ITBP PUBLIC SCHOOL Class XI ASSIGNMENT

ITBP PUBLIC SCHOOL Class XI ASSIGNMENT

A

ACCOUNTANCY

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. (i) According to the Business Entity Concept

(a) Transactions between the business and its owners are not recorded.

(b) Transactions between the business and its owners are recorded considering them to be one single

entity.

(c) Transactions between the business and its owners are recorded from the business point of view.

(d) None of the above.

Q2

According to the Money Measurement Concept

(a) All transactions and events are recorded.

(b) All transactions and events which can be estimated in money terms are recorded in the books of

account.

(c) All transactions and events which can be measured in money terms are recorded in the books of

account.


Q3

According to the Cost Concept

(a) Assets are recorded at the value paid for acquiring them.

(b) Assets are recorded by estimating the market value at the time of purchase.

(c) Assets are recorded at lower of cost or market value.


Q4

According to the Going Concern Concept

(a) Assets are recorded at cost and are depreciated over their useful life.

(b) Assets are valued at their market value at the year-end and are recorded in the books of account.

(c) Assets are valued at their market value, recorded in the books and depreciation is charged on the

market value.


Q5

According to the Accrual Concept

(a) Transactions and events are recorded in the books at the time of their settlement in cash.

(b) Transactions and events are recorded in the books at the time when they are entered into.

(c) Transactions and events may be recorded either at the time of the settlement or when they are

entered into.


Q6

According to the Convention of Consistency

(a) Accounting policies and practices once adopted should be consistently followed.

(b) Accounting policies and practices adopted may be changed as per the management’s decision.

(c) Accounting policies and practices once adopted cannot be changed under any circumstances.


Q7 According to Going Concern Concept, a business is viewed as having

(a) A limited life. (b) A very long life. (c) An indefinite life. (d) None of these.

Q8

According to which of the following accounting concepts, even the proprietor of a business is treated as

creditor to the extent of his capital?

(a) Money Measurement Concept (b) Dual Aspect Concept (c) Cost Concept (d) Business Entity

Concept

Q9

According to which of the following concepts, in determining the net income from business, all costs

which are applicable to the revenue of the period should be charged against that revenue?

(a) Matching Concept (b) Money Measurement Concept (c) Cost Concept (d) Dual

Aspect Concept

Q10

Valuation of stock at lower of cost or net realizable value is an example of

(a) Consistency Convention. (b) Conservatism Convention. (c) Realization Concept. (d) Matching

Concept.

Q11

During the life-time of an entity, accounting produces financial statements in accordance with which of

the following accounting concept?

(a) Matching (b) Conservatism (c) Accounting period (d) Cost

Q12

X Ltd. follows the Written Down Value Method of depreciating machinery year after year due to

(a) Comparability. (b) Convenience (c) consistency. (d) All of these.

Q13

The Convention of Conservatism takes into account

(a) All prospective profits and prospective losses.

(b) All prospective profits and leaves out prospective losses.

(c) All prospective losses but leaves out prospective profits.


Q14

IASB upon coming into existence has adopted

(a) All IAS and SIC. (b) Some IAS and SIC. (c) None of the IAS and SIC. (d) None of these.

Q15

IFRS are

(a) Rule based accounting standards.

(b) Principle based accounting standards.

(c) Partially rule based and partially principle based accounting standards.


Analysis Based Questions

Q16

State the accounting concept/convention involved in each of the following situation:

(i) The caliber or quality of the management team is not disclosed in the Balance Sheet.

(ii) Advance received from a customer is not taken as income or sales.

(iii) Assets are recorded in books at the cost incurred for acquisition of such assets.

(iv) Revenue must be recognized when it is realized and expenses are recognized when incurred.

(v) A business for which financial statements are prepared is separate and distinct from the owner of the

entity.

(vi) The assumption is made that the entity in question will remain in business for an

Indefinite period of time.

(vii) Capital contributed by the proprietor is credited to his Capital Account.

(viii) Financial statements of the firm are prepared every year on 31st March.

(ix) Goods sold on credit to Ramesh—Ramesh’s A/c is debited and Sales A/c is credited.

(x) Sale has been made in the year ended 31st March, 2018 but the amount has not been realized.

Revenue should be recognized as earned in the year ended 31st March, 2018.

(xi) Sale is recognized on the basis of Cash Memo or Invoice.

(xii) Closing Stock is valued at lower of cost or market value.

(xiii) Harpreet has entered into agreement whereby he will earn ` 10 lakhs for the services to be

provided in the next year. The income should be recognized as revenue in the next year after services

have been provided.

(xiv) Purchase of pen is treated as expense.

Short Answer Questions

1. What is the Matching Concept? Why should a business concern follow this concept? Discuss. (KVS

2004)

2. ‘Business units last indefinitely.’ Mention and explain the concept on which the statement is based.

(MSE Chandigarh 2004; KVS 2005)

3. What is Money Measurement Concept? Which one factor can make it difficult to compare the

monetary value of one year with the monetary values of other years?

4. “Only financial transactions are recorded in accounting.” Explain the statement. (MSE Chandigarh

2011)

[Hint: According to Money Measurement Principle only those transactions are recorded in the books of

account which can be measured in terms of money. In other words, non-financial transactions or facts,

like the efficiency of the management will never be recorded in the books of account.]

5. What are the objectives of Ind-AS? (Any two)

6. Explain any three of the following:

(i) Business Entity Concept (ii) Matching Concept (iii) Consistency Concept (iv) Dual Aspect Concept

(KVS 2010)

7. Explain any two of the following concepts:

(i) Money Measurement Concept (ii) Business Entity Concept (iii) Matching Concept (Delhi 2007)

8. Explain the following accounting concepts with an example of each:

(i) Going Concern Concept (ii) Matching Concept (Delhi 2009)

9. Explain the Business Entity Concept with example. (MSE Chandigarh 2009)

10. What are Accounting Standards? Name any two Accounting Standards. (MSE Chandigarh

2007)

11. Define Accounting Standards. Explain its any two objectives. (MSE Chandigarh 2011)

12. Define Accounting Standards. Who is responsible for issuing Accounting Standards in India? (MSE

Chandigarh 2008)

13. What are the two basic objectives of having Accounting Standards? (Delhi 2009, 2010).

BUSINESS STUDIES

A Multiple Choice Questions

Q1.

The structure in which there is separation of ownership and management is called

(a) Sole proprietorship (b) Partnership (c) Company (d) All business organizations

Q2.

The Karta in Joint Hindu family business has

(a) Limited liability (b) Unlimited liability (c) No liability for debts (d) Joint liability

Q3.

In a cooperative society the principle followed is

(a) One share one vote (b) One man one vote (c) No vote (d) Multiple votes

Q4.

The board of directors of a joint stock company is elected by

(a) General public (b) Government bodies (c) Shareholders (d)

Employees

Q5. The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business are

(a) Twenty (b) Ten (c) No limit (d) Two

Q6.

Profits do not have to be shared. This statement refers to

(a) Partnership (b) Joint Hindu Family Business (c) Sole Proprietorship (d)

Company

Q7.

The capital of a company is divided into number of parts each one of which are called

(a) Dividend (b) Profit (c) Interest (d) Share

Q8.

The head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called

(a) Proprietor (b) Director (c) Karta (d) Manager

Q9.

Provision of residential accommodation to the members at reasonable rates is the objective of

(a) Producer’s cooperative (b) Consumer’s cooperative (c) Housing cooperative (d) Credit

cooperative

Q10.

A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called

(a) Active partner (b) Sleeping partner (c) Nominal partner (d) Secret partner

Q11.

Minimum number of members to form a public company is

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 21

Q12.

Application for approval of name of a company is to be made to

(a) SEBI (b) Registrar of companies (c) Government of India

(d) Government of the State in which Company is to be registered

Q13.

A proposed name of Company is considered undesirable if

(a) It is identical with the name of an existing company

(b) It resembles closely with the name of an existing company

(c) It is an emblem of government of India, United Nations etc.

(d) In case of any of the above.

Q14.

A prospectus is issued by

(a) A private company (b) A public company seeking investment from public

(c) A public enterprise (d) A public company

Q15.

Stages in the formation of a public company are in the following order

(a) Promotion, Commencement of Business, Incorporation, Capital Subscription

(b) Incorporation, Capital Subscription, Commencement of Business, Promotion

(c) Promotion, Incorporation, Capital Subscription, Commencement of Business

(d) Capital Subscription, Promotion, Incorporation, Commencement of Business.

Q16.

Preliminary Contracts are signed

(a) Before the incorporation

(b) After incorporation but capital subscription

(c) After incorporation but before commencement of business

(d) After commencement of business

Q17.

Preliminary Contracts are

(a) binding on the Company

(b) binding on the company, if ratified after incorporation

(c) binding on the Company, after incorporation

(d) Not binding on the Company

Q18.

Preliminary Contracts are

(a) binding on the Company

(b) binding on the company, if ratified after incorporation

(c) binding on the Company, after incorporation

(d) Not binding on the Company

Q19. Which of the following is the limitation of ‘Sole Trade’?

(a) Unlimited liability

(b) Limited source of capital

Q20 The head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called.

(a) Proprietor (b) Karta (c) Manager (d) Director

Q21. ‘Limited managerial skill’ is the __________ of Hindu Undivided Family Business.

(a) Feature (b) Advantage (c) Limitation (d) None of above

Q22. Every partner is

(a) Both principal and agent of the firm

(b) Only principal of the firm

(c) Only agent of the firm

(d) No relationship with the firm

Q23. The partner who neither invest money nor have share in the profit and loss and also have no role in the

administration of the firm is known as

(a) Nominal partner (b) Partner by holding out (c) Limited partner (d) Minor partner

Q24. A sole proprietor has

(a) Limited liability

(b) Unlimited liability

(c) No liability for debts

(d) Joint liability

Q25. The minimum number of members in a cooperative society is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 10

Q26. The basic principle of cooperation ‘Each for all and all for each’ is followed by which Business

organization?

(a) Sole proprietorship (b) Cooperative societies (c) Partnership (d) Company

Q27. The minimum number of partners to start a partnership business is

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 7 (d) 2

Q28 The maximum number of members in a private company is

(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 200

Q29 In which type of company there is no restriction on the transfer of shares

(a) Public company

(b) Private company

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

Q30 Which of the following is the factor to be considered while starting a business?

(a) Selection of business

(b) Scale of business

(c) Place of business

(d) All of the above

Q31 Profits do not have to be shared. This statement refers to

(a) Partnership (b) Hindu Undivided Family Business

(c) Sole proprietorship (d) Company

Q32 The capital of a company is divided into number of parts, each one of which is called

(a) Dividend (b) Profit (c) Interest (d) Share

Q33 Which clause of Memorandum of Association specifies the amount of share capital with which a

company is registered?

(a) Name Clause (b) Capital Clause (c) Situation Clause (d) None of the above

Q34 Main documents to be filed with Registrar are :

(a) Memorandum of Association (b) List of Directors (c) Articles of Association (d) All of the

above.

Q35 In the absence of Articles of Association __________ applies.

(a) Table A (b) Table B (c) Table C (d) None of the above

Q36 Which clause of Memorandum defines the powers of a company?

(a) Objects Clause (b) Situation Clause (c) Liability Clause (d) Capital Clause

Q37 A company cannot come into existence without:

(a) Electing Directors (b) Getting Certificate of Incorporation (c) Issuing a Prospectus (d) All of the

above.

Q38 . Which of the following document is called as the character of the company?

(a) Memorandum of Association (b) Prospectus (c) Articles of Association (d) None of the

above

Q39 Which clause of Memorandum contains the name of the State in which registered office of the company

is situated?

(a) Objects Clause (b) Liability Clause (c) Capital Clause (d) None of the above

Q40 Which company has no compulsion regarding issue of prospectus?

(a) Public Company (b) Private Limited Company (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

Q41. Which of the following document is known as the ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’?

(a) Memorandum of Association

(b) List of Directors

(c) Articles of Association

(d) Prospectus

Q42. Which Clause of Memorandum states the liability of the members of the company?

(a) Association Clause (b) Liability Clause (c) Name Clause (d) Capital Clause

Short Answer Questions

Q43. For which of the following types of business do you think a sole proprietorship form of organization

would be more suitable, and why?

(a) Grocery store

(b) Medical store

(c) Legal consultancy

(d) Craft center

(e) Internet cafe

(f) Chartered accountancy firm

Q44. Explain the following terms in brief

(a) Perpetual succession (b) Common seal

(c) Karta (d) Artificial person

Q45. Compare the status of a minor in a Hindu undivided family business with that in a partnership firm.

Q46. If registration is optional, why do partnership firms willingly go through this legal formality and get

themselves registered? Explain.

Q47. State the important privileges available to a private company.

Q48. How does a cooperative society exemplify democracy and secularism?

PHYSICAL EDUCATION

1 Write a short note on the Olympic Flag?

2 Briefly explain development of values through Olympic movement?

3 What is Olympic oath?

4 Describe the function of IOA.

5 Describe the objectives of IOC.

6 Write a short note on the origin of Para Olympic Games.

7 Explain the origin of Ancient Olympic Games?

8 Write down in details about International Olympic Committee

9 Describe the formation and objectives of Indian Olympic Association.

10 Enlist the various Sports Awards and explain any one award in details?

MATHEMATICS

Q1 If A and B are two sets, then 𝐴 ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵)𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑠

a) A

b) B

c) ∅

d) A∩ 𝐵

Q.2 If A={1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,17}, B={2,4,6,…….,18} and N the set of natural numbers is

the universal set, then A’∪ [(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐵]

a) ∅

b) N

c) A

d) B

Q.3 Let S={x|x is a positive multiple of 3 less than 100} and P={x|x is a prime number less

than 20}. Then n(S)+n(P) is

a) 34

b) 31

c)33

d) 30

Q.4 If X and Y are two sets and X’ denotes the complement of X, then X∩ (𝑋 ∪ 𝑌)′ is

equal to

a) X

b) Y

c) ∅

d) X∩ 𝑌

Q.5 If sets A and B are defined as A={(x,y)| y=1

𝑥, 0≠ 𝑥 ∈ 𝑹} and B={(x,y)| y= −𝑥, 𝑥 ∈ 𝑹}

a) A∩ 𝐵 = 𝐴

b) A∩ 𝐵 = 𝐵

c) A∩ 𝐵 = ∅

d) A∪ 𝐵 = 𝐴

Q.6 A survey shows that 63% of the people watch a News Channel where as 76% watch

another channel. If x% of the people watch both channel, then

a)x=35

b) x=63

c)39≤ 𝑥 ≤ 63

d) x=39

Q.7 In a town of 840 persons, 450 persons read Hindi, 300 read English and 200 read both.

Then the number of persons who read neither is

a) 210

b) 290

c) 180

d) 260

Q.8 In a class of 60 students, 25 students, play cricket and 20 students play tennis, and 10

students play both the games. Then, the number of students who play neither is

a)0

b) 25

c) 35

d) 45

Q.9 Let R be set of points inside a rectangle of sides a and b (a,b>1) with two sides along

the positive direction of x-axis and y-axis. Then

a) R={(x,y): 0≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑎, 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 𝑏}

b) R={(x,y): 0≤ 𝑥 < 𝑎, 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 𝑏}

c) R={(x,y): 0≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑎, 0 < 𝑦 < 𝑏}

d) R={(x,y): 0< 𝑥 < 𝑎, 0 < 𝑦 < 𝑏}

Q.10 Let S=set of points inside the square, T= the set of points inside the triangle and C=the

set of points inside the circle. If the triangle and circle intersect each other and are contained in a

Square. Then,

a) S∩ 𝑇 ∩ 𝐶 = ∅

b) S∪ 𝑇 ∪ 𝐶 = 𝐶

c) S ∪ 𝑇 ∪ 𝐶 = 𝑆

d) S∪ 𝑇 = 𝑆 ∪ 𝐶

Fill in the blanks in each of the following

Q.11 The set {x∈ 𝑹 1≤ 𝑥 < 2} can be written as __________

Q.12 When A=∅, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑃(𝐴) 𝑖𝑠 _________

Q.13 If A and B are finite sets such that A 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐵, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑛(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) =

Q.14 If A and B are any two ses, then A-B is equal to _________

Q.15 Power set of the set A={1,2} is ______

Q16 Given the sets A={1,3,5}, B+{2,4,6} and C+{0,2,4,6,8}.Then the universal set of all the three sets

A,B and C can be _______

Q.17 If U={1,2,----10},A={1,2,3,5},B={2,4,6,7} and C={2,3,4,8} then

i) (B∪ 𝐶)′ = ________ 𝑖𝑖) (𝐶 − 𝐴)′ = ________

Q.18 For all sets A and B, A-(A∩ 𝐵) 𝑖𝑠 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑜 __________

Match the following sets for all sets A,B and C

Q.19 ((A′ ∪ 𝐵′) − 𝐴)′ a)A-B

Q.20 [B’∪ (𝐵′ − 𝐴′)]′] b)A

Q.21 (A-B)-(B-C) c) B

Q.22 (A-B)∩(C-B) d)(A× 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 × 𝐶)

Q.23 A× (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) e) (A× 𝐵) ∪ (𝐴 × 𝐶)

Q.24 A× (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶) f) (A∩ 𝐶) − 𝐵

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Q.25 If A is any set, then A is a subset of

Q.26 Given that M={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} and if B={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}, then B is not a

subset of M

Q.27 The sets {1,2,3,4} and {3,4,5,6} are equal

Q.28 Q∪ 𝒁 = 𝑸, 𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑸is the set of rational number and Z is the set of integer

Q.29 Let sets R and T be defined as R={x𝜖𝒁; 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑏𝑦 2} T={x𝜖𝒁: x is

divisible by 6}. Then T is subset of R

Q.30 Given A={0,1,2}, B={x𝜖𝑹 : 0≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2}. Then A=B

ECONOMICS 1. Who wrote ‘Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations’? (a) Adam Smith

(b) Alfred Marshall

(c) Samuelson

(d) Robbins

2. Price theory deals with: (a) Product pricing

(b) Factor pricing (c) Welfare economics


3. Macro economics deals with:

(a) Theory of distribution

(b) Theory of income and employment (c) theory of economic growth


4. Economic problem arises because:

(a) Wants are unlimited

(b) Resources are scarce

(c) Alternative uses of resources exist


5. Central problem of an economy can be:

(a) What goods to produce and how much to produce

(b) How to produce

(c) For whom to produce


6. Theory of distribution studies the problem of:


(b) How to produce



7. Theory of production studies the problem of


(b) How to produce



8. Price theory studies the problem of:


(b) How to produce



9. Production possibility curve (PPC) is defined as different combination of goods and servicesthat can be

produced by whom when the resources are fully employed?

(a) Firm

(b) Industry

(c) Economy


10. Assumption of PPC is/are:

(a) There are only two goods

(b)Resources are not specific

(c) Resources are fully employed


11. Shape of PPC is:

(a) Downward slopping concave to the origin

(b) Downward sloping convex to the origin

(c) Downward sloping straight line to the origin


12. Smooth PPC is based on the assumption that:

(a) Infinite production possibilities exist

(b) Limited production possibilities exist

(c) Two production possibilities exist


13. PPC is also called:

(a) Opportunity cost curve

(b)Transformation curve

(c) Production possibility frontier


14. If production of good X rises by 1 unit and that of good Y falls from 15 to 12.5 units then,marginal

opportunity cost of X is:

(a) 27.5

(b) 2.5

(c) 15

(d) 12.5

15. PPC can effectively explain the central problem of:

(a) What to produce

(b) How to produce

(c) Economic growth


16. PP' shifts rightwards to P1P1'. It shows:

(a) Improvement in technology in good X

(b) Improvement in technology in good Y

(c) Improvement in technology in both good X and good Y

(d) Stagnation

17. If earthquake takes place, then what will happen to PPC?

(a) Shifts inward

(b) Remains same

(c) Shifts outward


18. If PPC shifts to the left, it means:

(a) Resources are destroyed

(b) More unemployment

(c) Use of outdated technology


19. If PPC shifts to the right, it means:

(a) Discovery of new stock

(b) Advancement in technology

(c) Generation of employment


INFORMATION PRACTICES

CHAPTER: COMPUTER SYSTEM

1. Which of the following components is the main memory of computer?

a) CD

b) DVD

c) Internal hard drive

d) RAM

2. Which component of computer connects the processor to the other hardware?

a) System Bus

b) CPU

c) Memory

d) Input Unit

3. Which of the following is referred to the brain of computer?

a) Processor

b) RAM

c) ROM

d) Hard Drive

4. What is the name of programs that control the computer system?

a) Hardware

b) Keyboard

c) Software

d) Mouse

5. The physical components of a computer are called?

a) Software

b) Hardware

c) ALU

d) CPU

6. Which of the following is the common measurement of unit of computer memory?

a) IQ

b) Byte

c) Terabyte

d) Gigabyte

7. What is the name of the component that used to both read and writes data?

a) ROM

b) RAM

c) Hard Drive

d) Cache Memory

8. The CPU is also known as:

a) brain

b) The Processor

c) The Central Processing Unit

d) All of these

9. Which smaller unit of the CPU directs and coordinates all activities within it and determines

the sequence in which instructions are executed, sending instructions sequence to other smaller

unit.

a) CU

b) ALU

c) PROCESSOR

d) All of these

10. Which smaller unit of the CPU performs all arithmetic and logic functions in a computer?

a) CU

b) ALU

c) PROCESSOR

d) All of these

11. Components of CPU which is responsible for comparing the contents of two pieces of data is

a) ALU

b) CU

c) Memory

d) register

12. In a computer,CU stands for

a) control unit

b) cache unit

c) calculating unit

d) communication unit

13. Arithmetic and logic unit along with control unit of a computer, combined into a single

unit,is known as

a) central processing unit

b) memory unit

c) I/O unit

d) Operating unit

14. Word Processor and Desktop Publishing program are the examples of

a) Hardware

b) software

c) cpu

d) none of these

15. Operating System is an example of

a) Application Software

b) System software

c) Utility program

d) none of these

16. A disk fragmentor is an example of

a) Application Software

b) System software

c) Utility program

d) none of these

17. Flash memory and Blu Ray disk are the examples of

(a) Hardware

(b) software

(c) cpu

(d) none of these

18. Flash memory is a type of

(a) Primary

(b) RAM

(c) secondary

(d) all of these

19. Which of the following memory types will store the data or information permanently?

(a) RAM

(b) cache

(c) Flash Memory

(d) Hard disk

20. Which of the following memory types cannot store the data or information permanently?

(a) RAM

(b) cache

(c) Flash Memory

(d) Hard disk

21._______ refers to the logical structure of a computer describing their interconnections and

dependency

a) Computer Organisation

b)Hardware

c) Software

d) Operating System

22. RAM and ROM are the types of _________memory.

a) Secondary memory

b) Main memory

c) Primary memory

d) b and c both are correct

23. The______ is responsible for carrying out arithmetic and logic operations.

a) CU

b) MU

c) ALU

d) None

24. The_____ of the CPU controls or supervises the processing taking places.

a) CU

b) MU

c) ALU

d) None

25. The small memory providing units inside the CPU are called the_______

a) CU

b) Registers

c) ALU

d) None

26. The_______memory is a special high speed memory storing the most recently accessed data.

a) RAM

b) Cache

c) ROM

d) None

27. The power unit of a mobile system is called________.

a) battery

b) Memory

c) power bank

d) None

28. The set of programs necessary to carry out operations/tasks pertaining to a specific

application, called__________

a) System software

b) Application software

c) Antivirus

d) Computer system

29. Software that controls and manages internal computer operations is called _________.

a) System software


c) Antivirus

d) Computer system

30. Utility programs are a type of ______.

a) System software


c) Antivirus

d) Computer system

Chapter:Data Handling

1. Consider the following sequence of statements:

a=35

m=a

Following the execution of these statements, Python has created how many objects a how many

references ?

(a) Two integer objects, two references

(b) One integer object, two references

(c) One integer object, one reference

(d) Two integer objects, one reference

2. Which Python built-in function returns the unique number assigned to an object?

a) identity()

b) id()

c) refnum()

d) ref()

3. What will the following code produce ?

a = 8.6

b=2

print (a//b)

(a) 4.3

(b) 4.0

c)4

(d) compilation error

4. In the Python statement x = a + 5-b: a and b are_____.

a) Operands

(b) Expression

(c) operators

(d) Equation

5. In the Python statement x = a +5-b: a +5 -b is_____

(a) Operands

(b) Expression

(c) operators

(d) Equation

6. What will be the value of y after following code fragment is executed ?

x = 10.0

y = (x < 100.0) and x >= 10

(a) 110

(b) True

(c) False

(d) Error

7. What will the following code result as ?

import math

x = 100

print ( x > 0 and math.sqrt(x))

(a) True

(b) 1

c)10

(d) 10.0

8. Which of the following operators has the lowest precedence?

(a) not

(b) %

(c) and

(d)+

9. What is the value of the expression 10 + 3 ** 3 * 2?

(a) 28

(b) 739

(c) 829

(d) 64

10. To increase the value of x five times using an augmented assignment operator, the correct

expression will be

(a) x +- 5 (6 () x * = 5 c) x =x ** 5 (d) none of these

11. What will be the result of the expression 10 or 0?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 10

(d) 1.0

12. What will be the result of the expression 5 or 10?

(a) 5

(b) 1

(c) 10

(d) 0

13. What will be the result of the expression 'x' and ‘a’

(a) 'a'

(b)"

(c) x

(d) 1.

True/False Questions

14. List is an immutable data type.

15. In implicit conversion, all operands data types are converted to the data type of the largest

operand.

16. Explicit type conversion involves the use of function to convert data type of a value.

17. A Boolean value is internally treated as an

integer value.

18.”an empty string has truth value as False.

19.’ ’(a space) has truth value as False.

20. Value false is a legal literal value in Python.

English Core (301)

PROSE: THE ADDRESS

1.After reading “The Address”, how would you describe Mrs. Dorling?

(a) Materialistic

(b) Selfish

(c) Opportunist


2.In total, how many times did the author visit the given address?

(a) Twice

(b) Once

(c) Thrice

(d) Never

3.The author had come to visit Mrs. Dorling _______ the war.

(a) During

(b) Before

(c) After

(d) Not mentioned in the story

4.At the end, what does the author decide?

(a) To forget the address

(b) To visit next year again

(c) To remember the address forever


5.Why did the author leave Mrs. Dorling in a hurry?

(a) Because she was getting late for the train

(b) Because she no longer wanted to stay there

(c) Both (a) and (b)


6.According to the author, when do we notice the things in the house?

(a) When they are out of our sight

(b) When they are used

(c) When they are shown


7.In what condition did the author find the living room?

(a) Haphazard

(b) Well arranged

(c) Empty

(d) Old fashioned

8.“I was in a room I knew and did not know.” What does author mean by this?

(a) She saw familiar things but in unfamiliar surroundings

(b) She saw unfamiliar things but in familiar surroundings

(c) She did not recognize the things she saw

(d) She did not want to remember anything

9.Unlike Mrs. Dorling, her daughter was __________ towards the author.

(a) Rude

(b) Mature

(c) Hospitable

(d) Mean

10.Why had the author come to visit Mrs. Dorling?

(a) Because Mrs. Dorling had belongings of author’s mother

(b) Because Mrs. Dorling called her

(c) Because she missed Mrs. Dorling


11.How does the author describe Mrs. Dorling when she saw her the first time during the war?

(a) A woman with a broad back

(b) A woman with a round back

(c) A woman with a straight back


12.Mrs. Dorling took the possessions of the things on the pretence of __________.

(a) Using them

(b) Selling them

(c) Keeping them safe

(d) Both (a) and (b)

POEM: THE LABURNUM TOP

1. What is described by the word ‘sleek’ in the poem?

(a) Lizard

(b) Bird

(c) Branch

(d) Top of the tree

2.What does the phrase “her barred face identity mask” mean?

(a) Because she was brown in colour

(b) Due to her dark coloured yellow body

(c) Bird’s face became her identity and symbol of recognition


3.What instance of Alliteration has been used in the poem ‘The Laburnum Top’ out of the

following options?

(a) Engine of her family

(b) Her barred face

(c) Sleek as a lizard

(d) September sunlight

4.What happened to the bird in the end of the poem?

(a) She flew away

(b) She stayed at the tree

(c) She went to other tree

(d) She went to bring some food for her younger ones

5.Why was Goldfinch’s body barely visible?

(a) due to her dark coloured yellow body

(b) Because she was small

(c) Because of the height of the tree

(d) Because she was brown in colour

6.How did the bird arrive at the other branch of the tree?

(a) With a chirping sound

(b) Silently

(c) Never arrived at other branch

(d) Flew away and then arrived at the branch

7.What role does the tree play for the Goldfinch bird?

(a) As a shelter

(b) As a supporter

(c) As a means to feed her family

(d) As a resting place

8.Why did the Goldfinch bird came towards the tree?

(a) To feed her younger ones

(b) To make a nest

(c) To rest


9.How was the tree standing in the month of September?

(a) Still and death-like

(b) Alive

(c) Green and happy

(d) Still and green

10.How did the poet describe the top of the Laburnum tree in the poem ‘The Laburnum Top’?

(a) Still and Silent

(b) Moving and Angry like

(c) Silent and Motionless


ITBP PUBLIC SCHOOL Class XI ASSIGNMENT

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