JMET FLT 2_Questions

8/7/2019 JMET FLT 2_Questions

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.LT-2

I n s t r u c t i o n

s1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS

BOOKLET.WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.

2. This booklet contains 28 pages includingthe blank ones. Immediately afteropening the booklet, verify that all thepages are printed properly.

3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraserand sharpener with you. DO NOT keepwith you books, rulers, slide rules,drawing instruments, calculators(including watch calculators), pager,palmtops, cellular phones, or any otherdevice. These should be left outside theroom.

4. The Test Paper contains 120 questions.The duration of the test is 180 minutes.

5. The paper is divided into four sections.Section-I: 30 Qs; Section-II: 30 Qs;Section-III: 30 Qs; and Section-IV: 30 Qs.

Test ID: 7 7 1 3 9 2Enrollment ID:Name: .................................................Centre: ................................................

Batch: ..................................................Time: ................... Date: ......................

JMET

.ull Length Test6. Directions for answering the questions are given

in the test booklet before each group of questionsto which they apply. Read these directionscarefully and answer the questions by darkeningthe appropriate ovals.

7. Each question carries 1 mark and every wronganswer carries a negative mark of 0.25. There isonly one correct answer for each question.

8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only andNOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.

9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator.Candidates found violating the instructions willbe disqualified.

10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leavethe hall till the invigilator announces, You mayleave now. The invigilator will make theannouncement only after collecting the testbooklets and answer sheets from everyone inthe room.ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/SEEKING/ RECEIVINGASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL BEIMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED

.LT-0005/10M B AT e s tM B AT e s t


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Page 1JMET FLT 2 MBA Test PrepMBA Test Prep

Section I

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Following graphs give the data of the number of cigarettes sold and theamount of revenue generated by five different cigarette brands in a single month.

Cigarette sales in a month

0

5

10

15

20

25

Marlboro Seven Triple 5 Camel WillsClassic

Brands

N o .

o f c i g a r e t

t e s

( i n m

i l l i o n

)

Revenue generated from cigarette sales

0 20 40 60

Marlboro

Seven

Triple 5

Camel

Wills Classic

B r a n

d s

Revenue (in $ million )

1. What is the average price of a pack of ten cigarettes of Wills Classic?

a. $35 b. $28 c. $19 d. $14

2. By what percent, a Marlboro cigarette is cheaper/costlier than a Triple 5 cigarette?a. 21% cheaper b. 17% cheaper c. 17% costlier d. 21% costlier

3. If a standard pack of cigarette contains 20 cigarettes, then what is the difference (In the number ofpacks) between the brand selling maximum and the minimum number of packs?a. 1 million b. 1.5 million c. 0.5 million d. 0.55 million


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JMET FLT 2Page 2 MBA Test PrepMBA Test Prep

4. If the prices of a single cigarette of Seven and Camel are interchanged with their respective numberof cigarettes sold remaining constant, then what will be the percentage change in the revenue ofCamel?a. 70% increase b. 7% increase c. 7% decrease d. Cannot be determined

5. Which is the most favourite brand in the market?a. Marlboro b. Camel c. Wills Classic d. Data Insufficient

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Study the speed-time graph of two cars A & B and answer the questionsthat follow.

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0

0 15 min. 30 min. 45 min. 60 min. 75 min.

tO tA tB tC tD t E

tim e (in minutes)

A B

s p e e d ( i n k m / h r )

6. In the time interval t C to tD, the difference in the distances covered by A & B is:a. 2.5 km, A covering more than B b. 1.25 km, A covering more than B.c. 1.25 km, B covering more than A d. 2.5 km, B covering more than A.

7. What is the average speed of B between time interval t A & tC?

a. 90 km/hr b. 100 km/hr c. 45 km/hr d. 80 km/hr

8. A & B, both continued travelling after time t D. A continued with the same speed as he had at t D andB continued with consistently increasing speed. At t E, what was the speed of B if both A & B coveredequal distances in the interval t D to tE?a. 70 km/hr b. 80 km/hr c. 90 km/hr d. 100 km/hr


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9. Suppose A and B had equal speeds at t x and t y minutes after t o and before (t x < ty).The ratios oftheir common speeds at t x & at ty, expressed as a percentage of the average speed of B in theinterval t o to tD are:a. 93% & 140% b. 80% & 130% c. 80% & 140% d. 67% & 108%

10. Counting from their positions at t o, which car has reached the 10 km mark first?a. B b. Ac. Both of them reached simultaneously d. Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Satnam, Makker, Bajpayee, Khurana and Dahiya received candies for three consecutive days from theirparents. Following table gives partial the information about candies received by them on different days.

Day 1 Day 2 Day 3Satnam 10 12 12Makker 20 10

Bajpayee 25 10 5Khurana 15 6 4

Dahiya 20 5 4

No one had any candy with them initially nor did they receive candies from any other source except theirparents. Each of them ate X% or Y% or Z% (as given in the bar graph) candies on any given day. On no twodays any one ate same percentage of candies.

0102030

40506070

X Y Z

Every day, each of the five persons ate integral number of candies. However, candies left on a day arecarried over to the next day and added to next days candies.

11. What can be the minimum number of candies received by Makker on day 3?a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

12. On day 2, Satnam ate what percentage of candies?a. X b. Y c. Z d. X or Z

13. On day 1, Dahiya ate how many more candies than the number of candies eaten by Satnam on thesame day?a. 8 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4


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14. What can be the maximum sum of number of candies left at the end of each day with Khurana?a. 18 b. 24 c. 20 d. 22

15. What can be the ratio of candies eaten by Bajpayee on Day 1 to Day 3?a. 7:4 b. 3:2 c. 5:4 d. 5:2

Directions for questions 16 to 19: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The figure shows the data of a mutual fund company. The allocation of funds in each sector is shown below.

Percentage of funds invested in each sector

15%

25%

20%

25%

10%5%

AutoChemicalPharmaceuticalITBankOthers

The price at which the shares of respective sectors were purchased and their current market price is shownin the graph:

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

800

Auto Chemical Pharmaceutical IT Bank Others

P u r c

h a s e

P r i c e

0

50

100

150

200

250

300

350

400

450

C u r r e n

t m a r k e

t v a

l u e a s a p e r c e n

t a g e o

f

P u r c

h a s e

P r i c e

Purchase Price Current market value as a percentage of Purchase Price

Revenue Structure of Mutual Fund Company


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Value of Funds Purchase Price Current Market Price

Auto 150000000 200 400

Chemical 250000000 250 500

Pharmaceutical 200000000 250 500

IT 250000000 500 1050

Bank 100000000 200 800

Others 45000000 60 100

Note: Funds with Mutual Fund Company are worth Rs. 100 crore.Market Capitalization = Number of Shares Current Market Price.Market Appreciation = Number of Shares (Current Market Price Purchase Price)Number of shares = Value of funds/Purchase price

16. Market Capitalization is highest for:a. Chemical b. Pharmaceuticalc. IT d. Bank

17. Market Appreciation is highest for:a. Chemical b. Pharmaceuticalc. Auto d. Bank

18. Net Market Capitalization of the company at present is:a. Rs.236.5 crore b. Rs.222.5 crorec. Rs.242.5 crore d. Rs.232.5 crore

19. Number of shares is highest for:a. Chemical b. Pharmaceuticalc. Auto d. Bank


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Directions for questions 20 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:Top 4 teams participate in Euro Cup, which is a tournament consisting of two rounds. In each round, ateam plays only one match with every other team. The table below gives the data regarding initial fourmatches played in the first round. 3 points are awarded for a win and 1 point for a draw to each team. Nopoint is awarded for a loss.

Teams Played Won Lost Drawn Goals For Goals Against PointsBarcelona 2 0 0 2 0 0 2Chelsea 2 1 1 0 2 2 3Manchester United 2 0 1 1 0 1 1AC Milan 2 1 0 1 2 1 4

The remaining matches of the first round were all drawn.

The following table gives the data of the goals scored in the matches played in the second round.

Teams Barcelona Chelsea Manchester United AC MilanGoals For 2 2 1 1

Goals Against 0 2 1 3

The following information is available regarding the matches played in the second round.I. AC Milan lost two matches.II. Chelsea won only one match.III. The match between Manchester United and Chelsea ended in a draw.IV. Barcelona faced a draw in the match against AC MilanV. Barcelona had 10 points cumulatively in the two rounds.

20. How many matches did Manchester United win in the second round?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

21. Which of the following could be the sixth match played in the first round ?a. Barcelona vs AC Milan b. Chelsea vs Manchester Unitedc. AC Milan vs Manchester United d. Chelsea vs AC Milan

22. The goal comparison of teams after the tournament is as follows:

Teams Barcelona Chelsea Manchester United AC Milan

Goals For 3 5 1 3Goals Against 1 5 2 4

What was the final result (goals scored by the teams in the match) of the match between AC Milanand Manchester United, in that order, in the first round?a. 00 b. 11 c. 12 d. 21


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Directions for questions 23 to 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The table given below shows the grades scored by 11 students in four semesters, Semester-I, Semester-II, Semester-III and Semester-IV. The grading scheme is such that the grades A +, A, B+, B and C areawarded with 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 points respectively. At the end of the Semester IV, a test of practical skills isnecessary for all the students which is graded on a scale of 1 to 5 points. The marks obtained in thepractical skills are added to the average of the marks obtained in the four semesters, which in turn isdefined as the GPA. The bar graph given below shows the marks obtained by the students in the practicalskills. In the calculation of GPA, 60% weightage is given to Practical skills and rest of the weightage isgiven to the average of marks scored in all semesters. The student having the highest GPA score hasscored numerically lesser rank and so on.

Semester I Semester II Semester III Semester IVPraveen A+ B+ B BShweta A B+ A+ ASwati A A+ A B+Sushil C B+ C B+Sachin B+ A B B+Saurav B+ A+ B+ A+

Nabonita A B A+ CNandita C B B B+Pooja B B+ B+ A

Shakya A+ A B+ AOnkush A A+ B A+

0 1 2 3 4 5

Praveen

Shw eta

Swati

Sushil

Sachin

Saurav

Nabonita

Nandita

Pooja

Shakya

Onkush

C a n

d i d a

t e s

N a m e

Practical skills

23. Who has topped the examination?a. Onkush b. Shakya c. Saurav d. Cannot be determined


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24. What is the difference between the GPA of Shakya and Sachin?a. 0.58 b. 0.47 c. 0.36 d. 0.48

25. How many students have a GPA greater than 3.20?a. 7 b. 8 c. 6 d. None of these

26. What is the GPA of Shweta?a 4.24 b. 3.90 c. 4.00 d. 4.48

Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:The following line graph gives information about the amount (in Rs.) with four friends namely A, B, C and D.The total amount with all these four friends is in coins of Re1, 50p and 25p. The total value of each type ofcoin with any friend is always an integer amount, in rupees. Number of coins of each type with each personvaries from 6 to 16.

21

16

2018

0

5

10

15

20

25

A B C D

A m o u n

t ( i n R s . )

27. What can be the minimum possible number of Re1 coins with B?a. 10 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

28. If number of coins of each type with D is same, then find the total number of coins with D.a. 30 b. 12 c. 42 d. 48

29. What can be the maximum possible number of coins with A?a. 38 b. 48 c. 36 d. 34

30. What is the ratio of maximum possible number of Re1 coins with C to minimum possible number ofRe1 coins with D?

a. 8:3 b. 11:9 c. 5:3 d. 16:9


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Section II

Directions for questions 31 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The given table shows the performance of 10 contestants who participated in a racing. In a particular event,say swimming, the contestant having higher speed is always ranked higher than the contestant havingslower speed. For instance, Bs speed must have been higher than As speed since B is ranked higher thanA. Similarly for time, if any contestant X has taken more time than that taken by Y then X stands higher inthe ranking than Y. No two contestants cover the same distance in any of the three events Running,Swimming or Cycling. Finally, a consolidated ranking was evaluated on the basis of the fact that if contestantX covered more distance than Y in at least two of the three events, then Xs consolidated rank will be higherthan that of Y.

Contestants Speed Time Speed Time Speed TimeA 2 3 1 4 7 4B 6 10 2 9 1 1C 4 1 4 2 6 6D 10 9 10 10 3 10E 5 2 3 3 8 5F 3 6 6 7 5 8G 8 7 5 5 2 3H 9 4 9 1 10 9I 1 8 7 8 9 2J 7 5 8 6 4 7

Running CyclingSwimmingRank

31. How many contestants were ranked below J in the consolidated ranking?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. Cannot be determined32. Which of the following statements are necessarily true for G?

I. G was not the one covering maximum distance in Running.II. G covered less distance than B in Swimming.III. G was not the one covering minimum distance in Cycling.IV. G is ranked lower than J in the consolidated rating.a. Only II b. Only I, III and IV c. Only I and III d. Only I, II and III

33. What is the minimum number of contestants necessarily ranked higher than F in the consolidatedranking?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 434. Who among the following must have been ranked below B in the consolidated ranking?

a. C b. G c. I d. A

35. For how many contestants is it possible to determine the exact number of contestants rankedbelow each of them in the consolidated ranking?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3


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36. What is the minimum number of contestants necessarily ranked below C in the consolidated ranking?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4

Directions for questions 37 to 41: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Saregama organised a contest Ek mein aur ek Tu in which 120 participants took part. Only 12 memberswere able to reach the Final Round. Those 12 members were divided into six teams of 2 members eachhaving one male and one female member. Male members were: Rajeev, Vishwanath, Saplak, Irfaan, Niladreeand Vishwas and Female members were Raktima, Vineeta, Ujjaini, Sanchali, Sinchan and Twinkle.The teams were coded as A, B, C, D, E and F.After the final round, the teams were ranked from 1 to 6.Following additional information is available.(i) Saplak and Ujjaini were team members.(ii) The team having Twinkle did not secure the rank 6.(iii) Neither of the teams which secured rank 4 or rank 5 were coded C or E.(iv) The team coded B secured an odd rank, which wasnt 3.(v) The other member of the team having Niladree is not Vineeta.(vi) The team having Irfaan secured rank 5 and the other member in his team was Sanchali.(vii) The team coded E secured an even rank.(viii) The team having Raktima was coded A and the team having Sanchali was coded F.(ix) The team coded E had Vishwas as one of its members.(x) The team having Vineeta did not rank 3.(xi) The sum of the ranks of the team having Ujjaini and Twinkle was 8.(xii) Exactly two teams had the names of both their members starting with the same alphabet.(xiii) The team which secured rank 6 was coded D.(xiv) The other member of the team having Vishwanath is not Sinchan.

37. What was the rank secured by the team in which one of the members was Vineeta?a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

38. Who was the other member of the team having Twinkle?a. Vishwanath b. Niladree c. Rajeev d. Vishwas

39. Who was the member of the team which secured rank 4?a. Rajeev b. Sanchali c. Raktima d. Both (a) and (c)

40. The team which secured rank 5 was coded ___.a. A b. B c. C d. F

41. Identify the option having correct combination of the name of a team member, the rank secured by

that team and the code of the team.a. Irfaan, 5, C b. Ujjaini, 1, D c. Rajeev, 4, A d. Niladree, 3, F


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Directions for questions 42 to 44: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, forma coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentencesamong the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

42. A. He was at his destructive best, signing off the year with a flourish and reaffirming hispre-eminence in the world of golf.

B. As he clutched the trophy, it seemed like a good time for Woods to take stock of his achievementsand chart his course for the future.

C. If you have to be a great golfer to run your own tournament, you probably have to be even greaterto win it for the fourth time.

D. In becoming the first player to register consecutive victories at the Target World Challenge, TigerWoods was hardly playing the gracious host.

a. ADBC b. CDAB c. CBDA d. BADC

43. A. Though Taoism was born many a century before, it does not make the contemplation of Dionysiusany less immaterial or complex.

B. The indigenous Chinese teachings, gleaned from Taoism, directly relate to the idea of an

unknowable deity which Dionysius proposes.C. Try as they both may, a concrete name or definition cannot be coalesced to imagine the actualityof God.

D. So, many names are given to assist the feeble brain of humans in understanding to the best ofour ability.

a. DABC b. ABCD c. DBAC d. ADCB

44. A. Therefore, with the technology of cloning, humans can clone essential and necessary animalssuch as cows and sheep and agricultural animals to provide us with food instead of wastingmore time and breeding them.

B. By being able to clone living organisms, we can help endangered species such as tigers andmany other nearly extinct animals from being wiped from the face of earth.C. In the future meat supplies and food sources will become scarce because of the expanding

population and insufficiency of land to farm or breed.D. The idea does not stop there.

a. BDCA b. CDAB c. ABCD d. ACDB


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Directions for questions 45 to 48: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow.

45. In this country, where anything and everything is for sale, it is impossible to believe that spies wouldlimit themselves to information on minor matters once defence security is breached. Why has theminister not been booked for his ostensible attempt to let free the beneficiaries of classifiedinformation?

Who among the following could be the possible beneficiaries of the leaked information?

a. Defence middlemen who have been purported as unofficial para-intelligence personnel by thegovernment, mainly recruited to supply intelligence information at the times of peace and war.

b. Defence middlemen who have been purported as the unofficial agents involved in defence productsupply chain, who could benefit by making money in such defence deals by corrupt means.

c. Defence middlemen who have been purported the unofficial secret agents of an embassy of aforeign country so as to know the latest developments in the field of defence production in thehost country.

d. Defence middlemen who have been purported as the unofficial agents, who under the veil, havealliance with their counterparts in some other country constantly at loggerheads with the hostcountry.

46. It is mentioned in question 45 that it is impossible to believe that spies would limit themselves toinformation on minor matters once defence security is breached.

Which of the following would most seriously weaken this belief of the speaker?

a. As far as major matters are concerned, with the implementation of RTI, hardly anything is leftthat is not transparent in defence deals

b. As far as major matters are concerned, one would hardly benefit from knowing them becausethey keep on changing regularly.

c. As far as major matters are concerned, it is very difficult to have an access to them since theyare decided very secretly.

d. As far major matters are concerned, it becomes very easy to detect at a later stage that theyhave gone into the hands of undesirable parties.

47. The differences between the two sides were stark. At the meeting of Indian and Chinese businessmenlast week, the contrast was visible from the way they dressed, behaved and talked. The Chinese(both men and women) wore only black or dark suits; stylists would maintain it probably meant theywanted to go unnoticed. The Indian wore a slew of colours- pinstripes, grey, black and brown.

It can be inferred that by emphasizing the style of dressing of the Indian and the Chinese businessmen,the speaker wants to

a. Put across the point that the trade between India and China is going to increase manifold in thenear future.b. Put across the point that the differences in the robes of Indian and Chinese businessmen is a

reflection of the difference in the ways the two communities do business.c. Put across the point that the Indian and the Chinese communities have inherent differences in

them.d. Put across the point that the main reason for the political-economic differences between the two

countries is the difference in their views on each other.


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48. If the next line (following the last line) of the above paragraph at question 47 is After their presidentleft the scene, the Chinese became vociferous, the next line would bea. The Indians, taking advantage of the opportunity, followed suit.b. The Indians predicted that the Chinese would start a diatribe now.c. The Indians were not surprised.d. The Indians were taken aback

Directions for questions 49 and 50: Read the arguments given below and answer the questionsthat follow.

49. Agricultural goods - known in market-speak as softs - are the latest to join a commodity boom thathas already pushed up prices of oil, copper and nickel, buttressed by demand from emerging tigerssuch as China.

Find out that which one of the following will support the given statement?

a. Tigers like China are self sufficient as far as agriculture is concerned.b. The service sector of countries like China takes care of its requirement.c. Softs are in demand because of the requirements of countries like China which have a huge

population and booming economy.d. India is another tiger as far as the booming economy is concerned.

50. While the Oscar nominations were announced with their customary glitz, concerns are high that theawards show on February 24 could be a non-starter. With the strike by 12,000 members of theWriters Guild of America in its 13th week, there are few signs that the dispute that caused thecancellation of the Golden Globes ceremony this month is nearing a resolution. But the producersof the Oscar show have vowed to go on with the show even if there is a picket of the red carpet.

It can be concluded from the above argument that,

a. The organizers of the Golden Globes ceremony are bent upon finding a solution and resolvingthe issue in collaboration with the Oscar producers.

b. The Oscar show may be called off because of the continuing strike by the Writers Guild ofAmerica.

c. The strikers do not have any business to go on sabotaging such high profile ceremonies, yet itseems they have underestimated the tenacity of the Oscar producers.

d. The long standing dispute with the strikers may not end in near future but the firmness of theproducers of the Oscar show may see it through.


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Directions for questions 51 to 54: Read the following paragraphs and answer the questions:

51. For education results to improve, teachers must show up at work and do their jobs well, just asdoctors and nurses must do for peoples health to improve, But these service providers are oftentrapped in a system where incentives for doing their jobs well are weak, corruption is rife, andpolitical patronage is a way of life.

Which of the following most seriously challenges the assumption implicit in the above passage?

a. Doctors and teachers are paid as much in US as in other countries.b. Doctors and teachers are professional who are motivated purely by their own desire to

extend help.c. The health and education systems are in a shambles because of their employees and not

because of their patrons.d. Doctors and teachers work for incentives.

52. The Plea against plastic bags has evidently received enthusiastic support from the masses asshoppers have been seen to refuse plastic bags and are carrying their own bags.

Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt on the conclusion drawn above?

a. Consumers carry their own bags as they find it more convenient to take one large cloth bag thanbe saddled with numerous small bags.

b. The prevalence of a black market in plastic bags ensures that they resemble jute bags.c. The survey was conducted in the leading malls across the country.d. The price of plastic bags has increased.

53. Astronauts have left behind spanners, cameras and plastic bags full of excrement in space, Russiannuclear-powered spy craft parked at high orbits have begun to leak irradiated fuel. The cost or

armour-plating the International Space Station now being assembled in orbit against man-madegarbage traveling faster than any bullet has added at least five billion dollars to its bill. Not contentwith contaminating the Earth, the military-industrial combine now seems to be hell-bent on rubbishingout near space too, with the result that we may ultimately create a Jupiter like artificial ring aroundour planet, made of trash.

Each of the following if true, weakens the argument presented above EXCEPT:

a. All spacecrafts are sterilized before being sent to space.b. All spacecrafts are expected to bury their garbage.c. All spacecraft are equipped with incinerators that reduce garbage to powder.

d. The excrements are sealed in airtight bins and are disposed off once the spacecraft returns tothe earth.


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54. The trend to postpone retirement is no longer unusual, but researchers said the intention to workanother decade or more was a new phenomenon What did surprise us is that people intend to workway post the traditional retirement age, said Jefi Love, research director at AARP, that has beentracking peoples retirement intentions in surveys since 1997.

Which of the following if true, is the most important reason for the aged not to postpone theirretirement?

a. There are ample social safety nets provided in a welfare economy.b. Early retirement increases the chances of early death caused by stress.c. Mental alertness declines when people no longer exercise their grey cells.d. The government provides for attractive retirement schemes to encourage people to retire early.

Directions for question 55: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow.

55. Social activists say that a major reason for the increase in the incidents of child abuse is the factthat the issue does not figure on the agenda of the law enforcers.

The above statement will lead to the conclusion that:

a. The issue of child abuse needs attention of the law enforcers.b. Child abuse is a sad truth of our social milieu.c. The trend reflects the complacency on the part of the law enforcers.d. Child abuse is one of the major ills affecting our society.

Directions for questions 56 to 60: Study the following arguments and choose:a. If only conclusion I follows.b. If only conclusion II followsc. If both the conclusions I and II followd. If neither conclusion I nor II follows

56. Gandhi is the father of the nation. All fathers love their children.I. All fathers are Gandhi.II. Gandhi loved all children.

57. Drinking tea is good for health. I drink tea every day.I. I am very healthy.II. I am not healthy.

58. Mobile usage causes brain cancer. Apple does not use a mobile.I. Apple will never have cancer.II. Apple may have cancer because she is planning to use a mobile.

59. Music videos are preposterous. Some music videos are sensible.I. All music videos are preposterous.II. All music videos are sensible.

60. All terrorists are not bad. Some terrorists are good.I. All terrorists are bad.II. Some terrorists are bad.


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Directions for questions 61 to 71: Each of the three passages given below are followed by a set ofquestions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage 1Bob DeMatteis, author of From Patent to Profit, is a nationally known inventor, author and educator. Heis one of the original inventors of the plastic grocery sack and plastic merchandise bag systems usedthroughout the United States. Bob is also an advisor to several small company development organizationsfunded by federal and state governments. Bob has generously written us an article sharing some of hismore than successful knowledge on inventing.

Inventors often believe that getting a patent is automatically going to make them money. However, the U.S.Patent Office reports that less than 3% of patents ever make any money for the inventor. Yes, a 97% failurerate! The Federal Trade Commission cites an even lower rate of success: less than 1%.

Yet, in sharp contrast to these statistics many successful inventors have a virtual 100% success rate.Why is this? What are the experts doing to ensure their success?

Unfortunately, most individuals with good ideas follow a traditional approach to inventing and patentingwhich is certain to put them into the 97% failure category. Unknowing (or money hungry) patent attorneysand agents usually teach these methodologies. Many inventor organizations and their inexperienced inventor/ leaders do, too. It is propagated by the fact that many attorneys will scare unsuspecting inventors with thecomment, you dont have any protection until you have a patent. This is clearly misleading. As you willsee, being scared into rushing to file for patents will almost always assure an inventor of having a worthlesspatent and becoming part of the 97% failure statistic.

Many invention promotion firms run slick ads on radio and TV and add to the problem. Although their adsappear to make inventors believe that their success and financial gain is eminent, by reading their literatureyou will find that their success rate is absolutely dismal being less than 1/100 of 1%. However, this is notsurprising since I dont know of any invention promotion company that has a single successful inventor ontheir staff.

Last, many unknowing inventors begin their pursuit of patenting by trying to save the high cost of hiringpatent attorneys and file the application themselves. It is referred to as filing pro per. This typically resultsin a huge waste of time for the inventor. These patents generally have a very limited scope (protection) andare easy for skilled inventors or engineers to design around.

61. All of the following can be inferred excepta. Many inventors want to save costb. Inventors are not really bothered about the time wasted in filing properc. One need not rush for a patent if one has an invention.d. Invention promotion companies do not place excessive importance on having an inventor as part

of their staff

Section III


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62. The author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements?1. Bob is a generous person2. An inventor promotion firm that runs an ad has to have a dismal success rate3. Experts are doing nothing to ensure the success of successful inventors.4. Having inventors on board would ensure success for invention promotion companies.a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 2 & 4 d. only 1

63. Arrange the following titles from best to worst as regards the passage1. Patents and profit2. Patents and inventions3. Unprofitable patents4. Failure of inventor patentsa. 3421 b. 2431 c. 3241 d. 4231

Passage 2

The unique relationship between French speakers and their language is one of the grand themes in TheStory of French, a well-told, highly accessible history of the French language that leads to a spirited

discussion of the prospects for French in an increasingly English-dominated world.

The authors, Jean-Benot Nadeau and Julie Barlow, are bilingual Canadians with a sense of mission. Theyvalue French as a vehicle of expression uniting 175 million people scattered in a linguistic archipelagoacross several continents. They also see it as a counterweight to U.S. political and cultural power.

Since the 17th century, French has been treated by French speakers less as a language than as a work ofart, something worthy of constant analysis and curatorial devotion. Debates about grammar rules andacceptable vocabulary are part of the intellectual landscape and a regular topic of small talk amongfrancophones of all classes and origins, the authors write.

This can seem mystifying to English speakers, who take a much more casual attitude toward their ownlanguage, perhaps because English spread through the British Isles much more rapidly than French didthrough France, a country where regional dialects persisted until the mid-20th century. On the eve of theFrench Revolution only about three million French citizens out of a population of 28 million spoke Frenchwell, and as late as 1940 about half of the people spoke a regional dialect as their mother tongue.

Not surprisingly, a host of grammarians and language purists appeared early on to impose order. The poetand critic Franois de Malherbe (1555-1628), quite possibly the biggest and most brazen language snobthe world has ever seen, waged a highly successful ideological campaign to demand that French shouldbe clear, precise and rigorous, ruled by iron laws of grammar and usage. He helped create the mystique ofperfect French. A mistake is not merely a slip; it is a transgression. The person who commits what the

French call a faute, the authors write, is seen as being not only unworthy of the language, but even atraitor to it.

The historical half of The Story of French contains many amusing insights into the mental universe thatNadeau and Barlow explored, in broader cultural terms, in Sixty Million Frenchmen Cant Be Wrong. It isboth fun and instructive to learn that gopher comes from gaufre, or waffle, a reference to the pockmarkedappearance of prairie dog villages, and that when sled drivers yell Mush! they are garbling the French forMarchez! (Walk!).


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The more polemical chapters are a mixed bag. The authors make a strong case that French, for a varietyof reasons, maintains a powerful international grip despite the influence of English.

Former French colonies, with some exceptions, have rejected the French but have remained loyal to theFrench language. The prestige of French culture and the French way of life still makes French an attractivesecond language around the world, giving it an influence out of proportion to its numerical standing as theninth most spoken language in the world.

In documenting the global reach of French, and the efforts of various countries to promote or protect it,Nadeau and Barlow bog down in a bureaucratic swamp. They bounce from one summit meeting to another,attend endless roundtable discussions and visit French cultural centers from Dakar to Lubbock, Texas.This can be tedious.

From the evidence offered, its hard to tell whether the French glass is half empty or half full. Is French arobust international presence, as the authors carefully harvested statistics seem to suggest, or an invalidthat needs help crossing the street, terrified at being run down by Anglo-Saxon vehicles?

Surely the former. There has to be a future for a language that can come up with baladeur for Walkman

or, for Internet chat, fuse the French words for keyboard and chat to create clavardage. TomorrowsFrench will be different from the language of Malherbe, but it will remain French. Perhaps it will even bringa little clarity, precision and rigor to a confused and messy world.

64. The authors attitude to the French language seems to bea. Confused b. Critical c. Patronizing d. Supportive

65. According to the passagea. French has not really been treated by the French speakers as a work of art.b. French has not really been treated by the French speakers as just a languagec. French has been treated by the French speakers more as a language

d. Both (b) and (c)

66. All of the following are true about Nadeau and Barlow excepta. They may not be bilingual Americansb. They want French to become more popular.c. They attend endless roundtable discussionsd. They visit French cultural centers from Dakota to Lubbock, Texas

67. It can be inferred thata. gopher has originated from prairie sheep.b. The French language people find the hold and the influence of the English language daunting

c. The French Language people indulge in trivial and unnecessary small talk over the nuances ofthe language.

d. Nadeau and Barlow pull down the bureaucratic swamp due to their devotion to French.


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Passage 3

It was Aristotle who first constructed a well-defined and developed ontology. In his Metaphysics heanalyses the simplest elements to which the mind reduces the world of reality. The medieval philosophersmake his writings the groundwork of their commentaries in which they not only expand and illustrate thethought, but often correct and enrich it in the light of Revelation. Notable instances are St. Thomas Aquinasand Suarez (1548-1617). The Disputationes Metaphysicae of the latter is the most thorough work on

ontology in any language. The Aristotelean writings and the Scholastic commentaries are its groundworkand largely its substance; but it amplifies and enriches both. The work of Father Harper mentioned belowattempts to render it available for English readers. The authors untimely death, however, left the attempt farfrom its prospected ending. The movement of the mind towards the physical sciences which was largelystimulated and accelerated by Bacon carried philosophy away from the more abstract truth. Locke,Hume, and their followers denied the reality of the object of ontology. We can know nothing, they held, ofthe essence of things; substance is a mental figment, accidents are subjective aspects of an unknowablephenomenon; cause is a name for a sequence of phenomena. These negations have been emphasized byComte, Huxley, and Spencer.

On the other hand the subjective and psychological tendencies of Descartes and his followers dimmed yet

more the vision for metaphysical truth. Primary notions and principles were held to be either forms innatein the mind or results of its development, but which do not express objective reality. Kant, analysing thestructure of the cognitive faculties perception, judgment, reasoning discovers in them innate formsthat present to reflection aspects of phenomena which appear to be the objective realities, being, substance,cause, etc., but which in truth are only subjective views evoked by sensory stimuli. The subject matter ofOntology is thus reduced to the types which the mind, until checked by criticism, projects into the externalworld. Between these two extremes of Empiricism and Idealism the traditional philosophy retains theconvictions of common sense and the subtle analysis of the Scholastics. Being, essence, truth, substance,accident, cause, and the rest, are words expressing ideas but standing for realities. These realities areobjective aspects of the individuals that strike the senses and the intellect. They exist concretely outsideof the mind, not, of course, abstractly as they are within. They are the ultimate elementary notes or forms

which the mind intuitively discerns, abstracts, and reflectively analyses in its endeavour to comprehendfundamentally any object. In this reflective analysis it must employ whatever information it can obtain fromempirical psychology. Until recently this latter auxiliary has been insufficiently recognized by the philosophers.The works, however, of Maher and Walker mentioned below manifest a just appreciation of the importanceof psychologys cooperation in the study of ontology.

68. As compared to the Scholastics, Descartes philosophy can be seen to bea. Impracticalb. Grossc. Recondited. Deep

69. According to the passage, Kant did not give predominance toa. metaphysical comprehension of truthb. subjective viewsc. reflections of apparently objective realitiesd. a and b


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70. The movement from Aristotle to Descartes and his followers as regards ontology was likea. A movement from positivism to negativism.b. A movement from abstraction to abstrusion.c. A movement from crypticism to simplicity.d. A movement from clarity to confusion.

71. According to the author, the importance of psychology in the study of ontology has not1. been eulogised at all just.2. acquired unequivocal appreciation until now.3. had satisfactory recognition until recently.a. 1 & 2 but not 3 b. only 3 c. only 2 & 3 d. 1 & 3

Directions for questions 72 and 73: Each question below consists of a word, followed by four words.Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the word in the question.

72. Perfidiousa. Calm b. Angry c. Unreliable d. Jovial

73. Gorya. Amusing b. Listless c. Bloody d. Royal

Directions for questions 74 and 75: Below each sentence there are four options given (either in direct orindirect speech). You have to mark the correct transformation of the given sentence in the opposite speech.So if the sentence is in direct speech you have to mark the indirect speech of that sentence or vice - versa.

74. Sumeet said, I am not feeling well.a. Sumeet said that he was not feeling well.b. Sumeet was saying that he was not feeling well.c. Sumeet said, I am not feeling well.

d. Sumeet reported about his being unwell.

75. He told me that he was glad to see me after such a long time.a. He said to me, I am glad to see you after such a long time.b. He said, I am glad to see you after such a long time.c. He said that he was glad to see after such a long time.d. He stated that he was glad to see me after such a long time.

Directions for questions 76 and 77: Choose the correct spelling.

76. a. milennim b. millennium

c. milleneum d. millenium

77. a. septagenarian b. septuagenarianc. septuagnarian d. septagenrian


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Directions for question 78: Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

78. a. Ten thousand rupees is a high price to pay.b. Ten thousand rupees are high prices to pay.c. Ten thousand rupees are a high price to pay.d. Ten thousand rupee is high price to pay.

Directions for questions 79 and 80: Select the appropriate indirect form of the sentence out of the fourgiven options for the following sentences given in direct speech.

79. Emily said I am in a state of shock after hearing the news about the sudden plane crash.a. Emily said that she was in a state of shock.b. Emily enthusiastically said that she was in a state of shock after hearing the news about the

sudden plane crash.c. Emily said that she was in a state of shock after hearing the news about the sudden plane

crash.d. Emily maintained her stand that she was in a state of shock after hearing news about the

sudden plane crash.

80. The employee said to me, Sorry Sir, you cannot be given the permission to meet the chairman.a. The employee refused me to go inside because I was not given permission.b. The employee told me that I could not be given the permission to meet the chairman.c. The employee was sad because I could not get the permission to meet the chairman.d. The employee told me that the chairman had denied my offer of meeting him.

Directions for questions 81 and 82: Each question below consists of a word, followed by four words.Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the word in the question. Since some of the questionsrequire you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding whichone is the best.

81. In medieval times, the practice of decollating criminals in public was common.a. decapitate b. desecrate c. humiliate d. sequester

82. The preachers commination had no effect on the degenerate parishioners.a. profanation b. benediction c. denunciation d. malediction

Directions for questions 83 and 84: Mark the alternative that comes closest to an antonym of theunderlined word in the sentence.

83. His atrabiliousness often proves to be the reason for his lack of success.

a. interminability b. pulchritude c. gaiety d. lugubriousness

84. She does not think twice about calumniating people at the drop of a hat.a. vilify b. venerate c. chastise d. decimate


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Directions for questions 85 to 88: Replace the underlined portion of the sentence with an appropriateanswer choice.

85. He is sensitive for such a harsh environment.a. He is sensitive for such a harsh environment.b. He is sensitive of such a harsh environment.c. He is sensitive regarding such a harsh environment.d. He is sensitive to such a harsh environment.

86. The class had arrived at time for the lecture.a. The class had arrives on time for the lecture.b. The class had arrived at time for the lecture.c. The class had arrived on time for the lecture.d. The class have arrived on time for the lecture.

87. She sequestered her in her study to write a book.a. She sequestered her in her study to write a book.b. She sequestered self in her study to write a book.

c. She sequestered herselves in her study to write a book.d. She sequestered herself in her study to write a book.

88. The company is marketing its new line of beauty products.a. The company is marketing its new line of beauty products.b. The company is marketing its new line of beauty product.c. The company is marketing its new lines of beauty product.d. The company is marketing its new line of beauty products.

Directions for questions 89 and 90: There is a blank in each of the following sentences. From thechoices given, choose the one that fills the blank most appropriately.

89. The __________ remarks of Robert made it clear that he had a scornful and cynical attitude towardsthe Indians.a. sarcastic b. sardonicc. critical d. mendacious

90. His __________ nature was quite unexpected , since he was a person who indulged in meditationand yoga.a. ultraist b. narcissistc. huffy d. conservative


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Directions for questions 91 and 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Two trains approach each other at 40 kmph and 60 kmph. Their lengths are 150m and 250m respectively.At a particular moment, they were separated by a 1 km long bridge AB, faster train being at B. Just then aman started moving from A towards B. The man saw that both the trains have completely crossed each

other as he was walking on the bridge.

91. What is the approximate speed of the man?a. 20 kmph b. 30 kmph c. 40 kmph d. 50 kmph

92. How much distance has the man travelled from A by the time the bridge is free of all traffic of trains?a. 380 m b. 550 m c. 720 m d. 834 m

Directions for question 93: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.There are three types of fabric threads, cotton, silk and polyester, available in a cloth making factory. Thefactory can make cloths by using only one-fabric thread, two-fabric threads and all three-fabric threads.When the factory uses two-fabric threads or three-fabric threads for making same cloth, it uses equalquantities of each fabric thread. One piece of cloth needs one bundle of thread. There are 35 bundles ofcotton thread, 45 bundles of silk thread and 39 bundles of polyester thread available in the factory in eachday. The factory has to complete the daily orders of market and it has to make at least 5 pieces of eachtype cloth. Each piece of cloth is completed.

93. If the factory makes maximum number of pieces of cloth consisting of two or three-fabric threads ina day, then how many pieces of cloth made of only one fabric thread can the factory make on thatday?a. 15 b. 21 c. 23 d. 30

94. In the rectangle HEOP shown below, if PL = 5 OL and the area of LEO is 12, then what is theratio of area of HOP to the area of quadrilateral HELP?

E H

O PL

a.5

11b.

611

c.711

d.911

95. 20 L of milk when added to 60 L of milk and water solution, increases the concentration by samepercentage points as decreased by addition of 30 L of water to the same solution. What is ratio ofmilk and water initially?a. 1 : 2 b. 2 : 1 c. 2 : 3 d. 3 : 4

Section IV


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Directions for questions 96 and 97: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Atul BPO Services wants to lease a few buildings to meet a demand of 9200 additional employees. Thetable below provides the building type, seating capacity and cost (in thousand Rs.).

Building Seats Price (in Rs. thousand)A 800 250B 600 150

C 400 10096. Atul BPO Services also has a constraint to lease three B type buildings and five C type buildings

for every A type building taken in lease. How many of each type of buildings shouldAtul BPO Services lease?a. A = 1, B = 3, C = 5 b. A = 2, B = 6, C = 10c. A =3, B = 6, C = 10 d. None of these

97. If Atul BPO Services wants to lease atleast 1 building of each type, what is the least possibleamount it has to pay?a. Rs.24,50,000 b. Rs.23,50,000 c. Rs.22,50,000 d. Rs.25,00,000

Directions for questions 98 and 99: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.In a reality show Na Re Ga Sa, 10 participants are screened in after a tough competition for the first round.Each of the three juges, namely Reshamiya, Malik and Mahadevan can refer at most 3 participants to thenext round. Once a participant is referred by one judge, he/she cannot be referred by the other.

98. Assuming Reshamiya to be the first judge to refer the participants, what is the total number of waysin which he can refer the participants for the next round?a. 175 b. 176 c. 64 d. 193

99. From the information provided in the previous question, Reshamiya had referred only two participants.

Malik gets the opportunity immediately after Reshamiya to refer his chosen participants. What isthe probability that Malik did not refer any participant for the next round?

a.12

b.18

c.1

93d.

1176

100. Let a be a positive number such that 0 < a < 1. Consider the numbers

11 aaa a

1 2 3 41 1a , a , and .a a

= = = = Which of the following statements is true?

a.3 4 1 2 > > >

b.4 3 2 1 > > > c. 4 3 1 2 > > > d. 3 4 2 1 > > >


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101. In a primitive economy, 5 Cows can be bought in exchange of 1700 mangoes and 17 cows can bebought in exchange of 500 oranges. Which of the following transaction will be inconsistent with thegiven data?a. 136 cows and 3179 mangoes can be bought in exchange of 4275 oranges.b. 39 cows and 75 oranges can be bought in exchange of 14127 mangoes.c. 750 oranges and 2550 mangoes can be bought in exchange of 33 cows.d. 250 mangoes can be bought in exchange of 28 oranges.

102. Mr. Dhaniram distributed his property of Rs. 1 crore amongst his three sons: Nek, Subh and Tilak;and two daughters: Shagun and Laxmi. Laxmi got 20% of the property and Subh got 25% of whatthe remaining three heirs got. The difference between the shares of Nek and Shagun is Rs. 1 lakh,which is also equal to the difference between the shares of Shagun and Tilak. Shagun received themaximum share. What was the difference between the shares of Subh and Tilak?a. Rs. 5 lakhs b. Rs. 11 lakhs c. Rs. 1 lakh d. Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 103 and 104: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The return and the associated probabilities of the return of two mutual funds A and B are given below.

Return(%) 8 10 12

Probability 0.2 0.3 0.5

Return(%) 9 11 14

Probability 0.4 0.3 0.3

Mutual Fund A

Mutual Fund B

103. What are the expected values of returns earned by Mutual Funds A and B?a. 11.1, 10.6 b. 10.6, 11.1 c. 10.6, 12.5 d. None of these

104. What will be the variance of the mutual funds A and B?a. 2.4, 4.3 b. 2.6, 4.5 c. 4.1, 3.7 d. 3.6, 4.3

105. If A and B are two non-zero square matrix of the same order, such that the product of A and B, isequal to zero, then which of the following statements is true?a. Either A or B is a singular matrixb. Both A and B are singular matrices.c. Atleast one out of A and B is singulard. None of these


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Directions for questions 106 and 107: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.A Cloth manufacturer produces two varieties of cloth pack: Standard(S) and Premium (P). A cloth packconsist of a shirt and a pant. These are packed and sold respectively at Rs.100 and Rs.200 each. Twomachines M1 and M2 are available to produce both varieties. M1 can produce 30 and 40 per minute ofS and P respectively. M2 can produce 40 and 50 cloth pack (including pants) per minute of S and Prespectively. The manufacturer runs two shifts of 8 hours each. Assume the number of S and P producedto be S and P respectively.

106. The above information can be mathematically formulated asa. Max Z = 100 S + 200 P b. Max Z = 100 S + 200 P

subject to: subject to:

70S 960 + S P

96030 40

90P 960 + S P 96040 50

S, P 0, and integers S, P 0, and integersc. Max Z = 100 S + 200 P d. Max Z = 100 S + 200 P

subject to: subject to:

S

96070 30S + 40P 960

P

96090 40S + 50P 960

S, P 0, and integers S, P 0, and integers107. The manufacturer also ensures that at any time atleast 70 more and 50 more of pants (Pa) are

produced for S and P respectively. The same pant is used for S and P. This constraint can bespecified as

a. Pa = 120 b. Pa = 0 + S, T = 50 + Sc. Pa 120 d. Pa (S + P) 120108. The area bounded by the graphs of the equation y = x 2 + 2, y + x = 0, x = 0 and x 1 = 0 is

a.116 b.

136 c.

196 d.

176

Directions for questions 109 and 110: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The following table shows the profit earned by InfoBiz Pvt. Ltd., in four different years. Assume that thefluctuations in data are random

Year (t) 1996 2000 2004 2008Profit P(t) in Rs. Millions 4.9 7 6.5 4.9

109. Which of the following functions of time t will best fit the given data?A. P(t) = a 1 + b 1t a 1, b 1 > 0B. P(t) = d mt d, m > 0C. P(t) = ke nt k, n > 0D. P(t) = a 2t

2 + b 2t + ca. A b. B c. D d. Cannot be determined


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110. Assuming that no unusual events (machinery breakdown, terrorist attack etc.) will occur over thenext 8 years, and that normal conditions for production exist, which one of the four models wouldyou choose for forecasting profit, P(t) for two periods ahead?a. A b. B c. C d. Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 111 to 113: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.A survey is conducted among students in Career Launcher and a Displeasure Index (DI) is developed for:A. students who are waiting for counselling with faculty members which is DI

WC,

B. students who are being counselled by the faculty members which is DI IC.

Consider that there are only two students in the system. At time t = 0, one goes in for counselling and otherbegins waiting. Using the survey data, two mathematical models are developed for representing thedispleasure among the students as a function of time t:

DIWC =2t

50

+ 0.2t

DIIC = 10 0.4t

111. What is the optimal time t in minutes that a faculty should spend counselling the student such thatthe total displeasure of the two students is minimized? The two indices are additive.a. 8 mins b. 10 mins c. 0 mins d. 15 mins

112. With respect to the above question, what is the value of total displeasure index at this point?a. 9.5 b. 9.68 c. 10 d. 7.8

113. At what point of time will be a student waiting for counselling have the same DI as a student incounselling?a. 42 mins b. 17 mins c. 50 mins d. 14 mins

114. Given the following functions at a time t, for any value of the parameters a and b, rank them in theascending order of values as t 1. f1(t) = a 2

bt

2. f2(t) = a + bt3. f3(t) = ae

bt

4. f4(t) = at2 + bt

a. 3, 1, 4, 2 b. 4, 1, 3, 2 c. 1, 3, 4, 2 d. 2, 4, 1, 3


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Directions for questions 115 and 116: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.A Professor at University of Pune has modelled the total marks obtained by a student in the end-semesterexam as M = 3A 1.2B3.6 , where A is the marks obtained in theory and B in the practicals.

115. The approximate change in the total marks obtained by a student, if his theory marks was increasedby 10% after a review isa. 10% b. 8.56% c. 12% d. Data Insufficient

116. Another student Gautam askes for a review. After proper scrutiny, it was found that marks obtainedby him in theory was increased by 5% but there was a 2% reduction in the marks obtained in thepracticals. What will be the net change in the total marks obtained by Gautam?a. 3% b. 1.4% c. 2 d. Data Insufficient

117. Dr. Krishna has a bag full of m red and n yellow balls. He asks one of his students to keep drawingballs from the bag until the first red ball is drawn. Find the expectation of the number of yellow ballspreceding the first red ball.

a.+m

n 1b. +

nm 1

c. mn + 1 d. +1

mn 1

118. The change in call volume N of a mobile subscriber following a cut in the call rates is given by

dNdt = 0.02 (300 N). At time t = 0, N = 0. Then N expressed as a function of t would be

a. N = ( )0.02t300 1 e b. N = ( )0.02t1 e

300

c.0.02te

N300

= d. N = 300 e 0.02t

119. In PQR, PQ = 10 units, QR = 8 units and RP = 7 units. L and M are the feet of the perpendicularsfrom P and Q to the respective opposite sides. What is the ratio of the length of RL to that of RM?

a. 68

b. 23

c. 45

d.78

120. In a ABC as shown below, CF is an altitude and BM is the median of the triangle ABC. BM = CFand MBC FCB = . What is the measure of BAC ?

A

F

B

M

C

a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 40

JMET FLT 2_Questions

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