IBPS PO's PRELIMS MODEL PAPER - …eenadupratibha.net eenadupratibha.net 4. Which of the following...

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www.eenadupratibha.net www.eenadupratibha.net IBPS - POs EXAM MODEL PAPER No. of Questions: 200 Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hrs. REASONING Directions (Q. 1 - 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers). Input: tent 13 wheat 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast 85 Step I: 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast Step II: 63 vast 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask steal 49 hand 54 Step III: 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask steal 49 hand Step IV: 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask hand Step V: 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 ask Step VI: 13 ask 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat and Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: store 95 clean 56 tape 15 break 28 feet 35 wait 69 ice 71 1. Which step number is the following output? 35 feet 56 ice 69 store 71 tape 95 wait clean 15 break 28 1) Step V 2) Step III 3) Step VI 4) Step IV 5) There is no such step 2. Which word/ number would be at sixth position from the right in Step IV? 1) 15 2) wait 3) clean 4) 95 5) 28 3. How many elements (words/ numbers) are there between 'feet' and '15' as they appear in the second last step of the out put? 1) Six 2) Seven 3) Five 4) Eight 5) Nine www.eenadupratibha.net www.eenadupratibha.net R-6,7,8-10-14

Transcript of IBPS PO's PRELIMS MODEL PAPER - …eenadupratibha.net eenadupratibha.net 4. Which of the following...

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IBPS - POs EXAM MODEL PAPERNo. of Questions: 200 Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hrs.

REASONING

Directions (Q. 1 - 5): Study the following information carefully and answer thegiven questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given aninput line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All thenumbers are two digit numbers).

Input: tent 13 wheat 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast 85

Step I: 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask 63 steal 49 hand 54 vast

Step II: 63 vast 85 wheat tent 13 21 ask steal 49 hand 54

Step III: 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask steal 49 hand

Step IV: 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 21 ask hand

Step V: 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat 13 ask

Step VI: 13 ask 21 hand 49 steal 54 tent 63 vast 85 wheat

and Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement isobtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the questions theappropriate step for the given input.

Input: store 95 clean 56 tape 15 break 28 feet 35 wait 69 ice 71

1. Which step number is the following output?

35 feet 56 ice 69 store 71 tape 95 wait clean 15 break 28

1) Step V 2) Step III 3) Step VI

4) Step IV 5) There is no such step

2. Which word/ number would be at sixth position from the right in Step IV?

1) 15 2) wait 3) clean

4) 95 5) 28

3. How many elements (words/ numbers) are there between 'feet' and '15' as theyappear in the second last step of the out put?

1) Six 2) Seven 3) Five

4) Eight 5) Nine

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4. Which of the following represents the position of 'wait' in the third Step?

1) 9th from the left 2) 6th from the left

3) 8th from the right 4) 7th from the right

5) 10th from the right

5. Which word / number would be at seventh position from the left in the Step VI?

1) ice 2) store 3) tape

4) 71 5) 69

Directions (Q. 6 - 10): Study the following information carefully and answer thegiven questions:

In a certain code language ‘make your trip interesting’ is written as ‘de la pa ni’,‘your trip be customized’ is written as ‘ha ni ta de’, ‘customised trip always good’ iswritten as ‘ta fa ka ni’ and ‘good make me happy’ is written as ‘ka ro pa na’.

6. Which of the following is the code for 'always'?

1) ka 2) ni 3) fa

4) ta 5) Either fa or ka

7. Which of the following can be coded as ‘pa ni de ha’?

1) make trip be your 2) make your trip good

3) your trip be good 4) trip always be good

5) trip be customized good

8. Which of the following represents ‘good trip always interesting’?

1) de ka ni la 2) fa ni ka ro 3) na fa de ha

4) ni fa la ka 5) ta la fa ni

9. Which of the following is code for 'make'?

1) la 2) pa 3) ni

4) ro 5) Either na or pa

10. What does 'ta' represent in this code?

1) trip 2) always 3) good

4) your 5) customized

Directions (Q. 11 - 15): Each of the questions below consists of a question andtwo statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whetherthe data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Readboth the statements and Give answer -

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1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the

data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the

data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to

answer the question.

4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

the question.

5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the

question.

11. What is the position of Yogesh from the left in the group of 21 students all of

them facing north?

I. Praveen is exactly in the middle of the row. There are five persons between

Praveen and Yogesh. Yogesh is fifth from the right end.

II. There are two persons between Seema and Praveen and another two persons

between Seema and Yogesh.

12. In which year did Ranjana complete her graduation?

I. According to Ranjana's father she graduated after March 1989 but before March

1993.

II. The brother of Ranjana remembers correctly that she did her graduation after

March 1991 but before March 1994 and the year of her graduation was an

even number.

13. Are M, S and N in a straight line?

I. N is 6 metres East of M. O is 4 metres North of N. T is 3 metres West of O and

S is 4 metres South of T.

II. P is 6 metres North of M. Q is exactly in the middle of P and M. R is 3 metres

East of Q. S is 3 metres South of R. N is 3 metres East of S.

14. Whether it was 4 O' clock two hours ago?

I. At present, both the hands of the clock face the opposite direction along

a straight line.

II. Two hours ago, both the hands of the clock together formed an angle of 120

degree.

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15. Among I, A, G, K, J and V who is the tallest?

I. V is taller than J and G. K is taller than I and G. K is not the tallest.

II. V is taller than K and I. J is taller than G. V is not the tallest.

16. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ENCO,

using each letter only once in each word?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

17. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word COAST (in both the

forward and backward directions), each of which has as many letters between

them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

18. In a certain code language CE stands for BD, NP stands for MO, then what does

JL stands for?

1) KI 2) IK 3) LM

4) ML 5) HJ

19. In a certain code language FRAME is written as QEBDL and BLOCK is written

as KAPJB. How is PRIDE written in that code language?

1) SQHFE 2) QSHEF 3) OQJCD

4) QOJDC 5) None of these

20. What should come next in the following number series?

0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2 ?

1) 4 2) 2 3) 6

4) 8 5) 5

Directions (Q. 21 - 25): In each group of questions below are two/ three statements

followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given

statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known

facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

two/ three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows.

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Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II follow.

21. Statements: All pens are nibs.

All nibs are inks.

No ink is colour.

Conclusions: I. All inks are nibs.

II. All pens are inks.

22. Statements: All pens are nibs.

All nibs are inks.

No ink is colour.

Conclusions: I. No colour is nib.

II. No colour is pen.

23. Statements: No dream is project.

All ventures are projects.

Conclusions: I. No venture is dream.

II. All projects are ventures.

24. Statements: No road is way.

All ways are paths.

No path is bridge.

Conclusions: I. Some bridges are roads.

II. All paths are roads.

(Q. 25 - 26):

Statements: Some numbers are digits.

No digit is alphabet.

All alphabets are letters.

25. Conclusions: I. No letter is digit.

II. Some letters are digits.

26. Conclusions: I. Some letters are numbers.

II. All numbers can never be alphabets.

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Directions (Q. 27 - 30): In these questions, relationship between different

elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two

conclusions:

Give answer:

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

27. Statements: O > P > Q > R < S < T

Conclusions: I. O > S II. T > P

28. Statements:

A < B < C; B = D > E > F; G < A

Conclusions: I. D > A II. A < E

(29 - 30): Statements:

H ≥ I = J ≥ K; L ≤ K; I < M < N

29. Conclusions: I. H > M II. N > H

30. Conclusions: I. M < I II. H ≥ K

31. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression

U < V < W < X < Y = Z ≥ A = B > C is definitely true?

1) Z > C 2) U < Y 3) Y > V

4) Z < U 5) B < Y

32. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the first, the fifth, the

eighth and the tenth letters of the word CREATIVITY, using each letter only once

in each word?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

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Directions (Q. 33 - 35): Following questions are based on the information given

below:

1) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’

2) ‘P − Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’

3) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’

4) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’

33. In the expression B + D × M ÷ N, how is M related to B?

1) Granddaughter 2) Son

3) Grandson 4) Granddaughter or Grandson

5) None of these

34. Which of the following represents ‘J is son of F’ ?

1) J ÷ R − T × F 2) J + R − T × F

3) J ÷ M − N × F 4) Can't be determined

5) None of these

35. Which of the following represents ‘R is niece of M’?

1) M ÷ K × T − R 2) M − J + R − N

3) R − M × T ÷ W 4) Can't be determined

5) None of these

Directions (Q. 36 - 40): Study the following information to answer the given

questions:

Seven animated movies - Up, Finding Nemo, Ice Age, Aladdin, Shark Tale, Beauty

and the Beast, The Incredibles, were screened during a children's work shop not

necessarily in the same order. The workshop started on Monday and ended on Sunday.

Only one movie was screened on each day.

‘Beauty and the Beast’ was screened on Wednesday. ‘The Incredibles’ was

screened on the fourth day after ‘Up’ was screened. ‘Ice Age’ was screened before

Thursday but not on Monday. ‘Shark Tale’ and ‘Aladdin’ were not screened on

Saturday but ‘Shark Tale’ was screened before Saturday.

36. Four of the following five are similar on the basis of their position in the above

arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong

to the group?

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1) Up - Beauty and the Beast

2) The Incredibles - Aladdin

3) Shark Tale - Finding Nemo

4) Beauty and the Beast - The Incredibles

5) Finding Nemo - Aladdin

37. On which day was ‘Ice Age’ screened?

1) Friday 2) Tuesday 3) Thursday

4) Sunday 5) None of these

38. Which movie was screened on Saturday?

1) Finding Nemo 2) Up 3) The Incredibles

4) Aladdin 5) None of these

39. How many movies were screened before ‘Shark Tale’?

1) 6 2) 4 3) 2

4) 3 5) None of these

40. Which of the following combinations is false with respect to the given

information?

1) ‘Up’ was not screened on Friday

2) ‘Shark Tale’ was screened immediately after ‘Beauty and the Beast’

3) ‘The Incredibles’ was screened on Sunday

4) ‘Finding Nemo’ was not screened on Friday

5) All are false

Directions (Q. 41 - 45): Study the following information to answer the givenquestions:

Eight people - L, M, O, P, Q, R and S - are sitting around a circular table facing

the centre. Each of them likes different colours, viz., Red, Orange, Blue, Pink, Black,

Purple, Brown and Green, but not necessarily in the same order. S is sitting second to

the left of N. There are two persons between S and the person who likes Orange

colour. M is the second to the left of the person who likes Orange colour. L is the

immediate neighbour of S. R is the third to the right of P. O likes Purple colour. The

person who likes Pink colour is second to the right of P. The person who likes Brown

colour is the third to the left of the person who likes Blue colour. Neither S nor P likes

Brown colour. N likes neither Green nor Blue colour. L likes Red colour.

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41. Who among the following is second to the right of the person who likes Orange

colour?

1) The person who likes Brown colour

2) Q

3) N

4) The person who likes Blue colour

5) Cannot be determined

42. Who among the following likes Green colour?

1) M 2) L 3) S

4) N 5) None

43. Who among the following is sitting exactly in the middle of the person who likes

Red colour and Q?

1) R 2) O 3) N

4) S 5) None of these

44. Who among the following likes Pink colour?

1) R 2) S 3) N

4) Q 5) None

45. Which of the following pairs of persons are immediate neighbours of M?

1) N and S 2) L and S 3) N and P

4) R and S 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 46 - 50): Study the following information and answer the

questions given below it.

Seven members H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in different cities

Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai not

necessarily in the same order. Each one has a different mother tongue Tamil, Kannada,

Telugu, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily in the same order.

J works in Bangalore and his mother tongue is not Tamil or Marathi. K's

mother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmedabad. L and M do not work in

Chennai and none of them has Marathi mother tongue. I works in Hyderabad and his

mother tongue is Telugu. The one who works in Delhi has Bangla mother tongue. N

works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is Hindi. L does not work in Kolkata.

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46. What is J's mother tongue?

1) Telugu 2) Hindi 3) Bangla

4) Kannada 5) None of these

47. Who works in Chennai?

1) H 2) L 3) M

4) L or M 5) None of these

48. Which of the following combination is correct?

1) Marathi - I - Hyderabad 2) Tamil - M - Kolkata

3) Marathi - I - Chennai 4) Punjabi - K - Delhi

5) None of these

49. Who works in Delhi?

1) H 2) M 3) L

4) K 5) None of these

50. What is M's mother tongue?

1) Bangla 2) Marathi

3) Telugu 4) Can't be determined

5) None of these

Directions (Q. 51 - 60): Read the following interview and answer the given

questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you

locate them while answering some of the questions.

A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central

question: If women had adequate representation in forestry institutions, would it make

a difference to them their communities and forests as a national resource? Interview

with the author.

Why has access to forests been such a conflict-ridden issue?

This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth,

but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their

daily lives.

Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forests.Is there an evolution of argument here?

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Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry,

with its top- down implementation and focus on commercial species was neither

'social' nor 'forestry', and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The

answer, I argued, lay in allowing forest communities to manage local forests. Finally,

in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also

started community forestry. So, I decided to see for myself how community forestry

was actually doing.

Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and

found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women's problem of fire-

wood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite

their high stakes in forests, women continued to be largely excluded from forest

management. I coined the term "participatory exclusions" to describe this. However,

the current book is less about women's exclusion. I ask: What if women were present

in forest governance? What difference would that make?

But has this question not been raised before?

Economists researching environmental collective action have paid little attention

to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have

been concerned mainly with women's near absence from governance institutions. The

presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we

assume this? No rural women's relationship with forests is complex.

On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc,

creates a strong stake in conservation. On the other, the same dependence can compel

them to extract heavily from forests. As one landless woman told me: 'Of course, it

hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry'? Taking an

agnostic position, I decided to test varied propositions, controlling for other factors.

What did you find?

First women's greater presence enhances their effective voice in decision -

making. And there is a critical mass effect. If forest management groups have 25 - 33

percent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the

likelihood of women attending meeting, speaking up and holding office. However, the

inclusion of landless women makes a particular difference. When present in suficient

numbers they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed

women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women.

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Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically make sticker

forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forests from

the forest department. To regenerate these, they have to sacrifice their immediate

needs. Women from households with some land have some fallback. But remarkably

even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still

balance self - interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision - making

positions.

Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest

conditions, despite getting poorer forests. Involving women substantially improves

protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local

biodiversity and raises children's awareness about conservation.

51. What was author's view on "Social Forestry Scheme"?

1) A great success

2) Beneficial for villagers

3) Neither good nor bad

4) Neither have been implemented as 'top - down'

5) None of the above

52. Which of the following is one of the reasons of forests being a conflict - ridden

issue?

1) Some countries have larger forest cover

2) There is less awareness about global warming

3) High dependence of many on forests

4) Less representation of women

5) Less representation of local women

53. The author is advocating inclusion of

1) more landless women

2) more landed women

3) more women irrespective of their financial status

4) local people

5) younger women in the age group of 25 - 33 years

54. Which of the following best describes "participatory exclusion" as used in the

interview?

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1) Outside support 2) Overdependence

3) Benefitting without self - interest 4) Contributing with profits

5) None of the above

55. Author's current book is more about

1) barren to greener slopes

2) local groups with more women

3) a fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry

4) top - down approach to community forestry

5) women's presence in forest governance

56. What percent of female members in the Executive Committee for ForestManagement is being recommended by the author?

1) Less than 25% 2) More than 50% 3) 100%

4) About 75% 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 57 - 60): Choose the word/ group of words which is most nearlythe same in meaning of the words printed in bold.

57. Controlling

1) Holding in check 2) Increasing

3) Decreasing 4) Passing

5) Ignoring

58. Paradox

1) Similarity 2) Position 3) Anomaly

4) Difference 5) Excuse

59. Acute

1) Accurate 2) Serve 3) Dull

4) Focused 5) Refined

60. Green

1) Colour 2) Dried 3) Old

4) Live 5) Big

Directions (Q. 61 - 70): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word in each case.

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With the announcement that he would donate Rs.8846 crore of his equity in the

company to the philanthropic trust he controls, the founder and chairman of infotech

giant Wipro Ltd, Azim Premji has set the ..(61).. very high for other mega rich

businessmen of the country. The 28th richest man in the world, and Indian richest

could not have made a better and more sound ..(62).. choice than this. His Azim Premji

Foundation is already working in the rural areas of the country to improve the

quality of education and is now in the process of setting up a university for the poor.

This ..(63).. will be a welcome addition to the kitty of a sector that has the capability

to transform India but is badly handicapped due to the lack of adequate funding. Other

IT majors Infosys, MindTree, TCS and HCL also support programmes that support

social equity.

At a time when India's economic footprint on the global stage is rising, the

..(64).. between the different strata of society has also been increasing. This is not a

positive development and the underprivileged sections need to be equipped with life

skills so that they too can be a part of the growth story. A very basic requirement of

this life skills development is to educate them and make them employable. The fact

that most of the heads of these IT majors are ..(65).. first-generation entrepreneurs

..(66).. that education, more than anything else, is a great leveller. At the same time,

the improved economic conditions will also push up people into the middle - class

bracket and make India a much more attractive market.

According to Forbes, which keeps a tab on the ..(67).. of the rich and famous,

India has 69 billionaires. Yet how many consider ..(68).. as a

priority when it comes to spending? Industry reports indicate that Indians spend

about Rs.30000 crore a year on charitable ..(69).. and this includes the money spent

by companies on their corporate social responsibility programmes. This is not ..(70)..and Indians, especially the corporate czars, have much more ability to give. In a

foreword to Corporate Social Responsibility in India, MS Swaminathan correctly

says: "Just as good ecology is good business good philanthropy will also be good

business in the long term. "Should the country institutionalise CSR interventions to

deal with malnutrition, education, health, unemployment and poverty? The

government would welcome a helping hand wouldn't it?

61. 1) expectations 2) parameters 3) status

4) bar 5) task

62. 1) investment 2) profit 3) decision

4) significant 5) basic

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63. 1) take 2) interest 3) step

4) cause 5) endowment

64. 1) status 2) income 3) growth

4) system 5) gap

65. 1) seldom 2) consider 3) not

4) themselves 5) promoting

66. 1) promotes 2) places 3) proves

4) defy 5) steps

67. 1) business 2) areas 3) activities

4) purses 5) life

68. 1) philanthropy 2) donations 3) philosophy

4) spirituality 5) helping

69. 1) types 2) causes 3) trusts

4) donations 5) costs

70. 1) enough 2) expected 3) correct

4) less 5) required

Directions (Q. 71 - 75): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E andF in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer thequestions given below them.

A) While the reference point for the former is the state for the latter it's society.

B) India's 'strategic community' comprises two distinct circles with little overlap.

C) Consequently, mainstream strategists have an external orientation to their

discourse, concentrating on high politics; the latter is more internal oriented.

D) Their prescriptions too are understandably poles apart and thus, the state, to

which both their commentary is directed, has to play balancer, and ends up

being at the receiving end of criticism from both sides.

E) Out of the two one can be termed the 'mainstream' and the other 'alternate'.

F) To further elaborate on the external and internal concept−while one is

enamoured of India's rise and place in the global order, the other is more

sensitive to its vulnerabilities and inadequacies.

71. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) E 2) D 3) C

4) B 5) A

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72. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C

4) D 5) E

73. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) E 2) D 3) C

4) B 5) A

74. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C

4) D 5) E

75. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C

4) D 5) F

Directions (Q. 76 - 85): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part

of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the

answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

76. The director prefers (1) / your plan than (2)/ that given by (3)/ the other mem-

bers of the committee. (4)/ No error (5).

77. I always prefer (1)/ working in a relaxed atmosphere (2)/ than one full of (3)/ ten-

sion and anxiety. (4)/ No error (5).

78. You should not discuss (1)/ about a matter (2)/ with friends who are likely (3)/

to find it offensive. (4)/ No error (5).

79. Having to stay (1)/ in the jungle that night, (2)/ they had nothing (3)/ to feed at.

(4)/ No error (5).

80. The student (1)/ answered to (2)/ the question (3)/ asked by the inspector of

school. (4)/ No error (5).

81. The angry boatsman threw (1)/ the cracked oar (2)/ in the river (3)/ and returned

home. (4)/ No error (5).

82. The Third World countries must adopt (1)/ a radically different approach for (2)/

the dissemination of scientific information (3)/ in view of the nature and

magnitude of their problems. (4)/ No error (5).

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83. Yet the writers (1)/ have no qualms in (2)/ depicting the gory (3)/ details of the

violence. (4)/ No error (5).

84. The boy attempted the questions (1)/ so well (2)/ that his teacher was

exceedingly (3)/ pleased at him. (4)/ No error (5).

85. The Trust plans (1)/ to set on (2)/ a special school for (3)/ dumb and deaf

children. (4)/ No error (5).

Directions (Q. 86 - 90): Each question below has two blanks, each blank

indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each

blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

86. Mr. Rajesh ....... his wife that he would take ........ action to set right his erring

son.

1) called, strict 2) assured, stringent

3) reiterated, strictly 4) informed, constructive

5) instructed, preventive

87. The charges made in the system were so ....... they didn't require any ........

1) big, time 2) genuine, intelligence

3) marginal, expenses 4) certain, expertise

5) obvious, modification

88. In ........ of International matters, there is always element of risk in ...... one might

do.

1) view, whichever 2) many, doing

3) defence, wrong 4) case, whatever

5) spite, whatever

89. We do not ....... our dreams because they do not ....... with our perceptions of

waking life.

1) admit, coincide 2) accept, mix 3) value, match

4) believe, agree 5) appreciate, corroborate

90. He granted the request because he was ....... to ...... his friend.

1) bound, hurt 2) destined, agonise

3) sure, displease 4) unwilling, please

5) reluctant, disappoint

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

91. Tanvi started a business investing Rs.45,000. After 8 months Anisha joined her

with a capital of Rs.52,000. At the end of the year the total profit was Rs.56,165.

What is the share of profits of Anisha?

1) Rs.21,450 2) Rs.24,440 3) Rs.27,635

4) Rs.31,765 5) None of these

92. By how much is 14 th of 428 smaller than

56

th of 216?

1) 61 2) 67 3) 73

4) 79 5) None of these

93. One - third of a number is 96. What will 67% of that number be?

1) 192.96 2) 181.44 3) 169.92

4) 204.48 5) None of these

94. In a class of 35 students and 6 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of

the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 40% of the total

number of students. How many sweets were there?

1) 245 2) 161 3) 406

4) 84 5) None of these

95. Prithvi spent Rs.89,745 on his college fees, Rs.51,291 on Personality

Development Classes and the remaining 27% of the total amount he had as cash

with him. What was the total amount?

1) Rs.1,85,400 2) Rs.1,89,600 3) Rs.1,91,800

4) Rs.1,93,200 5) None of these

96. The compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.22,000 at the end of two

years is Rs.5,596.80. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same

amount at the same rate in the same period?

1) Rs.5,420 2) Rs.5,360 3) Rs.5,280

4) Rs.5,140 5) None of these

97. The product of two successive numbers is 4032. Which is the greater of the two

numbers?

1) 63 2) 64 3) 65

4) 66 5) None of these

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98. The ages of Sonal and Nitya are in the ratio of 9 : 5 respectively. After 8 yearsthe ratio of their ages will be 13 : 9. What is the difference in years between theirages?

1) 4 years 2) 12 years 3) 6 years

4) 14 years 5) None of these

99. 30 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. How many men would be required todo the same work in 20 days?

1) 12 2) 36 3) 48

4) 24 5) None

100. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.1,516 is the same as loss incurredafter selling the article for Rs.1,112. What is the cost price of the article?

1) Rs.1,314 2) Rs.1,343 3) Rs.1,414

4) Rs.1,434 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 101 - 105): Study the following graph carefully to answer thequestions that follow:

Total Number of Boys and Girls in Five Different Departments

101. The number of girls from Biology department is approximately what percent ofthe total number of girls from all the departments together?

1) 32 2) 21 3) 37

4) 43 5) 27

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Boys Girls

Num

ber

of S

tude

nts

Philoso-phy

Anthro-pology

Sociol-ogy

Psycho-logy

Biology

Departments

350

300

250

200

150

100

50

0

120

240

80

140

200

300

100

180150

250

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102. What is the difference between the total number of boys and the total number of

girls from all the departments together?

1) 440 2) 520 3) 580

4) 460 5) None of these

103. What is the average number of boys from all the departments together?

1) 122 2) 126 3) 130

4) 134 5) None of these

104. The number of boys from Anthropology department is approximately what

percent of the total number of boys from all the departments together?

1) 15 2) 23 3) 31

4) 44 5) 56

105. What is the respective ratio of number of girls from Philosophy department to

the number of girls from Psychology department?

1) 1 : 2 2) 7 : 12 3) 5 : 12

4) 3 : 4 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 106 - 110): Study the following Graph carefully and answer the

questions given below:

Units of Raw Material Manufactured and Sold by a Company

Over the years (Units in Crores)

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Uni

ts o

f R

aw M

ater

ial

Manufactured Sold

Years

8

7

6

5

4

3

2

1

02003 2004 2005 2006 2007

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106. What is the average number of units sold over the years?

1) 440000000 2) 4400000 3) 440000

4) 44000000 5) None

107. What is the respective ratio of the difference between the number of units

manufactured and sold in the year 2005 to the difference between the number of

units manufactured and sold in the year 2006?

1) 2 : 3 2) 1 : 2 3) 1: 4

4) 3: 5 5) None

108. What is the respective ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year

2003 to the number of units manufactured in the year 2007?

1) 7 : 11 2) 9 : 14 3) 7 : 9

4) 9 : 11 5) None of these

109. What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold in the year

2007 from the previous year?

1) 190 2) 70 3) 60

4) 95 5) 117

110. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the num-

ber of units sold over the years?

1) 50000000 2) 5000000 3) 500000000

4) 500000 5) None

Directions (Q. 111 - 115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in

the following number series?

111. 1548 516 129 43 ?

1) 11 2) 10.75 3) 9.5

4) 12 5) None

112. 949 189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328

1) 48.24 2) 53.86 3) 74.26

4) 56.94 5) None of these

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113. 121 144 190 259 ? 466

1) 351 2) 349 3) 374

4) 328 5) None

114. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188

1) 3168 2) 3176 3) 1587

4) 1590 5) None of these

115. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696

1) 104244 2) 94644 3) 94464

4) 102444 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 116 - 120): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in

the following questions?

116. (47 × 588) ÷ (28 × 120) = ?

1) 6.284 2) 7.625 3) 8.225

4) 8.285 5) None of these

117. 45 % of 224 × ? × of 120 = 8104.32

1) 67 2) 62 3) 59

4) 71 5) None

118. √ 7921 × 51 + 374 = (?)3

1) 16 2) 19 3) 15

4) 21 5) None

119. 6573 ÷ 21 × (0.2)2 = ?

1) 7825 2) 62.6 3) 1565

4) 12.52 5) None of these

120. 74156 − ? − 321 − 20 + 520 = 69894

1) 3451 2) 4441 3) 5401

4) 4531 5) None

Directions (Q. 121-125): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions

that follow:

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Number of Students Enrolled in Three Different

Disciplines in Five Different Colleges

122. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying B.Sc. in the

Colleges C and E together to those studying B.A in the Colleges A and B

together?

1) 24 : 23 2) 25 : 27 3) 29 : 23

4) 29 : 27 5) None of these

123. What is the respective ratio of total number of students studying B.Sc., B.A and

B.Com in all the Colleges together?

1) 71 : 67 : 75 2) 67 : 71 : 75 3) 71 : 68 : 75

4) 75 : 71 : 68 5) None of these

124. Number of students studying B.Com in College C forms approximately what

percent of the total number of students studying B.Com in all Colleges

together?

1) 39 2) 21 3) 44

4) 33 5) 17

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B.A.

275

350

425

325

300

475 32

530

0 325

450

375

425

325

425

225

500

450

400

350

300

250

200

150

100

50

0

Colleges

Num

ber

of S

tude

nts

B.Sc B.Com

A B C D E

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125. Number of students studying B.A in College B forms what percent of total number of students studying all the disciplines together in that College? (rounded off two digits after decimal)

1) 26.86 2) 27.27 3) 29.84

4) 32.51 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 126 - 130): Each question below is followed by two statements Aand B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and yourknowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1): if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question,but the statement B alone is not sufficient.

Give answer (2): if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question,but the statement A alone is not sufficient.

Give answer (3): if both statements A and B together are needed to answer thequestion.

Give answer (4): if either the statement A alone or statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5): if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and Btogether, but need even more data.

126. Is A an odd number?

A) A multiplied by an odd number is equal to an odd number.

B) A is not divisible by 2.

127. The ages of Pradumn and Gunit are in the ratio of 7 : 5. What is the age ofPradumn?

A) The ages of Pradumn and Nandini are in the ratio of 3 : 1.

B) After 7 years the ratio of Pradumn's and Aviral's ages will be 4 : 3.

128. What is the salary of B, in a group of A, B, C and D whose average salary isRs.62,880?

A) Total of the salary of A and C is exact multiple of 8.

B) Average of the salary of A, C and D is Rs.61,665.

129. What is the three digit number?

A) The three digit number is divisible by 9.

B) The first and the third digit is 6.

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130. What is the profit earned by selling a printer for Rs.3,000?

A) The cost price of 6 such printers is equal to selling price of 5 such printers.

B) 20% profit is earned by selling each printer.

Directions (Q.131 - 135): Study the following information carefully to answer the

questions.

The teacher's colony has 2800 members, out of which 650 members read only

English newspaper. 550 members read only Hindi newspaper and 450 members read

only Marathi newspaper. The number of members reading all the 3 newspapers is 100.

Members reading Hindi as well as English newspaper are 200. 400 members read

Hindi as well as Marathi newspaper and 300 members read English as well as Marathi

newspaper.

131. Find the difference between number of members reading English as well as

Marathi newspaper and the number of members reading English as well as Hindi

newspaper?

1) 300 2) 200 3) 100

4) 50 5) None

132. How many members read atleast 2 newspapers?

1) 600 2) 800 3) 500

4) 1000 5) None of these

133. Find the number of members reading Hindi newspaper?

1) 750 2) 980 3) 1000

4) 1020 5) None of these

134. How many members read only one newspaper?

1) 1560 2) 1650 3) 1640

4) 1540 5) None of these

135. Find the number of members reading no newspaper?

1) 150 2) 460 3) 550

4) 750 5) None of these

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Num

ber

of C

ompu

ters

Manufactured Sold

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Directions (Q. 136 - 140): Study the following graph carefully to answer thequestions that follow:

Number of Computers Manufactured and Sold by Various

Companies in a Year (Number in Lakhs)

136. What is the respective ratio of the number of computers manufactured by

companies A and C together to the number of computers sold by companies A and

C together?

1) 4 : 5 2) 14 : 11 3) 8 : 9

4) 7 : 5 5) None of these

137. What is the difference between the average number of computers manufactured

by all the companies together and the average number of computers sold by all

the companies together?

1) 3500 2) 35000 3) 350000

4) 3500000 5) None of these

138. The number of computers sold by company B are what percent of the number of

computers manufactured by company B? (round off to two digits after decimal)

1) 83.33 2) 120 3) 78.83

4) 106.54 5) None of these

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35

30

25

20

15

10

5

0A B C D E

Companies

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139. The number of computers manufactured by company D are what percent of the

number of computers manufactured by company E?

1) 125 2) 112.5 3) 85

4) 65.25 5) 75

140. The number of computers manufactured by company B is approximately what

percent of the number of computers manufactured by all the companies

together?

1) 22 2) 18 3) 14

4) 26 5) 32

GENERAL AWARENESS

141. The concept of "Carbon Credit" is associated with which of the following areas?

1) Protection of environment 2) Women empowerment

3) Development of rural infrastructure 4) Development of coal mines

5) None of these

142. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public

Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the

achievements of the PDS up till now, owing to which Government wants to

further improve it? [Pick up correct statement(s)]

A) After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always

there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive.

B) A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in

overcoming the drought.

C) Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country.

1) Only A 2) Only B

3) Only C 4) All A, B and C are correct

5) None of these

143. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form

of the term?

1) Small Help Groups 2) Self Help Groups

3) Small Hope in Growths 4) Self Hope Groups

5) None of these

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144. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries. Which of

the following is NOT considered among them?

1) Petroleum 2) Automobile 3) Mining

4) Steel 5) Cement

145. Which of the following agencies / organizations in India maintains the Micro

Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently?

1) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)

2) Indian Bank's Association (IBA)

3) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

146. Many times we read about Hawala transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India

is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts?

1) Fiscal Responsibility & Budget Management Act

2) Banking Regulation Act

3) Financial Action Task Force Act

4) Foreign Exchange Management Act

5) None of these

147. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in

India. What is the full form of DIPP?

1) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

2) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions

3) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions

4) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity

5) None of these

148. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial

newspapers. Which of the following is NOT included in Asian Market?

1) Japan 2) China 3) Hong Kong

4) South Korea 5) Brazil

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149. As per news in various newspapers ‘kfw’ Group released another instalment of

its financial aid to India. kfw is an organisation / bank based in .............. .

1) France 2) Japan 3) Italy

4) China 5) Germany

150. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defence

goods to India and has replaced Russia?

1) Canada 2) USA 3) Israel

4) France 5) None of these

151. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of

the following is not allowed?

1) White cement 2) Plastic goods

3) Cigarette and Cigars 4) Polythene bags

5) Pesticides

152. Which of the following in NOT amongst the Prime Minister's new 15 point

programme?

1) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities

2) Modernising Madarsa education

3) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities

4) Free train journey for unemployed youths

5) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots

153. India's political relations with its neighbouring countries a critical part of its .......

1) Industrial policy 2) Trade policy

3) Foreign policy 4) Development policy

5) None of these

154. Which of the following agencies / organisations has decided to make major

changes for ULIPs?

1) IRDA 2) RBI 3) AMFI

4) FRBI 5) None of these

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155. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the

Government of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to

make them self dependent?

1) Apnalaya 2) Prayas 3) Abhiyogyata

4) Swadhar 5) Swavalamban

156. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of Cricket?

1) Doosra 2) Century 3) Bouncer

4) Checkmate 5) Ashes

157. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a ............... .

1) Badminton player 2) Golf player

3) Lawn tennis player 4) Table tennis player

5) Cricket player

158. Which of the following is NOT a financial term?

1) Acid Test 2) Double Fault 3) Gross Profit

4) Depreciation 5) Cash flow

159. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in

between is known as ........... .

1) Double Deflection 2) Deflation

3) Deep Recession 4) Double Dip Recession

5) None of these

160. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Economics?

1) Balance of Payment 2) Call Money

3) National Debt 4) Elasticity of Demand

5) Boyle's Law

161. Which of the following ministries/ departments operates the

"Village Grain Bank's Schemes"?

1) Ministry of Tribal Welfare

2) Department of Food & Public Distribution

3) Department of Social Welfare

4) Ministry of Forest

5) None of these

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162. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat?

1) The Golden Gate 2) Journey To Ithaca

3) Fire on the Mountain 4) The Inheritance of Loss

5) 2 States: The Story of My Marriage

163. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non Aligned Movement

(NAM)?

1) Fiji 2) Cuba 3) Sri Lanka

4) Colombia 5) Egypt

164. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates?

1) 6th August 2) 16th August 3) 6th September

4) 16th September 5) 26th July

165. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with .......... .

1) Education 2) Social service 3) Journalism

4) Sports 5) Films

166. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as .....

1) Deposit Rate 2) Base Rate 3) Prime Lending Rate

4) Bank Rate 5) Discount Rate

167. The customers by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account

Scheme in a Bank would get benefit under ...... .

1) Sales Tax 2) Customs Duty 3) Excise Duty

4) Professional Tax 5) Income Tax

168. In banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are

given a repayment holiday and this is referred as...

1) Subsidy 2) Interest Waiver

3) Re - phasing 4) Interest concession

5) Moratorium

169. A non - performing asset is .......

1) Money at call and short notice

2) An asset that ceases to generate income

3) Cash balance in till

4) Cash balance with RBI

5) Balance with other banks

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170. Government usually classifies its expenditure in term of planned and non - planned expenditure. Identify, which is the correct definition of plannedexpenditure?

1) It represents the expenditure of all the State Governments

2) It represents the total expenditure of the Central Government

3) It is the expenditure which is spend through centrally sponsored programmesand flagship schemes of Government

4) It represents the expenditure incurred on Defence

5) Other than those given as options

171. Which of the following organization is made specifically responsible forempowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India?

1) NABARD 2) RBI 3) SIDBI

4) ECGC 5) SEBI

172. Which of the following measures were announced by the Reserve Bank of Indiaon July 15, 2014 to encourage banks to extend long term loans to infrastructuresector?

1) Banks can issue long term bonds with a minimum maturity

2) Rupee denominated bonds should be issued in ‘plain vanilla form’

3) Lending for affordable housing means loans eligible under the priority sector

4) Exemption of long term bonds from mandatory regulatory norms such as theCRR, SLR and PSL

5) All of the above

173. Many real estate companies and private equity funds are planning to list theircommercial property portfolio through the real estate investment trusts (REITs)in the wake of proposal made by the Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in hisbudget speech on July 10, 2014. The incentives proposed for REITs include -

A) For an Initial Public Offering (IPO), the size of the assets under the REITshall not be less than 1000 crore

B) Minimum initial offer size of Rs. 250 crore and minimum public float of25%, to ensure adequate public participation

C) The REIT may raise funds from any investors, resident or foreign

D) Till the market develops, it is proposed that the units of the REITs may beoffered only to HNIs and institutions

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1) Only (A), (B) and (D) 2) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (C) and (D)

5) Only (A) and (D)

174. As per the data revealed by the Union Urban Development Minister VenkaiahNaidu on July 14, 2014 which of the following combinations of the State/ UnionTerritory and increase in urban population during the years 2001- 11 is NOTcorrect?

1) Sikkim - 14.1 percent 2) Daman and Diu - 39 percent

3) Chandigarh - 7.5 percent 4) Gujarat - 6.7 percent

5) Nagaland - 10.7 percent

175. The Reserve Bank of India on July 17, 2014 issued draft guidelines for small andpayment banks to expand banking services disburse small - ticket loans to businesses and farmers. Select the correct statements regarding the draft guidelines

A) The minimum capital requirement for both payments and small banks will beRs. 100 crore

B) Non banking finance companies, business correspondents and PSUs amongothers can apply to set up a payments bank.

C) For small banks, resident individuals will 10 years of experience in banking,firms and societies will be eligible as promoters.

D) Promoters initial minimum contribution will be at least 40 percent with a fiveyear lock in period

1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)

3) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) 4) Only (A) and (C)

5) Only (C) and (D)

176. The Reserve Bank of India on July 15, 2014 gave a boost to affordable housingby allowing banks to raise long-term funds to finance these projects, whichinclude....

A) Loans up to Rs.50 lakh for houses of Rs.65 lakh value in six metros.

B) Loans up to Rs.40 lakh for houses up to Rs.50 lakh value in other cities.

C) Loans under priority sector lending Rs.25 lakh to cities with populationabove 10 lakh; Rs.15 lakh elsewhere.

D) Support to government agency for slum clearance and rehabilitation.

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1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) 2) Only (A) and (B)

3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (A), (C) and (D)

5) Only (A) and (D)

177. Which of the following guidelines were issued by the telecom regulator, the

Telecom Regulator Authority of India (TRAI) on 21st July 2014 for spectrum

sharing?

1) Spectrum can be shared across all six frequency bands - 800, 900, 1800, 2100,

2300 and 2500 MHz

2) Sharing limited to two licensees within a circle

3) No leasing of spectrum

4) No sharing between operators who do not have spectrum in the same band

5) All of the above

178. Who among the following great players of chess were selected for the Russian

Federation's ‘Order of Friendship’ award on 4th July 2014?

1) Viswanathan Anand of India and Boris Gelfand of Israel

2) Magnus Carlsen of Norway and Martin Brow of England

3) Colin McNabe of Scotland and Puchen Wang of New Zealand

4) Vlad Victor Barnaure of Romania and Mark Orr of Ireland

5) None of these

179. Which of the following states will host the 2015 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas?

1) Odisha 2) Rajasthan 3) Gujarat

4) Maharashtra 5) None of these

180. Railway Minister DV Sadananda Gowda presented the Railway Budget for the

fiscal year 2014 - 15 on July 8, 2014 in the Parliament. Which of the following

combinations of particulars and sum projected in the Railway Budget 2014 - 15

is NOT correct?

1) Plan Outlay - Rs.65445 crores

2) Gross Budgetary Support - Rs.30,100 crores

3) Internal Resources - Rs.11,790 crores

4) Railway Safety Fund - Rs.2,200 crores

5) All are true

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COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

181. What is an 'internet'?

1) Internal internet used to transfer information internally.

2) Internal internet used to transfer information to the outside company.

3) Internal network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a

single organisation.

4) Internal network designed to transfer the information between two

organisations.

5) None of the above

182. To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know is

1) how the network works

2) the other station's address

3) whether the network is packet-switched or circuit - switched

4) whether this is a voice or data network

5) None of the above

183. The data base administrator's function in an organization is

1) to be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information

contained in organizational databases.

2) to be responsible for the executive level aspects of decisions regarding the

information management

3) to show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse

4) to define which data mining tools must be used to extract data

5) None of the above

184. A ...... is a computer connected to two networks.

1) link 2) server 3) gateway

4) bridge way 5) None of these

185. Each of the following is a true statement except

1) online systems continually update the master file

2) in online processing, the user enters transactions into a device that is directly

connected to the computer system

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3) batch processing is still used today in older systems or in some systems with

massive volumes of transactions

4) information in batch systems will always be up-to-date

5) None of the above

186. When you save a presentation, ............

1) all slides in a presentation are saved in the same file

2) two files are created; one for graphics and one for content

3) a file is created for each slide

4) a file is created for each animation or graphic

5) None of the above

187. In a client/ server model, a client program

1) asks for information

2) provides information and files

3) serves software files to other computers

4) distributes data files to other computers

5) None of the above

188. Every device on the internet has a unique ....... address (also called an ‘Internet

address’) that identifies it in the same way that a street address identifies the

location of a house.

1) DH 2) DA 3) IP

4) IA 5) None

189. In a customer data base a customer’s surname would be keyed into a...

1) row 2) text field 3) record

4) computed field 5) None of these

190. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store and distribute

information to support decision making and control in an organization best

defines

1) communications technology 2) a network

3) an information system 4) hardware

5) None of the above

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191. Control in design of an information system is used to

1) inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications

2) ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and that the results

are reliable

3) ensure privacy of data processed by it

4) protect data from accidental or intentional loss

5) None of the above

192. Storing same data in many places is called

1) iteration 2) concurrency 3) redundancy

4) enumeration 5) None of these

193. Which of the following is the first step in the 'transaction processing cycle',

which captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or

at an electronic commerce website?

1) Document and report generation 2) Database maintenance

3) Transaction processing 4) Data Entry

5) None of the above

194. What is part of a database that holds only one type of information?

1) Report 2) Field 3) Record

4) File 5) None

195. 'MPG' extension refers usually to what kind of file?

1) Word Perfect Document file 2) MS Office document

3) Animation/ movie file 4) Image file

5) None of these

196. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):

1) cryptology source 2) encryption key

3) encryption software package 4) cryptosystem

5) None of these

197. Which key do you press to check spelling?

1) F3 2) F5 3) F7

4) F9 5) None

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198. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas?

1) Title Bar 2) Menu Bar

3) Formula Bar 4) Standard Tool Bar

5) None of these

199. Which of the following helps to reduce spelling error in the document?

1) Auto Format 2) Auto Correct 3) Smart Tags

4) Auto Text 5) None

200. Which of the following is valid IP address?

1) 984.12.787.76 2) 192.168.321.10

3) 1.888.234.3456 4) 192.168.56.115

5) None of these

KEY

1-1; 2-3; 3-4; 4-2; 5-5; 6-3; 7-1; 8-4; 9-2; 10-5; 11-1; 12-2; 13-3; 14-5; 15-5; 16-3; 17-3; 18-2; 19-4; 20-1; 21-2; 22-1; 23-1; 24-4; 25-3; 26-2; 27-4; 28-1; 29-4;30-2; 31-4; 32-2; 33-3; 34-5; 35-2; 36-5; 37-2; 38-1; 39-4; 40-3; 41-2; 42-3; 43-1;44-4; 45-1; 46-4; 47-1; 48-2; 49-3; 50-5; 51-5; 52-3; 53-1; 54-5; 55-5; 56-5; 57-1;58-3; 59-2; 60-4; 61-2; 62-3; 63-3; 64-5; 65-4; 66-3; 67-1; 68-1; 69-2; 70-1; 71-3;72-4; 73-1; 74-2; 75-1; 76-2; 77-3; 78-2; 79-4; 80-2; 81-3; 82-2; 83-2; 84-4; 85-2;86-2; 87-5; 88-4; 89-4; 90-5; 91-5; 92-3; 93-1; 94-5; 95-4; 96-3; 97-2; 98-5; 99-4; 100-1; 101-5; 102-4; 103-3; 104-1; 105-2; 106-4; 107-3; 108-2; 109-5; 110-1; 111-2; 112-4; 113-1; 114-5; 115-3; 116-3; 117-1; 118-5; 119-4; 120-2; 121-4; 122-3; 123-1; 124-5; 125-2; 126-4; 127-5; 128-2; 129-3; 130-4; 131-3; 132-4; 133-3; 134-2; 135-5; 136-4; 137-3; 138-1; 139-5; 140-2; 141-1; 142-2; 143-2; 144-2; 145-5; 146-4; 147-1; 148-5; 149-5; 150-2; 151-3; 152-4; 153-3; 154-1; 155-4; 156-4; 157-1; 158-2; 159-4; 160-5; 161-2; 162-5; 163-1; 164-1; 165-4; 166-2; 167-5; 168-5; 169-2; 170-2; 171-3; 172-5; 173-2; 174-4; 175-3; 176-1; 177-5; 178-1; 179-3; 180-3; 181-1; 182-2; 183-1; 184-2; 185-4; 186-1; 187-4; 188-3; 189-3; 190-3; 191-2; 192-3; 193-4; 194-2; 195-3; 196-4; 197-3; 198-3; 199-2; 200-4.

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