Jurisprudence B.E Questions

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    1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.

    What was the crime committed?

    A. Murder

    B. Parricide

    C. Homicide

    D. QualifiedHomicide

    Answer: B

    2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latters will

    on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms

    in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?

    A. Trespass to Dwelling

    B. Violation of Domicile

    C. Usurpation Of Authority

    D. Forcible

    TrespassingAnswer: B

    3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They

    live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.

    Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of

    Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed

    by Charlie?

    A. Simple Seduction

    B. Qualified Seduction

    C. Consented Abduction

    D. RapeAnswer: B

    4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When

    the two met the following day, Lito slapped

    Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?

    A. Corruption of Public Officials

    B. Direct Assault

    C. Slight Physical Injuries

    D. Grave

    Coercion

    Answer: B

    5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his

    parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1

    million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting

    Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?

    A. Indirect Bribery

    B. Direct Bribery

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    C. Corruption of Public Officials

    D. Qualified

    Bribery

    Answer: D

    6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule madeunder the consciousness of an impending death?

    A. Parol Evidence

    B. Ante mortem statement

    C. Suicide note

    D. Dead man statute

    Answer: D

    7. Factum probans means __.

    A. preponderance of evidence

    B. ultimate fact

    C. evidentiary factD. sufficiency of

    evidence

    Answer: C

    8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

    generation to another.

    A. inheritance

    B. heritage

    C. pedigree

    D. culture

    Answer: C

    9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

    first instance.

    A. Appellate Jurisdiction

    B. General Jurisdiction

    C. Original Jurisdiction

    D. Exclusive

    Jurisdiction

    Answer: C

    10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.A. Counsel de officio

    B. Attorney on record

    C. Attorney at law

    D. Special counsel Answer:

    A

    11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary

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    Procedure?

    A. Violation of rental laws

    B. Violation of traffic laws

    C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment

    D. The penalty does not exceed six months

    imprisonment Answer: C

    12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

    be exercised.

    A. jurisdiction

    B. jurisprudence

    C. venue

    D. bench

    Answer: C

    13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

    A. RA 6425B. RA 8353

    C. BP.22

    D. RA 6975 Answer:

    C

    14. The taking of another persons personal property, with intent to

    gain, by means of force and intimidation.

    A. qualified theft

    B. robbery

    C. theft

    D. maliciousmischief

    Answer: B

    15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of

    force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,

    whether right or wrong.

    A. grave threat

    B. grave coercion

    C. direct assault

    D. slander by

    deedAnswer: B

    16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

    have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or

    herself to lawful calling.

    A. Pimps

    B. prostitutes

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    C. gang members

    D. vagrants

    Answer: D

    17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

    noises designed to annoy and insult.A. Tumultuous

    B. charivari

    C. sedition

    D. scandal

    Answer: B

    18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another

    person to change his residence.

    A. violation of domicile

    B. arbitrary detention

    C. expulsionD. direct

    assault

    Answer: C

    19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

    person without legal grounds.

    A. illegal detention

    B. arbitrary detention

    C. forcible abduction

    D. forcible

    detentionAnswer: A

    20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal

    knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be

    married, although the marriage can be later declared void.

    A. concubinage

    B. bigamy

    C. adultery

    D. immorality

    Answer: C

    21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

    A. 15-18 years old

    B. 18-70 years old

    C. 9 years old and below

    D. between 9 and 15 years

    old Answer:

    C

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    22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of

    the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.

    A. Accomplices

    B. Suspects

    C. principal actorsD. accessories

    Answer: A

    23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

    the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.

    A. prescription of crime

    B. prescription of prosecution

    C. prescription of judgement

    D. prescription of

    penalty

    Answer: D

    24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

    is suspended.

    A. Pardon

    B. commutation

    C. amnesty

    D. reprieve

    Answer: D

    25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

    more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.A. mala prohibita

    B. mala in se

    C. private crimes

    D. public

    crimes

    Answer: A

    26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an

    act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the

    discharge of his public duties.

    A. qualified briberyB. direct bribery

    C. estafa

    D. indirect bribery

    Answer: B

    27. The willful and corrupt

    assertion of falsehood under oath of

    affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.

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    A. libel

    B. falsification

    C. perjury

    D. slander

    Answer: C

    28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

    A. Treachery

    B. evident premeditation

    C. ignominy

    D. cruelty

    Answer: B

    29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

    together in the commission of a crime.

    A. gang

    B. conspiracyC. band

    D. piracy

    Answer: C

    30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.

    A. Negligence

    B. imprudence

    C. omission

    D. act

    Answer: C

    31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and

    capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.

    A. Misfeasance

    B. entrapment

    C. inducement

    D. instigation

    Answer: B

    32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of

    public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.

    A. impossible crimesB. aggravating circumstances

    C. absolutory causes

    D. Complex Crimes

    Answer: C

    33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.

    A. Insanity

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    B. intoxication

    C. passion or obfuscation

    D. evident

    premeditation

    Answer: B

    34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

    what shall be entered for him?

    A. a plea of not guilty

    B. a plea of guilty

    C. a plea of mercy

    D. a plea of

    surrender

    Answer: A

    35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or

    information?A. at any time before his arrest

    B. only after entering his plea

    C. any time before entering his plea

    D. Monday morning

    Answer: C

    36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a

    criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory

    disposition on the case subject to court approval.

    A. Arraignment

    B. plea bargainingC. preliminary investigation

    D. trial

    Answer: B

    37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

    furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his

    appearance before any court as required under the conditions

    specified by law.

    A. Subpoena

    B. recognizance

    C. bailD. warrant

    Answer: C

    38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

    laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose

    of determining such issue.

    A. Trial

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    B. Arraignment

    C. pre-trial

    D. judgment

    Answer:

    A

    39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is notguilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper

    penalty and

    A. trial

    B. Pre-trial

    C. Arraignment

    D. Judgment

    Answer: D

    40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

    whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded

    belief that an offense has been committed and the offender isprobably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.

    A. pre-trial

    B. arraignment

    C. preliminary investigation

    D. plea

    bargaining

    Answer: C

    41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.

    A. secondary evidence

    B. prima facie evidenceC. corroborative evidence

    D. best

    evidence

    Answer: C

    42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

    sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.

    A. secondary evidence

    B. prima facie evidence

    C. corroborative evidence

    D. bestevidence

    Answer: B

    43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

    from conventional symbols, such as letters, by

    which ideas are represented on material substances.

    A. documentary evidence

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    B. testimonial evidence

    C. material evidence

    D. real evidence

    Answer: A

    44. When the witness states that he did not see or know theoccurrence of a fact.

    A. positive evidence

    B. corroborative evidence

    C. secondary evidence

    D. negative

    evidence

    Answer: D

    45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.

    A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an

    offenseB. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the

    offense

    C. subject of the offense

    D. all of the

    above

    Answer: D

    46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known

    their perception to others.

    A. Suspects

    B. witnessesC. victims

    D. informers

    Answer: B

    47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

    human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in

    death.

    A. abortion

    B. infanticide

    C. murder

    D. parricideAnswer: A

    48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

    confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not

    organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be

    ascertained.

    A. alarm and scandal

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    B. mysterious homicide

    C. death under exceptional circumstances

    D. tumultuous affray

    Answer: D

    49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is thelogical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the

    cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.

    A. legal question

    B. juridical question

    C. prejudicial question

    D. judicial

    question

    Answer: C

    50. The RPC was based on the

    A. Spanish penal codeB. English penal code

    C. American penal code

    D. Japanese penal code

    Answer: A

    51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

    that is voluntary but not intentional.

    A. impossible crime

    B. mistake of facts

    C. accidental crime

    D. complexcrime

    Answer: B

    52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than.

    A. 36 hours

    B. 24 hours

    C. 48 hours

    D. 72 hours

    Answer: D

    53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.A. ignorantia legis non excusat

    B. parens patriae

    C. res ipsa loquitur

    D. dura lex sed lex

    Answer: A

    54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if

    it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.

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    A. compound crime

    B. impossible crime

    C. complex crime

    D. accidental

    crime

    Answer: B

    55. The law which reimposed thedeath penalty.

    A. RA 5425

    B. RA 8553

    C. RA 7659

    D. RA 8551

    Answer: C

    56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and

    freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.

    A. discernment

    B. insanityC. epilepsy

    D. imbecility

    Answer: D

    57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

    owner or author

    A. responsibility

    B. duty

    C. guilt

    D. imputability

    Answer: D

    58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and

    although it comes about through some acts of our will,

    lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.

    A. fortuitous event

    B. fate

    C. accident

    D. destiny

    Answer: C

    59. A sworn written statement charging a person with anoffense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace

    officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of

    the law violated.

    A. subpoena

    B. information

    C. complaint

    D. writ

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    Answer: C

    60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

    and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as

    human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.

    A. right to due process of lawB. presumption of innocence

    C. right to remain silent

    D. right against self-

    incrimination A

    nswer: B

    61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

    practices,usages and rules of action which are not

    recognized in our country.

    A. penal laws

    B. special lawsC. common laws

    D. statutory

    laws

    Answer: C

    62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

    crime any of all the conditions that would make

    an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability

    there is civil liability.

    A. Exempting

    B. alternativeC. justifying

    D. aggravating

    Answer: A

    63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

    with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.

    A. exempting

    B. alternative

    C. justifying

    D. aggravating

    Answer: C

    64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim

    suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical

    pain in the consummation of the criminal act.

    A. Ignominy

    B. cruelty

    C. treachery

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    D. masochism

    Answer: B

    65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been

    previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced

    in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.A. Recidivism

    B. habitual delinquency

    C. reiteracion

    D. quasi-

    recidivism

    Answer: A

    66. Alevosia means

    A. Craft

    B. treachery

    C. evident premeditationD. cruelty

    Answer: B

    67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and

    render judgment after a fair trial.

    A. ex post facto law

    B. equal protection of the law

    C. rule of law

    D. due process of

    law

    Answer: D

    68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

    release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious

    physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is

    found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.

    A. Recidivist

    B. quasi-recidivist

    C. habitual delinquent

    D. hardened

    criminal

    Answer: C

    69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

    A. Primary

    B. Best

    C. Secondary

    D. Conclusive

    Answer: D

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    70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

    A. Primary

    B. Best

    C. Secondary

    D. ConclusiveAnswer: D

    71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

    examining party requires.

    A. leading

    B. misleading

    C. stupid

    D. hearsay

    Answer: A

    72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution ofpersons alleged to have committed a crime, and

    or their punishment in case of conviction

    A. Criminal Law

    B. Criminal Evidence

    C. Criminal Procedure

    D. Criminal Jurisprudence

    Answer: C

    73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

    A. 20 years

    B. 15 yearsC. 10 years

    D. 40

    years

    Answer: A

    74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

    A. Accomplices

    B. Accessories

    C. Instigators

    D. Principals

    Answer: D

    75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

    which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another

    person.

    A. libel

    B. slander by deed

    C. incriminating innocent person

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    D. intriguing against

    honor Ans

    wer: B

    76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be

    done.A. misfeasance

    B. malfeasance

    C. nonfeasance

    D. dereliction

    Answer: B

    77. Asworn statementin writing, made upon oath before an

    authorized magistrate or officer.

    A. subpoena

    B. writ

    C. warrantD. affidavit

    Answer: D

    78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

    without authority of law.

    A. alias

    B. common name

    C. fictitious name

    D. screen name

    Answer: C

    79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having

    been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony

    before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving

    the same.

    A. quasi-recidivism

    B. recidivism

    C. reiteracion

    D. charivari

    Answer: A

    80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?A. Municipal mayor

    B. PrivateSchoolTeacher

    C. Police Officer

    D. Municipal

    Councilor

    Answer: C

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    81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or

    disturbances in the State.

    A. Sedition

    B. Rebellion

    C. Treason

    D. Coup detat

    Answer: A

    82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

    A. 30 days

    B. 15 days

    C. 10 days

    D. 60

    days

    Answer: C

    83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public

    officer or employee.

    A. illegal detention

    B. arbitrary detention

    C. compulsory detention

    D. unauthorized

    detention

    Answer: B

    84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person

    who owes allegiance to it.A. treason

    B. espionage

    C. rebellion

    D. coup d

    etat

    Answer: A

    85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

    A. sanctuary

    B. prison

    C. jailD. dwelling

    Answer: D

    86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right

    and wrong.

    A. treachery

    B. premeditation

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    C. recidivism

    D. discernment

    Answer: D

    87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

    A. EstafaB. Murder

    C. Rebellion

    D. Rape

    Answer: C

    88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is

    intended.

    A. Aberratio ictus

    B. Error in personae

    C. Dura Lex Sed lex

    D. PraeterIntentionem

    Answer: D

    89. It means mistake in the blow.

    A. Aberratio Ictus

    B. Error in Personae

    C. Dura lex sed lex

    D. Praeter

    Intentionem

    Answer: A

    90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its

    execution and accomplishment are present.

    A. Attempted

    B. Frustrated

    C. Consummated

    D. Accomplished

    answer:

    C

    91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of

    facts that is voluntary but not intentional.

    A. Absolutory CauseB. Mistake of facts

    C. Conspiracy

    D. Felony

    Answer: B

    92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

    A. Material

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    B. Formal

    C. Seasonal

    D. Continuing

    Answer: A

    93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender aremalicious.

    A. Culpable

    B. Intentional

    C. Deliberate

    D. Inculpable

    Answer: B

    94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

    A. Negligence

    B. Diligence

    C. ImprudenceD. Inference

    Answer: A

    95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

    A. Offenses

    B. Misdemeanors

    C. Felonies

    D. Ordinances

    Answer:

    A

    96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all personswho live or sojourn in the Philippines.

    A. General

    B. Territorial

    C. Prospective

    D. Retroactive

    Answer: A

    97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

    A. Bill of Attainder

    B. Bill of Rights

    C. Ex Post Facto LawD. Penal Law

    Answer: A

    98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be

    bound to answer for the commission of an offense.

    A. Search

    B. Seizure

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    C. Arrest

    D. Detention

    Answer: C

    99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?

    A. RobberyB. Farm Theft

    C. Qualified Theft

    D. Simple

    Theft

    Answer: C

    100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year

    old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was

    the crime committed?

    A. Child rape

    B. Qualified RapeC. Statutory Rape

    D. None of

    these

    Answer: C

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