General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1

General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1

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that question.



HISTORY

1. Which of the following correctly represents 'Three gems of Kannada Poetry'?

A. Pampa, Aiyya, Lona

B. Kundu, Venkeyya, Ranna

C. Pampa, Ponna, Ranna

D. Kanna, Kanji, Penurama

Ans. C

Explanation: Under the western Chalukyas, Kannada literature reached great heights. The

three literary gems, Pampa, Ponna and Ranna, contributed to the development of Kannada

literature in the 10th century. Of the three, Ranna was the court poet of Satyasraya, while

the other two belonged to earlier decades. they also wrote on themes taken from the

Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

2. Which of the following describes correctly about ‘Bodhisattvas’?

A. It refers to holy persons who had lived on Earth before the Buddha.

B. It refers to any person who is on the path towards Buddha but has not attained yet.

C. It refers to the persons who had lived with Gautama Buddha in the search of

enlightenment.

D. Both A. and B.

Ans. D

Explanation: Bodhisattvas were not Buddha, they were the other holy persons called the

'Bodhisattvas', whom the Buddhists respected. The Bodhisattvas were holy persons who

had lived on earth before the Buddha and one who seeks awakening hence, an individual on

the path to becoming a Buddha.

3. ‘Ashtapradhan’ was a popular term used in medieval period of Indian History. What does

the term mean?



A. The term signifies 8 important literary and cultural court personalities during Great

Cholas.

B. The term was used for the most important court luminaries during the reign of Akbar.

C. The term was used for an administrative officer overseeing 8 departments during the

reign of Krishna Deva Raya.

D. The term was used for the 8 ministers during the reign of Shivaji.

Ans. D

Explanation: Shivaji’s system of administration was largely borrowed from the

administrative practice of the Deccani states. Shivaji designated eight ministers, sometimes

called the ‘Ashtapradhan’ (it was not in the nature of a council of ministers), each minister

being directly responsible to the ruler. The most important ministers were the ‘Peshwa’ who

looked after the finances and general administration, and the sari-i-naubat (senapati), which

was a post of honor and was generally given to one of the leading Maratha chiefs. The

majumdar was the accountant, while the waqenavis was responsible for intelligence post

and household affairs. Further, the surunavis or chitnis helped the king with his

correspondence. The dabir was master of ceremonies and also helped the king in his

dealings with foreign powers. The nyayadhish and panditrao were in charge of justice and

charitable grants.

4. Which among the following legislations brought separate electorate for Muslims?

A. Indian Council Act, 1892

B. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

C. Montagu-Chelmsford Reform, 1918

D. Government of India Act, 1935

Ans. B

Explanation: The Indian Councils Act 1909 was an act of the British Parliament that

introduced a few reforms in the legislative councils and increased the involvement of

Indians limitedly in the governance of British India. It was more commonly called the

Morley-Minto Reforms after the Secretary of State for India John Morley and the Viceroy of

India, the 4th Earl of Minto. It introduced separate electorates for the Muslims. Some

constituencies were earmarked for Muslims and only Muslims could vote their

representatives.



5. Which of the following was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?

A. The use of greased cartridges that offended the religious sentiments of Hindu and Muslim

soldiers.

B. The position of peasants and artisans that had ruined under the new land system.

C. Fear of loss of religion and caste by the Christian missionaries.

D. The application of Doctrine of lapse brought discontent among the Indian rulers and

chiefs.

Ans. A

Explanation: In 1856, the government decided to replace the old fashioned muskets by the

Enfield rifles In order to load the Enfield rifle, the greased wrapping paper of the cartridge

had to be bitten off by the soldier. In January 1857, a rumor began to spread in the Bengal

regiments that the greased cartridges contained the fat of cows and pigs. The sepoys

became convinced that the introduction of the greased cartridge was a deliberate attempt

to defile their religion. The cow was sacred to the Hindus, and the pig was a taboo for the

Muslims. The sepoys refused to use these cartridges. The authorities regarded this act of

defiance of the sepoys as an act of insubordination. The action was taken against them.

6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List I List II

(Author) (Book)

a. Hasan Nizami 1. Alamgir Nama

b. Gulbadan Begum 2. Nukkh-e-Dilkhusha

c. Muhammad Kazim 3. Humayunama

d. Bhimsen 4. Majul Maasir

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2



D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. C

Explanation: Alamgirnamah the court history of Emperor aurangzeb (1658-1707) written

by Mirza Muhammad Kazim. Following the tradition of the Mughal emperors from the time

of akbar, Aurangzeb ordered his court historian Mirza Muhammad Kazim to record and

compile the history of his reign. Bhimsen, the author of Nukkh-e-Dilkhusha was in the

service of Mughal noble Daud Khan. His work is quite significant for knowing the Deccan

affairs. Gulbadan Begum was a Mughal princess and the daughter of Emperor Babur, the

founder of the Mughal Empire. She is best known as the author of Humayun-Nama, the

account of the life of her half-brother, Emperor Humayun, which she wrote on the request

of her nephew, Emperor Akbar. Tajul Maasir is first official history of the Delhi Sultanate.

Written in Persian by Sadruddin Hasan Nizami, it is the earliest among the historical

literature produced in India.

7. Assertion (A): Nagara, Dravida and Vesara are important temple architectures in India.

Reason (R): Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh is a panchayatana style temple.

In the context of the above which one of the following is correct

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true

Ans. B

Explanation: The Sun Temple at Konark is an example of Odisha school of Nagara style of

architecture. Dashavatara temple in Deogarh is an example of Panchayatana style.

Panchayatana is the one when the main shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.

Other notable examples are Kandariya Mahadeva Temple in Khajuraho, Brahmeswara

Temple in Bhubaneswar, Lakshmana Temple in Khajuraho and Lingaraja Temple in

Bhubaneswar.

8. Assertion (A): Gandhara School of Art form develops during the reign of Kushana dynasty.

Reason (R): This art is known for the sculptural representations of the Buddha in human

form.








Ans. B

Explanation: Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of

ancient India. Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated

with the Greco-Roman style of art. The combination of these Greco-Roman and Indian ideas

along with the influence of other foreign traditions such as from China and Iran resulted in

the formation of a distinct style known as the Gandhara School of art. During Kushana rule

the Gandhara art prospered in India. Above all, Kanishka, the greatest of the Kushanas was a

famous backer of art and architecture. The Gandhara School of art flourished in his reign.

Gandhara School was profoundly influenced by Greek methodologies. This style of art was

closely associated with Mahayana Buddhism and hence the main theme of this art was Lord

Buddha and Bodhisattvas.

9. Consider the following statements about ‘Citadel’ in Harappan Civilisation:

1. Citadel was built on the lower ground of the city.

2. This includes granaries, religious building and professional building only.

3. This was an important feature of the civilization only in the city of Harappa.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. None of the above

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. B

Explanation: The upper part built on the raised platform is described as the citadel. This part

includes the public buildings, the granaries, the more important workshops and the religious

buildings. The other part of the city, which was much larger, was the lower part where the



people lived and carried on their professional work. This was the important feature of Cities

of Harappa as well as of Mohenjo-Daro.

10. Identify the Governor-General based on the following statements:

1. He introduced Wood’s dispatch known as the Magna Carta of English education in India.

2. He was responsible for the introduction of post and telegraph system in India.

3. He passed Hindu Remarriage Act making widow re-marriage legal.

4. He started recruitment of the covenanted civil service through competitive examination.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. Lord Canning

B. Lord Dalhousie

C. Lord Hardinge

D. Lord William Bentinck

Ans. B

Explanation: Reforms under Dalhousie--

Telegraph: In 1852, Under superintendence of O’Shaughnessy 4000 miles of lines

were laid down, connected Calcutta, Peshawar, Bombay & Madras telegraphically

proved to be a boon for Britishers in revolt of 1857

Railway : Started “guarantee system” by which the railway companies were

guaranteed a minimum interest of five percent on their investment Government

retained the right of buying the railway mainly for Defense, Commercial &

Administrative reasons.

1st Railway line – Bombay to Thane 1853

2nd Calcutta to Raniganj coal fields 1854

3rd Madras to Arakkonam 1856

Postal System : Laid down foundation of Modern postal system in 1854 with

introduction of postal stamps (Postal system started in 1837)

IES: Created separate public work departments, allotted more funds for cutting

canals & roads. Upper Gangatic panel was cut in 1854 many bridges were

constructed. Hence laid foundation of Indian engineering services

Social & Educational - Passed Widow Remarriage Act (1856) and recommended the

setting up of universities in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.



Civil services: In 1853, competitive examination for the Indian Civil Services began –

Written exam started in 1854 in India. Educational reforms of Sir Charles wood

(1854) are considered intellectual charted of India which provided an outline for

Primary, Secondary & Collegiate levels of education. In 1854, Charles Wood prepared

a dispatch on an educational system for India. Considered as “Magna Carta of English

Education in India”. This document was the 1st comprehensive plan for the spread of

education in India.

RAJASTHAN HISTORY

11. Who among the following Kings had built the Fort of Chittor?

A. Chitrangad

B. Satadhanvan

C. Devavarman

D. Samprati

Ans. A

Explanation: Chitrangada Mori was Mori/Mauryan ruler and founder of Chittorgarh as

inscribed on the coins found belonging to that period. Chittorgarh's ancient name

was Chitrakuta after its founder Chitrangada Mori. The Chittor Fort or Chittorgarh is one of

the largest forts in India. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

12. Who among the following was responsible for throwing a Bomb to assassinate Lord

Hardings in Delhi?

A. Pratap Singh Baharat

B. Jorawar Singh Barhat

C. Kesari Singh Barhat

D. Both A & B

Ans. D

Explanation: Pratap Singh Barahat, who was an independence activist from Rajasthan.

He took prominent part in the revolutionary movement against British rule in India. Born on

24 May 1893 at Udaipur in Udiapur District in Indian state of Rajasthan he joined the

https://www.jatland.com/home/Mori

https://www.jatland.com/home/Mori

https://www.jatland.com/home/Mauryan

https://www.jatland.com/home/Chittorgarh

https://www.jatland.com/home/Chittorgarh

https://www.jatland.com/home/Chitrakuta

http://www.hte.rajasthan.gov.in/dept/dce/maharshi_dayanand_saraswati_university_ajmer/s.p.s.b._govt_college,_shahpura,_bhilwara/uploads/doc/photo3.jpg



Revolutionary Party as a follower of Ras Bihari Bose. He participated in the revolutionary

plot to throw a bomb at Lord Hardinge, Viceroy of India on 3 December 1912. His

uncle Jorawar Singh Barhat was also in that group. He was arrested in Banaras Conspiracy

Case and was sentenced in Feb 1916 to five years RI. He was subjected to brutal torture

in Bareilly Central Jail to force him to divulge the names of his compatriots He refused. He

died in the jail on 7 May 1918 as an unsung hero. Jorawar Singh Baruth, uncle of Amar

Shaheed Pratapsingh Baruth and younger brother of the great freedom fighter Kesari Singh

Baruth was born on 12 September 1883 in Udaipur.

13. Who among the following was the founder of Marwar Prajamandal?

A. Megharam Vaidya

B. Subhash Chandra Bose

C. Jaynarayan Vyas

D.Manikya Lal Verma Hide Answer Jaynarayan Vyas

Ans. C

Explanation: The Praja Mandala movement was a part of the Indian independence

movement from the 1920s in which people living in the princely states, who were subject to

the rule of local aristocrats rather than the British Raj, campaigned against those feudatory

rulers, and sometimes also the British administration, in attempts to improve their civil

rights. In Rajasthan, Rajputana Desi Lok Parishad or Rajputana Native States Public Council

was established. These councils laid the foundation for Praja Mandal movement in

Rajasthan. The main demand of the Praja Mandal movements was the democratic

(fundamental) rights. Marwar Prajamandal was established by Jaynarayan Vyas in 1934.

14. The “Manmori Inscription” has been a source of knowledge about history of which

among the following areas of Rajasthan?

A. Mount Abu

B. Chittor

C. Udaipur & Mewar

D. Sirohi

Ans. B



Explanation: Manmori inscription is the famous Rock inscription of Rajasthan. It is in

the Sanskrit language. It gives historical facts about Raja Manbhanga. Colonel James

Todd once threw this inscription into the ocean.

15. Which among the following accounts of ancient Rajasthan provided an information upon

land revenue records?

A. Khareeta Bahi

B. Hukumatri Bahi

C. Adsatta

D. Patta Bahi

Ans. C

Explanation: Hakikat Bahi was an account for daily business of Kings, Patta Bahi was an

account of Patta of lands, Vivah Ri Bahi was an account of royal weddings, Kraeeta Bahi was

an acount of correspondence from VVIPs, Adsatta was an account of name of farmer, his

land, land revenue, details of crops etc.


List I List II

(Inscription) (About)

a. Rock Inscription of Barli 1. Guhil dynasty of Mewar

b. Hathibada Ghosundi Inscription 2. Abhayadutta as Rajvanshiya ruler

c. Khand Inscription 3. Ashvamedha Yajna performed by King Sarvatata

d. Sambholi Inscription 4. Jain cult and Lord Mahavira

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2



D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. A

Explanation: In ancient times, announcements, messages or instructions by King, were

carved into rocks or pillars. These rock edicts are deciphered by archaeologist and historians

in order to understand the belief and the system of administration of the kingdom. They are

considered as an authentic source.

1.Rock Inscription of Barli (443 B.C.) is first rock inscription in Brahmi script. It is found in

Ajmer, Rajasthan. It is about Jain cult and Lord Mahavira.

2. Hathibada Ghosundi Inscription (1st century B.C.) were found in Nagri village, near

Chittorgarh. Ghosundi inscription were found in Ghosundi village in Chittorgarh. It is written

in Brahmin script, both are part of one large inscription. Existence of Krishna and Balarama

have been mentioned in first three lines of Ghosundi inscription. It tells about Ashvamedha

Yajna performed by King Sarvatata.

3. Khand Inscription of Chittorgarh (6th century) is found in Chittorgarh. It is written in

Sanskrit. It tells about Vishnudatta as a good merchant and his son as a ‘Rajasthaniya’, an

officer deputed by the King. It mentions about Abhayadutta as Rajvanshiya ruler.

4. Sambholi Inscription (646 A.D.) is found in Sambholi, Bhomat in Mewar. It is written in

Sanskrit language. It gives information about Guhil dynasty of Mewar, victories of king

Shiladitya where he has been compared to moon for his qualities, economy, education,

mining and architecture during his time. Jetak, a man from Vat Nagar, set himself ablaze as a

religious tradition.

17. Assertion (A): Madho Singh founded the state of Kota.

Reason (R): Bhimsingh constructed AbaliMeeni Palace in Kota.






Ans. C



Explanation: Hada Chauhan were of Kota. In 1631, Madho Singh founded this state. Mukund

Singh constructed Abali Meeni Palace in Kota. Bhimsingh constructed Sawariyaji Temple in

Baran.

18. Assertion (A): Bagor is situated on the bank of river Kothari in Bhilwara District.

Reason (R): Kalibangan is located on the bank of river Ghaghhar in Hanumangarh District.






Ans. B

Explanation: Bagor is situated on the bank of river Kothari in Bhilwara District. A most

ancient source of animal husbandry is found here. Tools are excavated in large numbers.

Excavated by Virendranath Mishra. Biggest Mesolithic Site in India. Kalibangan Located on

the bank of river Ghaghhar in Hanumangarh District. Discovered by Amlanand Ghosh in

1953. Excavated by Brijvasilal in 1961. Evidence of ploughed field is found. Evidence of

growing Barley and Mustard are also found. Cylindrical seal of Mesopotamia is found here.

Houses were made from Raw bricks.

19. Consider the following statements about Banas Culture:

1. Important sites of Banas Culture are Gilund, Aahar, Ojiana, balathal, pachamta

2. Main crops of Banas Culture were wheat, barley, Millets , Bajra and Jawar.

3. Invention of first wheel industrial activities is important evidence in Banas Culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1, 2 and 3

C. Only 2 and 3

D. All of the above



Ans. D

Explanation: Ahar - Banas Culture (3000 to 1500 BC.), also known as Banas Culture/

Tamravati and Dhoolkot. It lies mainly in the river valleys of Banas and its tributaries ; in

South Eastern Rajasthan About 90 sites of this culture have been discovered; important

among them are gilund, Aahar, Ojiana, balathal, pachamta. It provides the evidence of early

farming rural communities who were contemporary to the the Indus valley civilizations. A

small chopper made of thin sheet of copper is an important antiquity of Ahar culture.

Faience of Harappan type is also noteworthy to established relationship with other

contemporary cultures. They were rural farming communities also engaged in in livestock

keeping and hunting. Main crops were wheat, barley, Millets , Bajra and Jawar. There is

remakable refinement in Technology ; invention of first wheel industrial activities ; mass

production of ceramics ;Metal Works and development of Bead industries. Beads were

made in in Shell, bone, Ivory ,semi -precious stones, steatite and Terracotta Evidences of

terracotta bull; names as banasian bull. Houses were square shaped & largely made up of

stones; walls were made of mud\ mud bricks They carried on trade with Indus Valley

Civilization people. Evidence of rice has been noticed in the form of Impressions on

potsherds Technology. It is located in Rajsamand district and drained by three rivers that is

Kothari, Banaras and berach. Excavation carried out under BB Lal in 1959 -60.

20. Consider the following statements about life in India during Revolt of Rajasthan 1857:

1. Bithoda (Pali) was the first place in Rajasthan where the Revolt of 1857 began on 28 May.

2. During 1857 revolt George Lawrence was the Agent to Governor-General (AGG).

3. Kushal Singh Champavat led the revolt in Erinpura.

4. There were six cantonments in Rajasthan Naseerabad, Devali, Erinpura, Kota, Kherwara

and Beawar.


A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1, 2 and 3

C. Only 2, 3 and 4

D. All of the above

Ans. C

Explanation: Revolt of Rajasthan 1857 - During 1857 revolt George Lawrence was the Agent

to Governor-General (AGG). Naseerabad was the first place in Rajasthan where the Revolt of



1857 began on 28 May. The news of revolt of Merrut reached A.G.G. George Lawerence and

he sent 15th Bengal Native Infantry located in Ajmer to Nasirabad due to which the

dissatisfaction among the soldiers was born. On 28 May 1857, Naseerabad was the first

place where the revolt began. Kushal Singh Champavat led the revolt in Erinpura. There

were six cantonments in Rajasthan Naseerabad, Devali, Erinpura, Kota, Kherwara and

Beawar. On 21 st August, revolt reached to Jodhpur region. Kota revolt was headed by

Mehrab Khan and Jadaya Kayashion. They killed Major Barton, his two sons and a doctor on

15 th October 1857 for which they were hanged on 3 rd March 1858. Reason for the failure

of revolt in Rajasthan: Lack of unity and organization, no support from rulers, no definite

leadership, no ammunition support, etc.

Geography

21. ‘Bardoli Chheerha’ refers to which of the following?

A. A local storm of hot whether season in Assam.

B. A blood oozing tree of Assam which recently got discovered.

C. A type of pesticide useful for blooming of coffee flowers in Assam.

D. A type of newly discovered species of Butterfly in Assam.

Ans. A

Explanation: Bardoli Chheerha is a local storm of hot whether season of Assam. Nor Westers

are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be

understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of

Baisakh. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms

are known as “Bardoli Chheerha”.

22. ‘A situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with

maldistribution of the same over time and space.’

The above statement refers to which of the following drought?

A. Agricultural Drought

B. Hydrological Drought

C. Ecological Drought



D. Meteorological Drought

Ans. D

Explanation: Agricultural Drought is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by

low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures.

Moreover, if an area has more than 30 per cent of its gross cropped area under irrigation,

the area is excluded from the drought-prone category. Hydrological Drought results when

the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs,

etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish. Ecological Drought occurs when the

productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of

ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem. Meteorological Drought is a

situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with

maldistribution of the same over time and space.

23. ‘Majuli’, the largest inhabited riverine island in the world is located on which river?

A. Ganga

B. Teesta

C. Brahmaputra

D. Barak

Ans. C

Explanation: Majuli, in the Brahmaputra river, is the largest inhabited riverine island in the

world.

24. Which of the following countries does not borders Black Sea?

A. Romania

B. Turkey

C. Albania

D. Ukraine

Ans. C

Explanation: Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia

and Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.



25. Which of the following are in ‘Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve’?

A. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park,

Mukurthi National Park and Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary.

B. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Valleys of flower National Park, Nanda Devi National Park,

Mukurthi National Park and Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary.

C. Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger

Reserve and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary.

D. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Mukurthi National Park and

Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary.

Ans. A

Explanation: National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:

Mudumalai National Park - The famous Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife

Sanctuary is situated at the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills near Coimbatore in

Tamil Nadu and interstate boundaries with Karnataka and Kerala. It is also a UNESCO

World Heritage Site.

Mudumalai wildlife sanctuaries is one of the first wildlife park established in India

and declared a Tiger Reserve. It is an important wildlife habitat and Wildlife Corridor

between Bandipur National Park,Nagarhole National Park and Wayanad Wildlife

Sanctuary.

The Bandipur National Park is a tiger reserve located in Chamarajanagar district of

Karnataka and known for its Biomes and dry deciduous forest. The tiger reserve is

one of the most famous national park in south India and along with

Mudumalai,Wynad and Nagarhole it is the largest protected area of south India.

The Nagarhole National Park is located between the Kodagu and Mysore district in

Karnataka state. Nagarhole National Park is heavily forested Project Tiger tiger

reserve and cover with small water streams, big mountain hills, deep valleys and

spectacular waterfalls. It is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park ranges from

foothills of the Western Ghats to down the Brahmagiri hills towards Kerala.

The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is a second largest wildlife park in Kerala and

declared a Project Elephant, Elephant Reserves.

The Mukurthi National Park is situated western part of Nilgiris Plateau in the

Western Ghats mountain range.

The Silent Valley National Park is the core area of the Nilgiri International Biosphere

Reserve and part of World Heritage Site the Western Ghats.




List I List II

(Lake) (Location)

a. Wular 1. Rajasthan

b. Chilka 2. Orissa

c. Loktak 3. Manipur

d. Nakki 4. Jammu and Kashmir

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. B

Explanation: Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh water lakes in Asia. It is sited in

Bandipora district in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The lake basin was

formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum River. The lake’s size varies

seasonally from 12 to 100 square miles. Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over

the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India, at the

mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal, covering an area of over 1,100 km².

Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis

floating over it. The lake is located at Moirang in Manipur state, India. Nakki Lake is a lake

situated in the Indian hill station of Mount Abu in Aravalli range.

27. Assertion (A): Radial pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the

terrain and resembles the branches of tree.

Reason (R): Narmada, Son and Mahanadi are good examples of radial pattern.








Ans. B

Explanation: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the

terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name

dendritic. The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a

central peak or dome like structure. A good example of a radial drainage pattern is provided

by the rivers originating from the Amarkantak Mountain. Rivers like Narmada, Son and

Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak Hills flow in different directions and are good

examples of radial pattern.

28. Assertion (A): Coriolis force is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles.

Reason (R): Absence of coriolis force would not result in the formation of a tropical cyclone.






Ans. D

Explanation: The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum

at the poles and is absent at the equator. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the

wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. Presence of the Coriolis force is one of the pre-

requisite for the formation and intensification of the tropical storm.

29. Arrange the following seas from South to North:

1. North Sea

2. Black Sea



3. Baltic Sea

4. Mediterranean Sea

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1 – 2 – 3-– 4

B. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

C. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

D. 4 – 2–1 – 3

Ans. D

Explanation: Please refer Map to locate.

30. Identify the type of vegetation based on the following characteristics:

1. It is found in the higher latitudes of Northern Hemisphere and also in the higher altitudes.

2. They are tall, softwood evergreen trees.

3. The woods of these forests are very useful for making pulp which is used in paper and

newsprint.

4. Chir, Pine, Cedar etc are important varieties of trees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. Tropical Deciduous Forests

B. Mediterranean Forests

C. Temperate Deciduous Forests

D. Temperate Coniferous Forests

Ans. D

Explanation: These are the characteristics of Coniferous Forests which are also called Taiga

which means pure or untouched in Russian Language.

Rajasthan Geography



31. Which city is called as Purple City?

A. Kota

B. Tonk

C. Jhalawar

D. Bharatpur

Ans. C

Explanation: Rajasthan has colour-coordinated cities like Jodhpur is blue, Udaipur is white,

Jaipur is Pink and Jhalawar is purple. It is solely famous for the large numbers of temples

and religious sites. Jhalawar was named after its founder, Jhala Zalim Singh in 1838. He was

the Dewan of Kota State and established the town as a cantonment, then known as Chaoni

Umedpura near the existing Jhalrapatan Fort.

32. Which district of Rajasthan has the highest Literacy percentage?

A. Bikaner

B. Kota

C. Jaipur

D. Tonk

Ans. B

Explanation: Jalore had lowest literacy rate in state at 55.58%. The highest male literacy was

reported in Jhunjhunu at 87.88% followed by Kota (87.65%) and Jaipur (87.27%). The overall

literacy percentage in the state of Rajasthan, combining female and male literacy rates,

is 69.7%. The male literacy rate in the state is 80.8%.

33. In Which district of Rajasthan Mica mixed hematite iron ore is found?

A. Bhilwara

B. Jodhpur

C. Jaipur

D. Kota

Ans. A



Explanation: Rajasthan is the richest state in terms of availability and variety of minerals in

the country and produces about 30 different minerals. Rajasthan is the sole producer of lead

& zinc ores and conc., calcite, selenite and wollastonite. The Iron-Ore Deposits are located in

the district of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and

Banswara. About 2621 million tones resources of Iron–Ore (Both Hematite & Magnetite) are

estimated in the State. Iron ore (hematite) is found in in Alwar, Dausa, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu,

Sikar & Udaipur districts; iron ore (magnetite) is found in Bhilwara, Jhunjhunu & Sikar

districts.

34. The popular Jaswant animal fair is conducted in which district of Rajasthan?

A. Kota

B. Karoli

C. Bharatpur

D. Jaisalmer

Ans. C

35. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which Rajasthan district?

A. Udaipur

B. Baran

C. Dholpur

D. Banswara

Ans. D

Explanation: Rajasthan is placed in the north-western division of India. The Tropic of Cancer

passes through its South tip in its Banswara district. The total length of tropic of cancer

is 26KM in the Rajasthan state.


List I List II

(Dance) (Tribe)



a. Ghoomar Dance 1. Kanjar tribe

b. Kathputli Dance 2. Kamada tribes

c. Terah Taali 3. Bhati community

d. Chakri Dance 4. Bhil Tribe

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. A

Explanation: Ghoomar Dance is traditional as well as enthusiastic folk dance. It was basically

developed by Bhil tribe and later accepted by other Rajasthani community. The Kachhwaha

Clan of Rajputs who ruled Jaipur defeated the Bhils and later acceded to peaceful

coexistence with them. Now it is performed all over Rajasthan but especially in Udaipur,

Jodhpur and Kota Bundi. It is dedicated to “Gauri” or Parvati, wife of Lord Shiva. Kathputli

Dance is world-famous and well known as Puppet Dance. It shows and explains the social

problems of society and mythological stories, folktales, etc. In the ancient period this art

was practised by Bhati community and might have originated from present-day Nagaur and

surrounding areas. Terah Taali It begins with the women, who sit on the floor and her body

parts are joined with the Manjeeras which are fixed on their wrists, elbows, waists, arms

and a pair in their hands as well and her accompanists sing slowly in the beat. This dance is

performed by the Kamada tribes who are traditional snake charmers and it is also

performed by the tribes of Mirasi, Bhand, Dholi, Bhat and Nat. Male artists sing local

Rajasthani folk songs as background music and play different instruments like pakhawaj,

dholak jhanjhar, sarangi, harmonium etc. Chakri Dance is the most popular folk dance of

Kanjar tribe inhabited in some parts of Kota and Buran district and this dance is also their

main source of livelihood. It is performed in almost all the occasion of Haroti region of

Rajasthan. It is believed to be same as the Raai dance of ‘Beriya’ tribe of Madhya Pradesh.

Main Instruments includes Dholak and Nagada with vocals.

37. Assertion (A): The Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert is known as the "Desert State

of India."



Reason (R): The Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert encompasses about 90% of total

landmass of Rajasthan.






Ans. C

Explanation: The Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert encompasses about 70% of total

landmass of Rajasthan and hence it is identified as the "Desert State of India". The Rajasthan

desert which forms a major portion of the Thar Desert is the biggest desert in India and

encompasses the districts of Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur. In fact the Rajasthan

Desert comprises the desert triangle of three cities - Jaisalmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur. The

desert becomes very hot during the summer and it experiences extreme climate with an

average annual rainfall less than 25 cm. Days are hot and the nights are cold.

38. Assertion (A): the Banas River, rises in the Aravallis near the great Kumbhalgarh hill fort

and collects all the drainage of the Mewar plateau.

Reason (R): The Luni is the only significant river west of the Aravallis.






Ans. B

Explanation: The Aravallis form Rajasthan’s most-important watershed. To the east of the

range, the Chambal River—the only large and perennial stream in the state—and other

waterways generally drain toward the northeast. The principal tributary of the Chambal,

the Banas River, rises in the Aravallis near the great Kumbhalgarh hill fort and collects all the

drainage of the Mewar plateau. Farther north, the Banganga, after rising near Jaipur, flows

east toward the Yamuna before disappearing. The Luni is the only significant river west of

https://www.britannica.com/place/Banas-River

https://www.britannica.com/place/Luni-River

https://www.britannica.com/place/Chambal-River

https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/perennial

https://www.britannica.com/place/Banas-River

https://www.britannica.com/place/Jaipur-India

https://www.britannica.com/place/Yamuna-River

https://www.britannica.com/place/Luni-River



the Aravallis. It rises near the city of Ajmer in central Rajasthan and flows some 200 miles

(320 km) west-southwest into the Rann of Kachchh in Gujarat state. Northeast of the Luni

basin is an area of internal drainage characterized by salt lakes, the largest of which

is Sambhar Salt Lake.

39. Consider the following statements about plains of Rajasthan:

1. Luni-Jawai Basin is a semi-arid plain.

2. Pali, Jalor, Jodhpur and Nagaur are included in Luni-Jawai Basin.

3. Jhunjhunu, Sikar and Churu and Northern part of Nagaur are Ghaghhar River Basin.

4. Ganganagar and Hamumangarh are formed by the Shekhawati Region Basin.


A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1, 2 and 3

C. Only 2, 3 and 4

D. All of the above

Ans. A

Explanation: Shekhawati Region It is also called ‘Banger Region’. Jhunjhunu, Sikar and Churu

and Northern part of Nagaur are included in it. This is a sandy region having sand dunes of

less height. Here the sand dunes are of the transverse type. Luni-Jawai Basin is a semi-arid

plain. Luni and its tributaries rivers flow in this region. Pali, Jalor, Jodhpur and Nagaur are

included in this region. It is a river-based plain; hence it is called Luni Basin. Shekhawati

Region It is also called ‘Banger Region’. Jhunjhunu, Sikar and Churu and Northern part of

Nagaur are included in it. This is a sandy region having sand dunes of less height. Here the

sand dunes are of the transverse type. Plain of Ghaghhar Plains of Ganganagar and

Hamumangarh are formed by the flow of Ghaghhar River. Presently, this river is considered

dead because it doesn’t have a flowing way. Ghaghhar River is the ancient river Saraswati

which has disappeared. Thus it became a plain suitable for agriculture.

40. Consider the following statements about lakes of Rajasthan:

1. Some famous Salt Water Lakes are Faloda, Kuchaman, Kovaad, Kachhor, Rewasa, etc.

https://www.britannica.com/place/Ajmer

https://www.britannica.com/place/Rann-of-Kachchh

https://www.britannica.com/place/Sambhar-Salt-Lake



2. Some famous fresh water lakes are Navlakkha Lake (Bundi), Kolayat Lake (Bikaner), Shaiv

Sagar (Dungarpur), Galata and Ramgarh (Jaipur), Balsamand Lake (Jodhpur), Kailana Lake.

3. Sambhar Lake lake receives water from five rivers Medtha, Samaod, Mantha, Rupangarh

and khandel.

4. Kakani river is also known as Dead River.


A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1, 2 and 3

C. Only 2, 3 and 4

D. All of the above

Ans. B

Explanation: In Rajasthan, Lakes are divided into two categories - Saltwater Lake and Fresh

(Sweet) Water Lake. Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland Salt Water Lake. It has been

designated as a Ramsar site because this wetland is a favourite spot for migratory birds like

Pink Flamingo. The total area of the lake is 150 km2 . The lake receives water from five rivers

Medtha, Samaod, Mantha, Rupangarh and khandel. Ghaghhar River is considered as the

oldest river of India, i. e. Saraswati. It flows from Harayana to Hanumangarh, Ganganagar,

Suratgarh, Anupgarh and enters in Pakistan. It is also called Dead River. Kakani or Kakneya

River Originates from Kotari village and disappear after travelling some distance.

Polity

41. Which of the following amendments had enabled the High Courts to issue writs to any

person or authority even outside its territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises

within its territorial limits?

A. 9th Amendment Act

B. 15th Amendment Act

C. 24th Amendment Act

D. 42nd Amendment Act

Ans. B



Explanation: Constitutional (15th Amendment) Act, 1963 --

1. Enabled the High Courts to issue writs to any person or authority even outside its

territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises within its territorial limits.

2. Increased the retirement age of the High Court judges from 60 to 62 years.

3. Provided for the appointment of retired judges of the High Courts as acting judges of the

same court.

4. Provided the compensatory allowance to judges who are transferring from one High

Court to another.

5. Enabled the retired judge of High Court to act as ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court.

6. Provided for the procedure for determining the age of the Supreme Court and High Court

judges.

42. Deputy Speaker can resign from his office by writing to the:

A. President

B. Speaker

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Vice President

Ans. B

Explanation: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of

the Lok Sabha. However, he may vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

1. if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;

2. if he resigns by writing to the Speaker; and

3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha.

Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.

43. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts introduced a new provision to

put restraint on the power of the Parliament to extend a Proclamation of the President’s

Rule beyond one year?

A. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act



B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

C. 46th Constitutional Amendment Act

D. 56th Constitutional Amendment Act

Ans. A

Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put restraint

on the power of the Parliament to extend a Proclamation of the President’s Rule beyond

one year.

44. Which of the following statements related to the State Legislature is correct?

A. The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the State

Legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill.

B. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing the Bill for the

second time and vice versa.

C. If a Bill originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative Assembly, is

rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.

D. None of the above

Ans. C

Explanation: The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of

the Parliament, not State Legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage

of a Bill. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing the Bill for

the second time and not vice versa. The mechanism of passing the Bill for the second time

to resolve a deadlock applies to a Bill originating in the Legislative Assembly only. When a

Bill, which has originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative Assembly, is

rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.

45. ‘It is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to

improve public health.’ It is mentioned in which Part of the Constitution?

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Directive Principles of State Policy



D. Preamble

Ans. C

Explanation: Article 47- It is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the

standard of living and to improve public health.


List I List II

(Items) (List of Seventh Schedule)

a. Banking 1. Union List

b. Prison 2. State List

c. Forest 3. Concurrent List

d. Cyber Laws 4. Residuary powers

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. D

Explanation: List of Seventh Schedule---

Union List includes subjects’ like- Defense, Atomic Energy, Foreign Affairs, War and

Peace, Banking, Railways, Post and Telegraph, Airways, Ports, Foreign Trade,

Currency & Coinage.

State List includes subjects’ like- Agriculture, Police, Prison, Local Government, Public

Heath, Land, Liquor, Trade and Commerce, Livestock and Animal Husbandry, State

Public Services.



Concurrent List includes subjects’ like - Education, Transfer of Property other than

Agricultural land, Forests, Trade Unions, Adulteration, Adoption and Succession.

Residuary Powers include all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. On

Cyber Laws Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate.

47. Assertion (A): The Zonal Councils are extra constitutional bodies.

Reason (R): The States have been divided into four zones.






Ans. C

Explanation: The Zonal Councils provide a forum where irritants between the Centre and the

States and among the States themselves can be resolved through free and frank discussions

and consultations. The States have been divided into five zones and each zone has its

Council comprising the Chief Minister, two Ministers and the Chief Secretary of each State.

The Zonal Councils are headed by the Union Home Minister and each zone nominates one

Chief Minister as its Vice-Chairman on rotation basis. The Zonal Councils are statutory (and

not constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, the

States Reorganisation Act of 1956.

48. Assertion (A): Voting of demands for grants is done in both the Rajya Sabha and Lok

Sabha.

Reason (R): Guillotine is resorted to pass demands for grants on the last day.








Ans. D

Explanation: the voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha,

that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. Second, the voting is confined

to the votable part of the budget — the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of

India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed). Each demand is voted

separately by the Lok Sabha. During this stage, the members of Parliament can discuss the

details of the budget. They can also move motions to reduce any demand for grant. In total,

26 days are allotted for the voting of demands. On the last day the Speaker puts all the

remaining demands to vote and disposes them whether they have been discussed by the

members or not. This is known as ‘guillotine’.

49. Consider the following statements regarding the territorial extent of the Central and

State Legislation:

1. The laws made by a State Legislature can never be applied outside the state.

2. The Parliament can make ‘extraterritorial legislation’.

3. The President may repeal or amend any act of the Parliament in relation to the Andaman

and Nicobar Islands.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

Explanation: The Constitution defines the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in

the Centre and the states in the following way:

1. The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The

territory of India includes the states, the union territories and any other area for the time

being included in the territory of India.

2. A State Legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made

by a State Legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient

nexus between the state and the object.



3. The Parliament alone can make ‘extraterritorial legislation’. Thus, the laws of the

Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the

world.

The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the

four Union Territories — the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar

Haveli and Daman and Diu. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an Act of

the Parliament. It may also repeal or amend any Act of the Parliament in relation to these

union territories.

50. Which of the following Committees and their recommendations is/are correctly

matched?

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - Recommended the establishment of the scheme of

‘democratic decentralisation’.

2. G.V.K. Rao Committee- Recommended for official participation of political parties at all

levels of panchayat elections.

3. Thungon Committee – Recommended that the Panchayati Raj bodies should be

constitutionally recognized.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. A

Explanation: Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the establishment of the scheme

of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Ashok Mehta Committee recommended that there should be an official participation of

political parties at all levels of panchayat elections. Thungon Committee recommended that

the Panchayati Raj bodies should be constitutionally recognized.

Rajasthan Polity



51. Rajasthan State Formation day is celebrated on -

A. 05, October

B. 17, August

C. 01, November

D. 01, August

Ans. C

Explanation: The present State of Rajasthan was created on 30 January 1949 by merging the

earlier state of Rajputana and a number of princely states. After 1947 the princely states

and chiefships were integrated into India in stages, and the state took the name Rajasthan.

It assumed its present form on November 1, 1956, when the States Reorganization Act came

into force.

52. What is the total Number of districts in Rajasthan?

A. 28

B. 33

C. 38

D. 24

Ans. B

Explanation: As of 2021, there are a total of 33 districts in Rajasthan with 7 divisions.

Jaisalmer District is the largest while Dholpur is the smallest district in terms of area.

53. Total Number of Assembly seats in Rajasthan?

A.198

B. 200

C. 204

D. 210

Ans. B



Explanation: The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly is the unicameral state legislature

of Rajasthan state in India. The assembly meets at Vidhana Bhavan situated in Jaipur, the

capital of Rajasthan. Members of the Legislative assembly are directly elected by the people

for a term of 5 years. Presently, the legislative assembly consists of 200 members.

54. Who was the first Chief Minister of the Rajasthan?

A. Pandit Hiralal Shastri

B. Mohan Lal Sukhadia

C. Hira Lal Devpura

D. Shiv Charan Mathur

Ans. A

Explanation: The present State of Rajasthan was created on 30 January 1949 by merging the

earlier state of Rajputana and a number of princely states. These latter were further

regrouped in 1956. Hiralal Shastri, a prominent politician and educationist, the serving

‘Prime Minister’ of the princely Jaipur State, was appointed as the 1st Chief Minister of this

state. (General election in India came into effect in 1952).

55. Which state first started the Panchayat Raj System in India?

A. Rajasthan

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Bihar

Ans. A

Explanation: The system later came to be known as Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated

by the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour

in Rajasthan. The first elections under the Rajasthan Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads

Act, 1959 were held in September-October 1959.

56. The Chairman of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission may be suspended—

A. By the Chief Minister of Rajasthan



B. By the Chief Secretary of Rajasthan

C. By the Governor of Rajasthan

D. By Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court

Ans. C

Explanation: Rajasthan Public Service Commission is the premier commission of the

government of Rajasthan, for organizing recruitment exams, procedures for recruiting

employees, officers to various departments of the government. The RPSC office is located

at Jaipur road, Ajmer, Rajasthan.

57. Assertion (A): The Advocate General office of Rajasthan came into existence on the

formation of the State of Rajasthan as per the State Re-Organization Act 1956 when the

High Court of Rajasthan was established.

Reason (R): Late Shri G.C. Kasliwal became the first Advocate General for the State of

Rajasthan.






Ans. B

Explanation: Advocate General is the Highest Law Officer and is part of state executive. It is

a Constitutional post and Article 165 in Constitution of India is about it. The Advocate

General office of Rajasthan came into existence on the formation of the State of Rajasthan

as per the State Re-Organization Act 1956 when the High Court of Rajasthan was

established. On the formation of the new State of Rajasthan, Late Shri G.C. Kasliwal became

the first Advocate General for the State of Rajasthan. The AG's office presents all the cases

in which the Govt. of Rajasthan is one of the parties, in the High Court of Rajasthan at

Principal Seat at Jodhpur and Bench at Jaipur.

58. Assertion (A): Article 39-A came to be inserted in the constitution by amendment Act

1976 with effect from 3.1.1977.



Reason (R): The headquarters of Rajasthan State Legal Services Authority is located at

Jodhpur.






Ans. C

Explanation: Article 39-A came to be inserted in the constitution by amendment Act 1976

with effect from 3.1.1977. It enjoins upon the state to secure that the operation of legal

System promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity and in particular to provide free

legal aid by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way and to ensure that

opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or

other disabilities. Equal justice to all and free legal aid are hallmark of Article 39-A. The

headquarters of Rajasthan State Legal Services Authority is located at Jaipur.

59. Consider the following statements about Rajasthan High Court:

1. Before inauguration of the new State, a committee consisting of Shri B.R.Patel, the then

Chief Secretary to the Government of PEPSU, Lt. Col. T.C.Puri, Director of Health Service and

Shri S.P. Sinha, Superintending Engineer, CPWD, was constituted to resolve the issues

relating to location of the capital and the seat of the High Court.

2. The committee submitted its report on March 27, 1949 with a recommendation that

Jaipur should be made capital of the new State and the High Court should be located at

Jodhpur.

3. In the newly created State, five High Courts were functioning at Jaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner,

Udaipur (being capital of United Rajasthan with a bench at Kota) and Alwar (being capital of

Matsya State) with a total strength of 20 judges.


A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1 and 3

C. Only 2 and 3



D. All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: The High Court was duly inaugurated on August 29, 1949. In an impressive

function, presided by Rajpramukh His Highness Maharaja Sawai Man Singh, oath was

administered to Hon'ble Justice Kamal Kant Verma (former Chief Justice of Allahabad High

Court and former Chief Justice of Udaipur High Court) as Chief Justice along with 11 other

judges. These 11 judges represented most of the princely States.

60. Consider the following statements about House of people’s representatives in Rajasthan

:

1. As per the provisions of Article 168 of the newly framed Constitution of India, Rajasthan

opted for unicameral character and its legislature is known as the Rajasthan Legislative

Assembly.

2. The legislature, which is running its Fifteenth term, was first elected by adult franchise in

1952 and this process is continuing with the exceptions of 1967, 1977, 1980 and 1992 when

the Presidential Rule was in force.


A. Both 1 and 2

B. Only 1

C. Only 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

Explanation: The evolution of the House of people's representatives in Rajasthan has an

important place in the constitutional history of India as it was the outcome of the merger of

22 princely States of the erstwhile Rajputana with the Union of India. As per the provisions

of Article 168 of the newly framed Constitution of India, every state had to establish a

legislature consisting of one or two Houses. Rajasthan opted for unicameral character and

its legislature is known as the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. The strength of the Rajasthan

Legislative Assembly which is determined by delimitation Commission, was 160 in 1952 and

presently stands as 200 after many more recommendations of the same Commission.



Economics

61. Economic growth in India is measured by change in GDP at:

A. Constant market prices

B. Current market prices

C. Factor Cost at constant prices

D. Factor Cost at market prices

Ans. A

Explanation: Real gross domestic product (Real GDP) is an inflation-adjusted measure that

reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year

(expressed in base-year prices) and is often referred to as constant-price GDP, inflation-

corrected GDP, or constant dollar GDP.

62. According to the Economic Survey 2020-21, what was the per capita income of

Rajasthan in 2019-20?

A. Rs 1, 57,192

B. Rs 82,072

C. Rs 1, 18,159

D. Rs 68,048

Ans. C

Explanation: Per Capita Income is the mean income of the people in an economic unit such

as a country a state or a city. To know per capita income, the total income of a unit is

divided by the population of that unit. The Per Capita Income of Rajasthan at current prices

is estimated to be Rs 1,18,159 for year 2019-20 as compared to Rs 57,192 for the year 2011-

12.

63. What is the index of industrial production in Rajasthan at present?

A. 2000-01

B. 2010-11



C. 2011-12

D. 2004-05

Ans. C

Explanation: The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a short-term micro economic

indicator widely used in measuring the industrial growth of the State. The index indicates

the relative change over time in the volume of production in industrial sector and it is an

effective tool to measure the trend of current industrial production. At present state

compiled IIP on a monthly basis under base year 2004-05. The current IIP series based on

294 items. It has now been decided to shift the base year of comparable state level IIP’s also

for 2004-05 to 2011-12 for new base year 2011-12 the weight selection of item basket and

selection of units list has been provided by C.S.O. Kolkata. New base year IIP series based on

156 items/product groups for manufacturing sector, NIC 2008 Divisions 10 to 32 are

considered. Shifting of base year 2011-12 are in process to get monthly Production data

from April 2011 on wards for selected item for selected units in prescribed format given by

C.S.O.

64. Who has been appointed as the chairman of the 6th Finance Commission of Rajasthan

on 12th April 2021?

A. Ashok Lahoti

B. Niranjan Arya

C. Pradyuman Singh

D. CP Joshi

Ans. C

Explanation: Governor Kalraj Mishra appointed former finance minister Pradyuman Singh as

chairman of the state finance commission while Laxman Singh Rawat and Ashok Lahoti as

members.

65. According to the Gross State Domestic Product of the Economic Survey 2020-21, what

was the economic growth rate of Rajasthan?

A. 7.10%

B. – 7.22%



C. 7.4%

D. 5.03%

Ans. D

Explanation: The Gross State Domestic Product of Rajasthan for 2020-21 (at current prices)

is projected to be Rs 11,33,298 crore. This is an 11% increase over the revised estimate for

2019-20. Total expenditure for 2020-21 is estimated to be Rs 2,25,731 crore, a 0.4% increase

over the revised estimate of 2019-20. GDP growth is 5% (2019-20 est.).

66. Postponing the "Fiscal Deficit" target or Fiscal Slippage may result in which of the

following:

A. Decrease in bond prices

B. Increase in bond yield

C. Increase in market interest rates

D. Decrease in market interest rates

Ans. D

Explanation: When government postpones its fiscal deficit target or when fiscal deficit

increases then interest rate in the economy goes up because government borrows more

(demand supply concept). When interest rate in the economy goes up bond prices comes

down and the return/yield on bonds goes up.

67. Assertion (A): Insurance penetration is measured as the percentage of insurance

premium to GDP.

Reason (R): Insurance density is measured as the ratio of premium (in US dollar) to total

population.








Ans. B

Explanation: Life Insurance penetration is 2.74% and Life insurance density is $55.

68. Assertion (A): Employment elasticity measures the percentage change in economic

growth with respect to 1% increase in employment.

Reason (R): Agriculture sector has more employment elasticity as compared to other sectors

of the economy.






Ans. D

Explanation: Employment Elasticity (of growth) is a measure of percentage change in

employment associated with 1 percentage change in economic growth.

Employment elasticity = % change in employment/ % change in economic growth

69. Which of the following will be the impact of rupee depreciation?

1. Exports will become more competitive

2. Exporters will fetch more dollars for the same amount of goods exported

3. Demand for domestic goods and services will increase


A. 1. only

B. 2. only

C. 1. & 3. only

D. All of the above

Ans. C



Explanation: When a country devalues its currency, then exporters are able to sell their

product in the international market at a lesser price without compromising their earnings.

So, we also say that exporters become more competitive and demand for domestic goods

and services increases as the price gets reduced.

70. Which of the following statements are true with reference to Special Economic Zones

(SEZ)?

1. SEZ units may import/procure goods and services from Domestic Tariff Area (DTA)

without payment of customs/import duty

2. Customs duty is imposed on sale from SEZ to DTA

3. SEZ units should be net foreign exchange earners


A. 1. only

B. 1. & 3. only

C. 3. only

D. All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: “Domestic Tariff Area” (DTA) means the whole of India (including the territorial

waters and continental shelf) but does not include the areas of the Special Economic Zones

(SEZs). “Special Economic Zone” (SEZ) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave and shall

be deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties and

tariffs. SEZ units may be set up for manufacture of goods and rendering of services.

Environment and Ecology

71. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature are called as

eurythermal.

B. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a narrow range of temperatures are called

as stenothermal.



C. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinity are called as

euryhaline.


Ans. D

Explanation: A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures (they

are called eurythermal), but, a vast majority of them are restricted to a narrow range of

temperatures (such organisms are called stenothermal). The levels of thermal tolerance of

different species determine, to a large extent, their geographical distribution. Some

organisms are tolerant of a wide range of salinities (euryhaline), but others are restricted to

a narrow range (stenohaline). Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water and

vice versa, because of the osmotic problems they would face.

72. Tehran Convention is related to which of the following?

A. Iran Nuclear Deal Framework

B. Protection of Caspian Sea’s environment

C. Protection of Baltic Sea’s environment


Ans. B

Explanation: The understanding of the necessity to protect and preserve the Caspian Sea’s

natural resources for future generations and that this goal can only be achieved through

international co-operation was at the heart of the intent to create the Framework

Convention for the Protection of the Marine Environment of the Caspian Sea, the Tehran

Convention. By ratifying the Convention, the five parties Azerbaijan, Iran, Kazakhstan, Russia

and Turkmenistan confirmed their readiness to go the path of sustainable development and

to take environmental concerns into account in their development planning. Having

entered into force in 2006, the Tehran Convention is the first regional legally binding

instrument signed by all five Caspian littoral states.

73. The Sailesh Nayak Committee Report is related to which of the following?

A. Green Gross Domestic Product

B. Coastal Zone Regulation



C. Biodiversity of the Western Ghats


Ans. B

Explanation: The Sailesh Nayak Committee was commissioned in 2014 after states

expressed dissatisfaction regarding the limitations set by the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)

notification of 2011. The Report was submitted in 2015 after rounds of stakeholders

meetings with the representatives from the coastal states.

74. Which one of the following is the best description of the term “ecological niche”?

A. The area in which organism or a population of organisms is adapted to live and grow.

B. That part of the earth which is inhabited by living organisms.

C. The flora and fauna of a geographical area.

D. The physical position in the food chain and the functional role of a species in the

environment.

Ans. D

Explanation: Each organism has an invariably defined range of conditions that it can

tolerate, diversity in the resources it utilizes and a distinct functional role in the ecological

system, all these together comprise its niche. The ecological niche of an organism consists of

all the physical, chemical and biological conditions it needs in order to live in the habitat.

The niche includes the organism’s food habits, way of nesting and reproduction, etc.

75. Keoladeo national park, Rajasthan was placed on the Montreux Record in which of the

following year?

A. 1990

B. 1991

C. 1992

D. 1993

Ans. A



Explanation: Due to the water shortage and an unbalanced grazing regime around Keoladeo

national park which is located in the Bharatpur district of Rajasthan, it was placed on the

Montreux Record in the year 1990.


List I List II

(National Park) (Location)

a. Inderkilla 1. Chhattisgarh

b. Mukundra Hills 2. Maharashtra

c. Indravati 3. Rajasthan

d. Gugamal 4. Himachal Pradesh

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. C

77. Assertion (A): BirdLife international is a Global Partnership of Conservation

Organizations.

Reason (R): The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.








Ans. C

Explanation: BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that

strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity. It is working with people

towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World’s largest partnership of

conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations. An Important Bird and

Biodiversity Area (IBA. is an area recognized as being globally important habitat for the

conservation of bird populations. The program was developed and sites are identified by

BirdLife International.

78. Assertion (A): National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian

agriculture.

Reason (R): Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological

resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.






Ans. A

Explanation: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) checks the biopiracy and protects the

indigeneous and traditional genetic resources. It directly monitors and supervises the

scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants application for intellectual

property Rights related to genetic biological resources cannot be made without the

approval of NBA.

79. Consider the following statements about wetlands:

1. Wetlands are transitional lands between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.

2. They are among the most diverse and productive ecosystems, compared to rainforests

and coral reefs.

3. They are also called as ‘kidneys of the landscape’.




A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Explanation: Wetlands are lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems,

where the water table is usually at or near the surface, or the land is covered by shallow

water. Wetlands are vital for earth ecosystem for several reasons:

They are among the most diverse and productive ecosystems, compared to

rainforests and coral reefs.

They are called as ‘the kidneys of the landscape’, because they clean polluted

waters, prevent floods, protect shorelines and recharge aquifers.

They are also called as ‘biological supermarkets’, because of their extensive food

webs, rich biodiversity and unique habitats.

80. Consider the following statements about the Mediterranean forests:

1. They are considered to be a bridge between the tropical and the temperate forests.

2. They are also called as woodland shrub.

3. They have cold-dry winters and mildrainy summers.

4. They are observed in Australia, South Africa and California.


A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. B

Explanation: The Mediterranean forests are considered to be a bridge between the tropical

and the temperate forests. They are also called as woodland shrub or chaparral. The five

Mediterranean climate zones include not only the forests that are scattered around the

Mediterranean, but also those in California, parts of Chile, South Africa and Australia. It has



hot- dry summers, and mild and rainy winters. All the rainfall occurs in winters and spring.

Precipitation is less than 100 cm per year.

Science

81. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Elastocaloric effect?

A. Reversible thermal response to changes, induced by an applied electric field.

B. Cooling effect produced by twisting and untwisting of rubber bands.

C. Heating or cooling of materials under external pressure variation.

D. Energy released in a fuel or food by the complete combustion of a specified quantity of it.

Ans. B

Explanation: When rubbers bands are twisted and untwisted, it produces a cooling effect.

This is called the “elastocaloric” effect. In the elastocaloric effect, the transfer of heat works

much the same way as when fluid refrigerants are compressed and expanded. When a

rubber band is stretched, it absorbs heat from its environment and when it is released, it

gradually cools down. The level of efficiency of the heat exchange in rubber bands “is

comparable to that of standard refrigerants and twice as high as stretching the same

materials without twisting”. So, it can be a potential alternative for fluid refrigerants used in

fridges and air-conditioners. The barocaloric effect is the heating or cooling of materials

under external pressure variation.

82. Scuba Rice, relates to which of the following?

A. Flood-resistant rice

B. Rice fortified with Vitamin A

C. Another name for seaweed

D. Pest-resistant rice

Ans. A

Explanation: Scuba Rice is a variety of rice that is able to withstand floods up to two weeks.

It is now being grown by the farmers in India, Bangladesh, the Philippines and Indonesia.

Farmers in China are also growing a variety, called “sea rice”, that is able to withstand high

levels of alkalinity.



83. The Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter (LRO), a multipurpose spacecraft to make a

comprehensive atlas of the Moon’s features and resources, was launched by which of the

following organizations/ institutions?

A. ISRO

B. NASA

C. Roscosmos

D. SpaceX

Ans. B

Explanation: The Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter, or LRO, is a multipurpose NASA spacecraft,

launched in 2009, to make a comprehensive atlas of the Moon’s features and resources.

Since launch, LRO has measured the coldest temperatures in the solar system inside the

Moon’s permanently shadowed craters, detected evidence of water ice at the Moon’s South

Pole, seen hints of recent geologic activity on the Moon, found newly-formed craters from

present day meteorite impacts, tested space borne laser communication technology and

much more.

84. Spiders have no wings, but they can take to the air. They can climb to an exposed point,

raise their abdomens to the sky, extrude strands of silk and float away.

Which of the following terms correctly describes this behaviour?

A. Ratooning

B. Ballooning

C. Floating

D. Air swimming

Ans. B

Explanation: Spiders have no wings, but they can take to the air nonetheless. They will climb

to an exposed point, raise their abdomens to the sky, extrude strands of silk and float away.

This behavior is called ballooning. It might carry spiders away from the predators and

competitors, or toward new lands with abundant resources. The spiders, which are

ballooning, work within the electric field of the Earth. When the silk strands leave its body, it

takes up a negative charge, which helps the spider repel the negative charge present on the



surface and creates sufficient energy to lift the spider in the air. This force can be further

increased if the spider climbs on to twigs, leaves, or blades of grass.

85. What do you understand by the term Kibble Balance?

A. The new way to measure a centimetre.

B. The new temperature measurement system.

C. The new weather prediction system.

D. The new way to measure the kilogram.

Ans. D

Explanation: The Kibble Balance is a self calibrating electro-mechanical balance and provides

the measurements of mass, traceable in terms of electrical parameters and provides linkage

of macroscopic mass to the Planck constant(h).


List I List II

(Energy Storage System) (Category)

a. Compressed Air Energy Storage 1. Mechanical Storage

b. Superconducting Magnetic Energy Storage 2. Electrical Storage

c. Chilled Water Storage 3. Thermal Storage

d. Power-to-Gas Storage 4. Chemical Storage

Code :

a b c d

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 1 2 3 4

Ans. B



Explanation: Compressed-air energy storage (CAES) is a way to store energy for later use

using compressed air. At a utility scale, energy generated during periods of low demand can

be released during peak load periods. Superconducting Magnetic Energy Storage is a novel

technology that stores electricity from the grid within the magnetic field of a coil comprised

of a superconducting wire with a near-zero loss of energy. Chilled water is the most

common and simplest form of TES, using concrete or steel tanks to store chilled water at 40

F to 42 F (4.4 C to 5.6 C) that is generated with conventional chillers. Under normal

conditions a chilled-water storage tank is always filled with water. Power-to-Gas is a

technology that converts energy, mainly electricity, into hydrogen and oxygen through

electrolysis and then into methane through a chemical reaction called methanation. The

process functions as an efficient energy storage system.

87. Assertion (A): c (MATD. is a hologram that can be seen, heard and felt.

Reason (R): It works by using ultrasound waves to trap and move a two-millimeter-wide

polystyrene bead around in mid-air.






Ans.

Explanation: Multimodal Acoustic Trap Display is a cutting-edge holograms that can be seen,

heard and felt, and they pulled it off by drawing on some vintage tech. Its name is the

Multimodal Acoustic Trap Display (MATD). The device works by using ultrasound waves to

trap and move a two-millimeter wide polystyrene bead around in mid-air. The bead traces

out an object’s shape in three dimensions, while LEDs shine red, green and blue light on it.

Because the bead is moving so fast, the human eye sees only the completed shape a

compelling illusion not entirely unlike the way a rapid series of still frames looks like a

moving image.

88. Assertion (A): Chromosomes are bundles of tightly coiled DNA located outside the

nucleus of almost every cell in our body.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_utility

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peak_load



Reason (R): Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, one pair is of sex chromosomes, which

determines the sex of the offspring.






Ans. D

Explanation: Chromosomes are bundles of tightly coiled DNA located within the nucleus of

almost every cell in our body. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, i.e., 46

chromosomes. In plant and animal cells, DNA is tightly packaged into thread-like structures,

called chromosomes. In contrast, in bacteria, DNA floats freely around the cell. One set

comes from the mother and one set comes from the father. Of these 23 pairs, one pair is of

sex chromosomes, which determines the sex of the offspring, X and Y chromosomes. The

other 22 pairs are autosomes (non-sex chromosomes), are same for both males and

females. Genes on X and Y chromosomes are not the same. X chromosome has more genes

than Y and is larger too.

89. Consider the following statements regarding the “Hydrogen cell technology”:

1. Hydrogen fuel cells convert chemical energy into electrical energy.

2. Fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process and it does not store

energy.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. C

Explanation: At the heart of the fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) is a device that uses a

source of fuel, such as hydrogen and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical



process. Like conventional batteries under the bonnets of automobiles, hydrogen fuel cells

convert chemical energy into electrical energy. Fuel cells generate electricity through an

electrochemical process, it does not store energy. It relies on a constant supply of fuel and

oxygen in the same way that an internal combustion engine relies on a constant supply of

petrol or diesel and oxygen.

90. Consider the following pairs:

1. Cerebrum - Receives all sensory impulses

2. Medulla – Controls voluntary actions

3. Cerebellum – Controls involuntary actions

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. A

Explanation: The brain has three major parts or regions, namely the forebrain, midbrain and

hind-brain. The forebrain is, by far, the largest brain division. It includes the cerebrum,

which accounts for about two-thirds of the brain's mass and covers most other brain

structures. The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain. It has regions that receive

sensory impulses from various receptors. Separate areas of the forebrain are specialized for

hearing, smell, sight and so on. Our mouth waters when we see food we like, without our

meaning to. Our hearts beat without our thinking about it. All these involuntary actions

including blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by the medulla in the

hindbrain. Think about activities like walking in a straight line, riding a bicycle, picking up a

pencil. These are possible due to a part of the hindbrain called the cerebellum. It is

responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of

the body.

Reaoning and Maths

91. If JAIPUR is coded as KBJQVS then how PATNA is coded as ?



A. RTCNB

B. QBUOB

C. QCORB

D. RDUOE

Ans. B

Explanation: The correct answer is QBUOB

Here every letter moves forward by adding one i.e., P+1=Q.

This follows respectively.

92. Find the product of middle digit of the highest number and the middle digit of smallest

number of the below series?

345,678,654,768,986

A. 28

B. 32

C. 54

D. 52

Ans. B

Explanation: The middle digit of highest number is 8

And lowest digit of smallest number is 4

Therefore, required product =8*4=32

93. Nepotism : Favouritism :: Despotism : ?

A. Democracy

B. Absolutism

C. Humane

D. Idealistic

Ans. B

Explanation: The first pair is Synonym of the words. The same follows with second pair. The

correct answer is Absolutism.



94. When the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right then what will be

the product of the first and last digit of the number which is third from right end?

667,986,546,875,359,765

A. 30

B. 40

C.42

D.35

Ans. C

Explanation: By applying the given condition we get

986,875,765,667,546,359

Here, the number third from the right is 667

So, the product of first and last digit = 6x 7 = 42

95. If Angle radians : then Temperature : ..... ?

A. Pascal

B. Watts

C. Kelvin

D. Ohm

Ans. C

Explanation: If Angle is measured in Radians, then the Temperature is measured in Kelvin.

96. Find the missing one:

BYN,DWP,FUR,...?

A. XYZ

B. HST

C. UTV

D. RON



Ans. B

Explanation: The pattern is as follows,

B + 2 = D + 2 = F + 3 = H

Y - 2 = W - 2 = U - 2 = S

N + 2 = P + 2= R + 2 = T

So, the missing series is HST

97. P’s father is Q’s son. M is the paternal uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. How is N

related to M?

A. Brother

B. Nephew

C. Cousin

D. Uncle

Ans. D

Explanation: From first statement,

Q is P’s Grandfather.

N is brother of Q. So, N is M’s Uncle.

98. What is the 9th position when first half of the alphabets are written in reverse

alphabetical order?

A. R

B. E

C. G

D. Y

Ans. B

Explanation: The 9th position in the aplhabetical order is E when first half of the alphabets

are written in reversed.



99. Pointing to a boy, Sunitha said “He is the son of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the

boy related to Sunitha?

A. Son

B. Nephew

C. Brother

D. Uncle

Ans. C

Explanation: Sunitha’s Grandfather has only one son and he is her father. And Son of her

father is her brother.

100. Find the next term in the series:

FGE JIH MLK OPN ?

A. UVT

B. TUV

C. RST

D. RSQ

Ans. D

Explanation: The missing letter is RSQ

The series is,

FGE JIH MLK OPN RSQ

101. A certain sum becomes Rs.20000 in six years and 24000 in eight years at simple

interest. Find sum and rate of interest?

A. Rs.14000; 14% p.a.

B. Rs.8000; 25% p.a

C. Rs.10000; 10% p.a.

D. Rs.16000; 16% p.a.

Ans. B



Explanation: S.I. for 2 years = Rs. (24000-20000) =4000

S.I for 1 year = Rs 2000

S.I for 6 years = Rs 6*2000 = 12000

Principal = Rs. (20000 - 12000) = Rs. 8000

Now, P = 8000, T =6, and S.I. = 12000, Rate =(100*12000)/(8000*6)=25%

So Anwser is Rs 8000, 25%p.a.

102. 700 ÷ 70 ÷ 0.5 = ?

A. 10

B. 2.5

C. 1.5

D. 20

Ans. D

Explanation: 700 / 70 = 100

100 / 0.5 = 20

103. crazy monkey in a forest crosses a bridge of length 900 meters in 6 minutes. At what

speed monkey is running?

A. 7 km/hr

B. 9 km/hr

C. 13 km/hr

D. 11 km/hr

Ans. B

Explanation: Speed = Distance/time

Distance = 900 meters

Time = 6 minutes = 6 x 60 = 360 seconds



Speed = 900/360 m/s = 2.5 m/s

We need answer in km/hr:

Speed in km/hr=25/10 * 18/5 = 9 km/hr

104. Nishant can swim at 15 km/hr in still water. It takes him double time to reach the

destination when he swims up the ganga river as it takes when he swims down the ganga

river. At what speed the ganga river is flowing?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 10

D. 8

Ans. B

Explanation: Let the speed of the river = X km/hr

So, speed of man with the flow (downward speed) = 15 + X

Similarly speed of man against the flow (upward speed) = 15 - X

Let the man covers a distance Y.

So time taken to cover the distance Y when he swims up the river would be double of the

time taken to cover the distance Y when he swims down the river.

So, Y⁄15-X = 2 * Y⁄15+X

15Y + XY = 30Y -2XY

3XY= 15Y

X = 5 km/hr.

105. An amount was lent for one year at the rate of 18% per annum compounding annually.

Has the compounding been done half yearly, the interest would have increased by Rs. 324.

What was the amount (in Rs.) lent?

A. 36000

B. 40000



C. 62000

D. 70000

Ans. D

Explanation: Let the principal be 'x'.

Amount lent for 1 yr at 18% per annum compounding annually,

WKT, Amount = P (1 + r/100) n

Amount = x (1 + 18/100) = 1.18x

When compounding been done half yearly, r = 9%; n = 2 yr

Amount = x (1 + 9/100)2 = 1.1881x

As per the question, 1.1881x - 1.18x = 324

0.0081x = 324

x = 324/0.0081

x = Rs. 40,000

Hence, the principal amount is Rs. 40,000.

106. Shekar's and Jani's shares in a business are in the ratio of 10:6. If Shekar has invested

Rs. 140000 for 24 months, for what period Jani has invested Rs. 120000?

A. 16.8

B. 8.4

C. 4.2

D. 2.1

Ans. A

Explanation: Shekar's capital be C1 = 140000

Jani's capital be C2 = 120000

A's time be T1= 24 months

Let B's time be T2 = X months



A's share: B's share = 10:6 = 5:3

Apply formula: (Profit of A/Profit of B) = C1*T1/C2*T2

5/3 = 140000*24/120000*X

300000 X = 5040000

X = 16.8 months

107. The surface area of a cube is 14406 cm2. The length of its diagonal is?

A. 49/√3 cm

B. 49√3 cm

C. 49.32 cm

D. 49√2 cm

Ans. B

Explanation: Surface area of cube = 6a2

14406 = 6a2

a2 = 2401

a = 49 cm

Diagonal of cube = √3a = √3 × 49 = 49√3 cm

108. A, B, C can do a job in 10, 20 and 40 days respectively. In how many days A can

complete the job if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 8

D. 18

Ans. C

Explanation: A's one day work = 1/10



B's one day work = 1/20

C's one day work = 1/40

(A+B+C.'s one day work = 1/10 + 1/20 +1/40 = 7/40

Work done in three days will be the sum of A's two-day work and (A+B+C)'s one day work.

A's two-day work = 1/10 * 2 = 1/5

Therefore, the work is done in three days = 1/5 + 7/40 = 75/200 = 3/8

3/8 part of the job is done in 3 days.

The entire job will be done by A in = 3 x 8/3 = 8 days

109. Two pipes can fill a drum in 30 minutes and 24 minutes. The outlet pipe can empty the

drum in 40 minutes. If all the pipes are opened when, the drum is empty, then in how many

minutes will it take to fill the drum?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Ans. B

Explanation: Part of drum filled by all three pipes in one minute =

1/15 + 1/12 – 1/20 = 8+10-6/120 = 18-6/120

= 1/10

So, the tank becomes full in 10 minutes.

110. Find the length of the rod that can be used in a room of measurement 48m long, 36m

broad and 24m high is?

A. √(4176) metres

B. √(5287) metres

C. √(6398) metres



D. none of the above

Ans. A

Explanation: Length of room = 48 m

Breadth of room = 36 m

Height of room = 24 m

length of the rod = diagonal of room = √(l2+b2+h2) units = √(482+362+242) =

√(2304+1296+576) = √(4176) metres.

Statement Based Questions

Directions: Study the statements A, B, C,and D then answer the following questions:

A. ‘ weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’

B.‘ ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’

C.‘ hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white ’

D.‘ own town under attack’ written as ‘ violet blue indigo black’

111. What is the code for ready ’?

A. red

B. indigo

C. green

D. grey

Ans. C

Explanation: ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’

‘ weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’

In both these statements, only WEAPONS is a common word and in code RED is common, So

code for WEAPONS is RED.

hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white ’



weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’

In both these statements, only HIDDEN is a common word and in code WHITE is common,

So code for HIDDEN is WHITE.

own town under attack’ written as ‘ violet blue indigo black’

ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’

In both these statements, only ATTACK is a common word and in code INDIGO is common,

So code for ATTACK is INDIGO.


hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white ’

In both these statements, only FOR is a common word and in code GREY is common, So

code for FOR is GREY.


Now in this statement, code for weapons for attack is red, grey and indigo respectively.

So code for READY is GREEN.

112. What does ‘silver ’ stand for?

A. safety

B. own

C. hidden

D. for

Ans. A

Explanation: hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white

Code for hidden is WHITE.

Code for FOR is GREY.

From above statement and

‘ own town under attack’ written as ‘ violet blue indigo black’

Code for OWN is VIOLET.



So, SILVER is Code for SAFETY.

113. ‘black pink yellow ’ could be a code for which of the following?

A. town under attack

B. hidden for safety

C. attack in town

D. risk in town

Ans. D

Explanation: From - ‘ weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’;

black yellow is Code for- in town.

In town is given in 2 options – C and D.

But code for attack is Indigo.

So answer is D.

114. Which of the following represents ‘all hidden weapons’?

A. White red orange

B. Brown grey red

C. indigo white red

D. red violet white

Ans. A

Explanation: Code for hidden is WHITE.

Code for Weapons is RED.

Violet and Indigo is Code for OWN and ATTACK.

So answer is A.

Study the statement then answer the following questions:



H T 6 # E 7 $ K I L % 3 P @ 2 A J > R U 4 * V D

115. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is

immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a vowel?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

Ans. A

Explanation: 6 # E

116. Which element is fifth to the right of thirteenth from the right end?

In the context of the above which one of the following is correct.

A. F

B. >

C. 1

D. None of these

Ans. D

Explanation: 3 is thirteenth from the right end. $ is fifth to the right of thirteenth from the

right end.

Directions: In each of the questions given below, two statements are followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take both the statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given

conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known

facts.

117. Statements: All volcanoes are craters.

No crater is a mountain.



Conclusions: I. Some volcanoes are mountains.

II. No mountain is a volcano.


A. If only conclusion I follow

B. If only conclusion II follows

C. If either conclusion I or II follows

D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Ans. B

Explanation:

118. Statements: Some glasses are tablets.

All machines are tablets.

Conclusions: I. All tablets being machines is a possibility.

II. All machines being glasses is a possibility.






Ans. A

Explanation:

Crater

Volcano

Mountain



119. Statements: All villages are cities.

All cities are countries.

All countries are towns

Conclusions: I. All towns are villages.

II. Some cities are not towns.






Ans. D

Explanation:

120. Statements: No air is wind.

All winds are typhoons.

Conclusions: I. No air is typhoon.

II. All airs being typhoons is a possibility.

Tablets

Machines Glasses

Towns

Countries

Cities

Villages








Ans. B

Explanation:

Rajasthan Governance and Government Schemes

121. How many cities in Rajasthan are included in 100 cities of India selected under the

Smart Cities Mission?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 5

D. 6

Ans. A

Explanation: Four cities from the state, Udaipur, Kota, Ajmer and Jaipur, found spots in the

ranking of 100 cities. While Udaipur came 8th, Kota stood at 11th, Ajmer 29th and Jaipur

36th in the 100 city rankings.

Typhoon

Winds

Air



122. Where is the sugar factory operated in the cooperative system located?

A. In Udaipur

B. In Sriganganagar

C. In Bhupalsagar

D. In Keshoraipatan

Ans. D

Explanation: Keshoraipatan is a city located in the state of Rajasthan, India.

123. The pan-India expansion of flagship programme “Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao (BBBP)” will

be start from which district of Rajasthan?

A. Baran

B. JhunJhun

C. Karauli

D. Pratapgarh

Ans. B

Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the pan-India expansion of

flagship programme–Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao (BBBP)–from JhunJhun district of Rajasthan

on March 8 to mark the International Women’s Day (IWD-2018). The BBBP is an initiative to

save and educate the girl child. The programme will be expanded from the present 161

districts to 640 all over the country. In another landmark initiative, the Prime Minister will

also launch the National Nutrition Mission (NNM). He will also launch NNM- ICDS Common

Application Software.

124. Assertion (A): Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational

change in rural development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build

the architecture of an Inclusive India.

Reason (R): Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) will be launched in 11 Districts of Rajasthan.








Ans. B

Explanation: The 11 districts of Rajasthan where UBA is all set for a launch are Ajmer, Alwar,

Bharatpur, Bundi, Dausa, Dhaulpur, Jaipur, Karauli, Sawai Madhopur, Tonk and Sikar.

125. Consider the following statements regarding different old schemes of Education Sector

of Rajasthan Government.

1. Utsav Bhoj This is Rajasthan Government extension of Union’s Mid Day Meal (MDM)

Scheme.

2. For Adult Education a Centrally Sponsored scheme called, 'Sakshar Bharat Abhiyan' was

launched on 8 September, 2009.

3. The Gyan Sankalp Portal will allow corporate houses and donors to support government

schools in Rajasthan.


A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 1 and 3

C. Only 2 and 3

D. All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation: There are many programs that State and Central Government have been

implementing to improve the education sector and achieve the target of universal primary

education and quality education at all level Sakshar Bharat Program is covering 31 District

except Kota and Pratapgarh districts. Hence, Special literacy and vocational camps are

organized for illiterate women of Kota and Pratapgarh districts. The Gyan Sankalp Portal will

allow corporate houses and donors to support government schools in Rajasthan. A

prominent feature of the initiative is the ‘Mukhyamantri Vidyadaan Kosh’ (chief minister’s

fund for educational donations), which is aimed at reducing the funding gap in education.



Current affairs –General and Rajasthan specific (September 2020)

126. World Pharmacist Day is observed globally on _______________ every year.

A. 22 September

B. 23 September

C. 24 September

D. 25 September

Ans. D

Explanation: World Pharmacist Day is observed globally on 25th September every year. This

day is celebrated to create awareness about the role of a pharmacist in improving health.

The day was an initiative of the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP) along with the

council of this organization. Theme 2020: “Transforming global health“.

127. Which of the following organization has approved $300 million loan to develop

Rajasthan's towns?

A. World bank

B. International Monetary fund

C. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

D. Asian Development Bank

Ans. D

Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a 300 million dollar (about Rs

2,200 crore) loan to finance inclusive water supply and sanitation infrastructure and services

in secondary towns of Rajasthan. The project is expected to build citywide access for

improved water supply services for about 5.7 lakh people and enhanced sanitation services

for about 7.2 lakh people in at least 14 secondary towns. These localities have 20,000 to one

lakh residents.

128. Name the motor company which is going to shut sales and manufacturing operations in

India.

A. Ducati



B. Triumph Motorcycles

C. Kawasaki

D. Harley-Davidson

Ans. D

Explanation: Harley-Davidson Inc said on 25th September it would discontinue its sales and

manufacturing operations in India, effectively abandoning the world’s biggest motorcycle

market after a decade of unsuccessful efforts to gain a foothold. It will retain only a scaled-

down sales office in Gurgaon, south of New Delhi.

129. What was the rank of India in World risk index (WRI) 2020?

A. 8th

B. 48th

C. 89th

D. 117th

Ans. C

Explanation: According to the World Risk Index (WRI) 2020, India is ‘poorly prepared’ to deal

with ‘climate reality’, due to which it is vulnerable to extreme natural disasters. World Risk

Report 2020 released by the United Nations University Institute for Environment and

Human Security (UNU-EHS), Bundnis Entwicklung Hilft and the University of Stuttgart in

Germany. Vanuatu (South Pacific Ocean) is the country with the highest disaster risk

worldwide. It is followed by Tonga (South Pacific Ocean) and Dominica (Caribbean Sea).

India has ranked 89th among 181 countries on the WRI 2020 and is fourth-most-at-risk in

South Asia, after Bangladesh, Afghanistan and Pakistan.

130. World Environmental Health Day is observed globally on _________________ every

year.

A. 23 September

B. 24 September

C. 25 September

D. 26 September



Ans. D

Explanation: World Environmental Health Day is being observed globally on 26th

September. The day is celebrated to throw the light on important works being done on the

environmental health around the world. It has been targeted towards preventing the

disease and creating health-supportive environments. Theme 2020: Environmental health, a

key public health intervention in disease pandemic prevention.

131. Name the Formula1 race driver who has won Russian Grand Prix 2020.

A. Sebastian Vettel

B. Charles Leclerc

C. Max Verstappen

D. Valtteri Bottas

Ans. D

Explanation: Valtteri Bottas has won Russian Grand Prix 2020. Valtteri Bottas won the

Russian Grand Prix in Sochi as Lewis Hamilton was left frustrated after a 10-second time

penalty denied him the chance to equal Michael Schumacher’s record tally of 91 Formula

One race wins.

132. With which country, India has recently signed an MoU on Intellectual Property

cooperation?

A. Norway

B. Singapore

C. Denmark

D. Brazil

Ans. C

Explanation: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of

Commerce and Industry signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in the field of

Intellectual Property Cooperation with the Danish Patent and Trademark Office, Ministry of

Industry, Business and Financial Affairs, Kingdom of Denmark. Exchange of best practices,

experiences and knowledge on IP awareness among public, authorities, businesses and



research and educational institution of both countries. Collaboration in training

programmes, exchange of experts, technical exchanges and outreach activities.

133. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the Indian government

has banned PubG and 118 other apps?

A. Section 53B

B. Section 21A

C. Section 68C

D. Section 69A

Ans. D

Explanation: After India China clash in Ladhak, Indian government has decided to ban PubG

mobile game and other 118 Chinese Apps. As per the official news, on 02 September 2020

Ministry of Information & Technology bans PUBG and 118 other mobile applications. The

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India invoking it’s

power under section 69A of the Information Technology Act read with the relevant

provisions of the Information Technology (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking of Access

of Information by Public) Rules 2009.

134. National Nutrition Week is conducted every year from

A. 30th August – 5 th September

B. 31st August – 6 th September

C. 1st September - 7 th September

D. 2nd September - 8 th September

Ans. C

Explanation: National Nutrition Week was launched by Food and Nutrition Board in 1982.

National Nutrition Week is conducted every year from September 1 to September 7 to

provide knowledge among people about the importance of nutrition for better health.

135. Who among the following has co-chaired the 17th ASEAN-India Economic Ministers’

consultations along with Vietnam’s Tran Tuan Anh?



A. Prakash Javadekar

B. Piyush Goyal

C. Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank

D. S Jaishankar

Ans. B

Explanation: Minister of Commerce and Industry & Railways Piyush Goyal and Minister of

Industry and Trade of Vietnam Tran Tuan Anh co-chaired the 17th ASEAN-India Economic

Ministers Consultations held virtually on 29th August. The Ministers reaffirmed their

commitment to take collective actions in mitigating the economic impact of the pandemic

and resolved to ensure macroeconomic and financial stability and resilient supply chain

connectivity, particularly the unimpeded flow of essential goods and medicines in the region

in compliance with the WTO rules.

136. Railway Ministry has proposed to amend which legislation pertaining to begging in

railway properties?

A. Railways Act

B. Prevention of Begging Act

C. Indian Penal Code

D. Transport Act

Ans. A

Explanation: The Railway Ministry has proposed to amend Sec 144 of Railways Act 1989. As

per the present provision in the act, begging in Railway property is an offence and makes it

liable for imprisonment or a fine of Rs.2000/-. The section is proposed to be changed by

stating that begging will not be allowed in properties of Railways including Trains and

Railway premises.

137. Assertion (A): The 74th United Nations General Assembly proclaimed on 15th October

2019 that 28th September 2020 would observe the International Day for Universal Access to

Information.

Reason (R): 2020 edition of the day is focusing on the right to information in the times of

crisis.








Ans. B

Explanation: International Day for Universal Access to Information is observed on28th

September. It is celebrated to showcase the advantages of statutory and constitutional

policies in order to provide public access to information.

138. Assertion (A): Moctar Ouane has been appointed as the new prime minister of Eritrea.

Reason (R): The appointment of a civilian prime minister was a major condition imposed by

the West African regional economic bloc, ECOWAS.






Ans. D

Explanation: Mali’s transitional president appointed former minister of foreign affairs,

Moctar Ouane, on 27th September as the West African nation’s prime minister days after

being sworn into office. The appointment of a civilian prime minister was a major condition

imposed by the West African regional economic bloc, ECOWAS, on Mali to lift sanctions that

were imposed after an Aug. 18 coup. ECOWAS had closed borders to Mali and stopped

financial flows to put pressure on the junta to quickly return to a civilian government.

Former Defense Minister and retired Col. Maj. Bah N’Daw was inducted Friday as the new

transitional president.

139. Assertion (A): Rajasthan Chief Minister has launched Jala Kala scheme.



Reason (R): The scheme is estimated to bring in five lakh acres under cultivation through

groundwater irrigation.






Ans. D

Explanation: To benefit the small and medium farmers who have no open water source for

irrigation, Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy launched YSR Jala Kala on

28th September. Under the scheme, borewells will be dug free of cost to the needy farmers.

The scheme is estimated to bring in five lakh acres under cultivation through groundwater

irrigation. Around three lakh farmers will be benefitted from YSR Jala Kala, which is

estimated to cost Rs 2,340 crore in four years.

140. Assertion (A): International Day of Peace is observed every year on September 21.

Reason (R): Theme for 2020 is "Shaping Peace Together."





D. A is false but R is true.

Ans. B

Explanation: Being the country of Mahatma Gandhi, India has a huge legacy of contributing

to world peace. In a world troubled with conflict, a day dedicated to peace reminds us of

Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of Ahimsa or non-violence. International Day of Peace is

observed every year on September 21. It is a United Nations-designated day, established in

1981. Theme 2020: "Shaping Peace Together."



141. Assertion (A): PM Narendra Modi has launched 9 highway projects and “Ghar tak fibre”

scheme in Bihar.

Reason (R): The Optical Fibre Services project is to be implemented GoI’s Ministry of

Electronics and Information Technology under the Ghar Tak Fibre Scheme (GTFD).






Ans. B

Explanation: PM Narendra Modi has launched 9 highway projects and Ghar tak Fiber

scheme in Bihar on 21 September 2020. Under the Ghar tak fibre Scheme, optical fibre

services will be provided to every households. Bihar Highway projects will construct 350

kilometers of road. The roads will be built at a cost of Rs 14,250 crores (Rs 142.5 Billions).

The Optical Fibre Services project is to be implemented GoI’s Ministry of Electronics and

Information Technology under the Ghar Tak Fibre Scheme (GTFD). It will connect 45,945

villages inter-state.

142. Assertion (A): Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunizations (GAVI) brings together

the public and private sectors to create equal access to vaccines for children.

Reason (R): India is a beneficiary of a global vaccine alliance.






Ans. B

Explanation: The Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunization (GAVI) has in many ways

been remarkably successful in revitalizing the international coalition of institutions and

organizations concerned with getting vaccines to the children of the poorest countries.



Many have seen this high-profile venture in public–private cooperation as a model for other

groups concerned with more effectively helping to solve health problems in the developing

world. Earlier in May 2020, Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare was also elected as

the Chair of the World Health Organization’s Executive Board. As part of its mission to save

lives, reduce poverty and protect the world against the threat of epidemics, GAVI has helped

vaccinate more than 822 million children in the world’s poorest countries, preventing more

than 14 million future deaths.

143. Assertion (A): InvITs are mutual funds like instruments that are designed to pool small

sums of money from a number of investors.

Reason (R): InvITs are regulated by the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA..






Ans. C

Explanation: Real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment

trusts (InvITs) are innovative vehicles that allow developers to monetise revenue-generating

real estate and infrastructure assets, while enabling investors or unit holders to invest in

these assets without actually owning them. In India, InvITs are governed by SEBI

(Infrastructure Investment Trusts) (Amendment) Regulations, 2016.

144. Assertion (A): India has fallen 26 spots to the 105th position on the Global Economic

Freedom Index 2020.

Reason (R): The Heritage Foundation's Index of Economic Freedom is an annual guide

published to measure the progress made in advancing economic freedom which it claims

brings greater prosperity.




https://www.drishtiias.com/to-the-points/Paper2/poverty-9

https://www.drishtiias.com/loksabha-rajyasabha-discussions/in-depth-epidemic-diseases-act#:~:text=The%20Epidemic%20Diseases%20Act%20aims,the%20outbreak%20of%20a%20disease.





Ans. B

Explanation: India has fallen 26 spots to the 105th position on the Global Economic Freedom

Index 2020 according to Canada's Fraser Institute. The country was at the 79th spot in last

year's rankings. According to the report, based on 2018 data, Hong Kong and Singapore

once again topped the index, continuing their streak as first and second ranked,

respectively. India has been ranked higher than China, which stands at the 124th position.

145. With reference to the Phosphine, consider the following statements:

1. It acts as a bio signature.

2. It is only made naturally by aerobic bacteria.

3. It is also used as a chemical weapon.


A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. C

Explanation: Phosphine is a colourless, flammable, very toxic gas compound with the

chemical formula PH₃, classed as a pnictogen hydride. Pure phosphine is odourless, but

technical grade samples have a highly unpleasant odour like rotting fish, due to the

presence of substituted phosphine and diphosphane. On 14 September 2020, scientists

revealed that they had found phosphine in Venus’s atmosphere, about 55 kilometres above

the surface1, using the Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array in Chile and the

James Clerk Maxwell Telescope in Hawaii. The radio data showed that light was being

absorbed at millimetre wavelengths that corresponded to a phosphine concentration of 20

parts per billion in the atmosphere.

146. India has signed a Free Trade Agreement with which of the following countries?

https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-020-02785-5#ref-CR1



1. Japan

2. South Korea

3. Sri Lanka


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Explanation: A Free trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement in September 2020 between

two or more countries where the countries agree on certain obligations that affect trade in

goods and services, and protections for investors and intellectual property rights, among

other topics. The UK–Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is the

first deal that the UK has struck as an independent trading nation.

147. Which of the following GI Tagged Products belong to Kerala?

1. Chendamangalam Saree

2. Nilambur Teak

3. Tirur Betel Leaf


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Explanation: The Care 4 Chendamangalam (C4C) initiative is supporting the 2018 Kerala

flood-affected weavers. The Indian government has identified three clusters in Kerala -

Balaramapuram, Chendamangalam and Kuthampully - that have been given a Geographical

https://www.gov.uk/government/collections/uk-japan-comprehensive-economic-partnership-agreement



Indication (GI) tag. Other GI Tagged Products from Kerala: Kasaragod Sarees, Pokkali Rice,

Nilambur Teak, Wayanad Robusta Coffee, Tirur Betel Leaf, etc.

148. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)

in India:

1. The highest number of PVTGs are found in Madhya Pradesh.

2. Absence of written language is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

3. There are 75 PVTGs officially notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

4. Bondas and Didiayis Tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. B

Explanation: One member of the Bonda tribe and five from the Didayi tribe in Odisha tested

positive for the novel coronavirus in the last week of August 2020. A Particularly Vulnerable

Tribal Group (earlier, Primitive tribal group) is a Government of India classification for tribes

based on their relative physical isolation, stagnant or declining population, low levels of

literacy and pre-agricultural stage of economy, such as hunting, food gathering, shifting

cultivation and terrace cultivation. The classification was adopted by the GOI after the

Dhebar Commission (1960-1961) stated that within the Scheduled Tribes there existed an

inequality in the rate of development.

149. With reference to Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, which

of the following is/ are correct?

1. It is the award accorded biennially by Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust.

2. The prize is awarded to Indian citizens only.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

A. 1 only

https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/pokkali-rice-kerala



B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

Explanation: Sir David Attenborough has been conferred with Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for

2019 at a virtual ceremony on 8 September 2020. The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,

Disarmament and Development is an annual prestigious award named after former prime

minister Indira Gandhi. It is conferred every year by Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust since

1986. It consists of a citation and a monetary award of Rs. 25 lakh.

150. With reference to PRASHAD scheme, consider the following statements:

1. Its objective is rejuvenation and spiritual augmentation of important national pilgrimage

and heritage sites.

2. The projects identified under this scheme are implemented by the Ministry of Tourism.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

Explanation: The full form of the PRASAD scheme is 'Pilgrimage Rejuvenation And Spiritual

Augmentation Drive'. This scheme focuses on developing and identifying pilgrimage sites

across India for enriching the religious tourism experience. The growth of domestic tourism

hugely depends on pilgrimage tourism. The Ministry of Tourism launched the PRASAD

scheme that aims at integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in a prioritised,

planned, and sustainable manner in order to provide a complete religious tourism

experience.

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