GENERAL STUDIES (PRELIMS-2021) TEST- 5

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (PRELIMS-2021) TEST- 5

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box Provided alongside. Do NOT writes anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English & Hindi. Each item comprises Four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY

ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answers sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct

Responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks

will be Deducted. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to Fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you Should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheet for rough work is appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

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Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Gram Sabha:

1. It is composed of all the adult persons in the village.

2. It is the legislative body that operates at the village level.

3. Its decisions cannot be annulled by any other body.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) which one of the following committees was appointed to prepare a concept paper on Revitalization of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development?

a) L M Singhvi Committee

b) G.V.K. Rao Committee

c) Ashok Mehta Committee

d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Q.3) With reference to the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992, consider the following statements:

1. It has added the Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.

2. It has brought panchayati raj institutions under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

4.) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The State Election Commission is a creation of the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

2. The Commission was created with the responsibility to conduct election to the Panchayats at various levels.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Under the Constitution (Seventy-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, there is an optional provision for the constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee in all the metropolitan areas by the State Governments.

2. The Government of West Bengal was the first to constitute the Kolkata Metropolitan Planning Committee (KMPC) in the country.

3. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the nodal ministry to oversee the implementation of 74th Constitution Amendment Act in the states and the Union Territories.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and the State Governments on the issues related to the Goods and Service Tax.

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2. The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.

3. The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the States.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following statements about the historical background of the rural self-government in India:

1. The formal structure of the rural self-government was introduced by Ripon’s Resolution.

2. According to the recommendations of the Royal Commission of Decentralization, the Panchayats were placed under the control of the local boards.

3. The Rural Self-Government Bill, 1925, provided for a 9-member village authority, elected on the basis of the universal adult franchise.


(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Which of the following statements are correct about the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?

1. This was the first initiative to introduce the Panchayati Raj Institute in the post-Independence India.

2. It recommended the measures for “democratic decentralization”.

3. It suggested that the power for development should be located in the intermediate level – the Panchayat Samiti.

4. The first village Panchayat in India was elected in Maharashtra.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Which of the following are the features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2991?

1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all states having a population of over 20 lakh.

2. Reservation of the seats for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the women only.

3. To appoint State Finance Commission to make recommendations regarding the financial powers of the Panchayats.

4. To constitute District Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plans for the district as a whole it.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. Which of the following states are covered under the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996?

1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Odisha

3. Rajasthan

4. Meghalaya

5. Gujarat

6. Himachal Pradesh

7. Sikkim

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(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only

(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 4 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

11. Consider the following statements about the Gram Panchayat:

1. The Gram Panchayat consists of the Gram Sabha and the members of the village Panchayats.

2. The village Pradhans are directly elected by the members of the village Panchayat.

3. The Gram Panchayat’s jurisdiction covers all 29 subjects mentioned in the Eleventh Schedule.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider the following statements:

1. The primary function of the Zila Parishad is to supervise the activities of the Gram Panchayats.

2. The Zila Parishads are enjoined to prepare an Annual District Development Plan.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following guidelines is/are issued by the government in the administration of the District Rural Development Agency (DRDA)?

1. The DRDA shall be a registered society under a Societies Registration Act or a distinct cell in the Zila Parishad, having a separate identity.

2. The Chairman of the Zila Parishad shall be the Chairman of the governing body of the DRDA.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements about the history of the urban local self-government:

1. Bombay was first to have a Municipal Corporation in 1687.

2. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 encouraged the introduction of an elected President in the municipalities.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements about the 74th Constitutional Amendment (2991:)

1. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted on the basis of the recommendation of the Rural-Urban Relationship Committee.

2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for a direct election of the Mayor.

3. Under the Act, a motion of no-confidence cannot be moved against the Mayor.



(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Which of the following are the obligatory functions of the Local Urban Bodies?

1. Lighting and cleansing of the public streets.

2. Registration of birth.

3. Housing for the low income groups.

4. Establishing and maintaining the primary schools.

5. Planting and maintenance of roadside and other trees.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fifth Schedule Areas?

1. The “Scheduled Areas”, as defined in Part C of the Fifth Schedule, are “such areas, as the Governor may, by order, declare to be the Scheduled Areas”.

2. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and the Scheduled Tribes in any state, other than the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor of the concerned state can make regulations with regards to which of the following?

1. Prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among the members of the Scheduled Tribes in such areas.

2. Regulate the allotment of land to the members of the Scheduled Tribes.

3. Regulate the carrying on of business as money-lenders.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Tribes Advisory Council?

1. Each state having the Scheduled Areas has the constitutional obligation to constitute a Tribes Advisory Council.

2. The President may direct any state having the Scheduled Tribes to create a Tribes Advisory Council.

3. It has only an advisory role.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. The District Councils and the Regional Councils, as given in the Sixth Schedule, can make rules regarding which of the following subjects?

1. Management of all kinds of forests within the Sixth Schedule areas.

2. Marriage and divorce, and social practice.

3. Establishment of all kinds of schools.



(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Consider the following statements with regards to the Sixth Schedule Areas:

1. The District and the Regional Councils are empowered to constitute the Village and the District Council Courts.

2. No other courts, except the High Courts and the Supreme Court, have the jurisdiction over such suits or cases of the Council Courts.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Consider the following statements:

1. The Scheduled Districts Act of 1874 restricted the application of the general laws and Acts to the Scheduled Districts.

2. Separate administration for the tribals in India is based on the traditional system of community self-governance.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fifth and the Sixth Schedule Areas?

1. Unlike the provisions of the Sixth Schedule, the legislative and the judicial powers are denied to the Fifth Schedule Areas.

2. The Tribes Advisory Councils, established under the provision of the Fifth Schedule, are given the financial power for preparing budget for themselves.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. The Constitution 90th (Amendment) Act, 2003, included which of the following under the Sixth Schedule?

(a) Bodoland

(b) The tribes of Manipur

(c) Misings

(d) Laiungs

25. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of which of the following languages?

1. Santhali

2. Maithili

3. English

4. Pali

5. Tulu


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.26) Consider the following statements regarding Appeal by Special Leave in the Supreme Court:

1. It is a right conferred to the Indian citizens by the Constitution.

2. It can be granted in both final and interlocutory judgments.


3. It can be granted against any court or tribunal of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.27) Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament passes an act with special majority to create Legislative Council in a state.

2. The minimum strength of the Legislative council has not been fixed by theConstitution.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) Which of the following are the sources through which the Panchayats receive funds in India?

1. Grants from the Union Government

2. Internal Resource Generation

3. Devolution from the State Government


a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.29) With reference to the Union Territory of Delhi, consider the following statements:

1. The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of Delhi.

2. The chief minister is appointed by the lieutenant governor of Delhi.

3. The lieutenant governor can promulgate an ordinance when the legislative assembly of Delhi is suspended.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) With regard to the Dark Web, consider the following statements:

1. It cannot be accessed through traditional search engines.

2. Its operators transact in virtual currencies including Bit coins.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.31) Consider the following pairs: States Tribal Areas

1. Assam The North Cachar Hills District

2. Tripura The Chakma District

3. Mizoram The Karbi Anglong District

Which of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Q.32) With reference to the Jammu And Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019, consider the following statements regarding the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir:


1. The Legislative Assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List under the Seventh Schedule.

2. The Council of Ministers shall not consist of more than fifteen percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.33) With regard to the Administration of Tribal Areas, consider the following statements:

1. The President is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts.

2. The district and regional councils can make laws on land and forests.

3. The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.34) Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Administration of Scheduled Areas?

a) The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.

b) The Fifth Schedule of the constitution apply to the administration of the scheduled areas.

c) The executive power of a state does not extend to the scheduled areas therein.

d) The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area.


1. India is one of the first countries that signed the Antarctic Treaty.

2. Bharati is the latest Antarctic research station commissioned by India.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. Arrange the following rivers basin in decreasing order of their Water Resources Potential in India:

1. Krishna

2. Narmada

3. Indus

4. Ganga

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3-4-2-1

(b) 4-1-3-2

(c) 3-4-1-2

(d) 4-3-1-2

37. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Commercial Livestock Rearing?

1. It is a specialized activity in which only one type of animal is reared.

2. Commercial Livestock Rearing is mainly practiced in South East Asian countries.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


38. Consider the following passage regarding an agro-climatic region:

This region shows great variation in relief. The summer season is mild but the winter season experiences severe cold conditions. The amount of average annual rainfall is 150 cm. Zonal arrangement in vegetation is found with varying height along the hill slopes. Valleys have thick layers of alluvium while hill slopes have thin brown hilly soils. Rice is the main crop of this region which is cultivated in terraced fields along the hill slopes.

Which of the following agro climatic region is being described in the above passage?

(a) Southern Plateau and Hill Region

(b) Eastern Himalayan Region

(c) Western Himalayan Region

(d) Eastern Plateau and Hills Region

39. ‘PARAKH’, often seen in news, is related to

(a) Certificate for purity of gold jewelries

(b) Green Building rating system

(c) Energy star rating for appliances

(d) Student learning assessment centre

40. Consider the following crops:

1. Palm oil

2. Cotton

3. Cocoa

4. Sugarcane

5. Banana

Which of the crops given above are plantation crops?

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 , 3 and 5 only

(c) 1 , 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 , 4 and 5

41. Consider the following statements with reference to Vegetable oil:

1. India is the largest importer of vegetable oils in the world.

2. India imports palm oil mainly from China.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. ‘Saviour Sibling’ concept is related to providing relief in-

(a) Road accident

(b) Natural disaster

(c) Air pollution

(d) None of the above

43. Arrange the following sources in decreasing order of their freshwater availability:

1. Polar Ice and Glaciers

2. Ground Water

3. Lakes and Rivers


(a) 2 - 1 - 3

(b) 1 - 2 - 3

(c) 1 - 3 - 2

(d) 2 - 3 - 4

44. With reference to the production of petroleum products in India, consider the following statements:

1. Assam is the leading producer state.

2. India is the net exporter of petroleum products.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only


(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


1. The United Kingdom has officially left the European Union under the Maastricht Treaty.

2. The United Kingdom has signed a Free Trade Agreement with India after Brexit.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.46) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Inter-State Council?

1. It was formed on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.

2. It is set up by the Parliament from time to time.

3. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

4. It is established under Article 263 of the Constitution.


a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.47) Which one of the following languages is not a classical language?

a) Tamil

b) Sanskrit

c) Kannada

d) Marathi

Q.48) Which one of the following statements is not correct about National Investigation Agency?

a) It is a statutory body created by an Act of the Parliament.

b) It was established in the backdrop of the 2001 Indian Parliament attack.

c) It is empowered to probe the offences relating to human trafficking.

d) It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q.49) The provisions related to Co-operative Societies are included in which of the following part(s) of the Constitution of India?

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Part IX-B


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.50) With regard to the Genome India Project, consider the following statements:

1. The All-India Institute of Medical Sciences will serve as the nodal point of the project.

2. Its aim is to fully understand the type and nature of diseases and traits that comprise the diverse Indian population.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.51) Consider the following statements regarding the All-India services:

1. They are controlled jointly by the central and state governments.


2. Their officers can be removed from the services by the state governments under which they serve.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


1. The Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission under Article 324.

2. No person is to be ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll-on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them.

3. Parliament can make provisions with respect to all matters relating to elections to the state legislatures.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.53) Which of the following readjusts the division of each State and Union Territory into territorial constituencies for the purpose of elections to the House of the People and to the State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of census figures?

a) Delimitation Commission

b) Cabinet Committee

c) Election Commission

d) Joint Parliamentary Committee

Q.54) Consider the following pairs:

Direct democracy Description

1. Initiative It is a procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes.

2. Referendum It is a method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment.

3. Plebiscite It is a method of obtaining the opinion of the people on a policy matter of public importance.

Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.55) Which one of the following statements is not correct about to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail?

a) It provides the name of the candidate and the corresponding election symbol.

b) It is an independent printer system attached with Electronic Voting Machine.

c) It was first deployed in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections.

d) It can be accessed by the polling officials but not by the voters.


Disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply

1. If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party.

2. If a member voluntarily gives up the membership of his party after being elected as the presiding officer of the House.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.57) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to the Model Code of Conduct Relating to Elections?

1. There shall be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes.

2. Except the voters, no one without a valid pass from the Election Commission shall enter the polling booths.

3. Posters issued by one party shall not be removed by workers of another party.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.58) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the American President?

1. He is both the head of the State and the head of government.

2. He can be removed by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act.

3. He possess membership in the Congress and attend its sessions.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.59) which of the following is/are the merits of the parliamentary system?

1. Responsible Government

2. Wide Representation

3. Continuity of Policies

4. Stable Government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1 and 4 only

Q.60) In India, the manufacture, import and sale of all medical devices is certified by

a) Central Drugs Standard Control Organization

b) Department of Commerce

c) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority

d) Department of Health Research

Q.61) With reference to the Allocation of Taxing Powers, consider the following statements:

1. The state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List.

2. The power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists is vested in the Parliament.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.62) With reference to Tribunals, consider the following statements:

1. The tribunals under Article 323 A can be established both by Parliament and State legislatures.

2. The chairman and members of the State Administrative Tribunals are appointed by the President.

3. The aggrieved public servant can approach the Supreme Court directly against an order of the Central Administrative Tribunal.



a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.63) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to the National Emergency?

1. The state governments are suspended and brought under the complete control of the Centre.

2. The Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List.

3. The President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the center and the states.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.64) The right to move the Court for the enforcement of which of the following fundamental rights can be suspended on effect of National Emergency?

1. Right to equality

2. Right to freedom of religion

3. Right to protection in respect of conviction for offences

4. Right to life and personal liberty

5. Right against exploitation


a) 1, 2 and 5 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.65) Consider the following pairs:

Species IUCN Status

1. Great Indian Bustard Critically Endangered

2. Asian Elephant Vulnerable

3. Bengal Florican Endangered

Which of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Q.66) Who among the following Chief Justices of India introduced the concept of public interest litigation (PIL)?

a) M.M Punchhi

b) Y. V. Chandrachud

c) P.N. Bhagwati

d) M. Hidayatullah

Q.67) Which among the following is not provided for by the Constitution of India?

1. Zero Hour

2. Quorum

3. Prorogation

4. Calling Attention Motion


a) 1 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 3 only

Q.68) Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for

Backward Classes:

1. It is a Constitutional Body under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.

2. It was set up by the central government basedon Indra Sawhney judgment.


3. It presents an annual report to the Parliament of India.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.69) which of the following characteristics show the importance of Rajya Sabha in Indian Polity?

1. It helps in keeping checks and balances on the government.

2. It is based on the system of territorial representation.

3. It promotes stability because of its permanent character.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.70) Nameri National Park is located in which of the following states?

a) Manipur

b) Uttarakhand

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Assam

Q.71) A member has to vacate his seat in the Parliament if

1. He is appointed to the office of governor of a state.

2. He is elected to the office of President or Vice-President.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2


1. The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

2. Policy cut motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand.

3. Token cut motion represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed expenditure.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.73) The disbursements charged on the Consolidated Fund of India does not include the salary of

a) Supreme Court judge

b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

c) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

d) High Court judge

Q.74) Which one of the following is a Constitutional body?

a) NITI Aayog

b) National Human Right Commission

c) Central Information Commission

d) Finance Commission

Q.75) Consider the following statements regarding the Law Commission of India:

1. It is an executive body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.

2. It is headed by a retired judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court.



a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. Which of the following initiatives are planned under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency?

1. Perform Achieve and Trade

2. Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency

3. Energy Efficiency Financing Platform

4. Framework for Energy Efficiency Economic Development


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

77. With reference to Natural Gas consumption in India, consider the following statements:

1. Majority of India's LNG is consumed by the City Gas Distribution network for CNG fuel and PNG household needs.

2. The share of domestic gas and imported Regasified LNG is the ratio of about 75% and 25%.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. The recently launched 'Meri Saheli' initiative aims to:

(a) Rehabilitate and reintegrate trafficked women.

(b) Provide integrated support to women affected by violence in public and private spaces within family, community and at the workplace.

(c) Cater to the primary needs of shelter, food, and clothing of the women in distress and who are without any social and economic support.

(d) Provide safety and security to female passengers travelling by trains.

79. The 'International Satavadhanam' program has been launched virtually by the Vice President recently. With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'avadhanam' is a:

(a) Linguistic literary performance

(b) Sanskrit work authored by Sri Krishnadevaraya

(c) Folk play/theatre of sangam age

(d) Religious ritual of Jains

80. Consider the following statements regarding a 'Bomb Cyclone'?

1. It is a cyclone that rapidly intensifies only in tropical areas.

2. It is accompanied by a fall in atmospheric temperature and pressure.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. Which of the following are responsible for the increase in the concentration of formaldehyde in the environment?

1. Pressed-wood products

2. Natural gas

3. Tobacco

4. Some cosmetics and personal products


5. Wallpaper and paints


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

82. Consider the following statements related to biochar:

1. It is produced by pyrolysis of biomass.

2. It can increase the soil fertility of acidic soils and also help to increase agricultural productivity.

3. It is used for carbon sequestration and thus helps control climate change.


(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

83. Consider the following statement regarding the provision that declares an animal as vermin under the Wildlife Protection Act 2991:

1. The final authority to declare any wild animal a vermin is given to the State Government.

2. As long as the notification is in force such wild animal shall be included in Schedule V of the law.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

84. The deadline of a WHO-led initiative to eliminate Kala-Azar as a public health problem from the South East Asia region has now been extended from 2020 to 2023. In this context, consider the statements regarding Kala-Azar:

1. It is caused by a protozoan Leis mania parasite.

2. It is transmitted due to contaminated water and food.

3. It is associated with high fatality.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

85. Consider the following statements regarding The Climate Vulnerable Forum (CVF) :

1. It is an international partnership of countries highly vulnerable to a warming planet.

2. The Forum serves as a North-South cooperation platform for participating governments to act together to deal with global climate change.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub- species of the Indian elk (Hangul) that thrives in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains?

(a) Dachigam National Park

(b) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary


(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Kanha National Park

87. Consider the following statements regarding India's population characteristics according to the census 2011:

1. Maharashtra is the most populous state in India followed by Uttar Pradesh.

2. Kerala has the highest sex ratio in India among all states and UTs.

3. The percentage growth in literacy rates compared to the previous decade was higher in females than males.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Which of the following is/are the applications of fly ash?

1. Construction of road embankments.

2. Soil conditioner

3. Cement Bricks


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

89. Consider the following statements, with respect to nano fertilizers:

1. They are required in quantities of just a few grams per acre as compared to chemical fertilizers that are required in kilograms per acre.

2. They supply nutrients slowly and gradually for a longer period of time.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. With reference to the pulsars, consider the following statements:

1. They are rapidly rotating neutron stars that emit radio frequency pulses.

2. They have magnetic fields stronger than that of the Earth.

3. They are used to study the gravitational waves.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Which of the following is/are the advantages of mixed subsistence farming?

1. There is larger diversity of agricultural output

2. Farmers need not have complete knowledge of mixed farming

3. Provides farmers with a stable source of income


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Which of the following are observed during an El Niño event?

1. More tropical storms and hurricanes in the eastern Pacific

2. Strengthening of the easterly trade winds converging across the equatorial Pacific.


3. Reversal of ocean currents along the equator.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

93. With reference to Seafloor spreading, consider the following statements:

1. Seafloor spreading is the result of convection in the molten outer core.

2. Seafloor spreading occurs only at divergent plate boundaries.

3. Slowly spreading ridges form taller and narrower cliffs than the rapidly spreading ridges.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. With reference to the World Food Programme, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and Project Concern International (PCI).

2. WFP has a dedicated and independent source of funds from UN member countries.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

95. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland Type Description

1. Carr: Waterlogged wooded terrain

2. Bog: Wetland that accumulates peat due to incomplete decomposition of plant matter

3. Marsh: Wetland that is dominated by herbaceous rather than woody plant species

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Consider the following statements regarding DAP (Diammonium Phosphate), MOP (Muriate of Potash) and Urea based fertilizers in India:

1. There is a greater demand for DAP and MOP fertilizers than Urea in India.

2. India is self-sufficient in the production of Urea as well as MOP based fertilizers.

3. Urea consumption in India during the Rabi season is twice that in the Kharif crop season.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None

97. Consider the following pairs: Major Shipping Canals Link Between

1. Corinth: White Sea and Baltic Sea

2. Kiel: Baltic Sea and North Sea

3. Suez: Mediterranean Sea and Persian Gulf

4. Panama: Pacific and Atlantic Ocean

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 4 only


(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

98. “Century Plant”, “Shute Creek Gas Processing Plant”, and “Great Plains Synfuels Plant” are related to which of the following?

(a) Nuclear Power Generator

(b) Carbon Capture and Storage

(c) Solar Power Generator

(d) Coal Storage and Processing

99. This is a sedentary pastoral tribe of southwestern Ethiopia living on the banks of the Omo River. They have a fierce culture, with a preference for stick fighting, also known as Donga. Piercings and lip plates are an important feature of their culture.

Which of the following tribe is being described in the above passage?

(a) Masai

(b) Suri

(c) Hamer

(d) Angami

100. Which of the following are the necessary conditions for the formation of a tropical cyclone?

1. Warm ocean waters

2. Atmospheric stability

3. Thermally contrasting air masses

4. Moisture in the mid-troposphere


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


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GENERAL STUDIES (PRELIMS-2021) TEST- 5

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