JMET 2008 Detailed Solutions

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1.

Option 1 is incorrect because it is vague. The passage

does not state that philosophers should always shun

action and speculate. Speculate on what?

Option 3 is incorrect as the passage does not

specifically state that a philosopher should stay away

from ideologues. The passage states that a philosopher

should always promote an unbiased inquiry of his

philosophy.

Option 4 is incorrect as the passage does not mention

anything about philosophers supporting anti war

activism.

Option 2 can be inferred from the following extract,For philosophers, I take it, are ordained as priests tokeep alive the sacred fires on the altar of impartial

truth. Therefore, philosophers should at all timespromote a disinterested inquiry of their discourses.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

2. The passage does not pit Philosophy against war;

rather it mentions their co-existence. Therefore, option

2 is eliminated.

Option 3 is incorrect as the passage does not mention

anything in defence of philosophy. Rather, the author

wishes to define and defend the true form of

philosophy which tries to seek the impartial truth.The author has attempted to counter the accusations

made against him.

Option 4 is eliminated as the passage does not mention

anything about Philosophys quarrels against war. It isnot known to us what the philosophical view on war is.

The passage is a justification given by the author

against the accusations made against him. The author

explains why he did not take part in the war in any

capacity. It is thus an apologia and speaks about the

role of philosophy in wartime.


3.

Option 1 is incorrect as it can be inferred from thelines, On the contrary, when I look upon myprofessional colleagues ... write apologies for their

course.Option 2 is incorrect as it can be inferred that the

author is aware of the sacrifices made in the war when

he states, It is doubtless the height of the unheroic ...which is the basis of civilisation.

Option 3 is eliminated as the author uses the metaphor

of altars and priests, in the line, But it would be sad ifall priests deserted their altars ... instructions on the

use of poison gas.Option 4 is correct as it cannot be inferred from the

passage that the author is a pacifist a person againstwar. The authors view on war has not been stated inthe passage.


4. The question asks for the most appropriate and concise

option, in short, an effective summary.

Option 1 is as wordy and verbose as the main passage.

Except for the different breed part, option 2 statesevery point made in the main passage.

Option 3 is incorrect as it states that keepers of private

notebooks are a different breed in being lonely whilethe passage states that the keeper of private notebooks

are a different breed altogether, two different

meanings.

Options 1, 2 and 3 are therefore not the correct answer

option.


5.

Option 1 is eliminated because the two words should

present contradicting ideas because of the word butin the question stem. Cheap and support presentcomplementary and not contradictory ideas.

Option 2 is incorrect because of the word question.One generally doubts a claim. The first blank, usefulform of energy is awkward and incorrect.

Option 3 is also eliminated because of the word

expensive. Nuclear power advocates cannot possiblyadvocate the most expensive form of energy available.It is logically inconsistent.


6. The first blank requires a quality that has survivedparental discipline. Interest and inquiry can beeliminated, since they would not require discipline.

Thus options 2 and 4 are eliminated.

Inquisitiveness and curiosity are both associatedwith children. Curiosity refers to the desire to learnor know about anything. Inquisitiveness, thoughsynonymous, also means unduly or inappropriatelycurious; prying.

DETAILED SOLUTION

JMET 20081


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JMET 2008


It is clear from the statement that the children have

grown up. Therefore join fits in better than visitaschildren who grow up retaining their curious outlook

and enquiring minds are more likely to be invited to

join the university as faculty members rather than just

visit it. This eliminates option 1.


7. In option 2, Ram should be placed before you. Thecorrect statement should read, Either Ram or you isgoing to look after it.The pronoun you should comeafter the noun.


8. Option 2 is incorrect because of the tense used in the

second part of the sentence. While converting from

direct speech to indirect speech, the tense should

always be past tense.

Option 3 is incorrect because present tense is used.

Option 4 in eliminated because present tense is used inthe first part of the sentence.

Option 1 is correct as past tense is used in both parts of

the sentences.


9. Option 2 is the correct answer as the correct spelling

should be sacrilegious.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

10. Restless and restive are similar meaning words.They more or less mean the same.

Option 2 is incorrect as imminent and eminent aretwo similar sounding words but their meanings are

very different. Imminent means likely to occur at anymoment and eminent means prominent.Option 3 is eliminated as the meaning of haunted andhunted are very different.Option 4 is incorrect as an oculist is an eye doctor andan occultist is a person who believes in the existenceof secret supernatural agencies.

Option 1 is correct as flammable and inflammablecan be used interchangeably. They mean the same.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

11. Objurgatemeans to berate sharply. Obsecratemeansto supplicate or pray humbly. These two words are

approximate opposites of each other.

Option 1 is eliminated as abdicate and abrogate aresynonyms of each other. They mean to abolish byformal means.Option 2 is incorrect as renegade means a personwho deserts one thing for another while relegatemeans to consign something to someone else. Theyare not antonyms of each other.

Option 4 is incorrect as obfuscate means to confuseor bewilder while obligate means to bind morally orlegally.Option 3 is correct as chide means to scold andsupplicate means to pray humbly.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

12. Option 1 is incorrect because the phrase laboursunder a curse is metaphorical in nature- not literal.Therefore it would be incorrect to infer that the writer

is under a curse.

Option 2 is incorrect because the writer is not cursed

in the literal sense of the word.

Option 4 is incorrect. The writer is not given to lusts

but writes about the same.

The following extract, Until he relearns these things,he will write as though he stood among and watched

the end of man refers to a writer who labours under acurse and whose writings are of little significance.This resonates with option 3.


13. Option 1 can be inferred from the following, Becauseof this, the young man or woman writing today has

forgotten the problems of the human heart in conflict

with itself which alone can make good writing because

only that is worth writing about.Option 2 can be inferred from the following extract,

He must learn them again. He must teach himself thatthe basest of all things is to be afraid; and, teaching

himself that, forget it forever, leaving no room in his

workshop for anything but the old verities and truths

of the heart, the old universal truths lacking which any

story is ephemeral and doomed - love and honour and

pity and pride and compassion and sacrifice.Option 4 can be inferred from the following, I believethat man will not merely endure: he will prevail. He is

immortal, not because he alone among creatures has

an inexhaustible voice, but because he has a soul, a

spirit capable of compassion and sacrifice and

endurance. The poet's, the writer's, duty is to write

about these things.Option 3 cannot be inferred. Although the author

mentions that his writings were not for glory or profit

he does not mention that others should follow in hisfootsteps, and not seek money or fame.


14. Option 1 is eliminated because while the author does

mention a tragedy faced by writers, he does not

mention it to be the tragedy of mankind. Moreover, this

cannot be the title of the passage as the author states

this to highlight something else.


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Option 2 is eliminated as the author does talk of the

human heart in conflict but he talks about it to

highlight the duty of a writer.

Option 4 is incorrect as the author talks about the duty

of a writer and in an attempt to explain this; he talks

about the spirit of man. It cannot be used as the title of

the passage as it represents only a part of the passage.


15. The question stem states that some students show

confidence in successfully managing the demands

placed upon them by their own ambitions, ability to

construct intelligent messages and their listenersresponse modes. Option 2 states that students

construct intelligent messages to cope with their

listeners demands. This is different from what the

question stem states.

Options 1, 3 and 4 are similar in meaning to the

question stem.


16.

Option 2 is eliminated because blurring theadvertising / editorial line of their worth meansdiminishing the distinction between editorials and

advertisements, leading to a drop in the perceived

quality of editorials. It does not imply hiding the actual

value of the paper.

Option 3 is incorrect as the question statement does

not imply obscuring the facts in the paper. It may at

most mean showing only the positive facts in the

editorial but does not mean making the facts uncertain

or vague.

Option 4 is incorrect as the existence of advertorials by

no means devalues the advertising potential of

editorials. It would contradict the purpose of

advertorials.


17. In the context of the passage, sceptical would meandoubtful.Circumvent would mean to avoid.Elusive would mean to be evasive.Only option 2 has these words in the correct sequence.


18.

Option 1 is incorrect because it is inverted. It istraditional advertising that does not support high

technology because high technology clients need more

space to get their complicated message across to

potential clients.

Option 2 can be eliminated since the passage mentions

that journalists are sceptical of advertorials, notindifferent to them.

Option 3 cannot be implied from the passage. While

advertorials do enable advertising of complex

products, it is not clear whether they do this in aprofessional manner. The meaning of the phraseprofessional manner is vague.Option 4 is stated in the passage as can be deciphered

from the following extract, and there will almostcertainly be at least one double page spread that looks

like a regular editorial page but is headed up either

'promotion' or 'advertisement'. These hybrids -

unattractively but aptly called advertorials...Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

19. Option 2 is incorrect because the passage discusses

advertorials and the publishing industry in some detail.

Option 3 is also discussed; industries such as

automobiles, finance and high technology have been

mentioned in the passage.

Option 4 has been discussed in the passage. The impact

of new technology meaning high technology increases

the need for advertorials since high technology clients

have a complicated message to put to their clients for

which purpose they need advertorials.

The attitude of journalists towards advertising-

whether traditional or advertorials- especially

traditional has not been discussed in the passage.


20. Option 1 is incorrect: The correct sentence should read,

Because we put a wire fence around the chicken yard,the chickens were not able to escape.Option 2 is incorrect because of the word which. The

correct sentence should read, The disadvantages ofcredit cards can offset the advantages, and that merits

careful consideration.Option 3 is incorrect because on reading the sentence

we are unable to determine who was suffering from

cold, Madhuri or her mother.


21. Option 1 is incorrect as the preposition to should beremoved after opposite. The sentence should read, Theschool is opposite the township building.Option 3 is incorrect as the second half of the sentence

should read; and then take careful aim.Option 4 is eliminated as the second half of the

sentence should read- for it gives me an added lift. Acup of coffee is singular.


22. Option 1 is incorrect. The correct sentence should read,

As the boys approached the swamp, they could hearfrogs croaking.


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Option 2 is incorrect. The correct sentence should read,

She put her car in the garage because she never leavesit out in bad weather.Option 3 is incorrect. The correct sentence should read,

In early colonial villages, one had to depend on woodfor fuel.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

23. The apostrophe in the word products makes option1 incorrect. Moreover, the commas are not necessary.

Option 2 should read, The new residents of Canadafaced still more hardships, loneliness, life in a

wilderness, even death. The semicolon should bereplaced by a comma.

The use of commas in option 4 is incorrect. There

should be a comma before as distinctand not afterit. Therefore the option 4 would read, A fairy story, asdistinct from a merry tale or an animal story, is a

serious tale with a human hero and a happy ending.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

24.

Fiducial means based on or having trust.Official has no relation with Fiducial.Deceit is opposite in meaning to Fiducial.Parochial means of or pertaining to a parish.Trustworthy comes closest in meaning to Fiducial.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

25. Mirific means wonderful.Mundane means common or ordinary.Mystical means spiritually symbolic.Morbid suggests an unhealthy mental state or

attitude.Marvellous is the closest in meaning to mirific.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

26. Plebeian means commonplace or vulgar.Aristocratic means a person holding an exceptionalrank.Prophetic means of the nature of prophecy.Certainty means state of being certain.Vulgar is the only word that comes closest to themeaning of Plebeian.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

27. The relationship in the question stem is that of an

animal, its collective noun and its habitat.

Option 1 is incorrect because of the word sky. A

gaggle of geese is correct but the geeses habitat isnot the sky. Otherwise, it should have been a skein ofgeese if one wants to use sky.

Options 2 and 4 are incorrect because neither can

inanimate things be expressed in collective nouns nor

do they have habitats.

Option 3 is correct because shoals of fish swim in theoceans.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

28. The relation attributable is that a poet with a vision

may be perceived to be like a prophet by his readers

and others.Options 1, 3 and 4 are eliminated as a similar

relationship cannot be established.

Option 2 is the correct answer as a killer with violentmeans can be perceived to be a terrorist.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

29. Option 2 is incorrect as the meaning changes. Option 2

does not state that an error was made in the estimate.

Option 2 implies that the estimate was made by

mistake.

Option 3 is incorrect because of the tense used. The

question statement is in past tense and the thus the

answer statement should also be in past tense.Option 4 is incorrect as the statement means that Mr.

Sullivan estimated the occurrence of a major error.


30. Option 1 is incorrect because of the tense used. The

tense used in the question statement is present tense

and thus, the answer should also be in the present

tense. Moreover, the statement is still in active voice.

Option 2 is eliminated because the sentence is still in

active voice. Passive voice is marked by the use of the

word by. In this option, only the positions of thesubject have been interchanged but it still remains a

sentence in active form.Option 3 is incorrect because although the statement is

in passive voice, the meaning of the sentence has been

distorted.


31. Option 1 is inappropriate because it incorrectly states

that his teachings would be misrepresented and

misapplied after fifty years when the passage states

that his teachings would be misrepresented and

misapplied forfifty years and even then they may still

be misrepresented.

Option 2 is incorrect because it states that his

teachings would be appreciated after 50 years whilethe paragraph doubts the same.

Option 3 is incorrect because understanding his

teachings would not lead to their misrepresentation or

misapplication, rather it would take fifty years for

people to understand his accomplishments.

Option 4 comes closest to the meaning of the

paragraph by stating that understanding and applying


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his teachings would take at least fifty years, implying

that his accomplishments and teachings were very

profound and difficult to comprehend.


32. Option 2- sin of bias cannot be attributed to

misattribution- as defined in the passage.Option 3 is incorrect. The sin of persistence can occur

while we are awake too.

Option 4 can be eliminated as one of the sins of

omission, namely transience refers to a weakening orLOSS of memory over time. If there is loss of memory

no presence of memory is involved.


33. Transience means transitory or not lasting.Transference means act or process of transferring.Truculence means fierce or cruel.Epiphanic means an appearance or manifestation.

Ephemeral means transitory and is the correctanswer option.


34.

Option 1 is incorrect as the passage talks about the

impact of memory malfunctions on our daily lives

through various examples that are cited while

explaining different types of memory malfunctions.

Option 2 is incorrect as the author explains the reasons

for memory malfunctions while explaining the

different types of malfunctions.

Option 4 is incorrect as the author mentions lapses and

distortions of memory in the first paragraph itself.

The author states that the seven memory sins affectour daily lives like the seven deadly sins but the author

does not mention the relationship between them. Thus,

Option 3 is correct.


35. Anathema means a person or thing detested orloathed.Salubrious means favouring to or promoting health.Feral means existing in a natural state.Curse means an expression of a wish that misfortunebefall on someone or something.Benediction means an utterance of good wishes and is

opposite in meaning to the capitalized wordAnathema.Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

36. Fecund means very productive or fertile.Fertile means bearing or capable of bearing.Auspicious means favoured by fortune.Stolid means not easily stirred or moved mentally.

Barren means unproductive or unfruitful and isopposite in meaning to the capitalized word, Fecund.Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

37. Concinnity means any harmonious adaptation ofparts.

Congruity means a point of agreement or inharmony.Mismatch means a bad or unsatisfactory match.Deceit means an act or device intended to deceive.Harmony means agreement or accord.Mismatch means a bad or unsatisfactory match.Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

38. Option 1 other thing being equal / people in anyfields who can express / themselves effectively are

sure to succeed / more rapidly than / those command

of language is poor. However, there are a few mistakes.

In the first part, it should be - other things being equal.

In the second part, it should be - people in any fieldwho can express. In the fourth part, it should be - those

whose command of language is poor

Option 3 we are likely to give more / credence to ourown recollections of events / than others when ourmemories / readily spring to mind and is /

accompanied by vivid compelling details. However,

there is an error of subject-verb agreement in the third

part of the sentence. It should be readily spring tomind and are

Option 4 than to see peoples working from morn tillnight/ and then proceed to fritter away at card-tables /

in cafes and small-talk / what time is left for living/

certainly is common now days

The sentence should read peopleand not peoples.Option 2 it is always necessary to take into accountnot only the number,/ length, and interrelations of

rhythmical units/ but also the patterns of stressed and

unstressed words/ in analyzing prose rhythms or

sentence movement / for whatever effects they may

create


NOTE: These options being phrases (and not

sentences) are incomplete.

39. Option 1 is eliminated as the author discusses the

factors contributing to lower interest rates in the last

paragraph.

Option 2 is incorrect as the author discusses how the

global economic boom has helped India achieve its

high growth rates at various places in the passage.

Option 3 is incorrect as the author discusses the three

structural changes in the Indian economy.


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Option 4 is correct as the author merely mentions the

public sector once in the passage but does not discuss

its role in Indias reforms.Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

40. Option 1 is correct because of the following extract

from the passage, The growth in the first decade afterreforms was not significantly different from the growth

rate in the eighties.Option 2 is correct because of the following extract,

The 'reforms' in the sense of market-oriented or evenpro-business policies did not commence overnight in

1991, but had commenced earlier.Option 4 can be deciphered from the following,

Thanks to the rise in the savings rate, the economyhas moved on to an altogether higher investment rate.Option 3 is incorrect because the passage does not

state nor can it be implied that structural changes in

the Indian economy have helped lower interest rates.

The passage mentions that lower interest rates is

common to the three structural changes. They have

been made possible by rise in inflows on both current

and capital accounts.


41. Options 1 and 4 are incorrect because there is no

mention of any particular method of preparation

mentioned in the given paragraph.

Option 2 is incorrect because the evidence was not

overlooked as his father talks about the two students

who had made it through the JMET exam.

Option 3 is the only correct answer as Gopal is trying to

point out a logical flaw in his fathers theory that onlyby putting in more efforts, could he qualify the JMET

exam.


42. Option 2 is incorrect since there has to be a concrete

reason supporting Gopal's fathers rebuttal and notmerely his experience.

Option 4 is incorrect since Gopal's father provides him

with no reason but asks him to try out his suggestion.

Option 1 seems to be the correct answer but is

incomplete. His father takes into consideration only the

duration put in by the seniors. There could be some

other factors like the intellect level of individuals and

flair for the subject to name a few whereas option 3

asks for more supporting data apart from the only

comparison of effort mentioned by Gopal.

Therefore option 1 seems to be the only correct

answer.


43. Statement I is incorrect because it is possible that one

can get admission into the preferred institute even

after getting a rank worse than 500 due to other

reasons.

Statement II is incorrect because of the same reason as

given above.

Only III seems to be the correct option as it is in direct

correlation with the given reasoning.

Hence, option 2.

44. Both statements I and IV have the same implication.

Also, statements II and III are definitely required to

find the other dimensions.

So, either statements I, II, III or statements II, III, IV are

required to determine the dimensions of the polygon.

Hence, option 2.

45.

L and U are separated by 8 letters in the alphabet. I and

R are also separated by 8 letters. But L and Q are

separated by 4 letters.So, the first and the last letters of both sides should

have the same number of letters between them, and

middle letters of both sides should have a different

number of letters between them.

This can be seen only in option 2 where A and T as well

as E and X are separated by 18 alphabets each. X and I

are separated by 14 alphabets.

Hence, option 2.

46. Ahmed walks towards Burman and Burman walks

towards Chhaya. Burman walks along the side of the

square, but Ahmed walks a curved path. As the shortest

distance between Ahmeds initial position andChhayas position is a2, Ahmeds path is of length

greater than .When Burman reaches Chhaya, he has travelled a

distance of aunits and so has Ahmed.

Distance between Ahmed and Burman = Length of

Ahmeds path a

Hence, option 4.

47. According to option 1, Ravi is at the exact middle of the

class with an average score of 60% but the distribution

of the scores is not known. It is very much possible that

Ravi has a score of less than 60% but the class average

is still 60%.

Option 2 is incorrect because the criterion for second

class has not been defined.

Option 3 is incorrect because the criterion for selection

for the scholarship has not been mentioned.


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Option 4 clearly states that anyone scoring less than

60% has to appear for the re-examination and Ravi

does not need to do that. So, Ravi has scored over 60%

marks.

Hence, option 4.

48.

The team has 4 members and half of them are female.So the other half, i.e. 2 members have to be male. So,

statement II is a fact.

Now, we know that half the members are proficient in

mathematics and half in computer science but we have

no idea about their gender from the given facts. So,

none of the other statements is a fact.

Hence, option 1.

49. According to the given facts, Manoj always tells the

truth while Anush lies sometimes. So Manoj and Anush

both went for a movie last night.

Statements I and II are also facts while statement IIIis not.Hence, option 3.

50. None of the given facts compare the chairs made of

aluminium and plastic. So, none of the given

statements can be considered to be a fact.

Hence, option 4.

51. According to the given facts all metros have ring roads

and Delhi is a metro with a population more than 5

million. But they do not state that all cities with ring

roads are metros or all metros have a population more

than 5 million.

Only statement I is a fact.

Hence, option 1.

52. According to the given information, we can figure out

the following sequences for people staying from left to

right. Room indicated by unknown could mean

occupied by someone not in the list or an empty room.

Also, if it is known that a person stays single or with a

roommate, it has been indicated in brackets.

(a) Rajender (single) and Pankaj (single), unknown,

Mary, Ahmed and Chandra (roommate), unknown,

Lakshman and roommate

(b) Balu (single) and Ferosh (single), unknown,

unknown, Narayan

(c) Jitender (single), unknown, Esha, William

So, we can complete the arrangement as shown below:

Rajender Balu Jitender Esha

CORRIDOR

Pankaj Ferosh MaryAhmed and

ChandraNarayan

Lakshmanand William

Clearly, option 3 gives a correct possible arrangement

from left to right in the figure above.

Hence, option 3.

53. From the arrangement in the previous question, it is

clear that Jitender and Mary stay in the same block and

Narayan and Esha stay in the same block while Ahmedand Lakshman do not stay in the same block.

Hence, option 3.

54. According to the possible arrangement, the only option

is that William and Lakshman are roommates.

Hence, option 2.

55.

From the arrangement, it is clear that Rajender stays in

the first block which is to the left of the second block in

which Balu and Ferosh stay.

Hence, option 1.

56.

Empty rooms are available in the fourth and the sixth

block.Hence, option 4.

57. Jitender moves to Rajinders (or Pankajs) room whomoves to Balus (or Feroshs) room who moves toEshas (or Narayans) room who in turn moves tooccupy Jitenders old room. Either Esha or Narayan is the new occupant ofJitenders old room.Hence, option 2.

58. The academia looks for people with Ph.D to take up

academic positions but if they are paid higher in the

industries than in academics, they choose to work in

industries instead of taking positions in academia.

Thus, option 3 strengthens the argument the most

while option 2 weakens the argument and option 4 has

no relevance to the argument stated.

Option 1 also strengthens the argument but is vague as

compared to option 3.


59. According to the given facts, Tabla players are

musicians who have to be trained for at least 10 years.

So, some musicians have been trained for 10 years. But

it does not say that all musicians who are trained for

10 years are Tabla players or that all musicians are

Tabla players. There is no mention of children in any of

the given facts, thus deriving a conclusion on them will

be wrong.

Hence, option 3.


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60. Windy conditions on foggy days and sunny days cannot

be compared using the given facts. All that is known is

that cloudy days are windier than foggy days as well as

sunny days.

Hence, option 4.

61.

We know that car, van and jeep are all parked to theright of the truck. We also know that the van is parked

to the right of the car as well. But we dont know therelative parking positions of the jeep and the van or the

jeep and the car. However, as the jeep is parked to the

right of the truck, the truck is definitely parked to the

left of the jeep.

Hence, option 4.

62. From the given information:

If someone likes task B, he definitely likes E and does

not like C while he may or may not like task A.

If someone likes task C, he definitely likes D and does

not like E but definitely likes F.If someone likes task D, he definitely likes F and may

like E or C but not both.

If Amit enjoys D, that means he may or may not likeC.

Hence, option 1.

63. Balvinder likes B. So, he definitely likes E and thus he

definitely does not like task C.

Hence, option 2.

64. It is known that if someone likes task C, then he

definitely does not like task E.

Chetan definitely does not like task E. So, option 4 is

false.

Hence, option 4.

65. Option 1 is incorrect because all those who like task E

do not like task C.

Someone who likes task F may or may not like task A.

So, option 2 is incorrect.

As all those who like task E do not like task C, but only

some of those who like task E also like task A, we can

say that those who like the task A may or may not like

the task C. So, option 3 is correct.

Option 4 is also incorrect because all those who like

task B like task E and may or may not like task D.

Hence, option 3.

66. Charu had set her clock on some arbitrary time and

then walked to Parus house. She sees the time atParus place as soon as she enters and immediatelybefore leaving. On coming back she is able to set her

clock to the correct time. This is possible only if she

knows how much time she would have spent in her to

and fro journey to Parus place. For this it would onlybe apt to assume that she knows the average time

taken to walk to Parus house.Hence, option 4.

67. The rank of a business school as compared to some

other business school depends on four factors. So, to besure that school A is ranked better than school B, we

need to know their individual ratings according to all

factors. Options 1, 2 and 3 do not compare all factors

but only one factor each. However, option 4 speaks

about all factors in general.

Hence, option 4.

68. The theme of the passage is liberalization of theaviation sector. Hence, the first statement should be(i). It should then be followed by statement (iii) which

speaks about the effect of the liberalization on the

aviation sector as well as the railways. This then

connects to (ii) which tells us about what railways aretrying to do to counter the effects of liberalization as

told in (iii). Statement (iv) provides an apt end to the

passage as it relates all that has happened to how

customers are benefiting from it.


69. The theme of discussion is the war in Iraq and hence

statement (i) only can start the passage as it introduces

the ongoing war in Iraq while the rest of thestatements talk about its details and effects on world

peace etc.


70.

Statement (iii) introduces the theme of the passage

which is the discovery of the cave paintings and tells

about their origin. Statement (i) then tells about the

reason for rewriting these paintings based on what is

said in (iii). Statement (iv) and (ii) in that order then

tell about how these cave paintings were originally

discovered by a hunter.


71. The main theme of the passage is young cubs engagingin aggressive play. This is introduced in (iv) and thentalked about in (iii). Statement (ii) then relates this to

how cubs in captivity never engage in aggressive play

and statement (i) gives a reason for how captivity may

lead to absence of aggressive play.


72.

Statement (ii) introduces how Taj was promoted in a

campaign by the electronic media while statement (iv)

talks about how unnecessary the campaign was and

statement (iii) gives reason as to why the campaign


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JMET 2008


was not required. Statement (i) then ends the passage

by thwarting the method used to decide the seven

wonders and telling how and by whom it should have

actually been done.


73.

The main theme is the income of Monarchs which isintroduced in statement (iii). It is then followed by (i)

which speaks about how Nepals government hasdecided to strip the allowance of the royal family and

(iv) gives a reason for their doing so. Statement (ii)

then concludes by giving a suggestion towards what

should be Nepals governments next steps towardsending Monarchy.


74. In the discussion between Rajeev and Sanjay what

comes out is the fact that Rajeev believes that a person

who has scored 2 centuries in his past 2 innings cannot

get out at 0 in the next innings and thus does notbelieve what Sanjay said.


75.

We need a minimum of 2 turns to find out the odd ball

with certainty. We take out 1 ball from the 5 balls and

weigh the remaining 4 balls in pairs of 2 against each

other. If they are equal, we know that the ball we took

out was the odd one out. However, if one group of 2

balls is heavier than the other, then one of the 2 from

the heavier group is the odd one out. So, for the next

turn we weigh the 2 balls in the heavier of the two

pairs against each other. The ball that turns out to be

heavier in this round of weighing will be the odd ball.In 2 turns we can certainly tell the odd ball out.Hence, option 2.

76. The conclusion given can be true only if students who

are from IIT are allowed to wear shirts with IIT logos

while outsiders are not allowed to do so.


77.

If employees who do not use gymnasium facility could

also be fit then there would be no need for providing

gymnasium facilities. However, if ONLY those who use

this facility are fit while the others are not, the

argument is strengthened.


78. According to the given argument, gymnasium facility

makes employees fit. However, according to option 3,

not all those who use it are fit and thus it weakens the

argument.

Options 1 and 2 talk about the fitness of employees

who undergo a dieting program. This has not been

mentioned in the argument and is hence irrelevant.

Option 4 on the other hand actually strengthens the

argument.


79. Three witnesses said that the thief was tall while 2 said

he was short. So, he was probably tall. Similarly, 3

witnesses said that he was stout and 3 said that he was

young. So, the correct description of the thief will

probably be that he was tall, stout and young.


80. Statement III is clearly justified from the CEOsargument. Hence III definitely can be deduced.

However, from I and II, I seems to be more justified as

II speaks of some far off reasons not at all related to the

arguments given by the CEO.


81. As is known from the question that pens of variety S

and P are sold for Rs. 10 and Rs. 25 each. We have to

maximize the revenue generated by selling pens of

both the varieties.

MaxZ= 10S + 25PAlso, the total time for the two shifts = 2 8 60 = 960

minutes

Now, we need to satisfy the conditions for both

machines M1 and M2.

For M1, we know that the following gives the number

of pens manufactured per minute.

Similarly, for M2 we know that the number of pens

manufactured per minute can be found using:

The LPP problem is given by,

MaxZ= 10S + 25P

Subject to:

Hence, option 3.

82.

Total refills manufactured = R

Now, we have to manufacture at least 80 more refills

for Sand 50 more refills for P.

So, total refills manufactured have to satisfy:

R (S+ 80) + (P+ 50)R (S+ P) 130Hence, option 2.


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JMET 2008


83. MIS can select 0, 1, 2 or 3 students.

The number of ways in which MIS can select 0, 1, 2 or3 students = 8C0+ 8C1+ 8C2+ 8C3= 1 + 8 + 28 + 56 = 93

There are 93 possible combinations for MIS forstudent selection.

Hence, option 2.

Note:A Selection criterion also contains No selectionof students.

84. CMA comes from recruitment immediately after MIS.

Now, if MIS does not recruit anyone, then all 8 students

are up for CMA and thus CMA can recruit students in

93 ways. (As discussed for MIS in the previous

problem)

But, out of these 93 ways, in 1 case they do not recruit

any student.

The probability of CMA not recruiting any studentgiven that MIS has not recruited any student = 1/93

Hence, option 4.

85. The number of options with BLB depends on the

number of students recruited by MIS and CMA.

Say, they recruit 3 students each. Then BLB is left with

2 students. So, it can recruit either no student, or one of

the 2 students (2 ways to do so) or both students. Thus,

they can recruit students in 4 ways.

But, if MIS and CMA do not recruit any students, BLB

can recruit 0, 1, 2 or 3 students out of 8 students. In

which case, they again have 93 options (as discussed in

previous problems).

Hence, option 4.

Note: Since there was no option corresponding to theanswer, so we have changed the option 4 as per the

correct answer.

86. The profit from the investment in a project is a onetime

deal and in this case it comes in picture at the end of

the second year when the project starts generating

revenue.

If initial investment was Rs. 2,00,000 and cost of capital

is known to be 10%, then at the end of 1 year, cost of

capital = 10% of 2,00,000 = Rs. 20,000

Total investment at the end of 1 year = Rs. 2,20,000Now, initial investment for 2ndyear = Rs. 2,20,000

Cost of capital at the end of 2 years = 10% of 2,20,000= Rs. 22,000Total investment at the end of 2 years= 2,20,000 + 22,000 = Rs. 2,42,000

Minimum yield should be Rs. 2,42,000.Hence, option 1.

87. Investment at the beginning of 1styear = Rs. 1,00,000

Cost of capital at the end of 1st year = Rs. 10,000

Now, investment at the beginning of 2ndyear

= Rs. 1,10,000 + Rs. 1,00,000 = Rs. 2,10,000

Investment at the beginning of 3rdyear= Rs. 2,10,000 1.1 = Rs. 2 ,31,000

Revenue at the beginning of 3rdyear = Rs. 1,50,000

Revenue at the beginning of 4thyear = Rs. 1,50,000

Total revenue at the beginning of 4th year = Rs.3,00,000

While the total investment at the beginning of 4thyear

= Rs. 2,31,000 1.1 = Rs. 2 ,54,100

The life of the project should be at least 4 years forthe revenue to cross the investment, i.e. for the project

to be profitable.

Hence, option 3.

88. In order to express Sas a function of t we integratethe given function.

( )

log (700 S) = 0.04t+ c (f(x) = 700 Sandf(x) = 1)log (700 S) = 0.04t+ C (Let C = c)Given that S= 0 when t = 0, so we get,

log (700 0) = 0.04 0 + Clog 700 = C

()( )Hence, option 4.

89. Double declining balance method is an accelerated

depreciation method meaning that it assumes that the

asset will lose majority of its value in the first few years

of its useful life.

Double declining method is based on current book

value and years of usefulness. Its calculated using the

following formula:

( ) Hence, option 4.

90. The total cost incurred by the seller for market 1 = Cost

of sending q1 products through channel 1 + Cost of

sending q3products through channel 2

Similarly,

The total cost incurred by the seller for market 2 = Cost

of sending q2 products through channel 1 + Cost of

sending q4products through channel 2


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Putting the above data in equation form, we get,

F1= q1f1+ q3f2 (i)F2= q2f1+ q4f2 (ii)Thus, in matrix form, we can write the above 2

equations as:

[] []Or [] []Hence, option 4.91.

Putting the values given in the question in equation (i)

and (ii) above, we get

10 = 2f1 + 4f2 (iii)20 = 4f1+ 8f2 (iv)Substituting the values given in the options, we find

thatf1= 1 andf2= 2 satisfies both the equations

This solution is not unique as both equations (i) and

(ii) are the same and hence there are infinite solutions.

Hence, option 1.

92.

TR= 3W1.2

A3.6

If Wincreases by 5%, then the new value of the wages

will be W= 1.05WTR = 3(W)1.2A3.6= 3(1.05W)1.2A3.6

= (1.05)1.2TR

(1.05)1.2> 1.051Increase in TRwill be greater than 5%.Hence, option 4.

93. If W increases by 5%, then the new value of the wages

will be W= 1.05WIf the Advertising expenditure decreases by 2%, then

new advertising expenditure will be A = 0.98A TR = 3(W)1.2(A)3.6= 3(1.05W)1.2(0.98A)3.6

= (1.05)1.2(0.98)3.6TR

0.986 TR The Total Revenue decreases by 1.4%approximately.

Hence, option 4..

94. () () () ( )

() () {()} () () () ( )

() () {()}

Hence, option 2.

95.

The number of tourists may vary due to unforeseen

events. So, the equation should have one variable that

is independent of t which can take positive or negative

values according to the circumstances.N(t) = a2t2+ b2t+ chas a variable cwhose value canchange according to the circumstances

Hence, option 3.

96. Since we are assuming that no unusual events (bird flu,

chickungunya, terrorist attacks, etc.) will occur over

the next eight years, we need not have a variable

independent of t in the equation.

On plotting the graph of t against N(t), we see that itsan inverted parabola withyaxis as the axis.

N(t) = at2 + btHence, option 4.

97. Total number of employees that leave from X to join Y

or Z = 5 + 3 = 8

Retirements and retrenchments from X = 3

Total number of people leaving X = 8 + 3 = 11Total number of employees from Y and Z joining X = 10+ 8 = 18

Fresh Recruits in X = 10

Total number of employees joining X = 10 + 18 = 28Net increase in employees in X per month = 28 11= 17

Net increase in employees in X in a year = 17 12= 204

Total number of employees in X at the end of the year= 500 + 204 = 704

Only in option 1 the number of employees of X after a

year is 704.

Total number of employees that leave from Y to join X

or Z = 9

Retirements and retrenchments from Y = 6

Total number of people leaving Y = 6 + 9 = 15Total number of employees from X and Z joining Y = 17

Fresh Recruits in Y = 12

Total number of employees joining Y = 12 + 17 = 29Net increase in employees in Y per month = 29 15

15

10

5 4.9

7.06.5

200620021998


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= 14

Net increase in employees in Y in a year = 14 12= 168

Total number of employees in Y at the end of the year= 650 + 168 = 818

Total number of employees that leave from Z to join X

or Y = 22

Retirements and retrenchments from Z = 10

Total number of people leaving Z = 10 + 22 = 32Total number of employees from X and Y joining Z = 4

Fresh Recruits in Z = 20

Total number of employees joining Z = 20 + 4 = 24Net increase in employees in Z per month = 24 32 =8Net increase in employees in Z in a year = 8 12 =96Total number of employees in Z at the end of the year= 800 96 = 704

Hence, option 1.

98. By the above question after nmonths,

Employees in X = 500 + 17n

Employees in Y = 650 + 14n

Employees in Z = 800 8nNow, we need to minimize F = |Employees in X Employees in Y| + |Employees in Y Employees in Z|= |150 3n| + |150 22n|Clearly, 150 22n is positive till June and becomesnegative in July and the value of 150 3n keepsdecreasing.

F is minimum when n = 7 i.e. in the month of July2006Hence, option 2.

99. Worker does the work of 60 hours in 50 hours.

His efficiency is 120%.Wage = 50 [2 + 10% of 2 + 20 (2% of 2)] = 50 (2+ 0.2 + 0.8) = Rs. 150

Hence, option 3.

100. The town has roads laid on a square grid parallel tothe x and y axes the distance between any two points

(x1,y1) and (x2,y2) is given by the following relation.

d= x1x2+ y1y2The co-ordinates of M is (4, 4) and that of N is (6, 16).

Distance between M and N = 4 6+ 4 16= 2 + 12= 14

Hence the table,

M N O P Q W

M 0 14 32 28 22 18

N 14 0 18 14 32 16

O 32 18 0 12 30 14

P 28 14 12 0 18 10

Q 22 32 30 18 0 16

W 18 16 14 10 16 0

From the table, we get that the supermarkets in

increasing order of distance from the warehouse are P,

O, N/Q, M.

Hence, option 3.

101. From the table,

Distance from M to N = 14

Distance from N to O = 18

Distance from O to P = 12

Distance from P to Q = 18

Distance from Q to M = 22

Total Distance = (14 + 18 + 12 + 18 + 22) = 84 km

Each square block in the grid has sides of length 2km.

Total Distance = 84 2 = 168 kmHence, option 4.

Note: Since there was no option corresponding to the

answer, we have changed the option 4 as per the

correct answer.

102. Distance from W to M = 18 km

Distance from W to N = 16 km

Distance from W to O = 14 km

Distance from W to P = 4 + 6 = 10 km

Distance from W to Q = 10 + 6 = 16 km

Truck reaches earliest at N.

Hence, option 4.

103.

The total surface area of a packet = 2rh+ 2r2

Where = 22/7 and r= 2.5 cmLet h1, h2 and h3 be the height of 5 biscuit, 10 biscuit

and 20 biscuit packets, respectively.

h1= 0.5 5h2 = 0.5 10

h3= 0.5 20

Surface area of 5 biscuit packet = 2.5 2 (0.5 5 + 2.5) = 25


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Similarly, surface area of 10 biscuit packet = 37.5And surface area of 20 biscuit packet = 62.5Ratio of surface areas = 1 : 1.5 : 2.5Hence, option 4.

104. In this case, we have to find the total curved surface

area of the packs, since the ends of the packets aresealed with cardboards.

( ) Hence, option 1.

105.

Cost of sheet per square centimetre = 168/6600

(taking area of the sheet as given in the previousquestion)

Total cost of packet with 5 biscuits = Cost of 5 biscuits

+ Cost of sheet used + Cost of 2 caps + other costs

Similarly, costs of pack of 10 biscuits and of 20 biscuits

are Rs. 8 and Rs. 14, respectively.

Also, Selling Price of a pack of 5, 10 and 20 biscuit

packs is Rs. 8, Rs. 14 and Rs. 23, respectively.

Profit on 5, 10 and 20 biscuit packs are Rs. 3, Rs. 6and Rs. 9, respectively.

Ratio of the profits = 3 : 6 : 9, i.e. 1 : 2 : 3Hence, option 1.106. As x1 and x2 are the number of packets of biscuits (in

thousands), then each of them must be a non negative

integer. So, option (4) is correct.

There are 15 distributors for each of the x1 thousand

packets of 5s and 5 distributors for each of the x2thousand packets of 10s. The maximum number ofdistributors is 75.

15x1 + 5x2 75From the additional packets, the total profit will be

(P5x1 1000 + P10x2 1000) rupees.

P5x1 + P10x2 can be an objective function, to bemaximized.The expression 5000x1 + 10000x2 gives the total

number of biscuits available to make the additional

(x1 + x2) thousand packets. As we have no information

on the total number of biscuits available, the equation

5x1 + 10x2= 100 may or may not be a constraint

Hence, option 3.

107. We dont know the number of packets of 20s that werebeing produced previously.

The total number of additional packets of 5s and 10sthat can be produced cannot be determined.

Hence, option 4.

108.

Normal Distribution is a continuous distribution thatclutters around a mean or average.

We can eliminate option 1.The hyper geometric distribution is a discrete

probability distribution that describes the number of

successes in a sequence of n draws from a finite

population without replacement, just as the binomial

distribution describes the number of successes for

draws with replacement.

In the question the probability of picking up a packet

from the lot of 100 is the same for all the three packets

picked up from the same lot. And here we assume that

the packets are picked with replacement. Therefore,

we may use either Binomial or Poisson distribution to

evaluate the probability.

The binomial distribution converges towards the

Poisson distribution as the number of trials goes to

infinity while the product npremains fixed. Therefore,

the Poisson distribution with parameter = npcan beused as an approximation to B(n, p) of the binomial

distribution if nis sufficiently large andpis sufficiently

small. According to two rules of thumb, this

approximation is good if n 20 and p 0.05, or if n100 and np 10. Here n= 3 < 20.We can also eliminate option 3.Hence, option 2.

109. Probability of not having any defective packs of 5s= (1 0.1)3 = 0.93 = 0.729Similarly, probability of not having any defective packs

of 10s and 20s is 0.512 and 0.343.Total probability of all packets being accepted= 0.729 0.512 0.343 = 0.128

Hence, option 3.

110. If they buy 1 B747, they also buy 3 B777 and 5 A321.

So, for every B747 bought, total seating generated will

be = 400 + 3 300 + 5 200 = 2300

Total requirement is 4600 seats. So, they need to make

2 such buying.

So, they have to buy 2 B747, 6 B777 and 10 A321.

Hence, option 1.

Alternatively,

For every B747 bought the ratio of B777 and A321

bought should be 3 : 5.

Only in option 1, the ratio of B777 and A321 bought is

3 : 5.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Probability_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Populationhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poisson_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poisson_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distributionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Populationhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Probability_distribution


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Hence, option 1.

111.

Let us first calculate the number of seats for each of the

given options.

Option 1:

Number of seats = 2 400 + 4 300 + 9 200 = 3800

seatsCost = 2 250 + 4 150 + 9 100 = $2000 millions

Option 2:

Number of seats = 2 400 + 6 300 + 6 200 = 3800

seats

Cost = 2 250 + 6 150 + 6 100 = $2000 millions

Option 3:

Number of seats = 2 400 + 5 300 + 7 200 = 3700

seats

Cost = 2 250 + 5 150 + 7 100 = $1950 millions

Option 4:

Number of seats = 1 400 + 5 300 + 10 200 = 3900

seats

Cost = 1 250 + 5 150 + 10 100 = $2000 millions

Clearly, option 4 provides the maximum number of

seats for just $50 millions more than option 3 and at

the same price as options 1 and 2. So, option 4 is the

best choice.

Hence, option 4.

112. Let the number of B747, B777 and A321 purchased be

x,yandz, respectively.

As no maximum budget is provided in this problem,

therefore, we will take the budget provided in the

previous problem i.e. $2000 million.

250x+ 150y + 100z = 2000

5x+ 3y+ 2z= 40 (i)The possible solutions of (i) are (8, 0, 0), (1, 5, 10), (2,4, 9), (2, 6, 6), (0, 0, 20), (4, 0, 10), (1, 1, 16) and so on.

So, there are more than 6 six ways.

Hence, option 4.

113. Again, we have 250x+ 150y+ 100z= 1950

So, 5x + 3y + 2z = 39 (i)Clearly, the possible solutions for (i) in this equation

are (0, 13, 0), (1, 10, 2), (1, 8, 5), (1, 6, 8), (1, 4, 11), (1,

2, 14), (1, 0, 17) and so on.

There are more than five possibilities.Hence, option 4.

114. The total value of the Dissatisfaction Index (i.e. DI)

= DIwc+ DIic

We have to minimize the total dissatisfaction of the

two patients.

()

For the Dissatisfaction to be minimum, d(DI)/dt= 0

() ()

By second derivative test, DI is minimum at t = 15

minutesHence, option 3.

115. The value of DI att= 15 minutes is 7.

Hence, option 1.

116. Solving we get, t12.75 minutesHence, option 2.

117. e= 2.71 > 2

So, as t,f3(t) >f1(t).Also, as f4(t) has a quadratic power of time t, f4(t) >

f2(t).

Numbers (>1) raised to the power t will be greater

than multiples of powers of t.

aebt > a2bt > at2+ bt> a+ btAscending order of functions will be f2(t), f4(t), f1(t),

f3(t).

Hence, option 4.

118. As we can buy 0.023 $, 0.015 and 0.012 for Rs. 1

We can buy 2300 $, 1500 and 1200 for Rs. 1 Lakh.As, 2300 > 1500 > 1200, therefore, $ > > Hence, option 1.

119.

Let money that the person has INR be Rs. x.

Money received from bank = $ 0.023 (x1000)Money received from changer at airport = $0.022x

0.022x> 0.023x 2323 > 0.001xx< INR 23,000Hence, option 3.

120.

According to transactions with INR, we get,1 = 1.274 So, the rate should change by the following equation.

Hence, option 3.


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JMET 2008


121.

Year 2002-03 2003-04 2004-05 2005-06 2006-07

Production (units) 14000 18000 20000 17000 15000

Sales (units) 12000 17000 16000 19000 19000

Unsold (units) 2000 1000 4000 2000 4000

Cumulative 2000 + 1000 3000 + 4000 7000 2000 5000 4000Unsold (units) = 3000 = 7000 = 5000 = 1000

The cumulative unsold stock can be calculated as shown in the table above:

The cumulative unsold stock is the largest at the end of the year 2004-05.Hence, option 3.

122.

For the year 2002-03

Total Sales = Sales Price = 12000 10000 = Rs. 120 million

Total Cost = Fixed cost + Variable cost = 18 + 84 = Rs. 102 million

Cash in hand at the beginning of 2002-03 = Rs. 5 million

Cash in hand at the end of 2002-03 = 120 102 + 5 = Rs. 23 millionPercentage increase in cumulative cash in hand is the highest for the year 2003-04 as the cumulative cash in hand is more

than twice as compared to the previous year.

Hence, option 2.

123. From the table in the previous question, the highest increase in profits (cash in hand) is for the year 2003-04 i.e. Rs. 17

million.

Hence, option 1.

124. Cumulative cash in hand at the end of the year 2006-07 is Rs. 87 million (from the solution of the second question).

Hence, option 4.

125.

Year 2002-03 2003-04 2004-05 2005-06 2006-07

Production (units) 14000 18000 20000 17000 15000

Price(Rs. per unit) 10000 11000 11000 11000 12000

Total Sales(million Rs.) 140 198 220 187 180

Fixed cost(million Rs.) 18 30 30 40 40Total Variable cost(million Rs.) 84 122 141 161 172

Total Cost(million Rs.) 102 152 171 201 212

Cash in hand (million Rs.) 38 46 49 14 32

Cumulative cash in hand(million Rs.)

38+ 5 = 43 43+ 46 = 89 89+ 49 = 138 138 14 = 124 124 32 = 92

If the number of units produced is equal to the number of units sold then cash in hand can be calculated as follows:

Year 2002-03 2003-04 2004-05 2005-06 2006-07

Production(units) 14000 18000 20000 17000 15000

Sales (units) 12000 17000 16000 19000 19000

Price(Rs. per unit) 10000 11000 11000 11000 12000

Total Sales (million Rs.) 120 187 176 209 228

Fixed cost (million Rs.) 18 30 30 40 40

Total Variable cost (million Rs.) 84 122 141 161 172

Total Cost (million Rs.) 102 152 171 201 212

Cash in hand (million Rs.) 18 35 5 8 16

Cumulative cash in hand (million Rs.) 18 + 5 = 23 23 + 35 = 58 58 + 5 = 63 63 + 8 = 71 71 + 16 = 87


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Cash in hand at the end of the year 2006-07 is Rs. 92 million.Hence, option 2.

126.

Variable cost per unit is the highest for the year 2006-07.

Hence, option 3.

127.

Section

Grocery ConfectionaryPersonal

Products

Mens

Apparel

Ladies

ApparelAppliances

Sales on Sunday(million Rs.) 0.38 0.58 1.22 1.42 1.46 1.42

Avg. Value per transaction (Rs.) 120 180 800 650 850 2000

Number of Transactions 3166.7 3222.2 1525 2184.6 1717.6 710

Avg. transaction time (sec) 20 10 12 20 30 40

Total transaction time (sec) 63334 32222 18300 43692 51528 28400

Total transaction time = Number of transactions per day Avg. transaction time

The total transaction time is the highest for grocery section.Hence, option 1.

128. From the previous question, Confectionary section has the highest number of transactions on Sunday.

Hence, option 2.

129.

Section

Day Grocery ConfectionaryPersonal

Products

MensApparel

LadiesApparel

AppliancesTotal

Sales

Monday 0.18 0.12 0.61 0.42 0.72 0.86 2.91

Tuesday 0.16 0.14 0.72 0.38 0.56 0.68 2.64

Wednesday 0.22 0.21 0.86 0.46 0.68 0.76 3.19Thursday 0.28 0.16 0.68 0.54 0.58 0.82 3.06

Friday 0.29 0.32 0.88 0.61 0.42 0.54 3.06

Saturday 0.33 0.42 1.10 0.92 0.88 0.96 4.61

Sunday 0.38 0.58 1.22 1.42 1.46 1.42 6.48

The total sale for all the sections put together is same on Thursday and Friday.

Hence, option 4.


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130. Total sales for the week = 2.91 + 2.64 + 3.19 + 3.06 + 3.06 + 4.61 + 6.48 = Rs. 25.95 million

Total sales on Saturday and Sunday = 4.61 + 6.48 = Rs. 11.09 million

Required ratio = 11.09 : 25.95 = 1 : 2.34Hence, option 1.

131.

Section

GroceryConfectionar

y

Personal

Products

Mens

Apparel

Ladies

ApparelAppliances

Sales on Saturday (million Rs.) 0.33 0.42 1.10 0.92 0.88 0.96

Avg. Value per transaction (Rs.) 120 180 800 650 850 2000

Number of Transactions 2750 2333.33 1375 1415.4 1035.3 480

Avg. transaction time (sec) 20 10 12 20 30 40

Total transaction time (sec) 55000 23333.3 16500 28308 31059 19200

()

() From the table we can see that the total transaction time is highest for the grocery section.

Grocery section will require maximum number of sales person on Saturday.Hence, option 1.

()

For the same section on two different days, only the value of sales per day will be different and the rest will be the same.

Required ratio = 0.86 : 1.42 = 1 : 1.65Hence, option 3.

133.

Country

Annual edible oil

production

(in billion litres)

Approximate

Population

(million)

Annual edible oil

Consumption

Per capita (litres)

Total Edible Oil

Consumption

(in billion litres)

I 13.2 1020 12.6 12.852

J 7.35 525 13.78 7.235

K 5.25 312 11.77 3.672

L 11 1212 10.1 12.241

M 9.45 728 14.84 10.803

Annual Edible oil consumed = Population Edible oil consumption per capita

The table above shows the data calculated for the year 2007-08.Only country L and M consume more edible oil than the edible produced.

Hence, option 4.

Note: The opening statement of the question reads across six countries but data for only five countries is available.This is amistake in the question paper.


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134.

Country

Annual edible oil

production

(billion litres)

Approximate

Population

(million)

Annual edible oil

Consumption

Per capita (litres)

Total Edible oil

consumption

(in billion litres)

Surplus

(in billion

litres)

I 12 1000 12 12 0

J 7 500 13 6.5 0.5K 5 300 11 3.3 1.7

L 10 1200 10 12 2

M 9 700 14 9.8 0.8

Annual Edible oil consumed = Population Edible oil consumption per capita

Surplus = Production Consumption

The table below shows the data for the year 2006-07.

Country K has the maximum surplus quantity of Edible oil which can be exported.

Hence, option 3.

135.

From the data in the previous question, countries I, J and K has the export capacity in 2006-07.

Also, from the data in the solution of the first question, consumption of country none of these is more than the production.

Hence, option 4.Note: Here we have assumed that country I also had an export capacity in 2006-07.

136. Total production of Edible oil in these five countries in 2007-08

= 13.2 + 7.35 + 5.25 + 11 + 9.45 = 46.25 billion litres

Total consumption of Edible oil in these five countries in 2007-08

= 12.852 + 7.235 + 3.672 + 12.241 + 10.803 = 46.803 billion litres

Net Import requirement in 2007-08

= 46.803 46.25 = 0.553 billion litres = 553 million litresHence, option 2.

137. For the year 2008-09,

CountryAnnual edible oil

Consumption Per capita

(liters) in 2006-07

Projected Annual edible oil

consumption growth rate per capita %

Annual edible oilConsumption Per capita

(liters) in 2008-09

I 12 5 1.05 1.05 12 = 13.23

J 13 6 1.06 1.06 13 = 14.61

K 11 7 1.07 1.07 11 = 12.59

L 10 1 1.01 1.01 10 = 10.20

M 14 6 1.06 1.06 14 = 15.73

Country M will have the highest per capita consumption in the year 2008-09.

Hence, option 4.

138. Average per capita consumption of Edible oil for all the five countries put together in 2008-09

Hence, option 3.

139. Number of people who read at least one news paper

= 8.7 + 9.1 + 5.6 (2.5 + 0.5) (1.5 + 0.5) (1 + 0.5) + 0.5 = 17.4 lakhsHence, option 3.


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140. Number of people who read only newspaper X = 8.7 1 2.5 0.5 = 4.7Number of people who read only newspaper Y = 9.1 2.5 0.5 1.5 = 4.6Number of people who read only newspaper Z = 5.6 1 0.5 1.5 = 2.6Number of people who read only one newspaper = 4.7 + 4.6 + 2.6 = 11.9

Hence, option 2.

141.

Number of people reading at least two newspapers = 2.5 + 1 + 0.5 + 1.5 = 5.5 lakhs

Hence, option 4.

142.

Number of people reading only one newspaper = 11.9 lakhs

Number of people reading only two newspapers = 2.5 + 1 + 1.5 = 5 lakhs

Required ratio = 11.9 : 5 = 2.38 : 1Hence, option 1.

143. For newspaper X,

The advertisement cost with 8.7 lakh readership is Rs 6000 per sq.cm

The advertisement cost (in Rs. per sq.cm) per 1000 readers = 6.9 Rs. per sq.cmFor newspaper Y,The advertisement cost with 9.1 lakh readership is Rs 6500 per sq.cm

The advertisement cost (in Rs. per sq.cm) per 1000 readers = 7.14 Rs. per sq.cmFor newspaper Z,

The advertisement cost with 5.6 lakh readership is Rs. 5000 per sq.cm

The advertisement cost (in Rs. per sq.cm) per 1000 readers = 8.93 Rs. per sq.cmFor X and Y together the advertising cost is the least.Hence, option 1.

144. To reach 12 lakh people we need to choose two newspapers.

But, Newspaper X and Z together give the lowest rates.

Minimum expenditure = 6000 + 5000 = Rs. 11,000 per sq. cm

Hence, option 1.

145.

The table below gives the data for the year 2006-07.

ProductTotal Market Size

(in million Rs.)

Market share

of ProductsProfit %

Industry Attractiveness

Index

Business

Strength Index

Bearings 2200 40% (880) 40 (352) 0.8 0.6

Valves 1100 20% (220) 60 (132) 0.6 0.4

Pipes 3000 50% (1500) 30 (450) 0.9 0.9

Belts 2500 30% (750) 30 (225) 0.4 0.6

Gears 5000 30% (1500) 20 (300) 0.7 0.6

The table below gives the data for the year 2007-08.

ProductTotal Market Size

in 2007-08 (in million Rs.)Market share of Products Profit %

Bearings 3960 880 + 0.6 (2200 880) = 1672 40 ( = 668.8)

Valves 1760 220 + 0.4 (1100 220) = 572 60 ( = 343.2)

Pipes 5700 1500 + 0.9 (3000 1500) = 2850 30 ( = 855)

Belts 3500 750 + 0.6 (2500 750) = 1800 30 ( = 540)

Gears 8500 1500 + 0.6 (5000 1500) = 3600 20 ( = 720)


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From the table above the three most profitable products in 2006-07 are Bearings, Pipes and Gears.

The combined profit = 352 + 450 + 300 = Rs. 1102 million

Hence, option 2.

146. The most profitable product in the year 2006-07 is Pipes.

Hence, option 2.

147. From the second table we get that the least profit percentage is for Gears,

Gears is the least profitable among the given choices.Hence, option 4.

148. The total market size of all the products in 2007-08 = 3960 + 1760 + 5700 + 3500 + 8500= Rs. 23,420 million

Hence, option 4.

149. The total market size of Gears in 2008-09 = 1.7 1.7 5000 = Rs. 14,450 million

Hence, option 1.

150. Total profit of remaining three products = 668.8 + 855 + 720 = Rs. 2,243.8 million

Hence, option 3.

Note :Since the answer was not matching with any of the options, option 3 has been changed.

JMET 2008 Detailed Solutions

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