximises the gravitational force between the two parts?

1 1 1 1(1) (2) (3) (4)

3 2 2 5

174. Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80µF, R = 40 Ω.

Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency.

(1) 40 Ω, 8.1 A (2) 20 Ω, 8.1 A (3) 60 Ω, 16 A (4) 60 Ω, 4 A



3

2

1

0

-1

-2

-3

K

υ

A

B C

R

Cεε

L

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175. The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown. We can then assertthat

(1) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a third group and a fifth groupimpurity respectively.

(2) Sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group impurity.

(3) Sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and fifth group impurities while samplesY and Z are undoped.

(4) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group and a third groupimpurity respectively.

176. A block of mass 5 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of net forceexerted by the surface on the block will be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 25 N

(2) 50

(3) 10 N

(4) 30 N

177. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three different processes. Process I is isobaric process,process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let ∆ U1, ∆ U2 and ∆ U3 be the change in internalenergy of the gas in these three processes. Then

(1) ∆ U1 > ∆ U2 > ∆ U3 (2) ∆ U1 < ∆ U2 < ∆ U3

(3) ∆ U2 < ∆ U1 < ∆ U3 (4) ∆ U2 < ∆ U3 < ∆ U1

178. In the Wheatstone bridge shown below, in order to balance the bridge, values of R1 and R2 will be

(1) R1 = 3 Ω; R2 = 3 Ω (2) R1 = 6 Ω; R2 = 15 Ω

(3) R1 = 1.5 Ω; R2 = any finite value (4) R1 = 3 Ω; R2 = any finite value



X Y Z

60°°

5 kg

1

2

3

P

P0

V0 2V0V

10 Ω

9 Ω

30 Ω

R1

R2

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179. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variablefrequency supply. What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain thismaximum value.

(1) 663 Hz, 14.1 A (2) 663 Hz, 10 A

(3) 230 Hz, 14.1 A (4) 663 Hz, 5 A

180. In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased?

i) ii)

iii) iv)

v)

(1) i, ii iii (2) ii, iv, v (3) i, iii, iv (4) ii, iii, iv

ANSWER KEY

1-3; 2-2; 3-4; 4-4; 5-2; 6-1; 7-2; 8-1; 9-3; 10-1; 11-3; 12-2; 13-2; 14-4; 15-2; 16-4; 17-1; 18-3; 19-4; 20-4;21-4; 22-1; 23-3; 24-2; 25-3; 26-2; 27-4; 28-3; 29-4; 30-2; 31-4; 32-2; 33-3; 34-3; 35-2; 36-3; 37-2; 38-4;39-1; 40-4; 41-2; 42-3; 43-4; 44-4; 45-2; 46-4; 47-4; 48-3; 49-4; 50-1; 51-2; 52-4; 53-4; 54-3; 55-4; 56-3;57-4; 58-2; 59-4; 60-3; 61-4; 62-4; 63-2; 64-2; 65-1; 66-3; 67-2; 68-2; 69-4; 70-1; 71-2; 72-4; 73-2; 74-2;75-4; 76-2; 77-2; 78-2; 79-3; 80-2; 81-4; 82-4; 83-3; 84-2; 85-3; 86-1; 87-1; 88-2; 89-1; 90-4; 91-4; 92-2;93-4; 94-2; 95-4; 96-2; 97-2; 98-4; 99-3; 100-4; 101-2; 102-2; 103-2; 104-4; 105-1; 106-2; 107-2; 108-2;109-3; 110-4; 111-1; 112-2; 113-2; 114-2; 115-3; 116-1; 117-4; 118-2; 119-2; 120-4; 121-3; 122-3 123-2;124-4; 125-1; 126-3; 127-4; 128-4; 129-1; 130-1; 131-1; 132-2; 133-3; 134-3; 135-2; 136-2; 137-2; 138-2;139-3; 140-2; 141-2; 142-4; 143-1; 144-1; 145-4; 146-2; 147-3; 148-2; 149-3; 150-2; 151-3; 152-2; 153-3;154-2; 155-2; 156-2; 157-2; 158-4; 159-4; 160-3; 161-2; 162-4; 163-4; 164-1; 165-2; 166-3; 167-1; 168-2;169-3; 170-3; 171-2; 172-1; 173-2; 174-1; 175-4; 176-2; 177-1; 178-4; 179-1; 180-2.

(Prepared by Sri Gayatri Educational Institutions, Hyderabad)



-12V-10V

-10V

-5V

+5V

+5V

+10V

R

R

R

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