INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES - Home - …notam.webs.com/2009/cpl/2007 CPL AERO HF MET...

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HIGHER EDUCATION DIVISION Examinations: Teaching Period Five, 2007 Paper 1 of 1 Faculty of Engineering and Industrial Sciences Campus: Hawthorn Unit of Study(s): HES1906 Unit of Study Name: Commercial Pilot Licence 1 STUDENT’S NAME: ________________________________________________________________ ID No: _____________________ Duration: 3 hours Percentage of overall assessment covered by this paper: Reading Time: 15 minutes 60%

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Materials Allowed: Non-Programmable Calculator Answering Requirements: This paper is presented in three parts:

Part A – Aircraft General Knowledge Part B – Aerodynamics Part C – Human Factors Part D – Meteorology

Each part should require approximately 45 minutes to complete. Each part is worth 1/4 of the total marks for this paper or 15% of the overall assessment of this subject. Answer all questions. Marks are not subtracted for incorrect answers. The answers to all questions should be entered in the workbook provided, showing all calculations and assumptions where appropriate.

Swinburne University of Technology Faculty of Engineering and Industrial Sciences

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PART A – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Instructions:

� Answer all questions � 40 questions worth 1 mark each, total 40 marks.

1. Factors most likely to promote detonation of fuel are:

a) rich mixture, high MP, low-octane fuel b) lean mixture, high MP, low-octane fuel c) lean mixture, high MP, high octane-fuel d) rich mixture, high MP, high octane-fuel

2. The battery compartment in an aircraft is vented to allow:

a) transfer of water vapour in and out of the area b) room for cables and wiring and allow for a lighter circuit c) air pressure inside the compartment to equalise with ambient pressure d) the escape of hydrogen and oxygen, produced during charging e) none of the above

3. A leak in a turbocharger downstream of the wastegate will:

a) Vent to atmosphere and act as an exhaust. b) Cause a higher than normal manifold pressure. c) Cause a lower than normal manifold pressure. d) Reduce the amount of gases passing over the turbine

4. During the compression stroke of the four stroke cycle:

a) the exhaust valve is closed all the time and the inlet valve is closed all the time.

b) the exhaust valve is closed all the time and the inlet valve is closed part of the time.

c) the exhaust valve is closed part of the time and the inlet valve is closed part of the time.

d) the exhaust valve is closed part of the time and the inlet valve is closed all of the time.


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5. In a supercharged engine with a constant speed propeller, the manifold pressure and RPM are respectively controlled by:

a) mixture control; throttle b) throttle; propeller control lever c) propeller, control lever and IAS d) propeller control lever; throttle

6. One of the disadvantages of fuel-injection systems compared with carburettor

systems is:

a) uneven fuel distribution to the cylinders b) slower throttle response c) poor control of fuel air mixture d) vapour locks during ground operations on hot days

7. Pre-ignition occurs when:

a) one of the two spark plugs fires before the other b) the mixture is so lean that it burns through to the next induction stroke. c) a hot spot ignites the charge before the spark plug. d) the spark plug fires too soon in the compression stroke.

8. A leak in a turbocharger upstream of the compressor will:

a) Will have no effect on manifold pressure b) Cause a lower than normal manifold pressure. c) Cause a higher than normal manifold pressure. d) Will vent to atmosphere and act as an exhaust.

9. During a ground power check, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller

should be fully fine so that

a) The engine does not overspeed b) Propeller thrust does not become excessive c) Rpm will remain constant throughout the check d) Rpm can be used to assess power output


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10. A propeller is most efficient:

a) At one IAS and one RPM value if a CSU is fitted b) At a range of IAS and RPM values fitted with a fixed pitch propeller c) At 14.7:1 which is stoichiometric for a propeller d) At one IAS and one RPM value if fitted with a fixed pitch propeller.

11. In most aircraft equipped with retractable undercarriages, the squat switch is

attached to

a) A mainwheel gear strut b) A nosewheel gear strut c) The hydraulic accumulator d) Nosewheel axle

12. The pitch of a propeller is the angle between:

a) the chord and the direction of rotation. b) the chord and direction of the relative airflow. c) the direction of the relative airflow. d) the chord angle and the angle of attack of the blade.

13. A fouled spark plug will

a) Increase efficiency b) Cause rough running if that magneto is selected c) Cause detonation d) All of the above

14. Which of the following would render a direct reading magnetic compass

unserviceable

a) Badly discoloured fluid b) Distortion when the aircraft’s radio systems are switched on c) The absence of a bubble in the fluid d) A broken lock wire


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15. During a steady climb a complete blockage of the one and only static vent will cause the:

a) ASI to over read by an increasing amount b) ASI to over read by a set amount c) ASI to under read by an increasing amount d) ASI to under read by a set amount

16. The angle between the resultant velocity of the propeller blade and the plane of

rotation is called the:

a) angle of attack b) helix (or pitch) angle c) blade angle d) plane of rotation angle

17. In the southern hemisphere, a compasses centre-of-gravity is displaced:

a) On the nearest pole side of the pivot point b) On the equator side of the pivot point c) On either side, depending on your heading d) On neither side, the compass is designed to reduce any centre-of-

gravity movement. 18. An unsupercharged aircraft with a CSU has the throttle fully open. If the RPM

is increased by altering the pitch control the MAP will:

a) increase b) remain unchanged c) decrease d) increase to a maximum and then decrease.

19. Rate gyros such as those employed in turn coordinators rely on which

fundamental property of gyroscopes

a) Inertia b) Space rigidity c) Precession d) Nausea


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20. What would indicate that the alternator has failed: -

a) negative on a left zero ammeter showing battery discharge b) positive on a centre zero ammeter showing no alternator output c) zero on a left zero ammeter showing no alternator output d) The illumination of the enunciator light only e) none of the above

21. When increasing power on an engine with a CSU, increase;

a) rpm before MP b) MP before RPM c) either rpm or MP first as you wish, but only when supercharged d) either RPM or MP first according to flight requirements

22. Lower than specified gas accumulator pressure will

a) Reduce fluid storage capacity b) Increase system operating pressure c) Reduce damping of pressure surges d) Increase friction and vibration between moving parts

23. The component used to prevent an excessive current flow in an aircraft

electrical circuit is the

a) condenser b) circuit limiter c) circuit breaker d) defuser e) resistor

24. Application of carburettor heat:

a) reduces manifold pressure and enriches the mixture. b) increases manifold pressure and leans the mixture. c) reduces manifold pressure and leans the mixture. d) increases manifold pressure and enriches the mixture.


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25. For take off at low density altitude, the mixture should be:

a) left fully rich. b) leaned to peak EGT. c) leaned to best economy. d) leaned to smooth running.

26. The inlet and exhaust valves are opened by the action of the

a) crankshaft b) camshaft c) valve springs d) connecting rod

27. What will be the effect on turbocharger operation if a significant exhaust gas

leak develops upstream of the waste gate

a) Power output reduced b) Engine will overboost c) Power surges will occur d) No effect

28. If the waste-gate is jammed (closed) shut and the throttle is advanced

a) MP increases rapidly b) MP increases slowly c) MP increases normally d) MP fails to increase above ambient pressure

29. What is used in a hydraulic system to smooth out pressure fluctuations

a) an accumulator b) a reservoir c) a pressure regulator d) a surge chamber

30. In the northern hemisphere, when accelerating on a westerly heading, a

magnetic compass will indicate

a) an apparent turn to the north b) an apparent turn to the south c) correctly d) neither overshoot or undershoot because it is on a westerly heading.


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31. The idling jet in a carburettor is designed to maintain,

a) adequate supply of fuel with the engine at idling RPM b) proper fuel/air mixture at idling RPM c) excess air supply to the carburettor at idling RPM d) Linear engine acceleration during abrupt power changes

32. What would indicate that the alternator has failed: -

a) The illumination of the enunciator light only b) zero on a left zero ammeter showing no alternator output c) positive on a centre zero ammeter showing no alternator output d) negative on a left zero ammeter showing battery discharge e) e) none of the above

33. A CSU propeller is in full-fine position and hard against the full fine pitch stops.

If we then reduce power with the throttle then

a) rpm will remain the same due to governor control b) rpm will decrease because of the lower power c) rpm will increase to balance the loss of power d) propeller will come off the fine pitch stops, pitch will coarsen, and the

rpm will remain unchanged 34. The feathered position of a propeller is for:

a) negative pitch b) reverse pitch c) zero thrust d) minimum drag

35. If the alternator is not supplying enough current to meet the electrical load

demands, then a centre-zero ammeter will show

a) negative deflection b) positive deflection c) zero deflection d) strong positive deflection


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36. A complete loss of brake fluid would be recognised by:

a) no pressure felt in the brake pedals b) spongy feeling pedals c) the aircraft slides on brake fluid down the runway d) only partial braking being available e) none of the above

37. For a normally aspirated engine shut down on an ISA day at sea level, the MP

gauge should read

a) 29.92 b) slightly more than 29.92 c) slightly more than ambient d) slightly less than ambient

38. The function of the turbocharger wastegate butterfly valve is to:

a) close off the turbocharger inlet when boost is too high. b) control the turbocharger exhaust, therefore the turbine speed. c) limit the induction manifold pressure by dumping the excess inlet

pressure. d) limit the turbine speed.

39. An aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller is put into a dive without altering

the throttle,

a) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as angle of advance and propeller torque increase.

b) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as the angle of advance and propeller torque decrease.

c) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase but helix angle decreases. d) the engine RPM, propeller RPM and helix angle all increase.

40. The distinction between pre-ignition and detonation is that:

a) detonation is caused by carbon deposits b) pre-ignition is the result of high-temperature and low grade fuel c) pre-ignition results from ignition without the assistance of a spark at

the spark plug. d) detonation will result from an excessively rich mixture.

END OF PART A – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PART B – AERODYNAMICS BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE


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PART B – AERODYNAMICS Instructions:


1. An aerofoil is said to be at its stalling angle if any increase or decrease in angle

of attack:

a) produces less lift and less drag b) produces a lower lift/drag ratio c) produces less lift d) produces more drag

2. As the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased from about 4° to the stalling

angle, at constant IAS:

a) lift increases and drag increases b) lift decreases and drag decreases c) lift increases and drag decreases d) lift decreases and drag increases

3. The effect of fitting an aeroplane with a more powerful engine would be most

noticeable during:

a) a maximum rate climb b) a maximum angle climb c) maximum speed for level flight d) minimum speed for level flight

4. Load factor is the force produced by the wings at any given moment:

a) subtracted from the total weight of the aeroplane b) added to the total weight of the aeroplane c) multiplied by the total weight of the aeroplane d) divided by the total weight of the aeroplane


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5. In a climbing turn there will be a tendency for the aircraft to:

a) under bank due to the higher angle of attack on the inner wing b) over bank due to the higher angle of attack on the outer wing c) over bank as a result of slipping into the turn d) return to wings level

6. If more power is required to maintain altitude when IAS is reduced, the

aeroplane must be flying below:

a) VA (manoeuvring speed) b) the speed for maximum endurance c) the speed for best angle of climb d) the speed for minimum drag

7. For an aircraft to remain in the air for the greatest possible time per litre of fuel

consumed it must be flown at a speed which requires:

a) the least amount of drag b) the smallest angle of attack c) the least amount of power d) the best lift/drag ratio

8. What effect does loading an aeroplane to the most aft centre of gravity have on

the aeroplane’s stability?

a) It will be less stable at low speeds b) It will be less stable at low speeds but more stable at high speeds c) It will be more stable at all speeds d) It will be less stable at all speeds

9. Thrust stream turbulence varies with:

a) engine power and IAS b) engine power and distance from the source c) distance from the source and IAS d) the angle of attack and weight of the aeroplane


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10. An aeroplane has wing anhedral built into it to:

a) improve longitudinal stability b) improve lateral stability c) decrease lateral stability d) minimise induced drag

11. Wake turbulence increases with:

a) an increase in IAS b) an increase in wing loading c) a decrease in angle of attack d) an increase in aspect ratio

12. Beyond the stalling angle:

a) the centre of pressure which has moved forward will suddenly move towards the rear of the wing, causing the nose to pitch down

b) the separation point moves well forward causing a nose pitch up c) the CL has reached its minimum value and the wing will no longer be

able to produce any lift d) the nose of the aeroplane will pitch down as the centre of pressure and

separation point meet at the forward extremity of their travel 13. Which of the following questions would establish than an aircraft is in a spin

and not a spiral dive?

a) low nose attitude b) rapid rate of turn c) IAS low and almost unchanging d) steadily increasing IAS

14. Ground effect will cause a reduction in:

a) parasite drag b) form drag c) induced drag d) interference drag


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15. For an aircraft to enter a spin:

a) it must first be stalled b) it must be loaded outside the aft limit of the centre of gravity range c) it must be banked in the direction of the spin d) the pilot must apply rudder in the direction of the spin

16. What is the purpose of flight spoilers?

a) Increase the camber of the wing b) Reduce the lift without increasing speed c) Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack d) To increase the maximum CL of the wing

17. How can turbulent airflow cause an increase in the stalling speed of an aerofoil?

a) An abrupt change in relative wind b) A decrease in angle of attack c) Sudden decrease in load factor d) Stall speed is unaffected

18. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn whilst

maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?

a) Rate of turn and load factor will decrease b) Rate of turn and load factor will increase c) Rate of turn will decrease, load factor will not change d) Rate of turn and load factor will not change

19. When flying in a headwind, to increase the range that the aircraft achieves IAS

should be:

a) left constant at the maximum range speed b) increased to increase the range of the aircraft c) decreased to increase the range of the aircraft d) left constant at the speed for minimum power


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20. The net effect of all forces acting on an aerofoil can be attributed to a single imaginary force called:

a) lift b) the total reaction c) induced drag d) total drag

21. The aspect ratio is accurately calculated by the expression:

a) the span divided by the chord b) the chord divided by the wing area c) the chord squared divided by the wing area d) the span squared divided by wing area

22. For a piston engine aircraft, the maximum rate of climb possible at a given gross

weight is governed by-.

a) the maximum lift possible b) the minimum drag possible c) excess thrust d) excess power

23. The effect of fitting an aeroplane with a more powerful engine would be most

noticeable during:

a) a maximum rate of climb b) a maximum angle of climb c) maximum speed during level flight d) minimum speed during level flight

24. The speed at which produces the maximum lift/drag ratio angle of attack in

level flight is also the speed which requires:

a) maximum thrust b) minimum thrust c) maximum power d) minimum power


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25. Which of the following describes the effect of increased weight on the maximum gliding performance of an aircraft in nil wind?

a) the speed for best glide increases and the gliding distance decreases b) the speed for best glide increases and the gliding distance remains the

same c) the speed for best glide remains the same and the gliding distance

decreases d) the speed for best glide remains the same and the gliding increases

26. An effect of lowering flap during a descent is to:

a) reduce the induced drag b) decrease the gliding angle c) increase the lift/drag ratio d) increase both lift and drag

27. Load factor is the force produced by the wings at any given moment:

a) subtracted from the total weight of the aeroplane b) added to the total weight of the aeroplane c) multiplied by the total weight of the aeroplane d) divided by the total weight of the aeroplane

28. For an aircraft to remain in the air for the greatest possible time per litre of fuel

consumed it must be flown at the speed which requires:

a) the least amount of drag b) the smallest angle of bank c) the least amount of power d) the best lift/drag ratio

29. Which of the following combination of factors would cause a change in the

indicated stall speed of an aeroplane?

a) power and weight b) altitude and load factor c) turbulence and air density d) air density and wing loading


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30. As the pilot raises the tail of a tail-wheel aircraft during the take-off run:

a) the tendency to swing to the left will increase b) there will be a tendency to swing to the right c) there will be no noticeable change in the tendency to swing d) there will be a tendency to overpitch

31. The initial effect of propeller torque on a single engine aeroplane when power is

increased is:

a) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the left b) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the right c) the aeroplane will tend to roll to the left d) the aeroplane will tend to roll to the right

32. Ground effect will cause a reduction in:

a) parasite drag b) total drag c) induced drag d) form drag

33. Floating during the landing can be caused by ground effect when within how

many wing spans of the ground?

a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 1.5

34. Wake turbulence will increase with:

a) an increase in IAS b) an increase in weight c) a decrease in angle of attack d) an increase in aspect ratio


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35. Which statement best describes the relationship of the forces acting on an aeroplane in a steady power-off glide

a) Drag equals thrust, lift equals weight b) Weight is greater than lift, drag is counteracted by a component of

weight c) Lift equals drag; weight is balanced by the aerodynamic force d) Lift equals weight; drag is counteracted by a component of weight

36. What effect does an increased load factor have on an aeroplane during an

approach to the stall?

a) The aeroplane will stall at a higher speed b) The aeroplane will have the tendency to spin c) The aeroplane will be more difficult to control d) The aeroplane will have a tendency to yaw and roll as the stall is

encountered 37. What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?

a) The location of the CG with respect to the horizontal stabilizer b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim

tab c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag d) The dihedral. Angle of sweepback and the keel effect

38. In a piston-engine aeroplane, maximum range is achieved by flying at the

indicated airspeed which

a) uses least power b) creates the minimum total drag c) is the slowest possible for straight and level flight d) requires the smallest possible angle of attack for level flight

39. As a general rule, aeroplanes tend to become more stable with

a) aft loading b) flaps extended c) light loads d) forward loading


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40. The down going aileron of aircraft equipped with Frise ailerons: a) goes further than the up going aileron b) does not go down as far as the up going aileron c) protrudes into the airflow, thereby increasing drag d) maintains a smooth airflow over the aileron and wing

END OF PART B – AERODYNAMICS

PART C – HUMAN FACTORS BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE


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PART C – HUMAN FACTORS Instructions:


1. Oxygen is transported around the body by

a) white blood cells b) platelets c) plasma d) haemoglobin

2. The recommended precaution regarding flying following a period of scuba-

diving which was limited to a depth not requiring decompression stops is –

a) Supplemental oxygen should be available for all flights for the four hour period following the diving.

b) In the 24-hour period following the diving, total flight time should not exceed four hours.

c) Flight altitude should be limited to 8,000 ft for the four hour period following the diving.

d) The four hour period after diving should be spent at sea level. 3. What causes motion sickness?

a) ambiguous signals arriving at the brain b) a hot cabin temperature c) an empty stomach d) turbulence

4. A good Captain will encourage the Co-pilot to use communication styles which

are –

a) Aggressive and supportive b) Assertive and submissive c) Supportive and submissive d) Assertive and supportive


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5. The approximate time of useful consciousness for an average person engaged in moderate activity, following an oxygen supply failure at 30,000 ft will be –

a) 20 seconds b) 45 seconds c) 90 seconds d) 150 seconds

6. Long-sightedness due to the ageing process is termed –

a) presbyopia b) presbycusis c) presbytinnitus d) presbyterianism

7. Which of the following statements correctly describes the alleviation of the

effects of hypoxia at cabin altitudes above 10,000 ft without the use of supplemental oxygen?

a) mild exercise accompanied by regular breathing b) slow, deep breathing c) rapid shallow breathing d) the effects cannot be alleviated

8. You are hypoxic. After donning an oxygen mask, you can expect

a) an immediate relief from symptoms b) your symptoms to initially worsen before they improve c) gradual relief from symptoms d) no change in symptoms

9. Flying while suffering from a head cold increases the risk of –

a) pressure vertigo b) hypoxia c) carbon monoxide poisoning d) decompression sickness


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10. If, during flight in non-VMC, you sense a descending turn to the left, the most important action to take is to –

a) immediately apply opposing control inputs to that which has been

sensed b) hand over control of the aircraft to another flight crew member c) monitor the aircraft’s artificial attitude instruments d) keep your head still to reduce any disorientating sensations

11. Which of the following statements correctly describes the effects resulting from

exposure over many years to aircraft noise?

a) some loss of hearing may occur but it will last for only a few minutes after each exposure.

b) some loss of hearing may occur but total recovery will eventually take place.

c) some loss of hearing may occur but partial recovery will eventually take place.

d) some loss of hearing may occur but full recovery may never eventuate. 12. How long is needed for full dark adaptation?

a) 5-10 min b) 35-45 min c) 20-30 min d) 10-20 min

13. A pilot showing the symptoms of dizziness, tingling at the fingertips and blurred

vision, but no sign of cyanosis, may be suffering from –

a) hypoxia b) hyperventilation c) hypertension d) hyperthermia

14. Alcohol has been found to be detected in the brain after ingestion of alcohol

after –

a) 8 hours b) 10 hours c) 12 hours d) 18 hours e) 24 hours


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15. Mind set occurs when

a) a skill is practised so often it becomes subconscious b) the incoming message is similar to information already stored in the

long term memory, and the brain assumes they are the same c) we use checklists d) we use our past experiences to help us make a decision

16. Visual acuity decreases away from the fovea because –

a) the number of cones decrease b) the number of rods decrease c) the number of cones increase d) the number of rods increase

17. A motor programme is –

a) practising a task so often it becomes subconscious b) believing a task has been completed simply by being in the

environment in which it is usually completed c) a form of motivation d) practised when completing a checklist

18. The eye moves in what are termed “saccades” (jerks and rests). In visual

searching, a saccade/rest cycle usually occupies roughly –

a) 0.3 seconds b) 1.0 seconds c) 2.0 seconds d) 3.0 seconds

19. The ideal pilot is –

a) P+ G+ b) P-G+ c) P-G- d) P+G-


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20. What percentage of aircraft accidents have been deemed to have been directly attributed to human factors-related related causes?

a) 25-30% b) 40-50% c) 75% d) 80-90%

21. The oxygen demand of muscles during activity increases by a factor of-

a) 2 b) 20 c) 10 d) 7

22. What is the approximate time of useful consciousness for an average pilot

engaged in moderate activity at 45,000 feet?

a) 30 sec b) 1 min c) 15 sec d) 45 sec e) 2 min

23. With age, the lens of the eye generally becomes –

a) too loose b) too stiff c) too elastic d) cracked

24. The part of the eye which bends incoming light the most is –

a) the lens b) the iris c) the pupil d) the cornea e) the tympanic membrane


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25. A pilot should not fly with a common cold. Drugs taken to reduce symptoms of the common cold can have negative side effects that are especially dangerous when flying. If you had a cold, which one of the following drugs and its side effect would you most commonly take and most likely experience, if you flew? –

a) anti-histamines, drowsiness b) panadiene, heart weakness at high altitudes c) antibiotics, diarrhoea d) tranquilizers, increased pilot fatigue

26. A rise in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood causes –

a) no change in respiration rate b) a reduction in respiration rate c) an increase in respiration rate d) an increase or decrease in respiration rate depending on the

corresponding oxygen concentration in the blood 27. Under the Holmes-Rahe scale, the most stressful life event is –

a) divorce b) pregnancy c) jail term d) death of a spouse e) death of a mouse

28. On June 24, 1982, a British Airways 747 experienced a 4 engine flameout after

inadvertently flying into a volcanic ash cloud at FL370 enroute from Kuala Lumpur to Perth. Main electrical power & cabin pressurization were lost, but the crew responded in a disciplined manner. They set the aircraft up in a glide at best glide speed, attempted relights according to the correct procedure, sent out a MAYDAY call, ran the loss of pressurization drill & kept the cabin informed without causing panic. At FL130 they were able to relight the number four engine. After a few more minutes the other engines were started, and the aircraft landed safely in Jakarta. The crew displayed use of their

a) episodic memory b) short term memory c) semantic memory d) long term memory


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29. Night vision for a normal, healthy non-smoker starts to deteriorate at

a) sea level b) 2000’ c) 4000’ d) 6000’

30. The fact that the concentration of cones is greatest at the fovea, while the rods

are distributed over the whole of the retina means that –

a) night vision is best at the fovea b) night vision is worst at the fovea c) colour sensitivity is best away from the fovea d) none of the above are correct

END OF PART C – HUMAN FACTORS

PART D – METEOROLOGY BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE


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PART D – METEOROLOGY Instructions:


1. The trade winds in Australia are:

a) South Easterlies b) South Westerlies c) North Westerlies d) North Easterlies

2. The Roaring Forties are:

a) A strong North Easterly wind, originating from about 040 degrees. b) A strong Westerly wind, located between approx 40 to 50 degrees

South c) A strong Easterly wind, located at approximately 40 degrees South d) As strong Southerly that produces wet, windy winters in Tasmania

3. Coriolis’ force explains the tendency of wind to

a) Turn right in the southern hemisphere b) flow towards the lowest pressure c) turn left in the southern hemisphere d) slow down near the earth’s surface

4. The accepted relationship between pressure in hectopascals and height in the

lower layers of the atmosphere is:

a) 30 hpa/1 ft b) 1 hpa/30 in hg c) 1 hpa/30 ft d) 1013 hpa/36090 ft


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5. Compared to the gradient wind flow, the surface wind over land will have.

a) veered by 30° and slowed by two thirds b) backed by 30° and slowed by one third c) veered by 10° and slowed by one third d) backed by 10° and slowed by two thirds

6. The term geostrophic wind refers to the steady flow of wind

a) about a low, clockwise b) about a high, anti-clockwise c) along straight isobars d) towards the centre of a low

7. Which conditions would be most favourable for the formation of a low level jet

stream across southern Queensland

a) Late afternoon, clear sky, a HIGH centred to the east of the Great Dividing Range

b) Late evening, overcast sky, a LOW centred to the east of the Great Dividing Range

c) Early morning, clear sky, a HIGH centred to the west of the Great Dividing Range

d) Midday, towering cumulus beginning to develop, a LOW centred to the east of the Great Dividing Range

8. Which variations in wind and temperature normally occur with the passage of a

cold front?

a) wind backs, temperature rises b) wind veers, temperature falls c) wind backs, temperature falls d) wind veers, temperature rises

9. The equatorial trough moves further north that it does south because?

a) Coriolis forces is zero at the equator b) the average surface temperature is higher because of the larger land

masses in the northern hemisphere c) the earths axis is tilted d) the northern hemisphere has lower average temperatures


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10. Conditional stability is said to exist when:

a) the DALR is greater than the SALR, which in turn is greater than the ELR

b) saturated air is stable and unsaturated air is unstable c) the ELR is less than the DALR but is greater than the SALR d) the ELR is greater than the DALR but greater than the SALR

11. A “fohn wind” is:

a) a wind that flows up a mountain slope at less than 5kts. b) a warm dry wind that blows down a mountain slope c) a warm wind that blows up a mountain side as a result of surface

heating d) a cold moist wind flows down a mountain slope usually early in the

morning 12. “Adiabatic processes” are those:

a) in which no latent heat exchange take place b) in which there is no temperature change but during which condensation

can occur c) resulting from isothermal expansion d) in which no heat is transferred in or out of the system

13. The troposphere:

a) is a section of the atmosphere above tropopause where there is little or no change in temperature with height

b) is a region 8 km to 18 km above the earth’s surface at which a marked change in temperature lapse rate is apparent

c) contains most of the water vapour of the atmosphere and the temperature generally decreases with height

d) is the boundary between the tropopause and the stratopause 14. When the dry bulb temperature and dew point temperature have the same value:

a) the temperature must be above freezing b) the relative humidity is 100% c) the atmosphere is stable d) the atmosphere is unstable


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15. The most rapid build-up of clear airframe ice would occur during flight through:

a) Freezing rain b) Jet streams c) Drizzle d) Nimbostratus cloud

16. You are planning a flight to Adelaide International, SA. The TAF for this

aerodrome is:

a) issued every 12 hours and valid for 24 hours b) issued every 6 hours and valid for 18 or 24 hours c) not available d) issued as required and valid for 12 hours

17. The effect of the land surface being warmer than the sea surface is to cause air

to flow locally:

a) from sea to land and is called a sea breeze b) from land to sea and is called a sea breeze c) from sea to land and is called a land breeze d) from land to sea and is called a land breeze

18. A sea breeze is most likely to occur?

a) 0300 LST b) 0900 LST c) 1500 LST d) 2100 LST

19. For which of the following periods, in relation to your ETA, must the TAF for

your destination be valid –

a) At least 30 min before to at least 30 min after. b) At least 30 min before to at least 60 min after. c) At least 60 min before to at least 30 min after. d) At least 60 min before to at least 60 min after.


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20. A SPECI meteorological message refers to –

a) An airport b) A specified area c) An aircraft position d) A route

21. The type of precipitation from stratus is most likely to be?

a) snow b) heavy continuous rain c) rain showers d) drizzle

22. A pilot is committed to a forced landing on flat coastal terrain on the east coast

of Australia on a summer afternoon. Wind aloft is light westerly. Given a choice, what should be the direction for the final approach?

a) East b) South c) West d) North

23. One of the preconditions required for mountain waves is –

a) an upper stable layer with an unstable layer below and an unstable or weakly stable layer above

b) An upper unstable layer with a stable layer below and stable or weakly unstable layer above

c) Unstable conditions from the surface to a high level d) Stable conditions from the surface to a high level

24. A tropical cyclone which crosses the coast and moves inland maybe expected to

experience:

a) an increase in wind strength with reduced precipitation b) A decrease in wind strength with increased precipitation c) An increase in wind strength and precipitation d) A decrease in wind strength and precipitation


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25. On a calm clear morning a fog forms around a station in central New South Wales at 0600 hrs EST. The most likely fog-type is:

a) Advection b) Radiation c) Stream d) Pre-frontal

26. The term NOSIG indicates

a) no significant weather is expected during the validity period of the TAF.

b) no significant change is expected in the weather reported in the METAR for the duration of the TAF period.

c) the weather described in the METAR is expected to remain unchanged for the next three hours.

d) the METAR/TTF message has no significance while the TAF remains current.

Questions 27 to 29 refer to the following TAF

TAF YMMB 021835Z 2008 27015KT 9999 LIGHT DRIZZLE SCT010 BKN030 FM23 23018G35KT 9999 LIGHT SHOWERS OF RAIN SCT010 BKN020 TEMPO 2304 5000 DRIZZLE BKN008 T 08 10 12 14 Q 1025 1026 1028 1028 27. What would be the visibility at Moorabbin if you planned to arrive at 0415?

a) 10 km visibility b) 10 km visibility reducing to 5 km for periods not less than 30 mins c) 5 km visibility for periods not more than 60 mins d) 5 km increasing to 10 km for periods not less than 30 mins e) 10 km visibility reducing to 5 km for periods not more than 60 mins f) 10 km visibility reducing to 5 km for periods not less than 60 mins g) 10 km visibility reducing to 5 km for periods not more than 30 mins


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28. What is the operational requirement if any for a planned arrival at 2247 to Moorabbin

a) Alternate b) Nil c) Alternate or 60 mins holding fuel d) Alternate or 30 mins holding fuel e) 60 mins holding fuel f) 30 mins holding fuel

29. What is the temperature and QNH at time 0400 for an arrival at Moorabbin?

a) T 08, QNH 1025 b) T 10, QNH 1026 c) T 14, QNH 1028 d) T 12, QNH 1028

Questions 30 & 31 refer to the following TAF

TAF YMML 300048Z 0024 VRB10KT 9999 BKN030 TEMPO 0512 3000 TS ISOL030CB BKN040 T22 26 31 31 Q1019 1020 1020 1019

30. What is the validity period and category of the YMML TAF?

a) Category A TAF, Valid for 12 hours, issued every 12 hours b) Category B TAF, Valid for 24 hours, issued every 6 hours c) Category C TAF, Valid for 24 hours, issued every 12 hours d) Category B TAF, Valid for 12 hours, issued every 6 hours e) Category A TAF, Valid for 24 hours, issued every 6 hours f) Category B TAF, Valid for 24 hours, issued on request.

31. What weather is to be expected for an arrival at ML at time 1230UTC.

a) VISIBILITY greater than 10km, reduced to 3km in TS for not more than 60 mins

b) VISIBILITY greater than 10km c) ISOLATED CB’S at 3000’, VISIBILITY reduced to 3km d) VISIBILITY greater than 10km, reduced to 3km in TS for not more

than 30 mins


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32. What is the validity period of this TTF?

TTF/SPECI YMML 2200Z VRB02KT 0100 FG 07/07 1032 FM 23 9999 WX NIL BKN015

a) VALID from 2200UTC to 0000UTC b) VALID for 12 hours c) VALID 3 hours from the time of issue. d) VALID from 2300 plus 3 hours e) No VALIDITY period

For questions 33 to 36, refer to the area forecast to the rear of this exam: 33. You plan to depart Moorabbin at time 0100UTC for a flight to Bankstown via

Albury. What cloud would you expect near the ranges?

a) ISOL CB 3000/3500 b) BKN ST 0500/2500 c) BKN ST 1000/3000 d) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000

34. What would be the freezing level during the time of your departure:

a) 7000 feet b) 11,500 feet c) 10,000 feet d) 20,000 feet

35. In Area forecasts how is cloud and wind measured?

a) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (MAGNETIC) b) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (TRUE) c) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (TRUE) d) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (MAGNETIC)

36. What is the lowest cloud forecasted west of the tough?

a) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000 b) BKN ST 1000/3000 c) BKN CU/SC 2500/8000 d) SCT ST 0500/2500


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For questions 37 & 38, refer to the synoptic chart at the rear of this exam:

37. What does the feature A – B represent?

a) a warm front b) a cold front c) a ridge d) a col e) a trough

38. What would likely be the strength and direction of the wind in Port Headland?

a) strong westerly b) light easterly c) moderate westerly d) light and variable e) strong easterly f) light westerly g) light and variable

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B

A

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ARFOR AREA30 AREA QNH 22/01 AREA 30/32 N OF YLAO/MNG/YMCO 1012 REST 1009 AREA30 AMEND AREA FORECAST 132300 TO 141100 AREAS 30/32 AMD OVERVIEW:

TROUGH NEAR RENMARK/CAMUS 23Z, BALRANALD/FLINDERS ISLAND 05Z AND COROWA/ORBOST 11Z. RA/DZ AND FG AREAS PARTICULARLY ON AND N OF RANGES WITH EXTENSIVE LOW CLOUD NEAR AND E OF TROUGH. ISOL TSRA NEAR TROUGH. DRIZZLE PATCHES / ISOLATED SHOWERS W OF TROUGH. SMOKE PATCHES IN E. FOG PATCHES OVER SEA E OF 146E AND GIPPSLAND TILL 24Z.

SUBDIVISIONS: A: E OF TROUGH B: W OF TROUGH WIND: 2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500 A: 340/25 320/30 320/25 320/25 PS01 320/30 MS04 300/40 MS14 B: 270/15 270/20 280/25 290/30 ZERO 300/35 MS06 300/40 MS16 REMARK: WIND ABOVE 10000FT 10/15KNOTS STRONGER IN SW AFTER 05Z CLOUD: A: ISOL CB 3000/35000 NEAR TROUGH. BKN ST 0500/2500 ON AND N OF DIVIDING RANGE, SCT TO SOUTH BUT BKN WITH RAIN/TSRA NEAR TROUGH AND OVER SEA E OF 146E. BKN CUSC 2500/8000 ISOL TOPS 12000. BKN ACAS ABOVE 10000. B: BKN ST 1000/3000 NEAR TROUGH AND IN SHRA/DZ, BUT TENDING SCT FROM W. AREAS BKN CU/SC 3000/8000. SCT ACAS ABOVE 12000 CLEARING E. WEATHER: TSRA, FG, DZ, RA, SHRA, FU VISIBILITY: 500M FG, 3000M TSRA/DZ, 6KM FU/RA/SHRA FREEZING LEVEL: 11500 BUT 10000 W OF TROUGH ICING: MOD ACAS/CU TOPS TURBULENCE: MOD AC/CU. ISOL MOD BLW 7000 LEE RANGES. AMD CRITICAL LOCATIONS: [HEIGHTS ABOVE MSL] KILMORE GAP: 0500 FG RA BKN ST 1200 BKN ACAS 10000 [CLOUD ON GROUND] FM05 6000 SHRA BKN ST 1400 BKN CUSC 2500 INTER 2302 4000 TSRA FEW030CB

END OF PART D – METEOROLOGY END OF EXAM

AGK 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. a/b 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. d 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. c

AERODY 1. d 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. b/c 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. d (check bob tait)

HF 1. d 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. b 13. b 14. e 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. b

MET 1. a 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. a 27. e 28. c 29. d 30. e 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. f

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