General Studies Prelims 2004

English - 1997 (Main) (Compulsory)

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS Candidates should attempt all questions.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. Answers must be written in English.

Q. 1. Write an essay of about 300 words on any one of the following : 100 (a) Tolerance is the key to national unity (b) Your idea of a happy life (c) Advertisements : need for control (d) Is vegetarianism a virtue ? (e) Failures are the pillars of success

Q. 2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow in your own words as far as possible. 75

It is true that the smokers cause some nuisance to the non-smokers, but this nuisance is physical while the nuisance that the non-smokers cause the smokers is spiritual. There are, of course, a lot of non-smokers who don't try to interfere with the smokers. It is sometimes assumed that the non-smokers are morally superior, not realizing that they have missed one of the greatest pleasures of mankind. I am willing to allow that smoking is a moral weakness, but on the other hand we must beware of a man without weakness. He is not to be trusted. He is apt to be always sober and he cannot make a single mistake. His habits are too regular, his existence too mechanical and his head always maintains its supremacy over his heart. Much as I like reasonable persons, I hate completely rational beings. For that reason, I am always scared and ill at ease when I enter a house in which there are no ash-trays. The room is apt to be too clean and orderly, and the people are apt to be correct and unemotional. Now the moral and spiritual benefits of smoking have never been appreciated by these correct, righteous, unemotional and unpoetic souls. In my opinion the smokers' morality is, on the whole, higher than that of the non-smokers. The man with a pipe in his mouth is the man after my heart. He is more genial, more open-hearted, and he is often brilliant in conversation. As Thackeray observes, "The pipe draws wisdom from the lips, of the philosopher and shuts up the mouth of the foolish; it generates a style of conversation that is contemplative, thoughtful, benevolent and unaffected."

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(a) What kind of hardship do .a smoker and a non-smoker cause to each other ? 15

(b) Why is it wrong to think that a non-smoker is morally superior to a smoker ? 15

(c) Why is a man without any moral weakness untrustworthy ? 15

(d) What pleasure of life is missed by a non-smoker ? 15

(e) What does Thackeray mean to say ? 15

Q. 3. Make a precis of the following passage in about 230 words. As far as possible, the precis should be in your own words. It should be written on the special sheets provided, which should be fastened securely inside the answer book. State the number of words in your answer. 75

N.B. : Marks will be deducted if your precis is much longer or shorter than the prescribed length.

In our country begging has become a profession and the beggars continue to increase in numbers. So, vast indeed is the fraternity of these beggars that foreigners visiting India, especially ,cities like Varanasi, our cities of pilgrimage, have been led to call our cities the cities of beggars and of dust ! There are no statistics available for estimating their number, but that is not needed for our present purpose. Of course, any practical reform in this matter does not require a close investigation into the causes and conditions of the existence of beggars, but we are here concerned with the question of seeing how these beggars live and what, in particular, is the effect on society of their existence.

As already suggested, the vastness of the number of the Indian beggars is evident to any visitor from a foreign country. The causes of the increase in the number of beggars are many, but of these we may just consider only a few. For good or evil, Indians have been very religious in their outlook on life, and also very generous and hospitable towards those who go to them for begging. Our Puranas and Shastras point out that giving charity to beggars ensures Moksha in the next world. The social conscience deveolped from such an article of faith has been the main cause of the increase in the number of beggars. They are always sure of finding people anxious to go to heaven by offering doles and donations to the needy and so they are thriving. There are many beggars whose profession has been hereditary - a strange perversion of human nature, which, as we are told, ought to eat out of the sweat of its brow. The most




amusing spectacle from the point of view of reason, is to see able-bodied persons, dressed in abundance of rags and many coloured clothes wandering about the streets and going from house to house regularly at certain hours for no more serious a purpose than that of begging ! This might be seen at almost any village and town in our country. For ages uncounted this thing has been going on. The ignorant masses have a fear of the curse supposed to emanate from the mouths of angered beggars, and thus the beggars get more than they need. In fact, strange as it might seem, a considerable number of these beggars are richer . than their poor patrons !

With the percolation of social consciousness among the modern educated Indians, the problem of beggars is today being seriously thought about and ways and means are being seriously mooted on how to solve this problem. When we read how in the West, for example, begging has become a crime coming under the vagrancy acts of Parliaments and when we know that in some countries people are warned that "Those who do not work, neither shall they eat", we begin to think how depressing is the situation in India. Poverty, no doubt, is one of the major causes of begging, and unemployment and increase in population have also been responsible for the same, but the disease-of begging has deeper roots in the social consciousness of us all, and it is to this that any reformer has to turn. We must make it clear to the masses that there is no special glory of Punya in giving charity to the able-bodied persons, and that such misplaced charity is only increasing idleness and chronic poverty. If the masses are educated in social science, its elementary principles at any rate, there will be a gradual lessening of the number of beggars in our country.

The State, too, has to devise laws for checking the growth of beggars. Some strict laws against vagrants must be put into practice in every city and village in India. It is more important to introduce them in holy cities where the beggars are leading the most unholy life. Finally, it is for the development of saner outlook on life that we must agitate if we are to root out this evil of beggary. In one form or another, begging has become the most widespread thing today. Some are honourable, modernised beggars in pants and boots and ties and they have subtler ways of exploiting their patron victims.

Q. 4. (a) Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the words given below : 10 abhor, alter, determine, dwell, fellow, handle, innocent, slay, torrent, radiant. (i) He is making a ..................... effort to succeed in the examination. (ii) We should hold corruption in ...................... . (iii) He ....................... in a rented house in Delhi last year. (iv) There is no ..................... in this, town; it is the same as it was five years ago. (v) He deserves praise ................... for the situation tactfully. (vi) We love children for their ................... . (vii) The crops have been damaged by these ............... rains. (viii) The rich man has been ................... by the militants.




(ix) The ................. of his face suggests that he is a saint. (x) He has been awarded a .................. for studying in Canada.

(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb : favour, meet, occasion, sound, support. 10

(c) Do as directed : 5 (i) A stranger said to me, "Do you know me ?" (Change into the Indirect form of Narration.) (ii) He is blind ............... his own faults. (Use the correct preposition.) (iii) Are you not making a noise ? (Write it in the passive voice.) (iv) Is virtue not its own reward ? (Transform into an assertive sentence.) (v) God is present everywhere. (Substitute a single word for "present everywhere".)

Q. 5. (a) Correct the following sentences : 10 (i) If you will run, you will catch the train. (ii) I am too glad to help you. (iii) I am fed up of his evil ways. (iv) He has only two brother-in-laws. (v) I am one of those persons who cannot describe what I feel. (vi) He has not bought some books. (vii) Do not prevent the child to read. (viii) I doubt that she will help you. (ix) Ganges is a holy river. (x) He is more intelligent than either of his four brothers.

(b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one that you think is appropriate : 10 (i) He is an .................. mechanic. (ingenuous / ingenious) (ii) He died after he had been struck by .................. . (lightning / lightening) (iii) Your story is not at all ................... . (credulous / credible) (iv) Only the virtuous experience true ................. . (facility / felicity) (v) Some politicians try to influence the ............... officers. (judicious / judicial)




(vi) You cannot question his honesty and ................. . (veracity / voracity) (vii) The patient is still in a state of ................. . (comma / coma) (viii) After the accident, the field was covered with ................. . (corpses / corps) (ix) He is a dealer in .................... . (stationary / stationery) (x) You should settle this dispute in an ................. way. (amiable / amicable)

(c) Use the following phrases/idiomatic expressions in your own sentences so as to bring out their meanings : 5 give rise to, hang fire, pass away, put up with, tone down.

N.B. : Marks will be deducted if your precis is much longer or shorter than the prescribed length. 75

I speak of peace because of the new face of war. Total war makes no sense in an age when great powers can maintain large and relatively invulnerable nuclear forces and refuse to surrender without resort to those forces. It makes no sense in an age when a single nuclear weapon contains almost ten times the explosive force delivered by all of the Allied air forces in the Second World War. It makes no sense in an age when the deadly poisons produced by a nuclear exchange would be carried by the wind and water and soil and seed to the far corners of the globe and to generations yet unborn.

Today the expenditure of billions of dollars every year on weapons acquired for the purpose of making sure we never need to use them is essential to keeping the peace. But surely the acquisition of such idle stockpiles, which can only destroy and never create, is not the only, much less the most efficient, means of assuring peace.

I speak of peace, therefore, as the necessary rational end of rational men. I realize that the pursuit of peace is not as dramatic as the pursuit of war, and frequently the words of the pursuer fall on deaf ears. But we have no more urgent task.

Some say that it is useless to speak of world peace or world law or world disarmament, and that it will be useless until the leaders of those nations, perceived to be hostile by us, adopt a more enlightened attitude. I hope they do. I believe we can help them do it. But I also believe that we must re-examine our own attitude, as individuals and as a nation, for our attitude is as essential as theirs. And every graduate of this school, every thoughtful citizen who despairs of war and wishes to




bring peace, should begin by looking inward, by examining his own attitude toward the possibilities of peace.

First, let us examine our attitude toward peace itself. Too many of us think it is impossible. Too many think it unreal. But that is a dangerous, defeatist belief. It leads to the conclusion that war is inevitable, that mankind is doomed, that we are gripped by forces we cannot control.

Our problems are man-made: therefore they can be solved by man. And man can be as big as he wants. No problem of human destiny is beyond human beings. Man's reason and spirit have often solved the seemingly unsolvable and we believe they can do it again.

Let us focus on a more practical, more attainable peace, based not on a sudden revolution in human nature but on a gradual evolution in human institutions, on a series of concrete actions and effective agreements which are in the interest of all concerned. There is no single, simple key to this peace, no grand or magic formula to be adopted by one or two powers. Genuine peace must be the product of many nations, the sum of many acts. It must be dynamic, not static, changing to meet the challenge of each new generation. For peace is a process, a way of solving problems.

With such a peace there will still be quarrels and conflicting interests, as there are within families and nations. World peace, like community peace, does not require that each man love his neighbour; it requires only that they live together in mutual tolerance, submitting their disputes to a just and peaceful settlement. And history teaches us that enmities between nations, as between individuals, do not last forever. However fixed our likes and dislikes may seem, the tide of time and events will often bring surprising changes in the relations between nations and neighbours.

So let us persevere. Peace need not be impracticable, and war need not be inevitable. By defining our goal more clearly, by making it seem more manageable and less remote, we can help all peoples to see it, to draw hope from it, and to move irresistibly toward it.

Q. 4. (a) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate forms of words given below : 10 deter, increase, ardour, resolve, courage, divide, prestige, commend, pious, invoke (i) Paradise Lost opens with an ................... of the divine. (ii) When is your next .................. due ? (iii) One must have a firm ................... to achieve one's goal. (iv) Unless we are .................. we can never face obstacles. (v) Will our nuclear explosions have quite a .................. effect ? (vi) United we stand, .................. we fall.




(vii) The programme of rehabilitation is ...................... . (viii) Without .................. religious pursuit has hardly any meaning. (x) In Gandhian era the people of our country had .................. spirit of patriotism. (x) This school is a very .................... institution.

(b) Use the following words in your own sentences, each both as a noun and a verb : 10 practice; question; complement; substitute; crop.

(c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed : 5 (i) "Help me Cassius, or l die," cried Caesar. (Turn it into the indirect form.) (ii) John in brighter than all other students in his class. (Change into the positive degree.) (iii) You cannot see him, for it is not easy to reach him. (Give one word for the words in bold italics.) (iv) She would not go home during the holidays (Use a question tag.) (v) If you do not work hard, you cannot succeed. (Use 'unless'.)

Q. 5. (a) Correct the following sentences : 10 (i) It is an unique privilege to welcome our guests. (ii) A herd of cattles were grazing in the farm. (iii) If you would have studied hard, you should have passed. (iv) One of my friend is a good poet. (v) Either his parents or Pheroze is going to come today. (vi) When you are going to London to meet with your friends there ? (vii) For heaven's sake, please don't ask me that why am I not coming ? (viii) I cannot be able to play cricket this evening. (ix) You are the teacher here, isn't it ? (x) Shakespeare, the playwright and the poet born in Stratford-upon-Avon.

(b) Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate words put within the brackets : 10 (i) He ............... his past statement in the course of his speech. (avert, advert) (ii) In their response to the call they are ..................... . (invert, inert) (iii) There is no ................... to the gift he received. (illusion, allusion) (iv) ................... distillation is an offence. (Elicit, Illicit)




(v) He had no ....................... to any help. (recourse, resource) (vi) He is certainly not honest; he is always .................... . (hypercritical, hypocritical) (vii) Smoking is ................... here. (proscribed, prescribed) (viii) Kishore sends his .......................... to you. (compliments, complements) (ix) We must not cast any ................. at him, for he is innocent. (aspiration, aspersion) (x) The students' attitude to their teacher is not ................... . (deferential, differential)

(c) Use the following phrases in your own sentences bringing out the meaning : 5 (i) Out of tune (ii) To put one's foot down (iii) At sixes and sevens (iv) Through thick and thin (v) To put something up






INSTRUCTIONS Candidates should attempt all questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. Answers must be written in English.

Q. 1. Write an essay in about 300 words on- any one of the following : 100 (a) The Limits of Science (b) Our Intellectuals (c) Have We Lost the Direction ? (d) Computers in Everyday Life (e) Below the Poverty Line

Q. 2. Read this passage carefully and answer the questions set at the end 75

We think of the moon as only a stone, a stone gone cold. An airless, waterless stone and the prophetic image of our own earth when, some few million years from now, the senescent sun shall have lost its present fostering power . .... And so on. This passage could easily be prolonged - a Study in Purple. But I forbear. Let every reader lay on as much of the royal rhetorical colour as he finds to his taste. Anyhow, purple or no purple, there the stone is - stony. You cannot think about it for long without finding yourself invaded by one or other of several sentiments. These sentiments belong to one or other of two contrasted and complementary groups. The name of the first family is Sentiments of Human Insignificance, of the second, Sentiments of Human Greatness. Meditating on that derelict stone afloat there in the abyss, you may feel a worm,. abject and futile in the face of wholly incomprehensible immensities. 'The silence of those infinite spaces frightens. me.' You may feel as Pascal felt. Or, alternatively, you may feel as M. Paul Valery has said: `The silence of those infinite spaces does not frighten me.' For the spectacle of that moon need not necessarily make you feel like a worm. It may, on the contrary, cause you to rejoice exultantly in your manhood. There floats the stone, the nearest and most familiar symbol of all the astronomical horrors: but the astronomers who discovered those horrors of space and time were men. The universe throws down a challenge to the human spirit; in spite of his insignificance and abjection, man has taken it up. The stone glares down at us out of the black boundlessness. But the fact that we know it justifies us in feeling a certain human pride. We have a right to our moods of sober exultation.

(a) How does the writer describe the moon ? (b) Do you think that the image of the moon revealed here is prophetic ? Why ? (c) What kind of two contrasted and complementary sentiments does the moon evoke ? (d) What does the author try to suggest about the place of man in the universe ? (e) Give the central idea of the passage.

Q. 3. Write a precis of the passage given below in your own words, not exceeding 160, on the special sheets provided. The precis sheets should be fastened securely inside the answer book. State the number of words used by you in the precis.

Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300



Q. 1. Write an essay of about 300 words on any one of the following : 100 (a) Tolerance is the key to national unity (b) Your idea of a happy life (c) Advertisements : need for control (d) Is vegetarianism a virtue ? (e) Failures are the pillars of success

Q. 2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow in your own words as far as possible. 75

It is true that the smokers cause some nuisance to the non-smokers, but this nuisance is physical while the nuisance that the non-smokers cause the smokers is spiritual. There are, of course, a lot of non-smokers who don't try to interfere with the smokers. It is sometimes assumed that the non-smokers are morally superior, not realizing that they have missed one of the greatest pleasures of mankind. I am willing to allow that smoking is a moral weakness, but on the other hand we must beware of a man without weakness. He is not to be trusted. He is apt to be always sober and he cannot make a single mistake. His habits are too regular, his existence too mechanical and his head always maintains its supremacy over his heart. Much as I like reasonable persons, I hate completely rational beings. For that reason, I am always scared and ill at ease when I enter a house in which there are no ash-trays. The room is apt to be too clean and orderly, and the people are apt to be correct and unemotional. Now the moral and spiritual benefits of smoking have never been appreciated by these correct, righteous, unemotional and unpoetic souls. In my opinion the smokers' morality is, on

the whole, higher than that of the non-smokers. The man with a pipe in his mouth is the man after my heart. He is more genial, more open-hearted, and he is often brilliant in conversation. As Thackeray observes, "The pipe draws wisdom from the lips, of the philosopher and shuts up the mouth of the foolish; it generates a style of conversation that is contemplative, thoughtful, benevolent and unaffected."

(a) What kind of hardship do .a smoker and a non-smoker cause to each other ? 15

(b) Why is it wrong to think that a non-smoker is morally superior to a smoker ? 15

(c) Why is a man without any moral weakness untrustworthy ? 15

(d) What pleasure of life is missed by a non-smoker ? 15

(e) What does Thackeray mean to say ? 15

Q. 3. Make a precis of the following passage in about 230 words. As far as possible, the precis should be in your own words. It should be written on the special sheets provided, which should be fastened securely inside the answer book. State the number of words in your answer. 75

N.B. : Marks will be deducted if your precis is much longer or shorter than the prescribed length.

In our country begging has become a profession and the beggars continue to increase in numbers. So, vast indeed is the fraternity of these beggars that foreigners visiting India, especially ,cities like Varanasi, our cities of pilgrimage, have been led to call our cities the cities of beggars and of dust ! There are no statistics available for estimating their number, but that is not needed for our present purpose. Of course, any practical reform in this matter does not require a close investigation into the causes and conditions of the existence of beggars, but we are here concerned with the question of seeing how these beggars live and what, in particular, is the effect on society of their existence.

As already suggested, the vastness of the number of the Indian beggars is evident to any visitor from a foreign country. The causes of the increase in the number of beggars are many, but of these we may just consider only a few. For good or evil, Indians have been very religious in their outlook on life, and also very generous and hospitable towards those who go to them for begging. Our Puranas and Shastras point

out that giving charity to beggars ensures Moksha in the next world. The social conscience deveolped from such an article of faith has been the main cause of the increase in the number of beggars. They are always sure of finding people anxious to go to heaven by offering doles and donations to the needy and so they are thriving. There are many beggars whose profession has been hereditary - a strange perversion of human nature, which, as we are told, ought to eat out of the sweat of its brow. The most amusing spectacle from the point of view of reason, is to see able-bodied persons, dressed in abundance of rags and many coloured clothes wandering about the streets and going from house to house regularly at certain hours for no more serious a purpose than that of begging ! This might be seen at almost any village and town in our country. For ages uncounted this thing has been going on. The ignorant masses have a fear of the curse supposed to emanate from the mouths of angered beggars, and thus the beggars get more than they need. In fact, strange as it might seem, a considerable number of these beggars are richer . than their poor patrons !

With the percolation of social consciousness among the modern educated Indians, the problem of beggars is today being seriously thought about and ways and means are being seriously mooted on how to solve this problem. When we read how in the West, for example, begging has become a crime coming under the vagrancy acts of Parliaments and when we know that in some countries people are warned that "Those who do not work, neither shall they eat", we begin to think how depressing is the situation in India. Poverty, no doubt, is one of the major causes of begging, and unemployment and increase in population have also been responsible for the same, but the disease-of begging has deeper roots in the social consciousness of us all, and it is to this that any reformer has to turn. We must make it clear to the masses that there is no special glory of Punya in giving charity to the able-bodied persons, and that such misplaced charity is only increasing idleness and chronic poverty. If the masses are educated in social science, its elementary principles at any rate, there will be a gradual lessening of the number of beggars in our country.

The State, too, has to devise laws for checking the growth of beggars. Some strict laws against vagrants must be put into practice in every city and village in India. It is more important to introduce them in holy cities where the beggars are leading the most unholy life. Finally, it is for the development of saner outlook on life that we must agitate if we are to root out this evil of beggary. In one form or another, begging has become the most widespread thing today. Some are honourable, modernised beggars in pants and boots and ties and they have subtler ways of exploiting their patron victims.

Q. 4. (a) Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the words given below : 10 abhor, alter, determine, dwell, fellow, handle, innocent, slay, torrent, radiant. (i) He is making a ..................... effort to succeed in the examination. (ii) We should hold corruption in ...................... .

(iii) He ....................... in a rented house in Delhi last year. (iv) There is no ..................... in this, town; it is the same as it was five years ago. (v) He deserves praise ................... for the situation tactfully. (vi) We love children for their ................... . (vii) The crops have been damaged by these ............... rains. (viii) The rich man has been ................... by the militants. (ix) The ................. of his face suggests that he is a saint. (x) He has been awarded a .................. for studying in Canada.

(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb : favour, meet, occasion, sound, support. 10

(c) Do as directed : 5 (i) A stranger said to me, "Do you know me ?" (Change into the Indirect form of Narration.) (ii) He is blind ............... his own faults. (Use the correct preposition.) (iii) Are you not making a noise ? (Write it in the passive voice.) (iv) Is virtue not its own reward ? (Transform into an assertive sentence.) (v) God is present everywhere. (Substitute a single word for "present everywhere".)

Q. 5. (a) Correct the following sentences : 10 (i) If you will run, you will catch the train. (ii) I am too glad to help you. (iii) I am fed up of his evil ways. (iv) He has only two brother-in-laws. (v) I am one of those persons who cannot describe what I feel. (vi) He has not bought some books. (vii) Do not prevent the child to read. (viii) I doubt that she will help you. (ix) Ganges is a holy river. (x) He is more intelligent than either of his four brothers.

(b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one that you think is appropriate : 10 (i) He is an .................. mechanic. (ingenuous / ingenious) (ii) He died after he had been struck by .................. . (lightning / lightening)

(iii) Your story is not at all ................... . (credulous / credible) (iv) Only the virtuous experience true ................. . (facility / felicity) (v) Some politicians try to influence the ............... officers. (judicious / judicial) (vi) You cannot question his honesty and ................. . (veracity / voracity) (vii) The patient is still in a state of ................. . (comma / coma) (viii) After the accident, the field was covered with ................. . (corpses / corps) (ix) He is a dealer in .................... . (stationary / stationery) (x) You should settle this dispute in an ................. way. (amiable / amicable)

(c) Use the following phrases/idiomatic expressions in your own sentences so as to bring out their meanings : 5 give rise to, hang fire, pass away, put up with, tone down.

N.B. : Marks will be deducted if your precis is much longer or shorter than the prescribed length. 75

I speak of peace because of the new face of war. Total war makes no sense in an age when great powers can maintain large and relatively invulnerable nuclear forces and refuse to surrender without resort to those forces. It makes no sense in an age when a single nuclear weapon contains almost ten times the explosive force delivered by all of the Allied air forces in the Second World War. It makes no sense in an age when the deadly poisons produced by a nuclear exchange would be carried by the wind and water and soil and seed to the far corners of the globe and to generations yet unborn.

Today the expenditure of billions of dollars every year on weapons acquired for the purpose of making sure we never need to use them is essential to keeping the peace. But surely the acquisition of such idle stockpiles, which can only destroy and never create, is not the only, much less the most efficient, means of assuring peace.

I speak of peace, therefore, as the necessary rational end of rational men. I realize that the pursuit of peace is not as dramatic as the pursuit of war, and frequently the words of the pursuer fall on deaf ears. But we have no more urgent task.

Some say that it is useless to speak of world peace or world law or world disarmament, and that it will be useless until the leaders of those nations, perceived to be hostile by us, adopt a more enlightened attitude. I hope they do. I believe we can help them do it. But I also believe that we must re-examine our own attitude, as individuals and as a nation, for our attitude is as essential as theirs. And every graduate of this school, every thoughtful citizen who despairs of war and wishes to bring peace, should begin by looking inward, by examining his own attitude toward the possibilities of peace.

First, let us examine our attitude toward peace itself. Too many of us think it is impossible. Too many think it unreal. But that is a dangerous, defeatist belief. It leads to the conclusion that war is inevitable, that mankind is doomed, that we are gripped by forces we cannot control.

Our problems are man-made: therefore they can be solved by man. And man can be as big as he wants. No problem of human destiny is beyond human beings. Man's reason and spirit have often solved the seemingly unsolvable and we believe they can do it again.

Let us focus on a more practical, more attainable peace, based not on a sudden revolution in human nature but on a gradual evolution in human institutions, on a series of concrete actions and effective agreements which are in the interest of all concerned. There is no single, simple key to this peace, no grand or magic formula to be adopted by one or two powers. Genuine peace must be the product of many nations, the sum of many acts. It must be dynamic, not static, changing to meet the challenge of each new generation. For peace is a process, a way of solving problems.

With such a peace there will still be quarrels and conflicting interests, as there are within families and nations. World peace, like community peace, does not require that each man love his neighbour; it requires only that they live together in mutual tolerance, submitting their disputes to a just and peaceful settlement. And history teaches us that enmities between nations, as between individuals, do not last forever. However fixed our likes and dislikes may seem, the tide of time and events will often bring surprising changes in the relations between nations and neighbours.

So let us persevere. Peace need not be impracticable, and war need not be inevitable. By defining our goal more clearly, by making it seem more manageable and less remote, we can help all peoples to see it, to draw hope from it, and to move irresistibly toward it.

Q. 4. (a) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate forms of words given below : 10 deter, increase, ardour, resolve, courage, divide, prestige, commend, pious, invoke

(i) Paradise Lost opens with an ................... of the divine. (ii) When is your next .................. due ? (iii) One must have a firm ................... to achieve one's goal. (iv) Unless we are .................. we can never face obstacles. (v) Will our nuclear explosions have quite a .................. effect ? (vi) United we stand, .................. we fall. (vii) The programme of rehabilitation is ...................... . (viii) Without .................. religious pursuit has hardly any meaning. (x) In Gandhian era the people of our country had .................. spirit of patriotism. (x) This school is a very .................... institution.

(b) Use the following words in your own sentences, each both as a noun and a verb : 10 practice; question; complement; substitute; crop.

(c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed : 5 (i) "Help me Cassius, or l die," cried Caesar. (Turn it into the indirect form.) (ii) John in brighter than all other students in his class. (Change into the positive degree.) (iii) You cannot see him, for it is not easy to reach him. (Give one word for the words in bold italics.) (iv) She would not go home during the holidays (Use a question tag.) (v) If you do not work hard, you cannot succeed. (Use 'unless'.)

Q. 5. (a) Correct the following sentences : 10 (i) It is an unique privilege to welcome our guests. (ii) A herd of cattles were grazing in the farm. (iii) If you would have studied hard, you should have passed. (iv) One of my friend is a good poet. (v) Either his parents or Pheroze is going to come today. (vi) When you are going to London to meet with your friends there ? (vii) For heaven's sake, please don't ask me that why am I not coming ? (viii) I cannot be able to play cricket this evening. (ix) You are the teacher here, isn't it ? (x) Shakespeare, the playwright and the poet born in Stratford-upon-Avon.

(b) Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate words put within the brackets : 10 (i) He ............... his past statement in the course of his speech. (avert, advert)

(ii) In their response to the call they are ..................... . (invert, inert) (iii) There is no ................... to the gift he received. (illusion, allusion) (iv) ................... distillation is an offence. (Elicit, Illicit) (v) He had no ....................... to any help. (recourse, resource) (vi) He is certainly not honest; he is always .................... . (hypercritical, hypocritical) (vii) Smoking is ................... here. (proscribed, prescribed) (viii) Kishore sends his .......................... to you. (compliments, complements) (ix) We must not cast any ................. at him, for he is innocent. (aspiration, aspersion) (x) The students' attitude to their teacher is not ................... . (deferential, differential)

(c) Use the following phrases in your own sentences bringing out the meaning : 5 (i) Out of tune (ii) To put one's foot down (iii) At sixes and sevens (iv) Through thick and thin (v) To put something up

English Compulsory (1999)

English - 1999 (Main) (Compulsory) Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300 INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Answers must be written in English. Q. 1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following : 100 (a) Power of the press (b) An ideal college (c) The technological miracles of the twentieth century (d) An encounter with an astrologer (e) "Cowards die many times before their death".

Q. 2. Read the following passage and answer in your own language the questions that follow : 75 Forecasting the weather, or trying to find out what it will be like in several day's time, has always been a difficult business. Many different things affect the weather and each one has to be carefully studied before we can make even a fairly accurate forecast. The ancient Egyptians, of course, had no need of this- the weather in the Nile valley hardly ever changes -but people living farther north had to protect themselves and their crops. During a period of drought, when no rain fell for weeks on end, streams and rivers dried up, cattle died from thirst and crops were ruined. A storm could wreck ships and houses, and heavy falls of rain caused rivers to flood a whole countryside. Action in the sky stirred man into action, and in this respect farmers became just as much men of action as were sailors on the high seas. Both had to reckon with the weather - it often upset their plans, sometimes with disastrous results. In early times, when there were no instruments such as thermometer or barometer, man looked for tell-tale signs in the sky. He made his forecasts by watching the flights of birds or the way smoke rose from a fire. He thought that the moon controlled the weather - that it held a lot of water, especially when as a crescent or sickle-shaped moon it lay on its back. Even today there are people who think that the sight of the moon lying on its back means that the rain is on its way. Many of the weather-sayings are still heard today. I expect you know the one : 'A red sky at night is the shepherd's delight. A red sky in the morning is the shepherd's warning.' Do you believe this ? It's sometimes right but more often wrong. If this and hundreds of other sayings like it were true, there would be no need for weather science or meteorology. (a) What is drought and what are its consequences? (b) Does the writer endorse the popular sayings about the red sky ?

(c) Is weather forecasting a science; if so, what is it called ? (d) Why is it not easy to forecast the weather ? (e) How would the moon help the people in forecasting weather ?

Q. 3. Make a precis of the following passage in your own language, in about 230 words, on the special precis-sheets provided. The precis sheets should be fastened securely inside the answer book. State the number of words used by you in your precis. 75 N.B. Marks will be deducted if your precis is much longer or shorter than the prescribed length. Karl Marx was no gentle dreamer about a better life. such as the Utopian socialists have been. He was a fighter. As he examined the relations between the capitalists and labourers of the world, his belief became clearer and sharper, until at last he was sure that he was dealing with a new science - the science of the means of production. He was sure that his ideas were not dreams but solid scientific facts, and he therefore referred to himself as a scientific socialist, so that people would not confuse him with the Utopians. Marx and a friend named Friedrich Engels were in France during the revolution of 1848, and it was at this time they published a pamphlet called The Communist Manifesto. This was a call to battle for the labouring classes of the world: "Workers of the world, arise: you have nothing to lose but your chains." The last years of Marx were spent in England writing his book Das Kapital ('Capital'). Engels supported Marx and completed the work when the latter died, leaving the book unfinished. Das Kapital is one of the most important books ever written. In it Marx expressed some astonishing and radical ideas. According to his economic theory, all the wealth in the world is produced by human labour. This is true of not only the goods turned out by factories and of the money received for such goods, but is true as well of the factories themselves, which were also built by human toil, and therefore represent a type of frozen and stored up labour. It is the workers, said Marx, rather than the capitalists, who have supplied this labour, and therefore the wealth should belong to them. They do not receive it, but are paid instead only a small fee for their efforts. The great difference between what the workers produce and what they are paid is surplus wealth, which goes to the owners of the factory, when it should go to the workers. Hence the workers are being exploited, or robbed, and the capitalists are growing wealthy. So said Marx. Das Kapital also included Marx's philosophy of history. According to this theory, in every age the social class that controls the source of wealth also controls the government and has power over the people. There is, however, a considerable overlapping. As the sources of wealth change, the, old group in power tends to hang on to its control of the government. For example, the nobles of the Middle Ages owned the land which was the key source of wealth at that time, and they also controlled the government.

With the coming of factories as the chief producers of wealth, the nobles retained their control of the various governments of Europe for many years. Finally, the businessmen, or capitalists, who controlled the new source of wealth gained control of the government. They still control it, said Marx, but it is an unfair situation, and will not continue. In time, the workers, who really produce the wealth, will get the power. As wealth piles up, the factories and other means of production

will fall into fewer and fewer hands as the rich grow steadily richer. The poor, at the same time, will grow steadily poorer and more numerous until at last a point will be reached is which almost everybody will be living in misery to support a few fabulously wealthy individuals.

This situation will be so intolerable and so ridiculous that the great masses of the workers will rise up, take industry away from its owners, and run it for the benefit of the workers. We now know that many of Karl Marx's ideas were wrong, and that many of his predictions have not come true. Wealth has become more widely distributed rather than less, and the standard of living of the workers has gone up rather than down. Capitalists have proved not to be the evil ogres that Mary pictured them. Nevertheless, the ideas of Karl Marx have had a strong appeal for many people and a profound effect upon the history of the world. Communism. one of the greatest forces in the twentieth century, had its origins in the writings of Karl Marx. Q. 4. (a) Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the words given below : 10 stay; reality; health; pertinent; proof; post; stretched; accident; rouse; provision (i) I am not his ................... brother. (ii) He got up with a .................. and a yawn. (iii) Keep him ................. with the latest news about his mother. (iv) He fell into the gorge ..................... . (v) I have sold off my farm-house and the land ....................... to it. (vi) Demagogues try ................... the masses. (vii) The new typist .................... to be useless. (viii) I will go ...................... that my expenses are paid. (ix) .................. you have forgotten one thing. (x) Had you taken the medicine, the wound ........................ by now. (b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb : 10 (i) dog (ii) freeze (iii) spoon (iv) book (v) refuse (c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed parenthetically : 5 (i) Einstein was the greatest scientist of our century. (Use the comparative degree) (ii) Let us have a cup of coffee now. (Use the right tag question) (iii) She said. "Darling, why are you looking so pale ? Cheer up, please." (Change the mode of narration) (iv) The fact is so evident that it requires no proof. (Replace 'so' by 'too') (v) He has to do his job well. (Change the voice)

Q. 5. (a) Correct the following sentences : 10 (i) You are a mechanic; isn't it ? (ii) I have already availed of all the casual leave due to me. (iii) The health of my brother is better than me. (iv) He insisted to leave immediately. (v) She congratulated him for his success. (vi) The choice lies between honour or dishonour. (vii) If it will rain, we shall stay back. (viii) The ship was drowned in the sea. (ix) By studying hard, his grades improved. (x) I have to give my examination in April. (b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one that, you think, is appropriate to fill in the blanks : 10 (i) The book has been ................... for the Indian readership. (adapted; adopted) (ii) The case has been hanging fire because the judge is ................. . (disinterested; uninterested) (iii) Trespassers will be .................... . (persecuted; prosecuted) (iv) He is a man of .................. . (principal; principle) (v) Justice should be ................ with mercy. (tampered; tempered) (vi) The condition of homeless people becomes .................... in winter. (pitiful; pitiable) (vii) He led a ................ life. (sensuous; sensual) (viii) I vowed to ............... myself for the death of my cousin. (avenge; revenge) (ix) I have ................ him a job in our company. (assured; ensured) (x) Aren't you tired of this .................. rain ? (continual; continuous) (c) Use the following phrases in your own sentences so as to bring out their meanings : 5 (i) to lead by the nose (ii) pell- mell (iii) gift of the gab (iv) to make a dash (v) to fish in troubled waters





Q. 1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following : 100 (a) Man is saved not by faith but by work (b) Indian Culture (c) Contribution of Science to human progress (d) Political reform you want in India (e) Laughter is the best medicine

Q. 2. Read the following passage and answer, in your own words, the questions that follow : 5 x 15 = 75

Two important stages came not so long before the dawn of written history. The first was the domestication of animals; the second was agriculture. Agriculture, which began in the river valleys of Egypt and Mesopotamia, was a step in human progress to which subsequently there was nothing comparable until our own machine age. Agriculture made possible an immense increase in the numbers of the human species in the regions where it could be successfully practised but at first these regions were few. These were in fact, only those in which nature fertilised the soil after each harvest. Agriculture met with violent resistance, analogous to that which our Ruskins and Samuel Butlers offered to machines. Pastoral nomads considered themselves vastly superior to the tame folk who stayed in one place and were enslaved to the soil. But although the nomads repeatedly won military victories, the physical comforts which the upper classes derived from agricultural serfs always prevailed in the end, and the area of agriculture gradually increased. Even now this process is not at an end, but what remains for it to achieve is no longer very important.

The only fundamental technical advance that preceded the emergence of man into recorded history was the invention of writing. Writing, like spoken language, developed gradually. It developed out of pictures, but as soon as it had reached a certain stage. it made possible the keeping of records and the transmission of information to people who were not present when the information was given.

(a) What was he second important stage in our pre-history and where did it begin?

(b) What happened in the regions where agriculture was successful ?

(c) What happened in the conflict between the nomads and agriculturists?

(d) What technical advance took place before the period of recorded history and what did it accomplish?

(e) Who considered themselves superior to whom and why ?

Q. 3. Make a precis of the following passage, in your own language, in about 230 words, on the special precis-sheets provided Marks will be deducted for precis not written on the precis-sheets. Marks will also be deducted if your precis is much longer or shorter that the prescribed length. The precis-sheets should be securely fastened inside the answer book. State the number of words used by you in your precis. 75

It has been estimated than the human population of 600 B.C. was about five million people, taking perhaps one million years to get there from two and a half million. The population did not reach 500 million until almost 8,000 years later-about 1650 A.D. This means it doubled roughly once every thousand years or so. It reached a billion people around 1850, doubling in some 200 years. It took on1y 80 years or so for the next doubling, as the population reached two billion around 1930. We have not completed the next doubling to four billion yet, but we now have well over three billion people. The doubling time at present seems to be about 37 years. Quite a reduction in doubling times: 1,000,000 years, 1,000 years, 200 years, 80 years, 37 years.

One of the most ominous facts of the current situation is that roughly 40% of the population of the undeveloped world is made up of people under 15 years old. As that mass of young people moves into its reproductive years during the next decade, we're going to see the greatest baby boom of all time. Those youngsters are the reason for all the ominous predictions for the year 2000. They are the gun-powder for the population explosion.

How did we get into this bind ? It all happened along time ago, and the story involves the process of natural selection, the development of culture, and mans swollen head. The essence of success in evolution is reproduction .... for reproduction is the key to winning the evolutionary game. Any structure. physiological process or pattern of behaviour that leads to greater reproductive success will tend to be perpetuated. The entire process by which man developed involves thousands of millenia of our ancestors being more successful breeders than their relatives. Facet number one of our bind-the urge to reproduce has been fixed in us by billions of years of evolution.

Of course through all those years of evolution. our ancestors were fighting a continual battle to keep the birth rate ahead of the death rate. That they were successful is attested to by our very existence, for, if the death rate had overtaken the birth rate for any substantial period of time, the evolutionary line leading to man would have gone extinct. Among our apelike ancestors, a few million years ago, it was still very difficult for a mother to rear her children successfully. Most of the offspring died before they reached reproductive age. The death rate was near the birth rate. Then another factor entered the picture - cultural evolution was added to biologicall evolution.

Of course, in the early days the whole system did not prevent a very high mortality among the young, as well as among the older members of the group. Hunting and food-gathering is a risky business. Cavemen had to throve very impressive cave bears out of their caves before the men could move in. Witch doctors and shamans had a less than perfect record at treating wounds and curing disease. Life was short, if not sweet. Man's total population size doubtless increased slowly but steadily as human populations expanded out of the African cradle of our species.

Then about 8,000 years ago a major change occurred - the agricultural revolution. People began to give up hunting food and settled down to grow it. Suddenly some of the risk was removed from life. The chances of dying of starvation diminished greatly in some human groups. Other threats associated with the nomadic life were also reduced, perhaps balanced by new threats of disease and large scale warfare associated with the development of cities. But the overall result was a more secure existence than before and the human population grew more rapidly. Around 1800, when the standard of living in what are today the developed countries was dramatically increasing due to industrialization, population growth really began to accelerate. The development of medical science was the straw that broke the camel's back.

Q. 4. (a) Fill in the blanks using appropriate forms of the words given below : 10 characterize; coagulant; fright; globe; civilized; disastrous; move; enthusiasm; pessimistic; philosophizing (i) The ------------- of clouds leads to changes in the weather. (ii) Man's continuance on earth is shrouded in ----------- . (iii) A cosmic -------------- may end life on earth. (iv) Vitamin K is essential for the ------------ of blood. (v) Is our ---------- going on the right path (vi) The economic. ---------- of our country is changing. (vii) Once in the jungle, the boys were -------------- . (viii) What does Indian ------------- teach? (ix) ---------------- is affecting India's economy. (x) He spoke ------------ about the existence of God.

(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb. 10 (i) hunt (ii) wound (iii) discredit (iv) team (v) experience

(c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed parenthetically : 5 (i) "Shut the door after you," she told him curtly. (Change into indirect form) (ii) Did she commit all the mistakes ? (Change into passive voice) (iii) Many difficulties are impossible to overcome. (Use a single word for the underlined phrase) (iv) Hard as he tried, the old man failed to find a buyer for his bicycle. (Use "though'') (v) She is so good that others cannot beat her. (Replace "so" by "too")

Q. 5. (a) Correct the following sentences : 10 (i) She vividly described about the situation. (ii) He chose only such men for his company whom he could trust. (iii) He does not boast his-merits. (iv) The rich lead a luxuriant life. (v) The work was hard and exhaustive. (vi) Sages had prophecied the coming of the prophet. (vii) Earth may again be hit by a huge meteor. (viii) He came to the city with a view to get a job. (ix) He was angry upon me. (x) Why she is doing this ?

(b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one you think appropriate to till in the blanks : 10 (i) She has the ------------------- to this property.> (wright ; right) (ii) He has ------------------- his own method for doing the work. (devised ; deviced) (iii) Fetch me a ------------------- of water. (pale ; pail) (iv) All the --------------- of the airline were grounded.

(aircraft ; aircrafts) (v) The government has selected the --------------------- for the hospital. (site ; cite) (vi) The ------------------- of Kargil have fallen silent. (canons ; cannons) (vii) The tropic of --------------------- is an imaginary line. (Cancer ; cancer) (viii) The budget ------------------ could not be offset. (deficit ; deficiency) (ix) When they came down the hill the ------------------- was steep. (descent ; decent) (x) The government collapsed when there was a -------------- in the party. (fraction ; faction)

(c) Use the following phrases in sentences so as to bring out their meaning : 5 (i) bring about (ii) break in (iii) heart and soul (iv) lie low (v) hold one's breath


English - 2001 (Main) (Compulsory) 1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: (100) (a) Knowledge is power (b) Consequences of globalization (c) Value of yoga (d) Science and human happiness (e) Tourism in India

2. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions that follow: (5 x 15 = 75) The world we live in presents an endless variety of fascinating problems which excite our wonder and curiosity. The scientific worker attempts to formulate these problems in accurate terms and to solve them in the light of all the relevant facts that can be collected by observation and experiment. Such questions as �What, �How�, �Where� and �When� challenge him to find the

clues that may suggest possible replies. Confronted by the many problems presented by, let us say, an active volcano, we may ask �What are the lavas made of? How does the volcano work

and how Is the heat generated? Where do the lavas and gases come from? When did the volcano first begin to erupt and when is it likely to erupt again?

In terms of chemical compounds and elements, the question �How� refers to processes � the way things are made or happen or change. The ancients regarded natural processes as manifestations of energy acting on or through matter. Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes no longer reflect the erratic behaviour of the gods of the underworld; they arise from the action of the earth�s internal heat on and through the surrounding crust. The source of the energy lies in

the material of inner earth. In many directions, of course, our knowledge is still incomplete, only the first of the questions we have asked about volcanoes, for example, can as yet be satisfactorily answered. The point is not that we now pretend to understand everything but that we have faith in the orderliness of natural processes. As a result of two or three centuries of scientific investigation, we have come to believe that Nature is understandable in the sense that when we ask questions by way of appropriate observations and experiments, she will answer truly and reward us with discoveries that endure.

(a) How does the author describe the task of the scientific worker? (b) Why does the author speak about volcanoes? (c) What does the equation �How� refer to? (d) How did the ancients look upon volcanoes and earthquakes? (e) What does the author say about our knowledge of the world?

3. Make a précis of the following passage, in your own words, in about 230 words, on the special précis-sheets provided. Marks will be deducted for précis not written on the précis sheets. Marks

will also be deducted if your précis is much longer or shorter than the prescribed length. The

précissheets

should be securely fastened inside the answer book. State the number of words used by you in your précis. (75) No amount of improvement and reconstruction in education will bear much fruit if our schools and colleges are undermined by indiscipline. An impartial examination makes it clear that students and teachers alike need more of the spirit of discipline. If proper education is to be given, acts of indiscipline prevalent in our educational institutions have to be checked. Indiscipline may take the shape of group indiscipline or individual indiscipline. Group indiscipline is the worse of the two. While as individuals many of our students are as good as students elsewhere, the tendency to group indiscipline has increased in recent years. Many causes have led to this group indiscipline. For various reasons under a foreign regime, acts of indiscipline became frequent, often necessitated by the political activities, which were launched against a foreign government. While there may have been justification for such indiscipline under different political circumstances, we feel that there is no justification on for such acts of indiscipline after the attainment of independence. The democratic constitution which the country has adopted permits the redressing of grievances through democratic machinery. It would be against all principles of democracy if such acts of indiscipline were to continue.

The real purpose of education is to train youth to discharge the duties of citizenship properly. All other objectives are incidental. Discipline, therefore, should be the responsibility of parents, teachers, the general public and the authorities concerned. There are some positive factors promoting discipline. The Indian student�s natural tendency is to be disciplined. It is only when

forces act strongly on him that he may sometimes be led astray. He appreciates rules and is normally inclined to abide by them. Much can be done to encourage this trend in school and college life. Personal contact between teacher and pupil is essential. Emphasis is also to be laid on the role of the class teacher or tutorial guide in promoting general discipline and the welfare of the pupils. Further a greater responsibility should devolve upon the students themselves in the maintenance of discipline. Nothing is more calculated to develop a proper sense of self-discipline and proper behaviour than their enforcement, not by any outside authority with any symbol of punishment but by the students themselves. They should choose their own representatives to see that proper codes of conduct are observed. Another important method of bringing home to pupils the value of discipline is through group games. It is on the playing fields that the virtue of playing the game for its own sake and the team spirit can be cultivated. Such extracurricular activities as Boy Scouts, Girl Guides, the National Cadet Corps, Junior Red Cross and Social Service activities will promote a proper spirit of discipline. The building up of a truly harmonious and united form of community life should be the endeavour of all progressive educational institutions.

Besides these positive factors, certain negative factors also promote discipline. The discipline of the youth of any country depends upon the discipline that is exercised by the elders. It is a well - known fact that in all democracies election time is a time offeverish activity not always conducted in the most healthy spirit, and the utilization by politicians of immature minds like students for purposes of electioneering campaigns, with or without slogans attached thereto, is not calculated to promote sound discipline among students. It should be considered an election offence for any member or party to utilize the services of pupils under the age of 17 in political

or civic campaigns. Besides, while the educative value of leading politicians addressing our students from time to time may be readily admitted, the tendency often is for the leaders not to speak to the audience before hem but to a wider audience whose attention they wish to attract through the press. It is not necessary that every speech made by a politician should be a political speech. Lastly, discipline among students can only be promoted if there is discipline among the staff. The teacher and the educational administrator should realize that their activities are all being watched by their pupils. To what extent, therefore, both in their personal conduct and in their general attitude to all problems concerning their country, they have to realize that there are limitations within which they must act for the best interests of education. Ultimately, it is the school or college atmosphere and the quality of the teachers there that ensure proper codes of conduct and discipline among our students.

4. (a) Fill in the blanks using appropriate forms of the words given below: 10 Value, offend, strike, jealous, put, grant, disturb, learn, fly, economic (i) The man ��. into a rage and tore away his garments. (ii) A sensible man never takes everything for �� (iii) No one seems to have taken ��.at her manners. (iv) When are you ��out to sea again? (v) I have no mind to trespass upon you ��..time. (vi) Try to rise above petty personal �� (vii) The officer ��.through one paragraph and accepted the rest. (viii) The report I have received is very ��indeed. (ix) She has sent her paper to a ��..journal. (x) These new measures will give a boost to our ��

(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb: 10 (i) tum (ii) spell (iii) part (iv) contact (v) meet

(c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed: (i) You are too early for the show. (Use �enough�) (ii) The Mahanadi is not as long as the Gange. (Use the comparative degree) (iii) Varsha readily complied ��..my request. (Fill in the gap with a preposition) (iv) We are sure of his honesty. (Change into a complex sentence) (v) Santa said, �Don�t open the window.� (Change into the indirect form)

5. (a) Correct the following sentences: 10 (i) May 1 now take your leave? (ii) The soup will taste better if it had more salt in it. (iii) Is he used to come late everyday? (iv) Your daughter is twelve years old, isn�t it? (v) We must be true to our words.

(vi) Datta is living here since 1998. (vii) A twenty miles walk is really very hard. (viii) We watched the man to disappear in the woods. (ix) Kalidas has written Meghadutam. (x) Let�s have coffee.

(b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one you think appropriate to fill in the blanks (10) (i) He seems to be��.. to hard work. (adverse; averse) (ii) The building does not ��..to safety regulations (conform; confirm) (iii) Asharam was accused of ��the workers against the management. (exciting; inciting) (iv) Rescue workers rushed to the site of the plane�� (crass; crash) (v) Gagan uses expensive ��.for his letters. (stationery; stationary) (vi) The factory was ��making toys. (seized; ceased) (vii) Shakil is ��.. at solving difficult crossword puzzles (ingenuous; ingenious) (viii) I wish you a ��.. recovery (fast; speedy) (ix) Everybody said that her decision was ��. (judicious; judicial) (x) You will have to ��. your afternoon tea as we have no more sugar. (forego; forgo)

(c) Use the following phrases in sentences so as to bring out their meaning: 5 (i) deal in (ii) prime of life (iii) above board (iv) dwell upon (v) in full swing

ESSAY - 2001 Write an essay on any ONE of the following subjects (1) What have we gained from our democratic set-up? (2) My vision of an ideal world order. (3) The march of science and the erosion of human values. (4) Irrelevance of the classroom. (5) The pursuit of excellence. (6) Empowerment alone cannot help our women.

English - Civil Services Examination - 2002

Time allowed: Three hours Maximum marks: 300

Instructions

Candidates should attempt all questions.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Answers must be written in English.

1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: (100)

(a) The ways to enrich our regional languages.

(b) Whither Indian democracy today?

(c) Terrorism in India

(d) Science and religion

(e) If I were the Prime minister of India

2. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions that follow (5x15=75)

The scientific and technological revolution has brought that fundamental changes in the socio-economic sphere. The use of diesel engine and electricity and the beginning of the application of atomic energy have changed the modes of production. These things have led to the concentration of capital in a few hands. Great enterprises are replacing cottage industries and small firms. The working classes have certainly benefited economically. The miracle of production has necessitated the miracle of consumption. Better amenities are available at a lower cost. A man can buy anything he wants today, if e can only afford. But what kind of men are needed today for our society? Men who can co-operate in large groups, men whose tasks are standardized, men who feel free and independent and at the same time are willing to fit in the social machine without any friction.

Modern man is faced with a sort of moral and spiritual dilemma. The crisis of values yawns before him. Today the old values are in the melting pot, and the new values have not found their foothold. Man has become the automaton he has contrived; he has

lost ownership of himself. The discord between the development of positive science on the one hand and the dehumanization of man on the other is the worst crisis of the modern age.

Apart from the economic sphere, the socio-political sphere has not escaped this stratification and the congruent crisis of values. Since the Renaissance, man has been striving for individual rights and self-dignity. But under the present set-up, only two types of men are found the conditioner and the conditioned. The propaganda officers and the planning bureaus have almost crushed the 'individual self', and it has resulted in the rise of the 'social self'. Due to this pressure, the personality fulfillment or its all-round development is denied to many.

(a) What has changed the modes of production today?

(b) What things are being replaced by great enterprises?

(c) What kind of men are needed today for our society?

(d) Why has man become the automaton of his own creation?

(e) Is modern man able to attain personality fulfillment?

3. Make a precise of the following passage in your own language, in about 230 words on the special precise-sheets provided. The precise-sheets should be securely fastened inside the answer book. Indicate the number of words used by you in your precise.

N.B.: Marks will be deducted if your precise is much longer and shorter than the prescribed length. (75)

"What is the use of a house if you haven't got a tolerable planet to put it on?" asked Henry David Thoreau. More than a century later, the Earth seems to be literally falling to pieces - recent environmental set-backs include billions of tones of ices shelves breaking off in the Antarctic and unusually warm temperatures in different part of the world. Panic reactions range from predictions of sinking islands to lamenting the ill-effects of global warming induced by release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The trouble is that we are too much obsessed with the problem of climatic change to even acknowledge the fact that the state of the planet hinges on much more. Climatic change is at best a symptom of a far more complex malaise, just as a fever is most often only an indicator of something that's gone awry in our body. It is time for a complete and comprehensive planetary health check, that will examine the impacts of change in land use, loss of biodiversity, use of fertilizers and pesticides and consistent pollution of water bodies. This would overcome the limitations of evaluating how ecosystems work by reacting to just one major environmental concern as is happening in the case of global warming. These considerations have been responsible for the setting up of an

international panel, the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment. Financed by four major international bodies, including the UNO and the World Bank, the eco-panel was set up without much fuss last June (2001), and is expected to determine, over a period of our years and at a cost of $21 million, the state of the Earth's ecosystems.

The eco-panel will have source inputs from more than 2,000 natural and social scientists the world over. Put simply, the earth will go through the equivalent of a through physical analysis, so that biological, economic and social information can be collated to help scientists arrive at a final diagnosis. What is crucial, says one of the scientists, is that "no one has previously tried to work out how all of these conflicting pressures interact". The other important factor is how well we can orchestrate tread-offs and interactions in order to maintain ecological balance. Scientific bodies like the International Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) have access to vast amounts of baseline data relating to the subject - although critics point out that the information available is mostly from the North, leaving the concerns of the South largely unpresented. The newly-constituted eco-panel will have to take all these aspects into account. For instance, it will have to ensure that data collection is more representative of the regions of the world. Today, we have the advantage of sourcing data from remote sensing satellites as well. The information thus gathered would have to be sorted out and analyzed by specialists and also by generalists - before the panel comes out with specific periodic predictions, prescriptions and warnings. the e\healing process can begin only if all the scientific evidence and direction is made available to a wide audience and not just restricted to policy makers. Rather than depending solely upon governments to listen to and take corrective action, the focus should now be on convincing individuals and communities whose collective or individual action will eventually make the difference between regression and recovery.

4. (a) Fill in the blanks using appropriate forms of the words given below:

ride, diminish, devotion, shout, watch, contest, disastrous, pleasure, philosophizing, finance (10)

(i) Mohan is _________________ to his father

(ii) None seems to have been ______________ with his speech.

(iii) She ________ at the peon when he sat down.

(iv) His _________ condition is at a low ebb now.

(v) Several candidates are _________________ the Panchayat elections.

(vi) The boy was frightened to __________ the movie.

(vii) What does Samkara's _________ teach us?

(viii) Hariharan's suspicious moves herald a _______

(ix) In the circus show, I saw a bear _____________ a bicycle.

(x) The chances of starvation deaths have __________ today.

4 (b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences first as a noun and then as a verb: (10)

(i) race (ii) hit (iii) play (iv) touch, (v) experiment.

4 (c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed parenthetically: (5)

(i) "Do not make a noise", said the teacher to his students. (Change into indirect form)

(ii) Hari is so short that he cannot touch the ceiling. (Replace 'so' by 'too')

(iii) I gave him a ten-rupee note yesterday. (change into passive voice)

(iv) She bought a house last year. the house is white. (Change into simple sentence).

(v) Hard as as he worked, he failed in the examination. (Use 'though').

5. (a) Correct the following sentences: (10)

(i) He boasts his achievements now and then.

(ii) She is living in this flat since 1995.

(iii) The principal was angry upon the boys.

(iv) Character is more preferable than intelligence.

(v) Krishna hanged all the pictures on the wall.

(vi) The sceneries of Kashmir move me most.

(vii) Cattle is grazing in the field.

(viii) Hari is going foreign next month.

(ix) She knew that I am leaving the place.

(x) His elder brother gave him many good advices.

5. (b) Of the words given in brackets, choose the one you think appropriate to fill in the blanks: (10)

(i) The road accident proved to be ______ (fateful, fatal)

(ii) He got a ________ opportunity to qualify in the test. (gold, golden)

(iii) Faridabad is an ______ city. (industrial, industrious)

(iv) An ashram is a ________ place. (quiet, quite)

(v) Sohan's handwriting is _________ (eligible, illegible)

(vi) We should not disturb the ___________ of his mind. (piece, peace)

(vii) You should ____ an example to strengthen your viewpoint. (site, cite)

(viii) Akbar was an ______ to Humayun. (hair, heir)

(ix) Rajasthan is a well known ___________ (desert, dessert)

(x) The _______ turned me out of the class. (principle, principal).

5. (c) Use of the following phrases in sentences so as to bring out their meaning: (5)

(i) bring about

(ii) call names

(iii) run out

(iv) by leaps and bounds

(v) lame excuse


English - 2003 (Main) (Compulsory) 1. Write an essay in about 300 words in any one of the following: (100) (a) The Need for Alternative Sources of Energy (b) The Role of Judiciary in India (c) Freedom of Expression (d) My Idea of an Administrator (e) Pleasures of Reading

2. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions that follow: (5 ×

15 = 75) This rule of trying always to do things as well as one can do them has an important bearing upon the problem of ambition. No man or woman should be without ambition, which is the inspiration of activity. But if one allows ambition to drive one to attempt things which are beyond one�s own personal capacity, then unhappiness will result: If one imagines that one can do everything better than other people, then envy and jealousy, those twin monsters, will come to sadden one�s days. But if one concentrates one�s attention upon developing one�s own special capacities, the things one is best at, then one does not worry over much if other people Ere more successful.

There are those again who are discontented with their own job and complain of drudgery. But there is no job in the world which does not contain a large element of drudgery. Do you imagine that a Prime Minister has no drudgery to do, or an artist, or an author? I loathe drudgery as much as any man; but I have learnt that the only way to conquer drudgery is to get through it as neatly, as efficiently as one can. You know I am right when I say that. A dull job slackly done becomes twice as dull; a dull job which you try to do just as well as you can becomes half as dull. Here again effort appears to me the main part of the art of living.

Have I any other, and less disagreeable, hints to suggest? I believe that every man and woman has somewhere tucked away inside them a sense of beauty. Without this sense life on this earth is veiled in dim grey clouds. It may be that you do not care, or think you do not care, for poetry or art or music. If you make the least effort, you may find that some or all of these things will cause you sudden delight; and once you catch that delight it will never leave you. Because if life, as I believe, is a constantly renewed effort, then the human frame aid nerves require some relaxation.

(a) When does ambition lead to unhappiness? (b) How can a person avoid envy and jealousy? (c) How can we avoid the feeling of drudgery? (d) Should we avoid ambition? (e) What does the phrase �to get through it� mean?

3. Make a precis of the following passage in your own words in about 230 words. Marks will be deducted if the precis is not written on the separate precis sheets provided and the length of the precis exceeds or falls short of more than 10 words of the prescribed length. State the number of

words used by you in the precis and securely fasten the precis-sheets inside the answer-book. (75) Some wars in the past were quite as disorganizing and as destructive of the civilization of devastated areas as was the Second World War. North Africa has never regained the level of rosperity that t enjoyed under the Romans. Persia never recovered from the Mongols nor Syria from the Turks. There have always been two kinds of wars, those in which the vanquished incurred disaster, and those in which they only incurred discomfort. We seem, unfortunately, to be entering upon an era in which wars are of the former sort.

The atom bomb, and still more the hydrogen bomb, have caused new fears, involving new doubts as to the effects of science on human life. Some eminent authorities, including Einstein, have pointed out that there is a danger of the extinction of all life on this planet. I do not myself think that this will happen in the next war, but I think it may well happen in the next but one, if that is allowed to occur. If this expectation is correct, we have to choose, within the next fifty years or so, between two alternatives. Either we must allow the human race to exterminate itself, or we must forgo certain liberties which are very dear to us, more especially the liberty to kill foreigners whenever we fell so disposed. I think it probable that mankind will choose its own extermination as the preferable alternative. The choice will be made, of course, by persuading ourselves that it is not being made, since (so militarists on both sides will say) the victory of the right is certain without risk of universal disaster. We are perhaps living in the last age of man, and, if so, it is to science that he will owe his extinction.

If, however, the human race decides to let itself go on living, it will have to make very drastic changes in its ways of thinking, feeling, and behaving. We must learn not to say �Never! Better death than dishonour�. We must learn to submit to law, even when imposed by aliens whom we hate and despise, and whom we believe to be blind to all considerations of righteousness. Consider some concrete examples. Jews and Arabs will have to agree to submit to arbitration; if the award goes against the Jews, the President of the United States will have to ensure the victory of the party to which he is opposed, since, if he supports the international authority, he will lose the Jewish vote in New York State. On the other hand, if the award goes in favour of the Jews, the Mohammedan world will be indignant, and will be supported by all other malcontents. Or, to take another instance, Eire will demand the right to oppress the Protestants of Ulster, and on this issue the United States will support Eire while Britain will support Ulster. Could an international authority survive such a dissension?

Again: India and Pakistan cannot agree about Kashmir, therefore one of them must support Russia and the other the United States. It will be obvious to anyone who is an interested party in one of these disputes that the issue is far more important than the continuance of life on our planet. The hope that the human race will allow itself to survive is therefore somewhat slender. But if human life is to continue in spite of science, mankind will have to learn a discipline of the passions which, in the past, has not been necessary. Men will have to submit to the law, even when they think the law unjust and iniquitous. Nations which are persuaded that they are only demanding the barest justice will have to acquiesce when this demand is denied them by the neutral authority. I do not say that this is easy; I do not prophesy that it will happen; I say only that if it does not happen the human race will perish, and will perish as a result of science.

4. (a) Fill in the blanks using the appropriate form of the words given below: (10) offensive, imagination, psychological, conceive, vacation, entire, enthusiasm, lacerating, deify, margin (i) I do not believe in the ��.of an ordinary politician. (ii) She could not bear to look at his ��.hand. (iii) Most people do not have any clear ��of judicial activism. (iv) Who can dare to ��.the boss? (v) A sensible person can ��.the plight of others. (vi) You have to consider the matter in its �� (vii) It is difficult to ��..such dullards. (viii) We can no longer ��..the poor and the suppressed. (ix) You will have to ��.the house. (x) ��..is an interesting subject. (b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb: (10) (i) help (ii) nurse (iii) judge (iv) pillory (v) round (c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed within brackets: (5) (i) No metal is as costly as gold. (Use the comparative degree of �costly�) (ii) I doubt if you have done it. (Change into a negative sentence without changing the meaning) (iii) He was elected leader. (Change into active voice) (iv) She confessed that she was guilty. (Turn it into a simple sentence) (v) She said, �Can you write a poem?� (Change into indirect speech)

5. (a) Correct the following sentences: (10) (i) Each of the scholars, belonging to various countries, have spoken about it. (ii) All were present except he and his sister. (iii) I wonder if ten thousand rupees are a large sum. (iv) She lay the table an hour ago. (v) He absented from the class for no reason. (vi) He is untidy boy. (vii) All his plans fell out for lack of help. (viii) Of milk, coke and coffee the latter is my favourite. (ix) All this happened prior 1971 war. (x) Scarcely had she gone that he arrived.

(b) Choose the appropriate words given in the brackets to fill in the blanks in the following sentences: (10) (i) Nehruji made a ��. speech in Parliament on this occasion. (historical, historic) (ii) Such heavy responsibilities cannot be ��.easily.

(born, borne) (iii) The doctor visits him on ��.days. (alternative, alternate) (iv) I do not know why he is ��..towards me. (contemptuous, contemptible) (v) To work for more than eight hours is quite �� (exhaustive, exhausting) (vi) Democracy does not allow the ��..of the minorities. (prosecution, persecution) (vii) No meeting of the ��..of ministers has been scheduled for tomorrow. (council, cabinet) (viii) All worldly pleasures are considered to be ��..by saints. (momentary, momentous) (ix) Any ��. of secret documents is punishable by law. (tempering, tampering) (x) He is an ��..person to work with. (amiable, amenable)

(c) Use the following phrases in your own sentences so as to bring out their meaning: (5) (i) to come across (ii) to be cut out for (iii) over head and ears (iv) to see eye to eye (v) to draw the line

ESSAY - 2003 Write an essay on any one of the following 1. The Masks of New Imperialism. 2. How far has democracy in India delivered the goods? 3. How should a civil servant conduct himself? 4. As civilization advances culture declines. 5. There is nothing either good or bad but thinking makes it so. 6. Spirituality and Scientific temper


English - 2004 (Main) (Compulsory) 1. Write an essay in about 300 words in any one of the following: (100) (a) Indian Budget is a Gamble on the Monsoons (b) Necessity of Water-Harvesting in India (c) Social Harmony vs. Communal Frenzy (d) Criminalization of Politics (e) �All That Glitters Is Not Gold�

2. Read the following passage and answer, in your own words, the questions that follow at the end (5 x 15 = 75) The flowering of Indian civilization constitutes one of the most glorious chapters in the history of mankind. A culture, remarkable for its moral no less than for its material creativity, which has endured for three millennia and more, is necessarily a subject of great fascination. Yet over and above its longevity, Indian civilization is also characterized by some other features which deserve to be highlighted in any review of its past. The ability of this civilization to absorb alien cultures without losing its distinctive identity has intrigued scholars over the centuries; and this capacity for creative absorption is as much in evidence today, when India is undergoing a seminal transformation into a modern industrial community, as it was in the centuries past, when alien communities with novel ways of life migrated into the subcontinent, to be drawn into the living matrix of Indian society; The continuity of Indian civilization rests very substantially upon social institutions and upon the dissemination of a common corpus of religious values among different classes and communities in the subcontinent.

This civilization was also geared to a cycle of agricultural activity which substantially determined the total ordering of society. Hence, the fact that the great epicentres of Indian civilization were located in the plains of the Indus and the Ganga in the north; and those of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Cauvery in the south. Over the centuries the people living in these riverine regions had conjured into existence a round of economic activity and a set of social institutions, which were designed to produce the agricultural wealth which sustained life. Indeed, the structure of rural society; with a central place occupied by the cultivating classes, which were linked by ties of patronage and prescription to numerous artisanal and menial groups; and the fabric of caste society; with the interlocking institutions of Varna and Jati has to be looked upon as the historical answer of the Indian genius to the needs of sustaining production in a rural society; The striking feature of this social organization was the premium which it put on self-sufficiency and survival within the framework of an agrarian civilization.

(a) What is the most distinctive feature of Indian civilization? (b) Which section of the society occupied a central place in Indian civilization? (c) Identify the great epicentres of Indian civilization as narrated in the passage. (d) On what did the Indian social organization lay emphasis? (e) What does the phrase �conjured into existence� mean? 3. Make a precis of the following passage in your own words in about 220 to 240 words.

Marks will be deduced if the precis is not written on the separate precis sheets provided and if it is longer or shorter than the prescribed limit. State the number of words used by you in the precis at its end and securely fasten the precis-sheets inside the answer-book. (75)

There is some similarity between Italy and India. Both are ancient countries with long raditions of culture behind them, though Italy is a newcomer compared to India, and India is a much more vast country Both are split up politically, and yet the conception of Italia, like that of India, never died, and in all their diversity the unity was predominant. In Italy the unity was largely a Roman unity, for that great city had dominated the country and been the fount and symbol of unity. In India there was no such single centre or dominant city, although Benares might well be called the Eternal City of the East, not only for India, but also for Eastern Asia. But, unlike Rome, Benares never dabbled in empire or thought of temporal power. Indian culture was so widespread all over India that no part of the country could be called the heart of that culture. From Kanyakumari to Amarnath and Badrinath in the Himalayas, from Dwarka to Pun, the same ideas coursed, and if there was a clash of ideas in one place, the noise of it soon reached distant parts of the country. Just as Italy gave the gift of culture and religion to Western Europe, India did so to Eastern Asia though China was as old and venerable as India. And even when Italy was lying prostrate politically, her life coursed through the veins of Europe. It was Metternich who called Italy a �geographical expression�, and many a would-be Metternich has used that phrase for India, and, strangely enough, there is a similarity even in their geographical positions in the two continents.

More interesting is the comparison of England with Austria, for has not England of the twentieth century been compared to Austria of the nineteenth, proud and haughty and imposing still, but with the roots that gave strength shriveling up and decay eating its way into the mighty fabric. It is curious how one cannot resist the tendency to give an anthropomorphic form to a country. Such is the force of habit and early associations. India becomes Bharat Mata, Mother India, a beautiful lady, very old but ever youthful in appearance, sad-eyed and forlorn, cruelly treated by aliens and outsiders, and calling upon her children to protect her. Some such picture rouses the emotions of hundreds of thousands and drives them to action and sacrifice. And yet India is in the main, the peasant and the worker, not beautiful to look at, for poverty is not beautiful.

Does the beautiful lady of our imaginations represent the bare-bodied and bent workers in the fields and factories? Or the small group of those who have from ages past crushed the masses and exploited them, imposed cruel customs on them and made many of them even untouchable ? We seek to cover truth by the creatures of our imaginations and endeavour to escape from reality to a world of dreams. And yet, despite these different classes and their mutual conflicts there was a common bond which united them in India, and one is amazed at its persistence and tenacity and enduring vitality. What was this strength due to? Nor merely the passive strength and weight of inertia and tradition, great as these always are. There was an active sustaining principle, for it resisted successfully powerful outside influences and absorbed internal forces that rose to combat it.

And yet with all its strength it could not preserve political freedom or endeavour to bring about political unity. These latter do not appear to have been considered worth much trouble; their importance was very foolishly ignored, and we have suffered for this neglect. Right through

history the old Indian ideal did not glorify political and military triumph, and it looked down upon money and the professional moneymaking class. Honour and wealth did not go together, and honour was meant to go, at least in theory, to the men who served the community with little in the shape of financial reward. The old culture managed to live through many a fierce storm and tempest, but though it kept its outer form, it lost its real content. Today it is fighting silently and desperately against a new and all-powerful opponent � the bania civilization of the capitalist West. It will succumb to this newcomer, for the West brings science, and science brings food for the hungry millions. But the West also brings an antidote to the evils of this cut-throat civilization -- the principles of socialism, of cooperation, and service to the community for the common good.

4. (a) Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the words given below: (10) burn, near, harm, perfect, invite, create, join, administer, spendthrift, skill (i) I did not accept the ��.because I was angry (ii) An honest man is the noblest ��.of God. (iii) His father prevented him from ��.a dance school. (iv) A judge should ��..equal justice to all. (v) He looks gentle enough, but he can be ��at times. (vi) He has ��his case to my satisfaction. (vii) Your opponent is too ��to cope with. (viii) Despite suggestions to the contrary, he continued to be a �� (ix) The ��..sun made the traveller thirsty. (x) Bombay is the seaport ��to Europe.

(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb: (10) (i) present (ii) move (iii) issue (iv) pain (v) crowd

(c) Rewrite the following sentences as directed within brackets: (5) (i) He had to sign or be executed. (Turn into a complex sentence) (ii) Given the order. (Use the passive form) (iii) I was doubtful whether it was you. (Turn into a negative sentence)

(iv) He was disgraced his family. (Use the noun form of �disgraced�) (v) He was so tired that he could not stand. (Turn into a simple sentence replacing �so� by �too�)

5. (a) Correct the following sentences: (10) (i) The rain was accompanied by hail and storm. (ii) I cannot help but think that he is a fool. (iii) I have never seen a clever man at engineering than him. (iv) It is all the more better if he marries your daughter. (v) Objections to this proposal can be stated as thus. (vi) He travelled from one corner of India to the other. (vii) She could not make up the mind. (viii) They tried to wipe out the poor widow�s tears. (ix) It is the best ideal each person may aspire for. (x) You are not entitled for admission

(b) Choose the appropriate words from those given in the brackets to fill in the blanks in the following sentences:10 (i) She has a ��.appearance. (gracious, graceful) (ii) Out principal is a man of kind and ��nature (judicious, judicial) (iii) He is ��to both praise and blame. (sensible, sensitive) (iv) Gandhiji was the ��head of the Congress party (virtuous, virtual) (v) I do not regard his scheme as �� (practicable, practical) (vi) The Equator is an �� line round the world. (imaginative, imaginary) (vii) The ship sailed ashore in spite of �� difficulties. (elemental, elementary) (viii) Acts of �� negligence are punishable by law. (willing, wilful) (ix) He was offered a ��job.

(temporal, temporary) (x) I am the ��owner of the house. (rightful, righteous) (c) Use the following phrases in your sentences so as to bring out their meaning: (5) (i) to call forth (ii) to fall through (iii) to get along (iv) to lay bare (v) to put up with

ESSAY - 2004 Write an essay on any one topic of the following: 1. India�s Role in Promote ASEAN Co-operation. 2. Judicial Activism and Indian Democracy. 3. Whither Women�s Emancipation? 4. Globalization and Its Impact on Indian Culture. 5. The Lure of Space. 6. Water Resources Should Be Under the Control of the Central Government.


English - 2005 (Main) (Compulsory) 1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: (100) (a) Environment and Conservation (b) Role of Women in Social Transformation (c) Nuclear Energy in War and Peace (d) India�s Foreign Policy and World Power (e) Television and its Impact on Youth 2. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions that follow: (5 x 15 = 75) It is wrong to believe that science has totally eclipsed literature with its inspiring zeal. That literature plays a subordinate role to science is equally untrue. Nevertheless, it is undeniable that science has comparatively a wider range for its impact on the physical world than literature. But that does not mean that literature has been incorporated in the realm of science to the extent that it loses its distinct individuality. The reality is that both co-exist without the one overshadowing the other, Those who think that science has pushed literature into shade reducing it to a non-entity seem to be simply imaginative and illogical in the comparisons of their respective merits. It is no doubt unquestionable that products of science are of greater material value than those which make an emotional appeal, e.g., a bridge is of greater use to the public than a poem. But thereby one should not ignore the importance of a poem which will continue to appeal to human mind for time to come. It is indisputable that a scientific theory like the one propounded by Einstein is not without its philosophical import as it lays its impress on the future growth of literature. But to be effective in this respect, science should unfold its principles by appealing to human emotions and not through crude and concrete material facts. Darwin�s theory of Natural Selection in its exposition of the evolution of man by appeal to emotions and imagination of men has been conducive to the growth of nineteenth century literature. Mans emotional attitudes to life and vicissitudes of his fortune are colored not only by his inherited instincts and faith in his fate but also by his hope in point of longevity of life and betterment of future prospects. Oriented by a scientific theory, they give a colour to literature.

Literature feeds the emotional and imaginative hunger of man in this perspective science will not oust literature but enrich it by its impact on human life. Science can provide amenities of life for human comfort but fails to lend or impart spiritual pleasure Delight that literature instills in man far transcends the comforts which science provides. (a) What is the basic contribution of science to humankind? (b) What aspect of human life is fulfilled by works of literature? (c) How have Darwin�s and Einstein�s theories proved conducive to the growth of literature? (d) How is science friendly and not hostile to the growth of literature? (e) Briefly enumerate the key ideas in the passage. 3. Make a precis of the following passage in your own words in about 220 to 240 words. Marks will he deducted if the precis is not written on the separate precis sheets provided

and if it is longer or shorter than the prescribed limit. State the number of words used by you in the precis at its end and securely fasten the precis-sheets inside the answer-book. (75)

Gautama, the Buddha, has suffered as much as anyone from critics without a sense of history. He has been cried up, and cried down, with an equal lack of historical imagination�. Buddhism came to be widely known in the west in the latter part of the 19th century when a wave of scepticism spread over the world as a result of the growth of science and enlightenment. Positivism, agnosticism atheism and ethical humanism found wide support. In much of the literature of doubt and disbelief, the name of Buddha is mentioned with respect. The humanists honour him as one of the earliest protagonists of their cause- the happiness the dignity, and the mental integrity of mankind.

Those who declare that man cannot know reality and others who affirm that there is no reality to know, use his name. Agnostics quote his example. Social idealists, ethical mystic�s rationalist prophets are all attracted by his teaching. Great as is the value of the Buddha�s teaching for our age, we cannot hope to understand its true significance without reference to the environment in which he lived. This effort of historical imagination is not easy. To view the Buddha as a thinker of the sixth century B.C., living, moving and teaching in its peculiar conditions, is a task of extreme difficulty and delicacy; and the work of reconstruction can never be complete. But we may be reasonably certain that it yields a picture which in its main outlines, at least, must correspond fairly well to the reality. The supremacy of the ethical is the clue to the teaching of the Buddha. His conceptions of life and the universe are derived from his severely practical outlook. The existence of everything depends on a cause. If we remove the cause, the effect will disappear. If the source of all suffering is destroyed, suffering will disappear. The only way in which we can remove the cause of suffering is by purifying the heart and following the moral law. Man is not divine but is to become divine. His divine status is something to be built up by good thoughts, good words, and good deeds. The ego consists of the feelings that burn us, of the passions we brood over, of the desires that hunt us and of the decisions we make. These are the things that give life its dramatic character. There is nothing absolute and permanent in them.

That is why we can become something different from what we are. The reality of the person is the creative will. When we deny the clamour of emotions, stay the stream of things, silence the appetites of body, we feel the power of self within our own being. For the Buddha, the impulse to dharma, to justice and kindliness is operative in things, and its efficient activity will mean the reduction of disorder, cruelty and oppression. Dharma is organic to existence and its implication of karma or right action is the builder of the world. There is not in the Buddha�s teaching that deep personal loyalty, passion of love, and intimate dialogue between soul and soul resembling closely in its expression of earthly love. And yet the essence of religion, the vision of a reality which stands beyond and within the passing flux of immediate things, the intuitive loyalty to something larger than and beyond oneself, and absolute active in the world, is in him. We find in Gautama, the Buddha, in powerful combination, spiritual profundity and moral strength of the highest order and a discreet intellectual reserve.

He is one of those rare spirits who bring to men a realization of their own divinity and make the spiritual life seem adventurous and attractive, so that they may go forth into the world with a

new interest and a new joy of heart. While his great intellect and wisdom gave him comprehension of the highest truth, his warm heart led him to devote his life to save from sorrow suffering humanity. The greatness of his personality, his prophetic zeal, and burning love for suffering humanity made a deep impression on those with whom he lived; but his true greatness stands out clearer and brighter as the ages pass, and even the sceptical minded are turning to him with a more real appreciations a deeper reverence and a truer worship. He is one of those few heroes of humanity who have made epochs in the history of our race, with a message for other times as well as their own.

4. (a) Correct the following sentences: (10) (i) Too great a variety of studies destruct the mind. (ii) The whole fleet of their ships were captured (iii) Each of these students have done their work. (iv) None but fools has ever believed it. (v) He is one of the cleverest boys that has passed through the school. (vi) My friend, philosopher and guide have come. (vii) The majority are opposed to this proposal. (viii) He told me that he saw his father last month. (ix) If he would have worked hard, he would have passed the examination. (x) Unless he will be more careful, he will not recover. (b) Add the suffix �able� or �ible� to each of the following words making necessary changes in spelling. Write out the �new� words. (10) (i) Advice (ii) Contempt (iii) Force (iv) Access (v) Value (vi) Reduce (vii) Discern (viii) Agree (ix) Detach (x) Reverse

(c) Use the following phrases in your own sentences so as to bring out their meaning: (5) (i) Apple of discord (ii) A bolt from the blue (iii) A feather in one�s cap (iv) Achilles� heel (v) A man of letters 5. (a) Which of the two words within brackets in the following sentences is correct in the context? (10) (i) Poets often (sore, soar) to great heights of imagination. (ii) Knowledge (proceeds, proceeds) from the Goddess of Learning. (iii) The tower was struck by (lightning, lightening) and fell down.

(iv) Kanpur lies on the air (rout, route) to Calcutta. (v) Everyone is (jealous, zealous) of him. (vi) The crocodile emerged from the river and (seized, ceased) a goat. (vii) He was found in (collusion, collision) with the plotters. (viii) Wicked persons are not (illegible, eligible) for responsible posts. (ix) He is a man of (lose, loose) character. (x) The Emperor is staying at the royal (mansion, mention).

(b) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a noun and then as a verb: (10) (i) Book (ii) Bare (iii) Clam (iv) Drive (v) Face

(c) Change the following sentences into Indirect Speech: (10) (i) He said, �I am too ill to speak now.� (ii) The policeman said to the man, �Where are you going?� (iii) She said to her children, �Let me work undisturbed.� (iv) He said to the students, �Do not sit here.� (v) He said, �May god pardon the sinner.�

ESSAY - 2005 Write an essay on any one of the following topics: 1. Justice must reach the poor 2. The hand that rocks the cradle 3. If women ruled the world 4. What is real education? 5. Terrorism and world peace 6. Food security for sustainable national development


English - 2006 (Main) (Compulsory) 1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: (100) (a) Social Impact of Black Money (b) Women Combat Forces (c) Internet as Virtual Library (d) Fashion Boom in India (e) Are we Aggressive and Rude People?

2. Read the passage carefully and write your answers to the following questions in clear, correct and concise language (5 x 15 = 75) There is no reason to believe that there are fundamental differences between the East and the West. Human beings are everywhere human and hold the same deepest values. The differences which are, no doubt, significant, are related to external, temporary social conditions and are alterable with them. East and West are relative terms. They are geographical expressions and not cultural types. The differences among countries like China, Japan and India are quite as significant as those among European or American countries. Specific cultural patterns with distinctive beliefs and habits developed in different regions in relative isolation from one another. There were periods when China and India were pre-eminent in cultural affairs, others when Western nations became dominant. For the last four centuries Western nations aided by scientific development have dominated the East. The world has now reached a state of inter-communication. All societies are fast becoming industrialized and new sets of values are springing up. We are called upon to participate in the painful birth of a new civilization. If we are to live together in peace we must develop international cooperation and understanding.

It is for the political leaders to determine the practical steps by which the sources of power and communication now available to us can be used for closer cooperation and friendliness among the people of the world. No political understanding can be made permanent without understanding at the cultural level. Apart from its intrinsic importance, such understanding contributes to the enrichment of human experience. Facile generalizations are made by philosophers of history which are highly misleading. Hegel in his Lectures on the philosophy of History says that �Persia is the land of light; Greece the land of grace; India the land of dream; Rome the land of Empire,�

(a) What does the passage say about cultural differences in different regions? (b) What comments does the author make about the similarities and dissimilarities between the East and the West? (c) What, according to the passage, is the role of communication in building up a new civilization? (d) How will cultural understanding at the international level benefit human societies? (e) Why does the author call the statements of Hegel �facile generalization�?

3. Make a precis of the following passage keeping the length within the limits of 230-240 words. It is not necessary to suggest a title. Failure to write within the word limit may

result in deduction of marks. The precis must be written on the separate precis sheets provided for the purpose that must then be securely fastened inside the answer book. Clearly state the number of words in the precis at the end. (75) We all show our feelings on issues by the way we look and react. This has been referred to as body language. We tend to lean forward, hand on chin when we are interested, or turn away when disinterested. Our hands and arms can indicate we are open to what is being said by being relaxed, or show that we are not by being clenched or crossed. We are, therefore, making body pictures of what we feel and think all the time. Indeed people who are taking to us can often get as much information from our body posture as from what we say of how we say it. We might calmly but show we are anxious by moving from foot to foot or by blushing. It is hard to control one�s behavioural reactions, for it is more of a stimulus response reaction than the words we use. Nevertheless through training it is feasible to portray the image you want to others. With the advent of television as a major political medium there is a lot of effort going into grooming representatives of organizations and particularly chief executives to control their gestures and gesticulations. All this may sound as if you need to be a good actor in order to be successful at conversation control. The answer is, in one sense you do. There is no use in saying one thing and doing another. The actual visual behaviour of shaking your head, for example while saying yes will deafen the words. Those who are effective at conversation control act in a congruent way. Their behaviour matches their words. You can see they mean what they say. They present an authentic picture because their visuals match their verbals. With practice it is possible to improve performance in conversation without adding any more words. The improvement can come because you improve your visual gestures and gesticulations. For example, you can encourage another person by smiling when he/she says something that pleases you. Indeed the smile is a very powerful gesture. It can switch people �on and off� if done at the appropriate time. Psychologists refer to the laws of conditioning and reinforcement. To be skilled in conversation control you need to know and apply these laws. Conditioning means having an effect on someone�s behaviour by introducing a condition that either encourages or discourages that behaviour. For example, we have all been conditioned to stop when we see a red light at a traffic intersection, and to proceed if we see a green light. People can be conditioned in conversation by such visual cues. For example if you want someone to continue talking, smile and nod at regular intervals. The smile sets up the green light permission as a condition for the other person to speak. The nod reinforces what is being said and gives the unspoken permission to continue. People are very sensitive to such permission cues and clues. If you stop smiling and head nodding, they will usually stop and you can then contribute. Likewise you can influence the attention of people with whom you are talking by the way you use your eyes and hands, particularly when you are addressing a group. To exercise control it is important to make eye contact with one or more people. If it is a group, move your eye contact from time to time so that each person is being conditioned to the fact that it could be their turn next for you to speak to them. Body language and the gestures and gesticulations you make are key aspects of conversation control. Many books have been written on the subject of how our body very often tells others what we are thinking before we have spoken. The visual clues get through much more quickly

than the verbal ones. Also use your hands to emphasize a point or get them to direct the listener�s gaze where you want it to concentrate. The pointed finger or the open palm tells the story. Our task is to line up what we say with what we do and vice versa, if you do clench your fist and are angry, then your words should reflect this. If you are relaxed, happy and smiling, they say no. (words: 705)

4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary correction of errors: (10) (i) Neither percept nor dscipline are so forceful as example. (ii) Do you know if there is a house for letting in the neighbourhood. (iii) Who you said was coming to see me in the morning? (iv) He was finding it increasingly difficult to mike his two ends meet. (v) The poor people of the village buy neither vegetables nor grow them, (vi) On entering the hail, the humber of visitors surprised me (vii) The short story should not exceed more than two hundred words. (viii) Before giving the mixture to the child shake it thoroughly. (ix) Nothing has or could be more tragic than his death. (x) The reason that the students these days are so undisciplined is that they do not get any guidance from their parents. (b) Fill in the blanks with appropriate preposition/particle and rewrite the completed sentences: (5) (i) I told him that he could not catch a big fish __________ a small rod. (ii) He was taken __________ task for shortage in cash balance. (iii) The father pulled ___________ his son for his extravagant habits. (iv) He is so clever, it is difficult to see __________ his tricks. (v) I have been invited by my friend __________ tea.

(c) Choose the appropriate verb form to fill in the blanks and rewrite the sentences: (5) (i) The efficiency of a plant ________ by the load it can take. (A) knows (B) is known (C) has been known (D) has known (ii) Everyday last week my aunt _______ a plate. (A) breaks (B) was broken (C) broke (D) has broken (iii) If I _________ one more question, I would have passed. (A) had answered (B) would have answered (C) would answer (D) has broken (iv) He promised _______________ me a post in his department. (A) to have given (B) having given (C) have given (D) to give (v) Please don�t ______________ when you go out.

(A) leave opening the door (B) leave the door open (C) Leave the door opened (D) leave open the door

(d) Change the following sentences into Indirect Speech: (5) (i) He said, �I will not approve of such a behaviour in future.� (ii) He said on the telephone, �We kept on doing our work till late night.� (iii) She said, �As your mother is ill, you must go home at once.� (iv) Ram said to Sita, �Do you intend to come with me to the forest?� (v) The child said to the Sherpa, �Why didn�t you choose to climb to the Moon?�

5. (a) Fill in the blank with an appropriate derivative of the word given within brackets & rewrite the sentences: (10) For example: It has been raining (continue) continuously for two days. (i) She had few rights but all the (responsible) _______ of her work. (ii) Women chose not to vote (machine) ____________ at the bidding of their men folk. (iii) In South Africa, certain areas are (exclude) __________ meant for white people. (iv) The Pathans of the Frontier are (descend) __________ of Genghis Khan. (v) The court ordered him a heavy fine and (prison) ____________ of 3 years. (vi) India lodged a complaint with Pakistan for (courage) ________ terrorism in Kashmir. (vii) Candidates with Graduate degrees in (Human) _________and Arts prefer office jobs. (viii) Despite ne call for ceasefire, the war continued (abate) __________. (ix) A creative person is known for his (source) ___________ and flexibility. (x) The police could not control the situation as the protesters (number) _________ them manifold.

(b) Make sentences using the following words as directed so as to bring out the meaning: 10 (i) Pitch (as noun and verb) (ii) Mirror (as noun and verb) (iii) Humble (as adjective and verb) (iv) In (as adverb and preposition) (c) Use the following phrases/idioms in sentences so as to bring out the meaning: (5) (i) bell the cat (ii) thank one�s stars (iii) be on tenterhooks (iv) true to one�s salt colours (v) come ant with flying

ESSAY - 2006 Write an essay on any one of the following topics 1. Women�s Reservation Bill Would Usher in Empowerment for Women in India. 2. Protection of Ecology and Environment is Essential for Sustained Economic Development. 3. Importance of Indo-U.S. Nuclear Agreement. 4. �Education For All� Campaign in India: Myth or Reality. 5. Globalization Would Finish Small-Scale Industries in India. 6. Increasing Computerization Would lead to the Creation of Dehumanized Society.



1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: (100) (a) Heritage Tourism is Good for Us (b) Importance of a Work-Ethic (c) Should Mercy-Killing be Legalized for Terminally ill Patients? (d) The Culture of Modesty (e) �Eternal Vigilance is the Price of Liberty�. 2. Read the passage carefully and write your answers to the following questions in clear, correct and concise language: (5 x 15 = 75) An educated man should know what is first-rate in those activities which spring from the creative and intellectual faculties of human nature, such as literature, art, architecture and music. I should like to add science and philosophy, but in these two subjects it is difficult for any but the expert to estimate quality, and many educated people have not the close knowledge necessary to judge their real worth. On the other hand everyone has close and daily contact with the other four. Architecture surrounds him in every city, literature meets him on every book-stall, music assails his ears on his radio set and from every juke-box; and art in its protean aspects of form and colour is a part of daily life. The architecture may often be bad, the literature and music often puerile, the art often undeserving of the name; but that is all the more reason why we should be able, in all of them, to distinguish good from bad. To judge by the literature offered us in hotel book-stands, and by most of the music played on the radio and by jukeboxes we might be more discriminating in these fields than we are if it be said that music and art and literature are not essentials of life but. its frills, I would reply that if so, it is curious that they are among the few immortal things in the world, and that should a man wish to be remembered two thousand years hence, the only certain way is to write a great poem or book, compose a great symphony, paint a great picture, carve a great sculpture, or build a great building. (a) What is it that is necessary for an educated person to know? (b) Why does the author exclude science and philosophy from it? (c) What makes it practically easy for an educated man to be able to know literature, art, architecture and music? (d) How does exposure to ordinary literature and music help us? (e) What is the author�s argument to prove that music, art and literature are essentials of life? 3. Make a précis of the following passage keeping the length within the limits of 230-240 words. It is not necessary to suggest a title. Failure to write within the word limit may result in deduction of marks. The précis must be written on the separate précis sheets

provided for the purpose that must then be securely fastened inside the answer book. (75) What part should reading play in our lives? It should certainly not be a substitute for action, not for independent thinking, nor for conversation; but it may be a help and stimulant to action;

thought and talk; and it is capable of providing almost infinite pleasure. There on our bookshelves or on summons from a library are wits, wisdom, adventure, romance from all ages and from all over the world. Is there any wonder that our eyes sometimes stray wistfully to the bookshelves and away from a dull visitor, or that we shirk a tiresome duty for an exciting book?

Books or people? Reading or conversation, listening in to a broadcast or watching a television programme? Which is the better way to gain knowledge or to spend your leisure? Some fortunate people seem always to find time for both and to enjoy both almost equally. My great friend, Arthur Wanchope, a fine soldier, an able administrator and a very gifted personality, was a constant reader; yet always ready to lay aside a book for talk.

The advantages of reading over talk are, of course, many. We can select the book that suits our mood, can go at our own pace, skip or turn back whereas we cannot turn over two pages of a tedious companion or close him or her, with a bang. But reading too has its own drawbacks. It lacks the human touch, the salt of life, and is therefore a dangerous substitute for thought or action. Bacon in one of his essays observes that reading maketh a full man; conference (that is talking) a ready man; and writing an exact man. One would like to be full of knowledge, ready in speech and exact by training. What short of books have impressed me and what books have found a permanent place on my bookshelves? To begin with my profession-soldiering. I do not believe that soldiering, a practical business, in which human nature is the main element, can be learnt from text-books. But for those who have grasped the principles of war and have understood that the human factor is the most important element in it. There is military reading that is quite fascinating and valuable. Real and re-read the campaigns of the great commanders, said Napoleon. I would venture to put it differently and would say that the lives and characters of the great commanders are what students of war should examine, since their campaigns are only incidents in them; and that the behaviour of leaders and of their men in the field is the real subject for study.

In my general reading history, biography and travel occupy a prominent place; and since I have spent a considerable proportion of my life in the East there are a good number of volumes on India and the Middle East. There is plenty of poetry on my shelves and a good deal of it is in my head. Poetry should dance in the mind, and blow one a kiss; or gallop to adventure with a cheer; or whisper gently of things past; not shuffle or slouch past with dark incomprehensible mutterings. Perhaps I am getting old, anyway I prefer the old poets. Lastly comes what is sometimes called �escapist literature, the books we read with no other aim, than to rest or amuse the mind; to forget the day�s chores and the morrow�s anxieties. This is perhaps the most pleasant form of reading for most, and I suspect the only form of reading for many. The volume chosen may either be a thriller or soother � a thriller to bring sense of adventure into the dull daily routine or a soother to rest tired nerves. Our grandfathers in their leisurely days were content with the stately, comfortable three volume novel, but that had passed before the beginning of this century.

You will choose your books as you choose your friends, with taste and discrimination; I hope; because they can tell you something of your profession and interests, because they are wise and

helpful, because they can stir your blood with tales of adventure, or because they are gay and witty. I can only wish you will get as much pleasure from them as I get from my books. (Words: 703)

4. (a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary correction of errors: (10) (i) The Greeks were brave peoples. (ii) His hat was blown off by the strong air. (iii) I am the one who am to blame. (iv) We should sympathies with blind. (v) I�d rather play cricket and not swim. (vi) Walking through the front door a wasp stung him. (vii) Two plus nine are eleven. (viii) I have built the house in 1960. (ix) Their wedding has not been a very happy one. (x) Choose only such friends whom you can trust. (b) Rewrite the following sentences, inserting suitable articles where necessary: (5) (i) What kind of ______ animals is it? (ii) He will return in _____ hour. (iii) He is ______ richest man in our street. (iv) Gold is not ______ useful metal. (v) While there is ______ life there is hope. (c) Form Verbs from the following Nouns: (5) (i) Courage (ii) Memory (iii) Prison (iv) Class (v) Friend (d) Put the verbs in bracket in the correct tense and rewrite the following: (5) India (have) many calendars which Indians (use) since very early times. More than thirty (be) still in use. One difficulty about having so many calendars (be) that the same date (fall) on different days according to each. 5. (a) Use each of the following words in two separate sentences, first as a Noun and then as a Verb: (10) (i) Bank (ii) Battle (iii) Bite (iv) Brave (v) Brush

(b) Change the following sentences into their corresponding (a) Negatives and (b) Questions: (10) (i) Ram resembles his father.

(ii) Raju studies French. (iii) The bicycle costs Rs. 500. (iv) The thief broke the window open. (v) My mother has a beautiful umbrella. (c) Use the following phrases/idioms in sentences so as to bring out the meaning: (5) (i) The Lion�s share (ii) Close shave (iii) At daggers drawn (iv) (To) die in harness (v) (To) eat one�s words ESSAY - 2007 Write an essay on any one of the following topics 1. Independent thinking should be encouraged right from the childhood. 2. Evaluation of Panchayati Raj Systems in India from the point of view of eradication of poverty to power to people. 3. Attitude makes habit, habit makes character and character makes a man. 4. Is autonomy the best answer t0 combat balkanization? 5. How has satellite television brought about cultural change in the Indian mindset? 6. BPO boom in India.

General Studies - 1998 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300 Candidates should attempt questions from all the Section I, II, and III. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. SECTION- I 1. Did Jawaharlal Nehru really 'speak' the 'language' of Gandhi? Locate the points of their agreements and departures. OR How did economic nationalism mirror the work of the early nationalist leadership in India? (About 250 words) 35

2. Answer any two of the following : 15 x 2 =30 (About 150 words on each)

(a) Why did the moderates lose appeal with the Indians and failed to elicit desired response from the British?

(b) How did the Policy of free trade hurt Indian textile industry and crafts in the latter half of the 19th century?

(c) Trace the origins of the R.N.I. Mutiny and evaluate its impact on the political situation in India.

3. Answer any three of the following : 10 x 3 =30 (About 75 words on each)

(a) Examine the ideas of Rabindranath Tagore on democracy.

(b) How did the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal influence the nationalist politics?

(c) What was the significance of the Prajamandal movements in the Indian States in the decade preceding India's independence?

(d) Assess the role of C. Rajagopalachari during the pre-partition years of Indian public life.

4. (a) What do you know about the following : 2 x 15 =30 (About 20 words on each)

(i) Nil Darpan (ii) Sarda Sadan (iii) Sabarmati Ashram (iv) Hunter Commission (v) Bandi Jiwan

(b) Why have the following become famous? (vi) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (vii) Seth Jamanlal Bajaj (viii) S. Satyamurti (ix) Udham Singh (x) Sarojini Naidu

(c) Write about the chief fatures of the following : (xi) Kulu School (xii) Gopuram (xiii) Wahabi Movement (xiv) Bharat Dharma Mahamandal (xv) Communal Award

SECTION II 5. Examine the reasons for the non-introduction of Women's Reservation Bill in the LokSabha. (About 250 words) 35 OR Discuss the implications of Israel's expansion plan. How have the major western powers reacted to it ? (About 250 words)

6. Attempt any three of the following : 10 x 3 =30 (About 100 words on each)

(a) Examine the fall out of population explosion in India at the close of twentieth century.

(b) Discuss the justification for the creation of new states in U.P. and Bihir.

(c) What are the reasons for the slow progress of SAPTA?

(d) Describe the problem of KOSOVO.

(e) What is ASEAN PLUS? What is its nature and duty?

7. Attempt any five of following : 6 x 5 =30 (About 50 words on each)

(a) What were the circumstances leading to the promulgation of Prasar Bharati ordinance in August 1998?

(b) Who has claimed the responsibility for the recent bomb attacks on American embassies

at Nairobi and Dar Es Salam? What are their demands?

(c) What is the significance of Pope John Paul II's visit to Cuba?

(d) What are the significant features of Lokpal Bill recently introduced in the Lok Sabha?

(e) Why was a variant of Basmati rice in news recently?

(f) What solution has been arrived at recently in the Cauvery water dispute?

(g) Bring out the issues involved in the appointments and transfer of judges of the Supreme Court and high Courts in India.

8. (a) Explain the following : 2 x 15 =30 (About 20 words on each) (i) Netizens (ii) Shehab-3 (iii) Planet-B (iv) W.H.O. (v) Greenpeace

(b) What do you know about the following? (vi) Chattisgarh (vii) Article 356 (viii) Bentota (ix) Narmada Sagar dam (x) Full monty (xi) Pamirs (xii) Nelson Mandela (xiii) Bacharuddin Jusul Habibie (xiv) E.M.S. Namboodripad. (xv) Jnanpith Award

SECTION III 9. The total population of a country is 357 million of which 62 million live in urban areas. Of these who live in rural areas, 234 million are agriculturists including 124 million earning members. Among the urban population, 12 million are agriculturists of which 7 million are earning members. Among the non-agriculturist rural population 43 million are earning are earning members whereas among non-agriculturist urban people 14 million are non-earning members. Represent the above information in a tabular form. 12

10. (a) The following table shows annual profits (Rs. in crores) of two investment companies A and B during the given 5 years : 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 A : 70 60 70 60 70 B : 60 50 60 80 80 If someone plans to invest Rs. 50,000, which of the two companies should be preferred and why ? 8

(b) An investor bought shares of a company at a premium of Rs. 20. If the par value of the share is Rs. 120 and the company declares 21% dividend in a given year, find the rate of

interest received by the investor.

11. (a) Mention, in each of the following cases, the most appropriate diagram to represent the data : 5 (i) Number of AIDS patients in a country detected during the last 10 years. (ii) Monthly production of eggs in a poultry farm in a given yaer. (iii) Yearly export and import (in dollars) of a multinational firm during the period from 1990 to 1997. (iv) Distribution of weights of 500 school children in the age group 15-18 years. (v) Political party-wise percentage of votes cast during a parliamentary election.

(b) The following table shows the IQ scores of adolescents aged 15-17 years:

Interval Frequency 121 and above 15 116-120 35 111-115 50 106-110 60 101-105 100 96-100 75 91-95 70 86-90 60 81-85 25 80and below 10

Find : (i) the cut-off point above which 25% most intelligent adolescents fall. (ii) the cut-off point below which the 25% least intelligent adolescents fall. 8

12. (a) State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons. 6 (i) A person's monthly income first increases by 20% and then decreases by 20% . There is no net change in his income. (ii) All facts expressed numerically pertain to statistics. (iii) If A stands 50 % change of getting through Test I and Test II independently, then A stands at least 50 % chance of getting through both the tests. (b) The following is the series of index numbers taking 1992 as base year : Year :- 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 Index :- 100 120 135 170 180 210 How would the index numbers be changed if 1993 is taken as base year? 7

General Studies - 1998 (Main) (Paper - II)


Candidates should attempt questions from all the Section I, II, and III. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION- I 1. (a) Briefly state the stages through which the present position of the Directive Principles vis-Ã¯Â¿Â½-vis the Fundamental Rights has emerged. (About 250 words) 40 OR (b) Explain the concept of Ã¯Â¿Â½Prime Ministerial GovernmentÃ¯Â¿Â½ and account

for its decline in recent times in India. (About 250 words) 40

2. (a) Ã¯Â¿Â½The past 50 years of development in India were characterised by planning but the next 50 years of development would be led by the market.Ã¯Â¿Â½ Comment.

(About 250 words) 40 OR (b) How is absolute poverty line measured? What are the important measures taken by the Government to eradicate rural poverty in India? (About 250 words) 40

3. (a) What is remote sensing? What are its uses especially in the Indian context? (About 250 words) 40 OR (b) What is genetic engineering? Why is it getting increasingly important these days ? (About 250 words) 40

4. Answer any TWO of the following :- (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words) 20+20

(a) Highlight the significance of the Seventy-third Amendment to the Constitution of India.

(b) How are the States formed in India? Why have the demands of separate States like those of Vidarbha, Telangana etc. not been considered by the Government recently?

(c) On what grounds the Legislative Councils are justified? How is it created or abolished in a State?

(d) Differentiate and state the significance of general election, mid-term election and by-election.


(a) What are the main reasons for industrial sickness in India? How can it be overcome?

(b) Ã¯Â¿Â½Infrastructure bottlenecks continue to stifle the economic growth in

India.Ã¯Â¿Â½ Comment.

(c) Comment on the view that Monetary Policy in India is used more as a stabilisation device rather than as a development tool.

(d) What has been the role of NRIs in the economic development of India in the recent past?


(a) What are the geo-economic causes of underdevelopment of various regions in India?

(b) Which parts of India have been identified as draughtprone? Mention the norms for such identification.

(c) Describe the changes that have taken place in the direction of international trade of India since independence.

(d) How do the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep differ in the geological ecvolution and topographical conditions?


(a) Describe the development of Super-computers in India.

(b) How does the development of Pinaka benefit India?

(c) What are optical fibres? What are their advantages?

(d) What are enzymes? What is their importance?

8. Answer FOUR questions from Group A, THREE from Group B and THREE from Group C :- (Answer to each question should be in about 25 words) 10x3=30

GROUP-A (a) What is meant by Mutual Fund?

(b) Explain per capita income as a measure of economic growth.

(c) What is meant by Ã¯Â¿Â½Quality of lifeÃ¯Â¿Â½?

(d) What constitutes a Minor Irrigation Project?

(e) What is meant by Environmental Impact Assessment?

(f) What is the difference between Gross National Product and Net National Product?

GROUP-B (a) What is meant by Ã¯Â¿Â½Protem SpeakerÃ¯Â¿Â½?

(b) Point out the constitution and functions of the Central Vigilance Commission.

(c) State the amplitude of Art. 21 of the Constitution.

(d) Which of the cases regarding disqualifications for Membership of either House of Parliament are decided by the President?

(e) Differentiate between Parliamentary Secretary and Lok Sabha Secretary.

(f) What is a Privilege Motion?

GROUP-C (a) Why are transgenic organisms important?

(b) State the importance of Antrix Corporation.

(c) Why is Website getting popular?

(d) What do the following stand for? (i) C-CAD (ii)ICMR (iii) TRAI

(e) Give the functions of interferons.

(f) What is the difference between E-mail and Fax?



INSTRUCTIONS Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English.

Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the

purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance

with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Q.1. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) : - 30 (a) Trace the origin of the Swadeshi Movement. How did it involve the masses (b) What was Mountbatten Plan ? Discuss the reactions of Gandhi and Azad to the Plan.

Q. 2. Answer any TWO of the following (About 150 words each):- 15 x 2 = 30 (a) Who established the Arya Samaj ? What was its goal ? (b) How did the terrorist movement gather strength in countries other than India? (c) Was Jawaharlal Nehru justified in adopting the principle of non-alignment as the corner-stone of India's foreign policy ?

Q. 3. Answer the following (About 20 words each) : - 2 x 15 = 30 (i) Brahmagupta (ii) Amir Khusro (iii) William Jones (iv) C.F. Andrews (v) Narayan Guru (vi) Tantia Tope (vii) Sayyid Ahmad (viii) Margaret Noble (ix) Sangam Literature (x) Gandhara School of art (xi) Granth Sahib (xii) Fort William College (xiii) Epsom (xiv) Lala Amarnath (xv) Tiger Woods.

Q. 4. Answer any TWO of the following (About 125 words each):- 2 x 10 =

20 (a) Mention the agro-climatic regions of India stating the basis of classification. (b) Explain the major racial groups of India. (c) What is waste land ? Write a note on prospects of waste land development in India.

Q. 5. Write notes on the following (About 20 words each) :- 5 x 2 = 10 (i) Linguistic regions of India (ii) Nagarjunasagar Project (iii) Mango Showers (iv) Multi-level planning in India (v) India's Laterite soils.

Q. 6. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words):- 30 (a) Examine the need for the review of the Indian Constitution. (b) Examine the demand for greater State-antonomy and also its impact on the smooth functioning of the Indian polity.

Q. 7. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) :- 30 (a) How does Parliament control the Union Executive ? How effective is its control ? (b) What constitutes the doctrine of 'basic features' as introduced into the Constitution of India by the Judiciary ?

Q. 8. Answer any TWO of the following (About 150 words each) :- 15 x 2 = 30 (a) Identify, the major electoral reforms which are necessary in the Indian Political System. (b) Examine the role of Estimates Committee. (c) Discuss the major extra-constitutional factors influencing the working of federal polity in India.

Q. 9. Answer the following (About 20 words each) :- 5 x 2 = 10 (a) What is vote on account ? (b) What is a Caretaker Government ? (c) Do you justify the Prime Minister's entry into Parliament through the Rajya Sabha ? (d) What is a Privilege Motion ? (e) What is Contempt of Parliament ?

Q.10. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) :- 30 (a) Discuss the provisions of the Human Rights Protection ACt (1993) relating to the following :- (i) Definition of human rights. (ii) Composition of the National Human Rights Commission.

(iii) Functions of the Commission. (iv) What suggestions have been made for amending the Act for making the role of the NHRC more effective ? (b) Discuss the propositions laid down by the Supreme Court of India in the context of Torture in Prisons and Human Dignity.

Q. 11. Write on any TWO of the following (About 125 words each) :- 2 x 10 = 20 (a) Explain Public Interest Litigation. Who can file it and on what basis can it be rejected by the Court of Law ? (b) Discuss Human Genome. (c) What are the features of the Uttar Pradesh Regulation of Public Religious Buildings and Places Bill, 2000, that have caused widespread protests from minorities ?

Q. 12. Write notes on any TWO of the following (About 125 words each) : 2 x 10 = 20 (a) Universal Postal Union (b) Economic and Social Council (c) Florence Nightingale.

Q.13. Write about the following (About 20 words each) :- 2 x 5 = 10 (a) CRY (b) Baba Amte (c) Ali Sardar Jafri (d) 'Water' (e) Aruna Roy.

General Studies - 2000 (Main) (Paper - 2)


INSTRUCTIONS Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English.

Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the

purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance

with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Q. 1 . Answer any two of the following. (Answer to each question should be in about

150 words) : - 15 x 2 = 30 (a) Discuss Indian-Sri Lankan relations in recent years. (b) India's Kargil victory rested on its successful effort at combining diplomacy with the use of force. Discuss. (c) Differentiate and state the significance of Pokharan I and Pokharan II.

Q. 2. Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10 (a) What does track two diplomacy stand for ? (b) Non-alignment is a need, not a creed, Elaborate. (c) Differentiate between Peace-making and Peace-keeping. (d) What is deterrence ? (e) Why has the indigenous development of Cryogenic Enging become necessary for India ?

Q. 3. Answer the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10 (a) What does the Global organisation of people of Indian origin stand for ? (b) What is the impact of economic sanctions against India on NRIs ? (c) Why is Fiji crisis of May 19, 2000 a specific concern for India ? (d) Examine the role of NRIs in the liberalisation process of India. (e) Mention few NRIs who have brought name and fame for India.

Q. 4. Answer anyone of the following. (Answer should be in about 250 words) 30 (a) India is rapidly emerging as an Information Technology (IT) Superpower. Discuss some aspects of the growth of this Sector in the Indian economy. What role can public policy play in further enhancing growth prospects in this Sector ? (b) Control over growth of population in India is an essential condition for the country's rapid economic development. Discuss.

Q. 5. Answer any two of the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words) : 2 x 15 = 30 (a) Discuss the reasons for the failure of the Seattle Millennium talks on the WTO (World Trade Organisation). Discuss some implications of this failure for the Indian economy. (b) What is (Revised) Targeted Public Distribution System ? What are its main features ? (c) Discuss the economic effects of Black money (Parallel economy) in Indian economy.

Q. 6. Answer the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 15 = 30 (a) What are the main objectives of the 9th Five-Year Plan of the Government of India ? (b) Write a note on MODVAT Scheme of 1986. (c) Explain per capita income as a measurement of economic growth. (d) What are the objectives of Social Security ? (e) What do you mean by 'Parallel Economy' ? (f) Describe the use of 'Command Area Development' in India.

(g) What is ICOR (Incremental Capital Output Ratio) ? (h) What are the main objectives of NABARD ? (i) What do you know about 11th Finance Commission ? (j) What do you mean by revenue deficit in the Central Government's Budget ? (k) How has the Census (1991) defined the Urban Areas ? (1) What are the objectives of New Economic Policy of the Government of India ? (m) Write a note on Rao-Manmohan model of development. (n) What is the rational for 'Mid-day Meal' Scheme ? (o) What has been the impact of the recent economic reforms programme on the incidence of poverty in India ?

Q.7. Answer any two of the following. (Answer to each questions should be in about 150 words) : - 15 x 2 = 30 (a) Define Globalisation and differentiate it with Internationalism. (b) There is a wide-spread concern about the degradation of environment and the problems that go with it. Assess the international response. (c) How can India accommodate her foreign policy principle of 'non-intervention' with the emerging right to 'intervention'

Q. 8. Answer the following. (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10 (a) What are the prospects of CTBT ? (b) Differentiate between Collective security and Cooperative security. (c) What do the following stand for ? (i) MARV (ii) MIRV (iii) ICBM (d) Differentiate between Explosion and Implosion. (e) What do you know about Siachin Dispute ?

Q. 9. Answer the following (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10 (a) What do the following stand for ? (i) SAARC (ii) ASEAN (iii) OIC (b) What is meant by SDI ? (c) Differentiate between SALT and START. (d) What do you know about G-77 ? (e) What is Global Environmental Facility (GEF) ?

Q.10. Answer any one of the following. (Answer should be in about 250 words) 30 (a) What is the significance of the geostationary orbit ?What would happen if it becomes too crowded ? (b) Why is the HIV considered so dangerous ? Why has the spread of the virus proved so

difficult to contain, especially in the poorer countries of the world ?

Q. 11. Answer any two of the following : (Answer to each question should be in about 150 words) : 15 x 2 = 30 (a) How are transgenic plants different from hybrid plants and what is their relevance in modern agriculture ? Elaborate. (b) What are greenhouse gases ? What impact do they have on the Earth's climate and with what consequences ? Elaborate. (c) What is water harvesting ? Describe its relevance in the Indian context.

Q. 12. Answer the following : (Answer to each question should be in about 20 words) 2 x 5 = 10 (a) What does the 'clock speed' of a computer signify ? (b) What do the following stand for ? (i) http (ii) CPU (iii) ROM (vi) BIOS (c) What is a modem and what is it used for ? (d) What is spamming ? (e) How does a computer virus destroy data ?

Q. 13. Answer the following :

(a) The table below shows the number of students in different faculties of a University :

Year Number of Students Total Humanities Science Commerce

1975-76 2810 890 540 4240 1976-77 3542 1363 471 5376 1977-78 4301 1662 652 6615 1978-79 5362 2071 895 8328 1979-80 6593 2752 1173 10518

Represent the data by a suitable diagram. 8

(b) The pie chart below gives the annual production of certain commodities of a State.

If the production of sugar is 3000 tons, find the total production of rice and wheat. 8

Q. 14. Answer the following :

(a) The number of overtime hours worked by 1000 employees of a company during the last six months is as follows : 4 x 2 = 8

Overtime (in hours)

Number of Employees

0-20 401 20-40 226 40-60 182 60-80 74 80-100 43 100-120 38 120-140 20 140-160 9 160-180 5 180-200 2

(i) What is the percentage of employees having worked less than 40 overtime hours during these months ? (ii) What is the percentage of employees having worked for at least 40 overtime hours but less than 100 overtime hours ?

(b) A certain company offered its shares, of par-value Rs 120, at a premium of Rs 20. In the following year a dividend of 21% was declared by the company. Find the rate of interest at the hands of the investor. 8

Q. 15. Answer the following : 2 x 4 =

8 (a) A farmer has a square plot for cultivation. If the length of each side is increased by 10%, then the yield from the plot will increase by 20%. Is it true ? Give reason. (b) A company increased its production 8 times in a period of 3 years. What is the percentage increase per year ? (c) The price of a commodity fell by 25% and then rose by 33.33%. Can we conclude that the current price is 8.33% more of the original price ? Give reason. (d) A group of 150 workers have Rs 72.60. When both the groups are combined, what be the average daily wage ?

General Studies - 2003 (Prelims) (Paper - I)

1. 'A' and 'B'are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist 'C' moves such that ACS is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse The path followed by the cyclist is a circle The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve This type of motion is not possible Correct Answer is (b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle 2. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in Bihar Chattisgarh Jharkhand Orissa Correct Answer is (c) Jharkhand 3. Among the following commodities imported by India during the year 2000-01, which one was the highest in terms of Rupee value? Edible oil Fertilizers Organic and inorganic chemicals Pearls, precious and semi- precious stones Correct Answer is (a) Edible oil 4. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements: 1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol. 2.Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity. Which of these statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both land 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (a) Only 1 5. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? The presence of NaCl increase me rate of setting of Plaster of Paris Gypsum is added to the cement to slowdown its rate of setting. All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts Barium and Strontium are found free in nature Correct Answer is (d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature 6. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct? IPCL is India's largest petrochemical company RIL is the largest private sector company in India MTNL is listed on NYSE

BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time Correct Answer is (c) MTNL is listed on NYSE 7. Which amongst the following States has thehighest population density as per Census-2001 ? Kerala Madhya Pradesh UttarPradesh West Bengal Correct Answer is (d) West Bengal 8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitutionwas added by First Amendment Eighth amendment Ninth Amendment Forty Second Amendment Correct Answer is (a) First Amendment 9. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in theyear 1946? Rajendra Prasad Jawaharlal Nehru Sardar Vallabhai Patel Rajagopalachari Correct Answer is (b) Jawaharlal Nehru 10. The waterfall 'Victoria' is associated with theRiver Amazon Missouri St. Lawrence Zambeji Correct Answer is (d) Zambeji 11. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha 1928)Was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Mahatma Gandhi Vithlbhai J. Patel Mahadev Desai Correct Answer is (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 12. The Kelkar proposals which were in the newsrecently were the recommendations for reforms in the powersector recommendations for tax reforms guidelines for the privatization of publicsector undertakings Guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution and the promotion of cng use Correct Answer is (b) recommendations for tax reforms

Question No : 13 Remaining Question : 137 Answered = 12 Correct = 0 Wrong = 12 Score = 0 13. Consider the following statements: 1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution. 2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961. 3. The second joint sitting of the two House ofIndian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission Repeal) Bill. Which of/these statements is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer is (d) 1,2 and 3 14. Life expectancy is highest in the world in Canada Germany Japan Norway Correct Answer is (c) Japan 15. During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Witley Commission? To review the fitness of India for further political reforms To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India Correct Answer is (b) To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations 16. Octopus is an arthropod an echinoderm a hemichordate a mollusc Correct Answer is (d) a mollusc 17. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body: 1. Swollen Lymph nodes 2. Sweating at night 3. Loss of memory 4. Loss of weight Which of these are symptoms of AIDS? l and 2

2,3 and 4 I,3and4 I,2,3and4 Correct Answer is (d) I,2,3and4 18. Emperor Harsha's southward march was stopped on the Narmada river by Pulakesin-I Pulakesin-ll Vikramaditya-1 Vikramaditya-11 Correct Answer is (b) Pulakesin-ll 19. Under which Article of the Indian constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes in the year 2002)? Article 121 Article 122 Article 123 Article 124 Correct Answer is (c) Article 123 20. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a ) literateur Musician scientist sportsperson Correct Answer is (a) ) literateur 21. Consider the following statements: 1. The Maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 per cent of the paid up capital. 2. Foreign Direct Investment upto 49 per cent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route. Which of these statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both l and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2 22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List-I cricketers) List II (country) A.Barry Rchards 1.England B. Tex Dexter 2.West Indies C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa D. Charlie Griffith 4. New Zealand

5. Australia A-3 B-2 C-5 D-1 A-5 B-1 C-4 D-2 A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2 A-5 B-2 C-4 D-1 Correct Answer is (c) A-3 B-1 C-5 D-2 23. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to orientation shape size spin Correct Answer is (a) orientation 24. Consider the following statements: 1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans. 2.The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another. Which of these statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 25. Which among the following countries has the largest population? Indonesia Japan Pakistan Sudan Correct Answer is (a) Indonesia 26. Assertion A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army. Reason R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

27. Assertion A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India's total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17% Reason R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, textiles and marine products. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true 28. Assertion A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast. Reason R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R'is false 29. Assertion A): The EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade. Reason R): GATT has played a significant role in the liberalisation of the economy. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A 30. Assertion A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in 4 group. Reason R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true 31. Assertion A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain. Reason R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.

You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A 32. Assertion R) : ted when coal burns. The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth. Reason R) : The earth is not a perfect sphere. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true 33. Assertion R): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats. Reason R) : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (c) A is true but R'is false 34. Assertion R) : The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude. Reason R) : The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A 35. Assertion R) : Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers. Reason R) : The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest in very high when

compared to that of temperate forests. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true 36. Assertion R) : In 1916, Maulana Moha-mmad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative council. Reason R) : The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (d) A is false but R is true 37. Assertion R) : Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an Emperor from the north-west frontier. Reason R) :There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A 38. Assertion R) : Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout theyear. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A 39. Assertion A) : Saluva Narasimha put anend to the old dynasty andassumed the royal title. Reason R He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and

disintegration.You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A 40. Assertion A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire. Reason R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a untitled Indian nation. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R'is false A is false but R is true Correct Answer is (b) Both a and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A 41. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita? China India Indonesia Sri Lanka Correct Answer is (b) India 42. Consider the following statements: 1. In Mecedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority. 2. In Kosovo, Serbians are a majority. Which of these statements is / are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 43. Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt Turkey, Syia, Iraq and Yemen Correct Answer is (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt 44. What is the correct sequence of the rivers-Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in

the descending order of their lengths? Godavari - Mahanadi - Narmada - Tapi Godavari - Narmada - Mahanadi - Tapi Narmada - Godavari - Tapi - Mahanadi Narmada - Tapi - Godavari Ã¢â�¬â�� Mahanadi Correct Answer is (b) Godavari - Narmada - Mahanadi - Tapi 45. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by oneper cent, its mass remaining the same, the valueof 'g' on the earth's surface would increase by 0.5 % increase by 2% decrease by 0.5% decrease by 2% Correct Answer is (b) increase by 2 46. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499 The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633 Under the leadership of Duplex, the Frenchoccupied Madras in 1746 Correct Answer is (a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499 47. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact Correct Answer is (d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachiopposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact 48. Consider the following statements : 1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60% 2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001-2002. Which of these statements is / are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 49. Which one of the following statements is correct ? India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world

India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world India is the second largest producer of silk in the world India ranks third in the world in coal production Correct Answer is (b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world 50. Which one of the following statements is correct? Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok sabha can have nominated members There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections Correct Answer is (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister 51. With reference to Government of India's decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment FDI) during the year 2001-02, consider the following statements: 1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in tea sector, the foreign 'firm would have to disin-vest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian partner within four years. 2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, thesingle largest Indian shareholders should havea holding higher than 26%. Which of these statements is / are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 52. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled from the country the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi's treatment to his tribe Correct Answer is (a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi 53. The battle of Dharmat was fought between Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand Babur and Afghans Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas Correct Answer is (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh 54. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India? Kolkata Kochi Mumbai

Visakhapatnam Correct Answer is (b) Kochi 55. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags different codes can be generated by waving i) single flag in a different sequence of colours, or ii) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or iii) three flags in a different sequence of colours. The maximum umber of codes that can be generated is 6 9 15 18 Correct Answer is (c) 15 56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List-I Organisation) List II (Location) A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune Institute of National Integration 4 . Hyderabad 5. Kanpur A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 A-5 B-1 C-4 D-3 A-3 B-4 C-5 D-2 A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3 Correct Answer is (d) A-5 B-4 C-2 D-3 57. Tim Montgomery set .a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in Long Jump 110m Hurdle Race 100m Dash High Jump Correct Answer is (c) 100m Dash 58. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements: 1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery. 2. From Bowman's capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein. Which of these statements is/are correct ? Only l Only 2 Both l and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2 59. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will decrease in size flatten into a disc-like shape increase in size maintain the same size and shape Correct Answer is (c) increase in size 60. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative powers rests with The President of India The Chief Justice of India The Parliament The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs Correct Answer is (c) The Parliament

aper : General Studies - 1999 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt all questions from Section I, II and III.

SECTION I

1. How did Communalism manifest in Indian political scene? Explain the background of the

passing of the momentous Pakistan Resolution. (About 250 words) 35

OR

What were the proposals of the Cabinet Mission ? Analyse there actions of the Congress and the

League to the proposals. (About 250 words) 35

2. Answer any two of the following : (About 150 words on each)

(a) Trace the formation of the Swaraj Party. What were its demands.

(b) 'What began as a flight for religion ended as a war of independence, for there is not the

slightest doubt that the rebels wanted to get rid of the alien government and restore the old order

of which the king of Delhi was the rightful representative.' Do you support this viewpoint?

(c) How far Curzon's policy towards Tibet was influenced by strategic consideration. 15x2=30

3. Answer any three of the following : (About 75 words on each)

(a) Assess the contributions of Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar to the making of modern India.

(b) In what way did Ramakrishna infuse a new vigour and dynamism into Hinduism ?

(c) 'Tagore's poetry is a written record of his religious experience.' Elucidate.

(d) How did Nehru's plan for modernization make rapid stride during the decade 1951-61?

10x3=30

4. (a) Write about the chief features of the following : (About 20 words on each)

(i) Chola architecture (ii) Baisakhi

(iii) Neo-art movement

(b) What do you know about the following ?

(iv) Munda Movement

(v) Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science

(vi) Ilbert Bill (vii) Sarda Act

(viii) Education Despatch of 1854

(c) Why have the following become famous ?

(ix) Rammanohar Lohia (x) C. Y. Chintamani

(xi) Henry Cotton (xii) Tej Bahadur Sapru

(xiii) Veeresalingam P.K. (xiv) Bhulabhai Desai

(xv) Kamladevi Chattopadhyay 2 x 15 =30

SECTION II

5. What are the highlights of the draft nuclear doctrine formulated by the National Security

Advisory Board ? What shortcomings have been pointed out in media reports relating to the

same? (About 250 words) 35

OR

What are the reasons for the recent diplomatic confrontation between the U.S.E. and China?

What specific measures have been taken by the U.S.E. to defuse the tension building up the

Taiwan strait? (About 250 words) 35

6. Attempt any three of the following : (About 100 words on each)

(a) What new type of satellite is proposed to be inducted for bolstering surveillance on India

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Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified

in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-

book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium

other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly

in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each

question is indicated at the end of the question.

Candidate should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with instructions given under each

question.

Q1. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 Marks

a) â��The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every revision

of the Indian electoral system.â�� Comment.

b) Discuss the problem that impeded the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union. How

were these problems tackled?

Q2. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30 Marks

a) â��The mainstay of Mahatma Gandhiâ��s movements was the rural India.â�� Elucidate.

b) Discuss the character of major tribal uprisings in British India in the nineteenth Century.

c) Bring out the ideological basis of the Moderate-Extermist divide in the Indian National Congress.

Q3. Answer the following: (about 20 words ) 15X2=30 Marks

i) Arthasastra

ii) Saranath Pillar

iii) The Jatiya Sarkar of Tamluk

iv) Punnapra-Vayalar

v) Sajjad Zahir

vi) Al-Hilal

vii) Har Dayal

viii) Khudai Khidmatgar

ix) Mahayana Cult

x) W.W. Hunter

xi) Indu Lal Yajnik

xii) Achhut Patwardhan

xiii) Sir William Jones

xiv) James Wilson

xv) Ghulam-giri.

Q4. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2X10=20

a) Describe the major characteristics of the rivers of Peninsular India.

b) Account for the very high concentration of salt extraction industries in the Saurashtra and South

Tamilnadu Coast.

c) State the four distinctive stages of Indian Demographic history.

Q5.write short notes on the following (about 20 words) 5X2=10 i) Define Terai Region.

ii) Mention the areas of Shola forests in India.

iii) Who are the Todas and where do they live?

iv) Name any four priccipal languages of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

v) What is MRTS? Where it is in operation?

Q6. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30

a) Discuss the question of death sentence and Presidential clemency.

b) Explain the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State.

Q7. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30

a) Highlight the signifucance of Forty Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India

b) Identify the major Fundamental Duties

c) Explain the relevance of Rajya Sabha as a second chamber in the federal set up of Indian

Parliamentary System.

Q9. Answer the following: (about 20 words) 2 X5=10

a) What is a point of order? When can it be raised?

b) What is a Privilege Motion?

c) State the difference between Council of Ministers and the Cabinet.

d) How is the Vice President of India elected?

e) What is meant by â��sine-dieâ�� adjournment?

Q10. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30

a) Discuss the steps taken by Government to check child labour and promote child welfare.

b) Suggest measures for the eradication of wide spread corruption in Public Life in India.


a) The issue of gender equality in India.

b) b) Natural Heritage and Cultural Heritage.

c) c) Identify the types of disabilities.


a) What are the distinctive features of the Lokpal Bill introduced in the Parliament this year?

b) What is the Prime Ministerâ��s Five-Point agenda fir Indiaâ��s development as a Knowledge Society?

c) What are the precinditions for the growth of Civil Society? Is Indian democracy conducive to it?

Q13. Write about the following ( about 20 words ) 5X2=10

a) Anthrax

b) Radiation and its effects

c) The Statue of Liberty

d) George Walker Bush

e) Genome.

General Studies - 2003 (Main) (Paper - II)


Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified

in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-

book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium

other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly

in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each

question is indicated at the end of the question.

Q1. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30

a) Discuss the major issues in Indo-US relations in recent times.

b) Discuss the impact of the collapse of the Soviet Union on Indo-Russian relations.

c) Discuss the recent trends in Indiaâ��s relations with China.

Q2. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10

a) Discuss the importance of the Agra Summit on Indo-Pakistan relations.

b) What has been the nature of â��Track II diplomacyâ�� between India and Pakistan.

c) Discuss the major irritants to Indo-Bangladesh relations.

d) Discuss the Indiaâ��s policy towards international terrorism.

e) In what sense in Indo-Nepal cooperation important for both countriesâ�� national security.


a) Under what conditions are NRIs permitted to remit deposits in India in any currency of their choice.

b) How can NRIs be attracted to invest in India?

c) What is the significance of the Pravasi Bhartiya Divas in modern India.

d) In what ways did Idi Amin make life difficult for the people of Indian origin in his country?

e) What is â��Brain drainâ��?

Q4. Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) 30

a) Write a note on the strategy of planning in India since 1951.

b) What were the major recommendations of the Task Force on direct taxes appointed under the

Chairmanship of Shri Vijay L. Kelkar?


a) Outline the important objectives of the Tenth Five Year Plan.

b) What is a Finance Commission?

c) Point out the measures undertaken towards flexibility in capital account transactions during the

recent past.


a) What is Plan Holiday?

b) Why did India have a surplus in current account balance in 2001-02 after a gap of 24 years?

c) What is Value Added Tax?

d) What is the main objective of the Competition Act, 2002?

e) Name the two agencies that have helped to promote Foreign Direct Investment in India.

f) What is the main thrust of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Bill?

g) Highlight the main features of the policy relating to buy-back of shares.

h) Why was Janashree Bima Yojana introduced.

i) When was the idea of Agriculture Insurance Corporation mooted?

j) What is the policy of the Government with respect to child labour?

k) Explain the objectives of the National Health Policy, 2002.

l) What was the main objective of the â��Operation Blackboardâ�� scheme?

m) Explain the essential feature of differential rate of interest scheme.

n) Which are the three major items of expenditure of the Government of India on revenue account?

o) What was the essential feature of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana?


a) What is the â��Vetoâ�� in the UN-system?

b) Discuss the role of the NATO after the end of the Cold War .

c) Discuss the role of the United Nations in the protection and promotion of Human Rights.


a) What do the following Stand for : i) IBRD ii) UNHCR

b) Who is Hans Blix?

c) Why was Davis Kelly in the news recently?

d) What is the problem in Chechnya?

e) What is the significance of the Robin Island?

Q9 Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10

a) What is the significance of Enola Gay in world history?

b) Why is Guantanamo Bay in the news now?

c) What is the theory of â��clash of civilisationsâ��?

d) What does the theory of â��end of historyâ�� menn?

e) Why was Robert Mugabe in the news recently?

Q10 . Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) 30

a) What do you understand by depletion of ozone layer and why is it considered harmful? Name ozone

depleting substances and process. What international ramifications took place to protect the ozone

layer and what was the target agreed upon?

b) What is interactive television? What special advantages and derived by using VOD services? What are

the components of a typical VOD system? Which feature film was generated first entirely on computers

and in which year?


a) What does the Solar system consist of ? discuss the motion of most of the bodies forming the solar

system.

b) In which year and by which countries was International Space Station (IIS) launched?

How many countries are participating in this program? What are the unique studies being made in the

station which could not ve made so accurateky on the earth?

c) Discuss the elements of â��frozen semen technologyâ��. What are â��embryo transferâ��,

â��transgenic animalsâ��, â��DNA recombinant techniqueâ��?


a) What is â��Symathetic Hapticsâ��?

b) What are special feature of â��Linuxâ��?

c) What is an operating system? List the basic services provided by an operating system.

d) What is an â��Internet Wormâ��? Explain DDOS.

e) What do the following stand for :

i) POSIX ii) EPROM iii) MODEM iv) COBOL

Q13. a) In the year 2001 there were 18000 workers in a certain factory, of which 13000 were

members of a trade union. 12% of workers were women and 60% of them were members of the

trade union. In the year 2002 the number of workers increased by 6% of which 480 were women.

At the same time the trade union membership of women fell by 304 while the total membership

increased by 10 %. In the non-members category, the ratio of men and women was 4:1 in this year.

Tabulate this information and supply the missing figures. 8 Marks b) The following table gives the

frequency distribution of height for 180 adult males:Height (in cm)

Frequency

144.5-149.5 3

149.5-154.5 5

154.5-159.5 24

159.5-164.5 54

164.5-169.5 60

169.5-174.5 27

174.5-179.5 4

179.5-184.5 3

Q14. Draw the two ogives (less than and greater than type cumulative frequency curves). Find the

point of their intersection and comment on its significance. 8

a) The mean and variance of a set of 60 observations are 10 and 4 respectively while for a subset of 40

observations these measures are 11 and 2.25 respectively.

Find the mean and variance of the other subset. 8 Marks

b)The three outcomes of an experiment;w1, w2 and w3 are such that w1 is twice as likely to occur as

w3. Find the probability of occurrence of each of the three outcomes. 8 Marks

Q15. a) What are the problems that a statistician encounters in the process of construction of index

number? 2

b)Suppose that the regression line of two random variables y and x given by y=26.38-1.35x and that of x

and y is given by x=16.38-0.45y. find the square of the coefficient of correlation between x and y. 2

c) If the correlation coefficient between two random variables is zero, are the random variables

independent? 2

d) In a certain factory, a unit of work is completed by A in 10 minutes, by B in 20 minutes. What is the

average number of units of work completed per minute? 2

IAS General Studies Main 2007 - Question Paper

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words):

30

(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they

contribute to the national awakening in India?

(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the

constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each): 15Ã�â��2 =

30

(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?

(b) Do you think Mahatma GandhiÃ¢â�¬â�¢s support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his

secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.

(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the

cause of IndiaÃ¢â�¬â�¢s Struggle of independence

1) Arrange in the order of Evolution 1) Upanishads 2) Aranyakas 3) Vedas 4) Brahman a) 3,1,2,4 b) 3,2,1,4 c) 3,4,2,1 d)3,2,4,1 2) Find wrong pair a) Amending process-South Africa b) Fundamental duties- USSR c)Federal natureCanada d)Judicial Review-UK 3)2004 NobelPrize was awrded to 3 Americans Frank Wilezek, David Politzer David Gross for a) Quark Theory b) Quantum Theory c) Sensitivity Theory d) Ultra Effect 4) Arrange according to size of planets in ascending order. 1) Venus 2) Mars 3) Uranus 4) Neptune a) 1,2,3,4 b) 1,2,4,3 c) 2,1,4,3 d 2,1,3,4 5)Find X 5/8, 11/18, x , 47/78 a)17/36 b)19/46 c) 31/63 d) 23/38 6) Masole, a type of shifting cultivation is practiced in a) Malaysia b) Venezula c) Brazil d)Zaire basin 7) I) Jainism split into two sects after first Jaina Council at Pataliputhra. II) Budhism split into two sects after Second Budhist Council at Vaishali a)I True b)II True c)Both True d)Both Wrong 8) What are true about Igneous Rocks? 1) Acid Rocks Contain mostly Silicon. 2) They are normally non crystalline 3) DonÃ¢â�¬â�¢t occur in Layers 4) DonÃ¢â�¬â�¢t contain

fossils a) 1,2,3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,3,4 d) 1,2,3,4 9) I) In Berubari case preamble was held to be not part of Constitution. II) In Kesavanda Bharati case Preamble was held to be part of Constitution. a)I True b)II True c)Both True d)Both Wrong 10) I) James Princep found the Rock Edicts of Ashoka in 1837. II) The edicts were in 4 languages and the main was Prakarit and Written in Brahmi a)I True b)II True c)Both True d)Both Wrong

11) Woodbridge (Australia) won 9th Doubles Title with Bjormanof----- a) Austria b)Russia c) Swedon d) France 12) Vishnugupta was the last Gupta King. Who was the last GREAT Gupta ruler? a)Skandagupta b) Kumaragupta c) Chandragupta II d) Samudragupta 13) What are true about Cirrus Clouds? 1) They are silky by appearance and high clouds 2) They are entirely composed of ice crystals 3) When they are arranged irregular they indicate fair weather. 4) When they are systematically arranged they indicate hot weather. a) 1,2,3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,2,4 d) 1,2,3,4 14) What is wrong about Pacific Ocean? a) Largest and Deepest Ocean b) Continental shelves in Eastern Coast are extensive and on western Coast are less extensive c) There are more scattered ridges d) Its area is more than the land area of the world. 15) Which Fundamental Right is available to Citizens only? a) General Equality b) Religious right c) Right against Exploitation d) Freedom of Residence Answers key: 1)c 2)d 3)a 4)c 5)d 6)d 7)a 8)c 9)c 10)c 11)c 12)a 13)a 14)c 15)d

CSE : General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (1998)

General Studies - 1998 (Prelims)

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 150

1. The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of

(a) Chlorine (b) Ozone (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen

2. Some time back, the Government of India, decided to delicense `white goods' industry. `White

goods' include

(a) stainless steel and alumunium utensils

(b) milk and milk products

(c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption

(d) soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods

3. Examine the following three statements

1. Processed meat is a perishable food.

2. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins.

3. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

(a) Sealed tins always contain perishable food

(b) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins.

(c) Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins. (d) Non-perishable foods are never packed in

sealed tins.

4. What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in descending order of their length

of surface roads per 100 km 2 of their area?

1. Haryana 2. Maharashtra 3. Punjab 4. Tamil Nadu

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1

5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

List I List II

A. Potassium bromide 1. Fertiliser

B. Potassium nitrate 2. Photography

C. Potassium sulphate 3. Bakery

D. Monopotassium tartarate 4. Gunpowder

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 2 1 3

6. The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2, 3, 4 on the rough outline map of Gujarat

are respectively

(a) Patanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and Vadodara

(b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh

(c) Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla

(d) Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Broach

7. The damage to the Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station Mir was due to

(a) collision with a Soyuz cargo ship

(b) faulty material design of the Spektr Module

(c) explosion inside the space station

(d) collision with an asteroid

8. The misery index is the sum of a country's unemployment and inflation rate. The higher the

index, the more miserable a is the country to live in. The figure given below is the Misery Index

for various countries in Europe

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery index given above?

1. Britain is the most miserable country to live in.

2. The inflation rate in Spain is less than than in Belgium and Britain.

3. Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment rate.

4. The higher the misery index the higher the inflation rate.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 alone (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

9. The meeting of G-15 countries held in Malayasia in 1997 was attended by

(a) 14 member countries

(b) 15 member countries

(c) 16 member countries

(d) 17 member countries

10. Olympics 2004 is to be held in

(a) Johannesberg (b) Capetown (c) Rome (d) Sydney

11. Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors?

(a) Cobalt (b) Nickel (c) Zirconium (d) Tungsten

12. The educated middle class in India

(a) opposed the revolt of 1857

(b) supported the revolt of 1857

(c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857

(d) fought against native rulers

13. Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the maximum of our imported

commodities (in terms of rupee value)?

(a) Africa (b) America (c) Asia and Oceania (d) Europe

14. The currency of the proposed European Monetary Union will be

(a) Dollar (b) Euro (c) Guilder (d) Mark

15. Which one of the following was the venue for the preliminary talks between the Sri Lankan

Government and representatives of Tamil United Liberation Front and other militant groups ?

(a) New Delhi (b) Colombo (c) Thimpu (d) Madras

16. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids

1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.

2. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km

3. The orbit of asteroids lies between orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

Of these statements

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 1 and 2 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

17. 'MERCOSUR' consists of group of countries of

(a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Latin America (d) South East Asia

18. Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the major importer of bauxite

from India ?

(a) Canada (b) Greece (c) Ukraine (d) United Arab Emirates

19. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific instruction to

(a) balkanize the Indian sub-continent

(b) keep India united if possible

(c) accept Jinnah's demand for Pakistan

(d) persuade the Congress to accept partition

20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the states (labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of

India shown on the map in descending order in terms of their available ground water-resources

for irrigation?

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 4, 3, 1, 2

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

21. Consider the following statements

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank.

2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.

3. stability of the government of the concerned country.

4. economic potential of the country in question.

Of these statements

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct



Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron.

Its function is to

1. act as a reducing agent.

2. remove silica associated with the iron ore

3. function as fuel, to supply heat.

4. act as an oxidizing agent.

Of these statements

(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct


23. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if

(a) he is able to fulfill his need with a given level of income

(b) he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income

(c) he can fulfill his needs without consumption of certain items

(d) he is able to locate new sources of income

24. Production of Rice and Wheat

(In millions of Tonnes)

Year Rice Wheat Percentage of Wheat to Rice

1950-51 20.58 6.46 31.4

1960-61 34.58 11.00 31.8

1970-71 42.22 23.83 56.4

1980-81 53.63 36.31 67.7

1990-91 74.29 55.14 74.2

1994-95 81.81 65.77 80.4

1995-96 79.62 62.62 78.6

The above table indicates the performance in India in rice and wheat production from 1950-51 to

1995-96. Which of the following conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid?

1. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 1994-95

2. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily increased over 16 years

3. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before 1980.

4. India became self-sufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) None

25. Among the Indian states shown labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given, the

correct sequence of descending order of percent of scheduled tribe population to their total

population is :

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2

26. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan

Railway?

(a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala

(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala

(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra

(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu

27. The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of

(a) producer (b) global economy (c) consumer (d) middle-man

28. Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric group ?

(a) Maratlti (b) Ladakhi (c) Khasi (d) Tamil

29. Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams?

(a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (d) Iron

30. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by

(a) greenhouse effect (b) depletion of ozone laver

(c) EL Nino effect (d) None of the above

31. LMNOP, is semicircle with center at R and diameter LP, LSRand RQP are also semicircles

with centers at T and U and diameters LR= RP =1 /2 LP. The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and

LSRQP us

(a) 0.75: 1

(b) 1:1

(c) 1 : 0.75

(d) 1.25: 1

32. Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their respective location labelled

as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map :


A. Central Drug Research Institute

B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation

C. National Institute of Ocean Technology

D. Temperate Forest Research Centre

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 6

(b) 4 5 1 6

(c) 2 3 4 5

(d) 1 6 2 3

33. Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997 to

(a) Dr. Homi Bhabha (Posthumous)

(b) Former President R. Venkataraman

(c) Satyajit Ray (Posthumous)

(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam

34. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian born woman astronaut Kalpana

Chawla ?

1. She was born in Karnal.

2. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS - 87.

3. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre.

4. She did a space-walk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

35. A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs. 650. He sells A with 20% profit

and B at a loss of 25% and gets the same selling price for both the clocks. What are the

purchasing price of A and B respectively

(a) Rs. 225 ; Rs. 425

(b) Rs. 250 ; Rs. 400

(c) Rs. 275 ; Rs. 375

(d) Rs. 300 ; Rs. 350

36. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following

statements about the fuse is correct ?

(a) It is connected in parallel with the main switch

(b) It is made mainly from silver alloys

(c) It must have a low melting point

(d) It must have a very high resistance

Directions : - The following fourteen items consist of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion

A and the other labelled as 'Reason R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and

decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is

a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select the your answers to these items using the codes

given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes:

(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

37. Assertion A : The Gandhara School of Art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence.

Reason R : Hinayana form was influenced by that art.

38. Assertion A : Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.

Reason R : Formic acid is an organic acid.

39. Assertion A : At first the Turkish administration in India was essentially military.

Reason R : The country was parcelled outas'Iqtas' among leading military leaders.

40. Assertion A : According to Asoka's edicts social harmony among the people was more

important than religious devotion.

Reason R : He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.

41. Assertion A : The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed

through it.

Reason R : Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.

42. Assertion A : The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of the.

National Movement.

Reason R : There was a predominant elements of anti-imperialism in both the National

and Khilafat Movement.

43. Assertion A : Phenyl is used as a household germicide. Phenyl is a phenol derivative and

phenol is an effective germicide.

Reason R : Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide

44. Assertion A : Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates role in the Indian

freedom movement.

Reason R : The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the Extremists from

the Moderates.

45. Assertion A : The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India was

rejected in 1911

Reason R : Discontent would have increased every cultivator could read

46. Assertion A : Sodium metal is stored under kerosene

Reason R: Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air

47. Assertion A : The cngress rejected the cripps proposals

Reason R : The cripps Mission consisted solely of whites

48. Assertion A : The United States of America has threatened to ask the World Trade

Organisation (WTO) to apply sanctions against the developing countries for the non-obsergance

of I.L.O. conventions

Reason R : The United States of America itself has adopted and implemented those I.L.O.

conventions.

49. Assertion A : During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to Balkha,

Badakhshan and Qandahar.

Reason R : The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the Middle-East was a marvellous success

50. Assertion A : Gandhi stopped the Non-Co-operation Movement in 1922.

Reason R : Violence at Chauri Chaura led him to stop the movement.

51. The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth

upwards is

(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Lonosphere, Mesosphere

(b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Lonosphere, Mesosphere

(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Lonosphere

(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Lonosphere

52. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be

required to fill the tank in 5 days'?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 14

(d) 21

53. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched'?

1. Lothal Ancient dockyard

2. Sarnath First Sermon of Buddha

3. Rajgir Lion capital of Ashoka

4. Nalanda Great seat of Buddhist learning


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

54. Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently been connected through a 6-lane

express way ?

(a) Ahmedabad : Vadodra

(b) Dhaka : Chittagong

(c) Islamabad : Lahore

(d) Mumbai : Pune

55. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

List-I List II

A. Ringgit 1. Indonesia

B. Baht 2.Siuth Korea

C. Rupiah 3.Thailand

D. Won 4.Malaysia

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

56. Consumption offish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals

because fish contains

(a) polyunsaturated fatty acids

(b) saturated fatty acids

(c) essential vitamins

(d) more carbohydrates and proteins

57. Consider the following statements Ahadis were those troopers who

1. offered their services singly.

2. did not attach themselves to any chief.

3. has the emperor as their immediate colonel.

4. attached themselves to Mirzas.

Of these statements

(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 2 and 3 are correct

(d) 1 and 4 are correct

58. Out of three annual examinations, each with a total of 500 marks, a student secured average

marks of 45% and 55% in the first and second annual examinations. To have an overall average

of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third annual examination ?

(a) 450

(b) 400

(c) 350

(d) 300

59. When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim government in 1946, Liyaqat

Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of

(a) Foreign affairs

(b) Home

(c) Finance

(d) Defence

60. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve food-

grains to be utilised during the crises in the country ?

(a) Sohagaura Copper-plate

(b) Rummindei pillar-edict of Asoka

(c) Prayaga-Prasasti

(d) Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra

61. According to Meadows(1972), if the present trends in world population industrialization,

pollution, food production and resource depletion continue unchanged, the "Limits to Growth"

on our planet will be reached in the next

(a) 50 years (b) 100 years (c) 150 years (d) 200 years

62. Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human Development Report of the year

(a) 1994 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1997

63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer

List-I (Disease) List II (Organism)

A. Malaria 1. Fungi

B. Poliomyelitis 2. Bacteria

C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus

D. Ringworm 4. Protozoan

A B C D A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 1 2 3 4

64. Consider the following

1. Tughlaquabad fort. 2. Lodi Garden

3. Qutab Minar. 4.Fatehpur Sikri.

The correct chronological order in which they were built is

(a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2

65. Which one of the following satisfied the relationship Dda : aDD :: Rrb: ?

(a) D D A (b) R R R (c) b R R (d) B B r

66. The concept of Eight-fold path forms the theme of

(a) Dipavamsa (b) Divyavadana

(c) Mahaparirubban Sutta (d) Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutra .

67. The recent Land Mines Conference to sign the historic treaty was held in the Capital city of

(a) Canada (b) Japan (c) Sweden (d) Zimbabwe

68. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched

1. Dow Jones New York

2. Hang Seng Seoul

3. FTSE- 100 London


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

69. The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of the country mainly because

(a) the principle of two-Nation theory was then acceptable to them

(b) it was imposed by the British Government and the Congress was helpless in this regard

(c) they wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots

(d) India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom

70. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to

(a) decrease in haemoglobin level (b) rheumatic heart disease

(c) decrease in WBC (d) non-clotting of blood


List-I List-II

A. 1556 1. Battle of Haldi Ghati

B. 1600 2. Nadir Shah's capture of Delhi

C. 1686 3. Death of Shivaji

D. 1739 4. Grant of Charter to East India Company

5. Accession of Akbar

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 5 4 3 2

(c) 5 2 1 4 (d) 1 5 3 2

72. A square pond has 2 in sides and is 1 m deep. If it is to be enlarged, the depth remaining the

same, into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square its diameter its shown in the fixture,

then what would be the volume of earth to be removed ?

(a) (2 p - 4) m 3 (b) (4 p - 4) m 3

(c) (4 p - 2) m 3 (d) (2 p - 2) m 3

73. Match river labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their names given in the list and

select the correct answer

List-I

1. St. Lawrence

2. Orinoco

3. Mackenzie

4. Amazon

5. Yukon

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 5 3 1 2

(c) 5 4 1 3

(d) 3 1 4 2

74. Consider the following statements about acetylene

1. It is used in welding industry.

2. It is a raw material for preparing plastics.

3. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water.

Of these statements

(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

75. At the time of India's Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was

(a) a member of Congress Working Committee (b) not a member of the Congress

(c) the President of the Congress (d) the General Secretary of the Congress

76. A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of9.8 m/s7.

What will be its velocity after 3 seconds'?

(a) 9.8 m/s (b) 19.6 m/s (c) 29.4 m/s (d) 39.2 m/s

77. The economist who was associated with the WTO draft document is

(a) A. K. Sen (b) T. N. Srinivasan

(c) J. N. Bhagwati (d) Avinash Dixit

78. One local and another express train were proceeding in the same direction on parallel tracks

at 29km/hourand65 km/hour respectively. The driver of the former notices that it look exactly 16

seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the faster train?

(a) 60 m (b) 120 m (c) 160 m (d) 240 m

79. In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar's empire at a certain empire : 'A' stands

for an independent country and B' marks the site of a city. Which one of the following

alternatives given all correct information

(a) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Golkunda, (B) Lahore

(b) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Khandesh (B) Multan

(c) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana, (B) Multan

(d) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana, (B) Lahore

80. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellates. These

blooms are called

(a) red tides (b) sea tides (c) black tides (d) sea flowers

81. Consider the following climatic conditions (northern hemisphere) :

Temperature Rainfall

Â°C Cm.

J 3.9 4.7

F 4.4 5.7

M 8.3 8.2

A 14.4 9.2

M 20.0 9.2

J 23.3 17.7

J 27.8 14.5

b 27.8 14.0

S 22.3 12.7

O 18.3 7.0

N 12.2 5.0

D 6.7 3.5

These are most likely to be found in the natural regions of

(a) China type (b) Equatorial type

(c) Hot desert type (d) Monsoon type

82. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order are sitting on six chairs regularly placed

around a round table. It is observed that

A is between D and F, C is opposite D, and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs.

Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring chairs ?

(a) A and B (b) C and E (c) B and F (d) A and C

83. The number of economically active women (excluding students and those doing domestic

duties in their homes) as a percentage of all women of working age (generally those aged 15-64

years) was the highest in 1996 in

(a) USA (b) China (c) Russia (d) S. Korea

84. If in a certain code SAND is VDOG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE

(a) PRYG (b) ORTG (c) NPUH (d) ORYH

85. When there is noon at I.S.T. meridian people on another place of the Earth are taking their at

6 O'clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is

(a) 17Â° 30' E (b) 7Â° 30' W (c) 172Â° 30' E (d) 90Â° W


List I List II

(Special characteristic) (Name of planet)

A. Smallest planet of the 1. Mercury solar system

B. Largest planet of the 2. Venus solar system

C. Planet second from the 3. Jupiter Sun in the solar system

D. Planet nearest to the 4. Pluto Sun

5. Saturn

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 3 5 1 (b) 3 5 1 2

(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 3 2 1

87. The given map relates to :

(a) Kaniska at the time of his death

(b) Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian campaign

(c) Asoka towards close of his reign

(d) Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha's accession

88. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his

daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her

husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother'?

(a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years (d) 60 years

89. The missing fraction in the series given below is

4/ 9, 9 / 20, .... 39 / 86

(a) 17 / 40 (b) 19 / 42 (c) 20 / 45 (d) 29 / 53

90. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions

regarding anti-defection Act '1

(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule (c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule

91. Which one of the following types of micro organisms is most widely used in industries ?

(a) Bacteria (b) Bacteria and Fungi

(c) Bacteria and algae (d) Bacteria, microalgae and fungi

92. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism

because

(a) Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time

(b) they had renounced the policy of war and violence

(c) caste-ridden Hinduism did not attract them

(d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

93. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and

some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of

students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak only Hindi, how many

can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?

(a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively (b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively

(c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively (d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively

94. Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List-I with area of their specialized

work given in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List-I List II

A. Dr. Raja Ramanna 1.Plant Chemistry

B. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan 2.Nuclear Physics

C. Prof U.R. Rao 3.Thermodynamics

D. Prof Meghnad Saha 4.Space Research

5.Agricultural sciences

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 5 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 2 5 4 3 (d) 3 1 4 2

95. The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a

detai- -led and complete map of Antarctica?

(a) Canada (b) France (c) Russia (d) U.S.A.

96. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that

India has

(a) both a real and a nominal executive (b) a system of collective responsibility

(c) bicameral legislature (d) the system of judicial review


List-I List II

A. Fruit 1.Ovule

B. Seed 2.Leaf

C. Wood 3.Stem

D. Starch 4.Ovary

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 3 1 2

98. The member of Shivaji's Astha Pradhana who-looked after foreign affairs was

(a) Peshwa (b) Sachiv (c) Pandit Rao (d) Sumant

99. PanchayatRajwasfirstintroducedinIndiainOctober,1959 in

(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka

100. Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating is lands of weeds and decaying''.

vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called

(a) Tipis (b) Burkhans

(c) Phoomdis (d) lzba

101. The Ashokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam Kingdom include rock

edicts

(a) I and X (b) I and XI

(c) II and XIII (d) II and XI V

102. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India rift valley due to down warping ?

(a) Damodar (b) Mahanadi

(c) Son (d) Yamuna

103. According to the World Development Report, low income economies are those for which

the per capita GNP in 1994 was

(a) US $ 925 or less (b) US $ 825 or less

(c) US $ 725 or less (d) US $ 525 or less


List-I List II

A. Theory of Mutation 1. Beadk and Tatum

B. Theory of Evolution 2. Jacob and Monod

C. One gene one enzyme 3. Darwin

hypothesis

D. Operon concept 4. DeVries

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1

105. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?

1. Tilak's Home Rule League.

2. Kamagatamaru Incident.

3. Mahatma Gandhi's arrival in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

(a) 1, 2, 3 (c) 2, 1, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1 (d) 2, 3, 1

106. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After hour hand has move 135Â°, the time would

be

(a) 7.30 (b) 6.30 (c) 8.00 (d) 9.30

107. The loss of Qandhar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from the view point of

(a) natural resources

(b) buffer territory

(c) communication

(d) strategic stronghold

108. A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating

bird. Which one of the following was that bird ?

(a) Dove (b) Dodo

(c) Condor (d) Skua

109. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Mrichchakatikam Shudraka

2. Buddhacharita Vasuvandhu

3. Mudrarakshasha Vishakhadatta

4. Hurshacharita Banabhatta


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

110. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given :

Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious epidemic include

(a) teak forests of 3 and 4

(b) oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2

(c) sal forests of 3

(d) sandalwood forests of 4

111. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because

(a) there was no Indian Member in the Commission

(b) it supported the Muslim League

(c) Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj

(d) there were differences among the members

112. The current price index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that

(a) all items cost 3-3 times more than what they did in 1960

(b) the prices of certain selecteditemshavegoneupto3-3times

(c) weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3-3 times

(d) gold price has gone up 3-3 times

113.

In the above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their position in a regular

direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth

stage?

114. The Indian Muslims in general, were not attracted to the Extremist movement because of

the

(a) influence of the Sir Sayid Ahmed khan

(b) anti-Muslim attitude of Extremist leaders

(c) indifference shown to Muslim aspirations

(d) Extremists' policy of harping on Hindu past

115. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is NOT correct ?

(a) Both of them are of plant origin

(b) Both of them are polymers

(c) Both of them give colour with iodine

(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules

116. Commercial production of mineral oil has started recently in which one of the areas of

India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough map given below

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

117. Examine the following statements

1. All members of Mohan's family are

2. Some members of Mohan's family are not employed.

3. Some employed persons are not honest.

4. Some honest persons are not employed.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

(a) All members of Mohan's family are employed

(b) The employed members of Mohan's family are honest

(c) The honest members of Mohan's family are not employed

(d) The employed members of Mohan's family are not honest

118. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total

assets. This is called

(a) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)

(b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)

(c) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)

(d) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)

119. Ergotism is due to consumption of

(a) contaminated grains

(b) rotting vegetables

(c) contaminated water

(d) stale cooked food

120. What is the correct chronological order in which the following appeared in India ?

1. Gold coins.

3. Iron plough.

2. Punch-marked silver coins.

4. Urban culture.


(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1


List-I List II

(Minerals) (Mining area)

A. Graphite 1. Bellary

B. Lead 2. Didwana

C. Salt 3. Rampa

D. Silver 4. Zawar

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 4 2 3

(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 3 1 4

122. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took only fish and some only meat.

There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat.

Which one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above situation ?

123. Which one of the following events, was characterized by Montague as 'Preventive Murder?

(a) Killing of INA activists (b) Massacre of Jallianwalla Bagh

(c) Shooting of the Mahatma (d) Shooting of Curzon-Wythe

124. Fawazil in the Sultanate period means

(a) extra payment made to the nobles

(b) revenue assigned in lieu of salary

(c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars

(d) illegal exactions extracted from the peasants

125. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the history of Indian Sericulture.

Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Oak tasar silk ?

(a) Assam (b) Bihar (c) Manipur (d) Orissa

126. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?

1. The August offer.

2. The I.N.A. trial.

3. The Quit India Movement.

4. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings Revolt.


(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

127. Nobel Prize in Economics for the year 1997 was awarded for contribution in the area of

(a) International Economics (b) Financial Economics

(c) Public Economics (d) Development Economics


List-I List- II

(Places) (Industries)

A. Jamnagar 1.Aluminium

B. Hospet 2.Wollen Textile

C. Korba 3. Fertilizers

D. Haldia 4. Cement

5. Iron and Steel

A B C D A B C D

(a)4 3 1 2 (b) 2 5 1 3

(c)4 5 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3

129. The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and

water with release of energy is called

(a) aerobic respiration (b) anaerobic respiration

(c) glycolysis (d) hydrolysis

130. Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian

freedom movement'?

(a) Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them preference over imported

commodities

(b) Obtaining self-government by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways

(c) Providing national education according to the requirements of the country

(d) Organizing coups against the British empire through military revolt

131. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialized towns have been developed. Match the

lists of specialization with towns and select the correct answer using the codes given below the

lists:

List-I List- II

(Towns) (Specialization)

A. Alibag 1. Fishing Centre

B. Balapur 2. Holiday Resort

C. Nhava Sheva 3. Petro-Chemical complex

D. Ratnagiri 4. Port

A B C D A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3

132. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is

(a) April-March (b) July-June

(c) October-September (d) January-December

133. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was

(a) Iltutmish (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(c) Feroze Shah Tughlaq (d) Sikandar Lodi

134. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stone is

(a) Uric acid (b) Calcium carbonate

(c) Calcium oxalate (d) Calcium sulphate


1. Theodore Beck : Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh

2. Ilbert Bill : Ripon

3. Pherozeshah Mehta : Indian National Congress.

4. Badruddin Tyabji : Muslim League


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3


List-I List -II

(Agricultural products) (Foremost Producer)

A. Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

B. Gram 2. Gujarat

C. Black pepper 3. West Bengal

D. Pineapple 4. Kearla

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 2 3 4

137. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of the given

currencies in terms of their value in Indian Rupees ?

(a) US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong dollar

(b) US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar, Hong Kong dollar

(c) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar

(d) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar

138. 'Eco mark' is given to the Indian products that are

(a) pure and unadulterated

(b) rich in proteins

(c) environment friendly

(d) economically viable

139. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of

whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one

of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?

(a) G's brother (b) F's father (c) E's daughter (d) A's son

140. Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

(a) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorized dealers for travel

(b) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in

goods and services

(c) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading

financial assets

(d) none of the above

141. What are the official languages of the U. N. O ?

(a) English, French and Russian

(b) English, French, German and Russian

(c) English, French, Russian, Chinese and Hindi

(d) English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabic and Spanish

142. The rough outline map given shows centres if cement industry labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match

these centres with the following

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 3 1 4

143. The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India, is to assist

it to a peaceful demise." This statement is attributed to

(a) Lord Duferin (b) Lord Curzon (c) Lord Lytton (d) None of the above

144. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the

(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Planning Commission of India

(c) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

(d) Ministry of Industries, Govt. of India

145. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between

(a) Earth and the Sun

(b) Earth and the Moon

(c) Jupiter and the Sun

(d) Pluto and the Sun

146. Which one of the following ports shown on the rough outline map of India is a riverine

port'?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

147. Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party'?

(a) Bhagat Singh

(b) Lala Hardayal

(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(d) V.D. Savarkar

148. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United Front which was in power

during '96-97' '?

1. Bahujana Samaj Party.

2. Samata Party:

3. Haryana Vikas Patty.

4. Asom Gana Parishad.


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2

149. World Environment Conference to discuss global warming was held in 1997 in

(a) Stockholm

(b) Riodejaneiro

(c) Paris

(d) Kyoto


List-I List-II

A. Blue Vitriol 1. Sodium Biocarbonate

B. Epsom salt 2. Sodium Hydrooxide

C. Baking soda 3. Magnesium Sulphate

D. Caustic soda 4. Copper Sulphate

A B C D A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 1 2

General Studies - 2003 (Prelims) (Paper - II)

61. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman andNicobar Islands? Andhra Pradesh Calcutta Madras Orissa Correct Answer is (b) Calcutta 62. Under which Article of the Indian constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court's opinion on theConstitutional validity of the ElectionCommission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly election in the year 2002)? Article 142 Article 143 Article 144 Article 145 Correct Answer is (b) Article 143 63. Consider the following statements : 1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite METSAT) in September, 2002. 2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit. Which of these statements is / are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 64. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of Assam Himalayas Kumaon Himalayas Nepal Himalayas Punjab Himalayas Correct Answer is (b) Kumaon Himalayas 65. Consider the following statements : 1. India is the original home of the cotton plant. 2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production. Which of these statements is / are correct? Only 1

Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 66. Who is the author of the book 'New Dimensions of India's Foreign Policy'? A. B. Vajpayee JaswantSingh P.C. Alexander Yashwant Sinha Correct Answer is (a) A. B. Vajpayee 67. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandarshah's reign come to an early end? He was deposed by his Wazir He died due to a slip while climbing down steps He was defeated by his nephew in a battle He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine Correct Answer is (c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle 68. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch.established their earlier factory at Surat Pulicat Cochin Cassimbazar Correct Answer is (b) Pulicat 69. Consider the following statements: 1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts andPublic Undertakings, members of Committeeon Estimates are drawn entirely from LokSabha. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nomi-nates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Board and Commission etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries. Which of these statements are correct? l and 2 2 and 3 l and 3 1,2, and 3 Correct Answer is (d) 1,2, and 3 70. The Genetic Engineering Approval committee,whose permission is required for cultivationof any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of Agriculture Environment and Forests

Commerce and Industry Rural Development Correct Answer is (b) Environment and Forests 71. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence? Deputy Prime Minister Former President Governor of a State within his State Speaker of Lok Sabha Correct Answer is (c) Governor of a State within his State 72. Among the following cities, which one is atthe highest altitude above mean sea level? Bangalore Delhi Jodhpur Nagpur Correct Answer is (a) Bangalore 73. Consider the following statements: 1. Steam at 100Ã�Â° C and boiling water at 100Ã�Â° C contain same amount of heat. 1 and 2 2 and 3 Only 2 Only 3 Correct Answer is (d) Only 3 74. Consider the following statements: Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process. 2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used asa fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories. 3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcaneas the raw material. Which of these statements are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 l and 3 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer is (a) 1 and 2 75. Consider the following statements: 1. Longitude of Jabalpur's location is betweenthose of Indore and Bhopal. 1 and 3 Only 2 2 and 3 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer is (c) 2 and 3

76. Which one among the following States is smallest in area? Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Karnataka Tamil Nadu Correct Answer is (d) Tamil Nadu 77. Consider the following statements: A 4 - wheel vehicle moving in a sharp circularpath at high speed will 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4 Correct Answer is (c) 2 and 3 78. The Basque people who are frequently in thenews for their separatist activity live in France Italy Portugal Spain Correct Answer is (d) Spain 79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: List- I High Officials) List-II Organisation) A. C.P. Jain 1. Indian Airlines B. S. Ramadoria 2. NTPC C. Sunil Arora 3. TCS D. Vivek Paul 4. Wipro Technologies A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 Correct Answer is (c) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 80. Which one of the following statements is correct? Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors Calcium cabonate is an ingredient of toothpaste Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium Sulphate and lime Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling Correct Answer is (a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors 81. Consider the following statements : Only 1 Only 2

Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 82. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes placedue to Carbon dioxide Dust Particles Helium Water vapours Correct Answer is (b) Dust Particles 83. In India, the first bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was Hindustan Commercial Bank Oudh Commercial Bank Punjab National Bank Punjab and Sind Bank Correct Answer is (b) Oudh Commercial Bank 84. Which one of the following statements is NOTcorrect? The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament The press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to have easy access to information from government sources Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers Press Trust of India is the largest newsagency in the county Correct Answer is (c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers 85. The Government holding in BPCL is More than 70% Between 60% and 70% Between 50% and 60% less than 50% Correct Answer is (a) More than 70 86. Consider the. following statements regardingthe relations between India and Pakistan 1. During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi andZulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC. 2. Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997. 3. Islamabad Summit was held'between RajivGandhi and Nazan Sharif. Which of these statements is / are correct? 1,2and3 l and 3 Only 2 Only 1 Correct Answer is (d) Only 1

87. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth ratein India? Cement Coal Electricity Steel Correct Answer is (c) Electricity 88. An oil tanker is partially, filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then Remains horizontal) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end Assumes parabolic curve. Correct Answer is (c) is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end 89. In December 2002, the Prime, Minister of India signed 'Delhi Declaration' with the President of Indonesia President of Russia Prime Minister of Cambodia Prime Minister or Laos Correct Answer is (b) President of Russia 90. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the tropic of Cancer? Delhi Kolkata Jodhpur Nagpur Correct Answer is (b) Kolkata 91. 'Mrichchhakatika' an ancient Indian bookwritten by Shudraka deals with the love affair of rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshtrapas of western India the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa Correct Answer is (a) the love affair of rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan 92. Consider the following statements: 1. Vardhaman Mahavira's mother was the daughter of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka. Gautama Buddha's mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty. 3. Parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras. Which of these statements is / are correct? Only 1 Only 2 2 and 3 1,2, and 3 Correct Answer is (d) 1,2, and 3

93. A car travels the first one-third of a certain dis-.tance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/ hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is 18 km/hr 24 km/hr 30 km/hr 36 km/hr Correct Answer is (a) 18 km/hr 94. Consider the following statements: The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is 1. to keep the washing powder dry. 2. to maintain the availability of the powder. Which of these statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (b) Only 2 95. Debenture holders of a company are its Shareholders Creditors Debtors Directors Correct Answer is (c) Debtors 96. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali The National calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1 st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947 The song 'Jana-gana-mana', composed originally in Bengali by labindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the National Anthem of India. Correct Answer is (a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali 97. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance'? Article 215

Article 275 Article 325 Article 355 Correct Answer is (d) Article 355 98. 'A' walks around a circular field at the rate ofone round per hour while 'B' run 'around it atthe rate of six rounds per hour. They start inthe same direction from the same point at 7.30a.m. They shall first cross each other at 8.30 a.m. 8.10a.m 7.48 a.m. 7.42 a.m Correct Answer is (d) 7.42 a.m 99. Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transaction are 1. Levied and collected by the State Government. 2. Appropriated by the Union Government. Which of these statements is/are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2 100. Which one of the following statements is correct ? East Timor was a British colony for four centuries The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975 The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001 Correct Answer is (b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975 101. Match List I with List II and select the correctanswer: List-I Item in the Indian Constitution) List-IICountry from which it was derived) A. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia B. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3. Ireland D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union 4. United Kingdom 5. United States of America A-5 B-4 C-1 D-2 A-3 B-5 C-2 D-1 A-5 B-4 C-2 D-1 A-3 B-5 C-1 D-2

Correct Answer is (d) A-3 B-5 C-1 D-2 102. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km The indigenously build INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles Correct Answer is (a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command 103. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to John Hume Nelson Mandela Norodom Sihanouk SadakoOgata Correct Answer is (c) Norodom Sihanouk 104. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: List-IName of the Person) List-II Associated with) A. Brijmohan Lall Munjal 1. Biotechnology B. Kiran Karniak 2. AutomobileIndustry C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 3. Software industry D. Sunil Mittal A-4 B-1 C-5 D-2 A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 A-2 B-1 C-5 D-4 Correct Answer is (c) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 105. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men's doubles tennis Championship in the year 2003 to win the title? Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyet Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek Correct Answer is (d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek 106. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that thethree candies in the room get extinguished. Thecost of burning each one of these candles is 75paise per hour. The cost involved is: Rs. 2.75 Rs. 3.75

Rs.9.75 Rs. 12.50 Correct Answer is (c) Rs.9.75 107. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in India? The Foreign Exchange Regulating Act FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act FEMA) in the year 2001 FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31 st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to complete the investigation of pending issues Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence As per the new dispensation, Enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of foreign exchange rules Correct Answer is (c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence 108. Consider the following Statements: 1. India's import of crude and petroleum products during the year 2001-02, accounted for about 25% of India's total imports. 2. During the year 2001-02, India's exports hadincreased by 10% as compared to the previous year. Which of these statements is/are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Both l and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (a) Only 1 109. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award ? Dev Anand Lata Mangeshkar Ramanand Sagar Yash Chopra Correct Answer is (d) Yash Chopra 110. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? Milk contains non of the B-vitamins Vitamin-A retinol) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints Vitamin B, thiamine) deficiency can leadto heart failure Correct Answer is (a) Milk contains non of the B-vitamins 111. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian Countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development? India -Sri Lanka -Pakistan- Maldives Maldives - Sri Lanka - India - Pakistan

Sri Lanka- Maldives - India - Pakistan Maldives - India - Pakistan - Sri Lanka Correct Answer is (c) Sri Lanka- Maldives - India - Pakistan 112. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency Correct Answer is (c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases 113. Consider the following statements: 1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production. 2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tobacco. Which of these statements is/are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (b) Only 2 114. Which one of the following statements is correct? Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country's international airports The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organisation for enforcing civil air regulations in India It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services Correct Answer is (a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines 115. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority? Ordinary Bill Money Bill Finance Bill Constitution Amendent Bill Correct Answer is (d) Constitution Amendent Bill 116. Consider the following animals of India: 1. Crocodile 2. Elephant Which of these is/are endangered species? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

117. Which one among the following covers the, highest percentage of forest area in the world ? Temperate Coniferous forests Temperate Deciduous forests Tropical Monsoon forests Tropical Rain forests Correct Answer is (a) Temperate Coniferous forests 118. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female members is to be constituted out of five males and three females.Amongst the females, Ms. A refused to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted? 11 12 13 14 Correct Answer is (d) 14 119. Consider the following statements: 1.The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in - chief,Pushyamitra Sunga. 2. The last Sunga King, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne. 3.The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras. Which of these statements is/are correct? . l and 2 Only 2 Only 3 1,2, and 3 Correct Answer is (d) 1,2, and 3 120. The aim of education as stated by the Wood's dispatch of 1854 was The creation of employment opportunities for native Indians the spread of western culture in India the promotion of literacy among the people 128. using English medium of language the introduction of scientific research andrationalism in the traditional Indian education Correct Answer is (c) the promotion of literacy among the people 128. using English medium of language 121. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men's singles tennis championship in the year 2002? Albert Costa Juan Carlos Ferrero Andra Agassi Pete Sampras

Correct Answer is (a) Albert Costa 122. Consider the following statements : The function s) of the Finance Commission is/are 1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India 2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes. 3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States 4. to supervise and report on whether the Unionand State governments are levying taxes inaccordance with the budgetary provisions. Which of these statements is/are correct ? Only 1 2 and 3 3 and 4 1,2 and 4 Correct Answer is (b) 2 and 3 123. Which one among the following States has thehighest female literacy rate as per the Census2001? Chattisgarh Madhya Pradesh Orissa Rajasthan Correct Answer is (a) Chattisgarh 124. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency ? Bhutan Malaysia Maldives Seychelles Correct Answer is (d) Seychelles 125. Which one of the following countries is landlocked? Bolivia Peru Suriname Uruguay Correct Answer is (a) Bolivia 126. Which one of the following countries doesNOT border the Caspian Sea? Armenia Azerbaijan Kazakhstan Turkmenistan Correct Answer is (a) Armenia 127. The sportsperson Soma Biswas in associatedwith

Sailing Hockey Golf Athletics Correct Answer is (d) Athletics 128. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog? Hydrocarbons Nitrogen Oxides Ozone Methane Correct Answer is (c) Ozone 129. Consider the following statements: 1. Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of songs in praiseof Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II 2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India ofthe early form of the musical style known asQawali. Which of the statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both l and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2 130. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again? 8.45a.m. 10.30a.m. 11.00a.m 1.30p.m Correct Answer is (c) 11.00a.m 131. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: Table border=1 border-style=solid cellpading=0 cellspacing=0 width=400px List-I Distinguished Lady) List-II Organisations / Industry ) A. Amrita Patel National Dairy Development Board B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited 5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited A-1 B-4 C-5 D-2 A-2 B-4 C-1 D-5

A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2 A-2 B-3 C-1 D-5 Correct Answer is (c) A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2 132. Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India, 1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population Number of Elected MLA's of the State x 100 2. the value of the vote of an elected Member ofParliament equals Total value of the votes of all elected MLA's Total number of elected MP's 3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest elections. Which of these^statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 1 and 3 Only 3 Correct Answer is (b) Only 2 133. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid's 'Elements of Geometry' translated into Sanskrit Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple Correct Answer is (a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal 134. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States? 6-th and 22-nd 13-th and 38-th 7-th and 31-st 11-th and 42-nd Correct Answer is (c) 7-th and 31-st 135. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die? He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-dinYildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who enteredinto a contest with him over the capture ofPunjab He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later He died after a fall from his horse while . playing Chaugn Correct Answer is (d) He died after a fall from his horse while . playing Chaugn

136. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun? Earth Jupiter Mars Venus Correct Answer is (b) Jupiter 137. Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world? Bengali French Japanese Portuguese Correct Answer is (a) Bengali 138. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833? The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the governor-General's Council Correct Answer is (d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the governor-General's Council 139. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements: 1. In response to the presence of HCI, secretin is produced from the duodenum. 2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids. Which of these statements is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer is (b) Only 2 140. Survey of India is under the Ministry of Defence Environment arid Forests Home Affairs Science and Technology Correct Answer is (d) Science and Technology 141. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give wornen the right to vote? Iceland India New Zealand

U.S.A. Correct Answer is (c) New Zealand 142. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways.. The time taken by him to walk both ways is 6 hours 45 minutes 7 hours 45 minutes 8 hours 15 minutes 8 hours 30 minutes Correct Answer is (b) 7 hours 45 minutes 143. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Raman Magsaysay Award, is mainly an activist in prevention of child marriages promotion of communal harmony environmental protection education and livelihood projects for Dalits Correct Answer is (d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits 144. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in Argentina recently? Ethnic conflict between the native red Indian tribes and others Economic crisis due to huge public debt The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools clashes between government troops and secessionist groups Correct Answer is (b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt 145. With reference to colonial rule in India what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883? To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned to impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers to encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting mem in India To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act Correct Answer is (a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned 146. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of1942 was That all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any , degree of autonomy for India the creation of an Indian Union with Do minion status very soon after the Second World War the active participation and cooperation ot the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British,war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war the framing of a constitution for the entire. Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union .Constitution to be accepted by all provinces Correct Answer is (b) the creation of an Indian Union with Do minion status very soon

after the Second World War 147. When Congress leaders ondemned the Montagu Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the Swarajaya Party Indian Freedom Patty Independence Federation of India Indian Liberal Federation Correct Answer is (d) Indian Liberal Federation 148. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in theyear 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil was 6 7 8 9 Correct Answer is (c) 8 149. Which one of the following schedules of theIndian Constitution list the names of states and specifies their territories? First Second Third Fourth Correct Answer is (a) First

1. Match List-I (Institute) with List - II (located At) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the Lists:

List - I

(Institute)

A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism

B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and

New Materials

C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History

D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute

List - II

(Located At)

1. Coimbatore

2. Mumbai

3. Jabalpur

4. Hyderabad

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 3 1 4

(b) A B C D

1 4 2 3

(c) A B C D

2 4 1 3

(d) A B C D

1 3 2 4

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology.

2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water

production.

3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India�s

Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Reinhold Messner :Computer Technology

(b) Harlow Shapley :Astronomy

(c) Gregor Mendel :Hereditary Theory

(d) Godfrey Hounsfield :CT Scan

4. Consider the following international languages:

1. Arabic

2. French

3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of

their speakers is

(a) 3-1-2 (b) 1-3-2

(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3

5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?

(a) K.V.K. Sundaram

(b) G.S. Dhillon

(c) Baliram Bhagat

(d) Hukum Singh

6. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9

a.m. Both the cars

run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m.

while the other car

Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other?

(a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m.

(c) 4 : 10 p.m (d) 4 : 20 p.m.

7. In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The

examinees are required to

match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is

given that

(i) no examinee has given the correct answer

(ii) answers of no two examinees are identical

What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?

(a) 24 (b) 26

(c) 119 (d) 129

The details given below relate to the four items that follow:

Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines�one each on politics, sports, science and

films are

available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not

necessarily in that order)

and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers (not necessarily in that order).

Further, it is given that

(i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz

(ii) the magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers

(iii) the magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers

(iv) the magazine on science is edited by Ila

For the following four items, select the correct answer:

8. The magazine on science is published by

(a) Aryan Publisher

(b) Bharat Publishers

(c) Charan Publishers (d) Dev Publishers

9. The magazine on sports is

(a) edited by Feroz

(b) edited by Gurbaksh

(c) published by Bharat Publishers

(d) published by Charan Publishers

10. The magazine on films is

(a) published by Dev Publishers

(b) published by Bharat Publishers

(c) edited by Gurbaksh


11. The magazine on politics is

(a) edited by Ila

(b) edited by Gurbaksh

c) published by Dev Publishers


12. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Area of Work) and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Distinguished Ladies)

A. Jhumpa Lahiri

B. Sunita Narain

C. Naina Lal Kidwai

D. Ravina Raj Kohli

List-II

(Area of Work)

1. Science and environment

2. Novel-writing

3. Film industry

4. Banking

5. Television media

Codes:

(a) A B C D

4 5 3 1

(b) A B C D

2 1 4 5

(c) A B C D

4 1 3 5

(d) A B C D

2 5 4 1

13. Which one of the following does not border Panama?

(a) Costa Rica

(b) Pacific Ocean

(c) Colombia

(d) Venezuela

14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a

rectangular field

400 m � 300 m. And B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many

times shall they

cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?

(a) Not even once

(b) Once

(c) Twice

(d) Thrice

15. Match List-I (Beaches in India) which List-II (States) and select the correct answer

using the codes given

below the Lists:

List-I

(Beaches in India)

A. Gopnath Beach

B. Lawsons Bay Beach

C. Devbagh Beach

D. Sinquerim Beach

List-II

(States)

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Gujarat

4. Goa

5. Karnataka

Codes:

(a) A B C D

5 4 2 1

(b) A B C D

3 1 5 4

(c) A B C D

5 1 2 4

(d) A B C D

3 4 5 1

16. A car is running on a road at uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant

force on the car is

(a) driving force in the direction of car�s motion

(b) resistance force in the direction of car�s motion

(c) an inclined force

(d) equal to zero

17. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Biosphere Reserves) (States)

A. Similipal 1. Sikkim

B. Dehong Deband 2. Uttaranchal

C. Nokrek 3. ArunachalPradesh

D. Kanchenjunga 4. Orissa

5. Meghalya

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 3 5 4

(b) A B C D

4 5 2 1

(c) A B C D

1 5 2 4

(d) A B C D

4 3 5 1

18. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest

cover?

(a) Sikkim (b) Goa

(c) Haryana (d) Kerala

19. How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding

digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit and 7 is the preceding

digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?

(a) 120 (b) 210

(c) 365 (d) 405

20. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct


List-I List-II

(Sports-person) (Sports/Game)

A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton

B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming

C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn

Tennis

D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker

5. Hockey

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 5 4 2

(b) A B C D

2 4 1 3

(c) A B C D

3 4 1 2

(d) A B C D

2 5 4 3

21. The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by M.

Hayden.

Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were

(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey

(b) Len Huton, Peter May and Vivian Richards

(c) Hanif Mohammed, Garfield Sobers and Brian Lara

(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara

22. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them,

Ajit and Mukherjee,

are never together?

(a) 120 (b) 240

(c) 360 (d) 480

23. Match List-I (State/Province/Overseas Territory) with List-II (Country) and select the

correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(State/Province/Overseas (Country)

Territory)

A. British Colombia 1. USA

B. Bavaria 2. UK

C. Gibraltar 3. Canada

D. Rhode Island 4.Germany

5. Denmark

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 2 5 3

(b) A B C D

3 4 2 1

(c) A B C D

1 4 2 3

(d) A B C D

3 2 5 1


1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.

3. �Athlete�s foot� is a disease caused by virus.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

25. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48

women for this work,

but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is

completed. The work is

completed in

(a) 45 days (b) 50 days

(c) 54 days (d) 62 days

26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Unit of Indian Railway Location

(a) Railway Staff : Vadodra

College

(b) Central : Varanasi

Organization

for Railway

Electrification

(c) Wheel and Axle Plant : Bangalore

(d) Rail-coach : Kapurthala

Factory


1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.

2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as

satellite

and fibre optics transmission.

3. A digitial library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on

the

Internet only.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

28. Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names

of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(New Names of (Old Names of the

the Countries) Countries)

A. Benin 1. Nyasaland

B. Belize 2. Basutoland

C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland

D. Malawi 4. British Honduras

5. Dahomey

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 1 2 4

(b) A B C D

5 4 3 1

(c) A B C D

3 4 2 1

(d) A B C D

5 1 3 4

29. Which one of the following is the correct in the descending order of precedence in the

warrant of precedence?

(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Suprem Court-Members of Parliament - Deputy

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of

India-Members of Parliament

(c) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme

Court-Members of Parliament

(d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya

Sabha-Members of Parliament

30. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The

probability that these three students

will have identical date and month of their birth is

(a) 3/1000

(b) 3/365

(c) 1/(365)2

(d) 1/(365)3


1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the Yugoslav Federation.

2. Croatia remained under the Hungarian Administration until the end of First World War.

3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of contention between Belgium

and Greece.

4. In 1991, Slovenia declared independence from Czechoslovakia.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

32. Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Price in 2003, is from

(a) Iraq (b) Nigeria

(c) Iran (d) Libya

33. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a

vertical wall and

the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a

person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is

(a) a straight line

(b) an elliptical path

(c) a circular path

(d) a parabolic path

34. The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for

Medicine in 2003, relates to

(a) the control of AIDS

(b) magnetic resonance imaging

(c) respiratory diseases

(d) genetic engineering

35. In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first ever woman Vice-Chancellor of

(a) Oxford University

(b) Cambridge University

(c) Harvard University

(d) Purdue University

36. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many

different ways can this be done?

(a) 27 (b) 39

(c) 93 (d) 39 - 3

37. Goerge W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American

States?

(a) California (b) Texas

(c) Virginia (d) Indiana

38. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Department Ministry of the Government of India

1. Department of : Ministry of

Women and Child Health and

Development Family Welfare

2. Department of : Ministry of

Official Language Human

Resource Development

3. Department of : Ministry of Drinking Water Water

Supply Resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) None

39. Match List-I (Agency) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using

the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Agency) (Headquarters)

A.United Nations 1. Nairobi

Development

Programme (UNDP)

B. United Nations 2. Vienna

Environment Programme

(UNEP)

C. United Nations Industrial 3. Berne

Development Organization

(UNIDO)

D. Universal Postal Union 4. New

(UPU) York

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 3 4 1

(b) A B C D

4 1 2 3

(c) A B C D

2 1 4 3

(d) A B C D

4 3 2 1

40. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prizes twice?

(a) Margaret Atwood

(b) J.M. Coetzee

(c) Grahm Swift

(d) Ian McEwan

41. In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi�the partner of Mahesh

Bhupati, comes

from which of the following countries?

(a) Italy (b) Sweden

(c) Belarus (d) Croatia

42. Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test

Match innings by an Indian?

(a) Sunil Gavaskar

(b) Vinoo Mankad

(c) Sachin Tendulkar

(d) V.V.S. Laxman

43. INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by

(a) Israel (b) USA

(c) Russia (d) France

44. INSAT-3E, India�s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from

(a) French Guiana (b) Seychelles

(c) Mauritius (d) Mauritania

45. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Position) and select the correct answer using the

codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Person)

A. Anil Kakodar

B. Raman Puri

C. M. Jagannatha Rao

D. G. Madhavan Nair

List-II

(Position)

1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff

2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission

3. Chairman, ISRO

4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 1 2 4

(b) A B C D

4 2 1 3

(c) A B C D

3 2 1 4

(d) A B C D

4 1 2 3

46. Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:

1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.

2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.

3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script�Gurumukhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

47. Consider the following Viceroys of Indian during the British rule:

1. Lord Curzon

2. Lord Chelmsford

3. Lord Hardinge

4. Lord Irwin

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?

(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3

(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4

48. Consider the following events during India�s freedom struggle:

1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3

(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4

49. Consider the following events:

1. Fourth general elections in India

2. Formation of Haryana State

3. Mysore named as Karnataka State

4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States

Which one of the following is correct chronological order of the above?

(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1

(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3

50. Match List-I (Fuel Gases) with List-II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Fuel Gases)(Major Constituents)

A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen

B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane

C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane

D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 1 3 4

(b) A B C D

3 4 2 1

(c) A B C D

2 4 3 1

(d) A B C D

3 1 2 4

51. A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity w around a circular path of

radius r.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The body has no acceleration

(b) The body has a radial acceleration directed directed towards the centre of the path

(c) The body has a radial acceleration directed away from the centre of the path

(d) The body has an acceleration tangential to its path

52. Which one of the following statements is correct?

�Deccan Odyssey� is

(a) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji

(b) a warship recently acquired by Indian Navy

(c) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo

(d) a luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes Goa in its journey

53. Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains

(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals

(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals

(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals

(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals

54. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to

(a) (b)

(c) (d) Zero

55. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?

(a) Zinc and sulphur

(b) Potassium and mercury

(c) Strontium and barium

(d) Chromium and nickel


1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950.

2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the

Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in

rupees)

of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?

(a) Metallic minerals-Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals

(b) Fuel minerals-Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals

(c) Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Fuel minerals

(d) Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Metallic minerals

58. Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly

matched

with its country?

(a) Salamanca : Spain

(b) Cannes : Italy

(c) Cancun : Mexico

(d) Bruges : Belgium


As per 2001 Census

1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab

2. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram

3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio

Which of the statements given agove is / are correct?


(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3


1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodhi

2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.

3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah

in the Battle of Plassey.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

61. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under

the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?

(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax

(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs.1.20 lakh for widows

(c) Elimination of standard deduction

(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity

62. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes

given below the Lists:

List-I

(Books)

A. My Presidential year

B. The Hindu View of Life

C. Voice of Conscience

D. Without Fear or Favour

List-II

(Authors)

1. S. Radhakrishnan

2. V. V. Giri

3. N. Sanjiva Reddy

4. R. Venkataraman

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 1 4 3

(b) A B C D

4 3 2 1

(c) A B C D

2 3 4 1

(d) A B C D

4 1 2 3


1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.

2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration around

the middle of 2003?

(a) They were demanding tax relief

(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government�s plan to impose an internal security

law

(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom

(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong


1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.

2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as

(a) a campaigner for urban sanitation

(b) an anti-child labour activist

(c) an organizer of rain-water harvesting schemes

(d) an activist for the welfare of poor rural women


1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent

India

2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the


List-I

(Persons)

A. B.P. Mishra

B. Suresh Kalmadi

C. Praful Patel

D. V.S. Jain

List-II

(Positions)

1. Executive Director, IMF

2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.

3. President, Indian Olympic Association

4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank

Codes:

(a) A B C D

4 2 1 3

(b) A B C D

1 3 4 2

(c) A B C D

4 3 1 2

(d) A B C D

1 2 4 3

69. Who among the following is well known as an exponent of flute?

(a) Debu Choudhuri

(b) Madhup Mudgal

(c) Ronu Mazumdar

(d) Shafaat Ahmad


Among the Indian States

1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline

2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan), has

become famous because of

(a) cultivation of genetically modified cotton

(b) rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS

(c) livelihood projects for destitute rural women

(d) rain-water harvesting


1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as

a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly owned

subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is

(a) a new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India

(b) the name of supercomputer developed by India

(c) the name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of

India

(d) a software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh


1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under

Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India.

2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs.

50,000 for accidental death and Rs.25,000 for permanent disability.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a procurement

target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.

2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.

3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are

issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union

Territories.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only


India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the

country because

1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices

2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall

3. oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited

4. It is far cheper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. World�s longest ruling head of government is from

(a) Switzerland

(b) Cuba

(c) Zimbabwe

(d) New Zealand

78. Liberia was in the international news in the recent times for

(a) harbouring terrorists

associated with religious fundamentalism

(b) supplying raw uranium to North Korea

(c) its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people

(d) cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs


1. P.V. Narasimha Rao�s government established diplomatic relations between India and

Israel

2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Israel to have visited India


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is

(a) discovery of huge reserves of oil

(b) separatist rebellious activities by the local people

(c) continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in

the great loss of human life

(d) intense cold wave killing hundreds of people

81. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year

2003?

(a) Czech Republic

(b) Romania

(c) Serbia

(d) Slovenia

82. Conisder the following companies:

1. Voltas

2. Titan Industires

3. Rallis India

4. Indian Hotels

Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

83. In which of the following countries, did an ethnic violence between the communities of

Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people?

(a) Democratic Republic of Congo

(b) Indonesia

(c) Nigeria

(d) Zambia

84. More than 40 Heads of States / Governments were invited by Vladimir Putin in May,

2003 to

(a) discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq

(b) celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg

(c) convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issues of missile shield

for European and CIS countries

(d) develop the strategies for containing global terrorism

85. Consider the following geological phenomea:

1. Development of a fault

2. Movement along a fault

3. Impact produced by volcanic eruption

4. Folding of rocks

Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years

shall be employed to work in any factory or

mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment�?

(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45

(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368

87. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongs the

following can be its Chairman?

(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court

(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court

(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India

(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court

88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Pitt�s India Act : Warren Hastings

(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie

(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

89. Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?

(a) Firoz Shah Tughuq

(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq

Shah - II

(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud

(d) Nasrat Shah

90. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through

(a) China (b) Malaysia

(c) Combodia (d) Laos

91. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India

during the year 2002-03?

(a) Birlasoft

(b) Infosys Technologies

(c) Tata Consultancy Services

(d) Wipro Technologies

92. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam

(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland

(c) The largest river island in the world is in Assam

(d) Sikkin is the least-populated State of the Indian Union


1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1-4-2002.

2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India.

3. An expert Committee headed by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel

policy recommended that

Bharat Stage-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

94. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest

Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?

(a) Chemicals other than fertilizers

(b) Services sector

(c) Food processing

(d) Telecommunication


1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by

Kanishka.

2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to

Buddhism.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to an end?

(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life

imprisonment

(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar

(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk

(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family

was killed by the Mughal troops

97. With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu

(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras

after the Council held at Pataliputra

(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC

(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists

98. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and

spells?

(a) Rig-veda (b) Yajur-veda

(c) Atharva-veda (d) Sama-veda

99. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of

(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b) the Government of India Act, 1919

(c) the Government of India Act, 1935

(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947

100. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj

should be

defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?

(a) Mazharul Haque

(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani

(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan

(d) Abul Kalam Azad

101. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?

(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya

(b) Ramanuja-Shankaracharya-Chaitanya

(c) Ramanuja-Chaitanya-Shankaracharya

(d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja

102. Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:

1. Jhansi

2. Sambalpur

3. Satara

The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is

(a) 1-2-3 (b) 1-3-2

(c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2

103. The name of the famous persons of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on

him by the

British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was

(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru

(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee

(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(d) Syed Ahmed Khan

104. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the

(a) Lok Sabha alone

(b) either House of Parliament

(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament

(d) Rajya Sabha alone

105. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following paris is not

correctly matched?

(a) Forests : Concurrent List

(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List

(c) Post Office Savings : Union List

Bank

(d) Public Health : State List

106. Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections

2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the

Office of the President and the Vice-President

3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and

individuals contesting the election

4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes

Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

107. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.

2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public

Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same

form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3


1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and siezed the throne for himself and

started the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narashima was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the

1. abolition of diarchy in the Governors� provinces

2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own

3. abolition of the principle communal representation



(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3


1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta

2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of

Dadabhai Naoroji

3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916

and concluded the Lucknow Pact.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only



(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year

1946

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M. A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the

Constituent Assembly of India

(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947

(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950

112. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of

(a) Culture

(b) Tourism

(c) Science and Technology

(d) Human Resource

Development


1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge.

2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.

3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a

pleader of seven years� standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or

the State.

4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the high Court

before it is carried out.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on

prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.

2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic

dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if

no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.

3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and

until immediately before the first meeting of the House�.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3


(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are

provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidised price.

(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible

for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per person

per month free of cost

(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living

in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month

at BPL rates

(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-day Meal

Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in Government or Government aided Schools


1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.

2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.

3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.

4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine

Which of the statement given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

117. The hormone insulin is a

(a) Glycolipid (b) Fatty acid

(c) Peptide (d) Sterol


1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.

2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

119. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?

(a) Liver

(b) Long bone

(c) Pancreas

(d) Spleen

120. In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(c) Daman and Diu

(d) Lakshadweep

121. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton 2. Groundnut

3. Maize 4. Mustard

Which of the above are Kharif crops?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based

(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have

been laid down in the Rules

(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the

leave being granted

(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence

123. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the

Constitution of India?

(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States

(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States


1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children�s Film Society, India

2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.

3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke

Award.


(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

125. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?

(a) Fiji (b) Mauritius

(c) Malaysia (d) Kenya

126. Lativa does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(a) Russia (b) Estonia

(c) Lithuania (d) Poland


1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India

2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National

Development Council.

3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the

Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

128. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the


List-I List-II

(Minerals) (Location)

A. Coal 1. Giridih

B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam

C. Manganese 3. Alwar

D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 4 3 2

(b) A B C D

2 3 4 1

(c) A B C D

1 3 4 2

(d) A B C D

2 4 3 1

129. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

(a) Agra-Mumbai

(b) Chennai-Thane

(c) Kolkata-Hajira

(d) Pune-Machilipatnam

130. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National

Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?

1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology,Thiruvananthapuram

4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior


Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

132. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be

enacted into law

(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the

appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for

making changes in the rates

of taxes which are already under operation

(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

133. Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes

given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Sea) (Country)

A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Red Sea 2. China

C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea

D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Codes:

(a) A B C D

1 4 2 3

(b) A B C D

2 3 1 4

(c) A B C D

1 3 2 4

(d) A B C D

2 4 1 3

134. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive

power of every State shall be so exercised

as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258

(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356


List-I List-II

(Period) (Wars)

1. AD 1767-69 : First Anglo-Maratha War

2. AD 1790-92 : Third Mysore war

3. AD 1824-26 : First Anglo Burmese War

4. AD 1845-46 : Second Sikh War


(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3

136. Consider the following:

1. Mahadeo Hills

2. Sahyadri Parvat

3. Satpura Range

What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?

(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3

(c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1

137. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of

Rajasthan?

(a) Bharatpur (b) Jaipur

(c) Jodhpur (d) Udaipur

138. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Articles of the Consti- (Provision)

tution of India)

A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of

religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal

protection of laws withing the territory of India

C. Article 16 3. �Untouchability� is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden

D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to

employment or appointment to any office

under the State

Codes:

(a) A B C D

2 4 1 3

(b) A B C D

3 1 4 2

(c) A B C D

2 1 4 3

(d) A B C D

3 4 1 2


(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals

(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes

(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and

feathery appearance

(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds

140. Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct


List-I List-II

(National Park/ (State)

Sanctuary)

A. Kanger Ghati 1. Chhattisgarh

National Park

B. Nagerhole 2. Haryana

National Park

C. Kugti Wildlife 3. Himachal

Sanctuary Pradesh

D. Sultanpur Bird 4. Karnataka

Sanctuary

Codes:

(a) A B C D

3 2 1 4

(b) A B C D

1 4 3 2

(c) A B C D

3 4 1 2

(d) A B C D

1 2 3 4


(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides

(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow

channel

(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river

(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooggly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as

port


1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calender

2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.

3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.




Directions:

The following 8 (eight) items consist of two Statements; one lablelled as the

�Assertion(A)� and the other as �Reason (R)�. You are

to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the

codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the corrrect explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

143. Assertion (A) : Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of

Mangalore.

Reason (R) : Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-

east monsoons.

144. Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to

improve the quality of life of rural people in India.

Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India

145. Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.

Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.

146. Assertion (A) : The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.

Reason (R) : High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.

147. Assertion (A) : In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60

times per second.

Reason (R) : The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.

148. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet.

Reason (R) : The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.

149. Assertion (A): India does not export natural rubber

Reason (R) : About 97% of India�s demands for natural rubber is met from domestic

production.

150. Assertion (A) : For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03.

Reason (R) : For the first time, India�s exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002-

03.

Answers

1. c 2. a 3. a

4. a 5. a 6. b

7. c 8. c 9. a

10. b 11. b 12. b

13. d 14. b 15. b

16. d 17. d 18. c

19. c 20. d 21. c

22. d 23. b 24. a

25. b 26. b 27. d

28. b 29. b 30. c

31. b 32. c 33. c

34. b 35. b 36. c

37. b 38. d 39. b

40. b 41. c 42. d

43. c 44. a 45. d

46. d 47. a 48. b

49. a 50. b 51. b

52. d 53. c 54. d

55. c 56. d 57. b

58. b 59. d 60. b

61. b 62. d 63. c

64. b 65. a 66. b

67. c 68. b 69. c

70. b 71. d 72. c

73. b 74. b 75. d

76. b 77. b 78. c

79. a 80. b 81. c

82. d 83. a 84. b

85. d 86. a 87. c

88. c 89. c 90. b

91. c 92. a 93. a

94. d 95. d 96. a

97. c 98. c 99. b

100. b 101. a 102. c

103. c 104. d 105. b

106. a 107. b 108. d

109. b 110. c 111. a

112. a 113. d 114. d

115. a 116. d 117. c

118. c 119. b 120. a

121. b 122. a 123. d

124. d 125. a 126. d

127. b 128. c 129. c

130. a 131. d 132. a

133. c 134. a 135. d

136. c 137. b 138. c

139. a 140. b 141. c

142. d 143. d 144. c

145. a 146. d 147. d

148. c 149. b 150. d

General Studies Prelims 2004

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Transcript of General Studies Prelims 2004