ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE - ALLEN Kota · Work, Energy & Power and Circular...

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only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination

and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

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6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

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Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSEPHASE : ENTHUSIAST, MLK,MLM,MLN,MLP, MLQ,MLSP, MAZD,MAZE, MAZF, MAZG, MAZH & MAZI

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Papercode and Your Form No.

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Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

TEST DATE : 11 - 04 - 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM305615042

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 01 & 02

Hin

di

PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,

Dimensions and Measurement

Kinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a plane)

Laws of Motion and Friction

Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion,Rotational Motion

Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass

Properties of matter and Fluid Mechanics,Thermal Physics-I

(Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer)

Thermal Physics-II (Behavior of Perfect Gases and KTG, Thermodynamics)

Oscillations (SHM, damped and forced oscillations & Resonance)

Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry

Structure of Atom

States of Matter : Gases and Liquids

Thermodynamics

Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium)

Solid State

Solutions

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Hydrogen

s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)

p–Block Elements (Group - 13 & 14)

p–Block Elements (Group - 15, 16, 17 & 18)

The d and f-block Elements

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World : (i) The living world

(ii) Biological Classification (iii) Plant Kingdom

(iv) Animal Kingdom

Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :

(i) Morphology of Flowering plants (ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants

(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach

Structure and Functions : (i) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm) (iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division

Plant Physiology : (i) Transport in Plants (ii) Mineral Nutrition

(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (iv) Respiration in Plants

(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme

Human Physiology : (i) Digestion and Absorption

(ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and

circulation

(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination

(v) Locomotion and Movement

(vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear

(vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 11 - 04 - 2016

SYLLABUS – 01 & 02

PHASE : ENTHUSIAST, MLK,M,N,P,Q,MLSP, MAZD,E,F,G,H & MAZI

H-1/32

Phase/ENTHUSIAST, MLK,M,N,P,Q,MLSP, MAZD,E,F,G,H & MAZI/11-04-2016

1001CM305615042

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. Value of 2

0

5sin t dt

is :-

(1) 10 (2) 5

(3) 10

(4) 5

2. A steam boat goes across a lake and comes back:

(i) on a quiet day when the water is still and

(ii) on a rough day when there is a uniform current

so as to help the journey onward and to impede

the journey back. If the speed of the launch, on

both days, was same, the time required for the

complete journey on the rough day as compared

to that on the quiet day, will be :-

(1) less

(2) same

(3) more

(4) cannot be predicted

3. A spring 40mm long is stretched by the

application of a force. If 10 N force is required

to stretch the spring through 1 mm, then work

done in stretching the spring through 40 mm is:-

(1) 84 J (2) 68 J

(3) 23 J (4) 8 J

4. In a U-tube experiment, a column AB of water

is balanced by a column ‘CD’ of oil, as shown

in the figure. Then the relative density of oil is:-

h2h1

C

D

A

B

water

oil

(1)2

1

h

h (2) 1

2

h

h

(3)1 2

1

(h – h )

h (4) 2

1 2

h

(h h )

1.2

0

5sin t dt

:-

(1) 10 (2) 5

(3) 10

(4) 5

2. (steam boat) (i) (still)

(ii) (uniform current) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

3. 40mm 10 N

1 mm 40

:-

(1) 84 J (2) 68 J

(3) 23 J (4) 8 J

4. U-AB ‘CD’ :-

h2h1

C

D

A

B

water

oil

(1)2

1

h

h (2) 1

2

h

h

(3)1 2

1

(h – h )

h (4) 2

1 2

h

(h h )

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Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/11-04-2016

1001CM305615042

5. An ideal system can be brought from state A to

B through four paths as shown in the figure. The

energy given to the system is minimum in :

O V

B

D

CA

F

P E

(1) path ACB (2) path ADB

(3) path AEB (4) path AFB

6. If the energy (E), velocity (v) and force (F) be

taken as the fundamental quantity, then the

dimensions of mass will be :-

(1) Fv–2 (2) Fv–1 (3) Ev–2 (4) Ev2

7. A bullet moving with a velocity of 100 m/s can

just penetrate two planks of equal thickness. The

number of such planks penetrated by the same

bullet, when the velocity is doubled, will be :-

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

8. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies

with time as P = 23t

2W. Here t is in seconds. If

velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0. The velocity

of particle at time t = 2 sec. will be :-

(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m/s

9. Two capillaries of same material but of different

radii are dipped in a liquid. In one of the capillary

the liquid rises to a height of 22 cm and in other

to 66 cm. The ratio of their radii is :-

(1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 9

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3

10. For a thermodynamic process Q = – 50 calorie

and W = – 20 calorie. If the initial internal energy

is – 30 calorie then final internal energy will be:

(1) 191.20 calorie (2) –60 calorie

(3) 100 calorie (4) –100 calorie

5. A B

O V

B

D

CA

F

P E

(1) ACB (2) ADB

(3) AEB (4) AFB

6. (E), (v) (F)

:-

(1) Fv–2 (2) Fv–1 (3) Ev–2 (4) Ev2

7. 100 :-

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

8. 2 kg

P = 23t

2W t

t = 0 v = 0 t = 2 sec

:-

(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m/s

9. 22 66 :-

(1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 9

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3

10. Q = – 50 W = – 20 –30

(1) 191.20 (2) –60

(3) 100 (4) –100

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1001CM305615042

11. The number of significant figure in 6.25×105 is:-

(1) 11 (2) 6

(3) 4 (4) 3

12. A body is sliding down an inclined plane

(angle of inclination 45°). If the coefficient of

friction is 0.5 and g = 9.8 m/s2. then the

acceleration of the body downwards in m/s2 is :-

(1) 4.9

2(2) 4.9 2

(3) 19.6 2 (4) 4.9

13. A particle is released from a height H. At a certain

height its kinetic energy is two times its potential

energy. Height and speed of particle at that instant

are :-

(1) H

3,

2gH

3(2)

H

3,

gH2

3

(3) 2H

3,

2gH

3(4)

H

3, 2gH

14. Five identical springs are used in the following

three configurations. The time periods of vertical

oscillations in configurations (i), (ii) and (iii) are

in the ratio:-

m

(i) m

(ii)

KK

Km

(iii)

K K

(1)1

1 : 2 :2

(2) 1

2 : 2 :2

(3)1

: 2 :12

(4) 1

2 : :12

11. 6.25×105 :-

(1) 11 (2) 6

(3) 4 (4) 3

12. 45°

0.5 g = 9.8 m/s2.

(m/s2) :-

(1) 4.9

2(2) 4.9 2

(3) 19.6 2 (4) 4.9

13. H

:-

(1) H

3,

2gH

3(2)

H

3,

gH2

3

(3) 2H

3,

2gH

3(4)

H

3, 2gH

14.

(i), (ii) (iii)

:-

m

(i) m

(ii)

KK

Km

(iii)

K K

(1)1

1 : 2 :2

(2) 1

2 : 2 :2

(3)1

: 2 :12

(4) 1

2 : :12

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1001CM305615042

15. A vessel is partitioned in two equal halves by a

fixed diathermic separator. Two different ideal

gases are filled in left (L) and right (R) halves.

The rms speed of the molecules in L part is equal

to the mean speed of molecules in the R part. Then

the ratio of the mass of a molecules in L part to

that of a molecules in R part is -

L R

(1) 3

2(2)

4

(3)

2

3(4)

3

8

16. If the vectors ˆ ˆ ˆP ai aj 3k

and ˆ ˆ ˆQ ai 2 j k

are perpendicular to each other then the positive

value of a is :-

(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

17. Two blocks A and B are released from the top

of a rough inclined plane so that A slides along

the plane and B falls down freely. Which will have

higher velocity on reaching the ground ?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) Both will reach the ground with same velocity

(4) It depends on the coefficient of friction

18. A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it

as shown in the figure. The net torque produced

by the forces 4 N at A, 8 N at B, 6 N at C and

9 N at D at angles indicated is :-

30°

A

B

C

D90°

90°

20cm

4N

9N

6N

8N

(1) 5.4 N-m (anticlockwise)

(2) 1.8 N-m (clockwise)



15. (L) (R) LR L R :

L R

(1) 2

3(2)

4

(3)

3

2(4)

8

3

16. ˆ ˆ ˆP ai aj 3k

ˆ ˆ ˆQ ai 2 j k

a :-

(1) (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

17. A B A B ?

(1) A

(2) B

(3)

(4) -

18. 20 cm

A 4 N, B

8 N, C 6 N, D 9 N :-

30°

A

B

C

D90°

90°

20cm

4N

9N

6N

8N

(1) 5.4 N-m ()

(2) 1.8 N-m ()

(3) 2.0 N-m ()

(4) 5.4 N-m ()

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1001CM305615042

19. In a seconds pendulum, mass of bob is 30 g. If

it is replaced by 90 g mass. Then its time period

will be :-

(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec

(3) 4 sec (4) 3 sec

20. The efficiency of Carnot engine is 50% and

temperature of sink is 500 K. If the temperature

of source is kept constant and its efficiency is to

be raised to 60%, then the required temperature

of the sink will be :

(1) 600 K (2) 500 K

(3) 400 K (4) 100 K

21. If the angle between the vectors A

and B

is ,

the value of the product (B A) A

is equal to:-

(1) BA2 cos (2) BA2 sin

(3) BA2 sin cos (4) zero

22. A block slides down an inclined plane of slope

of angle with a constant velocity. It is then projected

up the plane with an initial velocity u. The distance

upto which it will rise before coming to rest is :-

(1)

2u

4gsin(2)

u

4gsin

(3)

2u sin

4g

(4)

usin

4g

23. If a sphere is rolling, the ratio of its rotational

energy to the total kinetic energy is given by

(1) 7 : 10 (2) 2 : 5

(3) 10 : 5 (4) 2 : 7

24. The instantaneous displacement of a simple

pendulum oscillator is given by

x = A cos t4

. Its speed will be maximum

at time :-

(1)4

(2)

2

(3)

(4)

2

19. 30 90 :-

(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec

(3) 4 sec (4) 3 sec

20. 50%

500 K

60% :

(1) 600 K (2) 500 K

(3) 400 K (4) 100 K

21. A

B

(B A) A

:-

(1) BA2 cos (2) BA2 sin

(3) BA2 sin cos (4)

22. u :-

(1)

2u

4gsin(2)

u

4gsin

(3)

2u sin

4g

(4)

usin

4g

23.

(1) 7 : 10 (2) 2 : 5

(3) 10 : 5 (4) 2 : 7

24.

x = A cos t4

:-

(1)4

(2)

2

(3)

(4)

2

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1001CM305615042

25. Two identical square rods of metal are welded end

to end as shown in figure (a). Assume that 10 cal

of heat flows through the rods in 2 min. Now the

rods are welded as shown in figure, (b). The time

it would take for 10 cal to flow through the rods

now, is

0°C100°C

(a)

(1) 0.75 min (2) 0.5 min

(3) 1.5 min (4) 1 min

26. A car starts from rest and moves with constant

acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in

the nth second to that covered in n seconds is :-

(1) 2

2 1

n n (2) 2

2 1

n n

(3) 2

2 1

n n (4) 2

2 1

n n

27. A particle of mass m moving with velocity V0

strikes a simple pendulum of mass m and sticks

to it. The maximum height attained by the

pendulum will be

(1) h =

20V

8g(2) 0V g (3)

0V2

g(4)

20V

4g

28. Three particles are connected by massless rods

lying along the y-axis. If the system rotates about

the x-axis with an angular speed of 2 rad/s, the

M.I. of the system is :-

O

4kg

2kg

3kg

y 3m=

y 2m= –

y 4m= –

x

(1) 46 kg-m2 (2) 92 kg-m2

(3) 184 kg-m2 (4) 276 kg-m2

25. (a)

2 10

(b)

10

0°C100°C

(a)

(1) 0.75 min (2) 0.5 min

(3) 1.5 min (4) 1 min

26. n n :-

(1) 2

2 1

n n (2) 2

2 1

n n

(3) 2

2 1

n n (4) 2

2 1

n n

27. m V0 m

(1) h =

20V

8g(2) 0V g (3)

0V2

g(4)

20V

4g

28. y-

x-2 rad/s

:-

O

4kg

2kg

3kg

y 3m=

y 2m= –

y 4m= –

x

(1) 46 kg-m2 (2) 92 kg-m2

(3) 184 kg-m2 (4) 276 kg-m2

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1001CM305615042

29. Beats are produced by two waves

y1 = a sin (1000 t) and y

2 = a sin (998 t)

The number of beats heard per second is

(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

30. Two large holes are cut in a metal sheet. If this

is heated, distances AB and BC, (as shown)

A BC

(1) both will increase

(2) both will decrease

(3) AB increases, BC decreases

(4) AB decreases, BC increases

31. A train 200 m long crosses a bridge 300 m long.

It enters the bridge with a speed of 30 ms–1 and

leaves it with a speed of 50 ms–1. What is the time

taken to cross the bridge ?

(1) 2.5 s (2) 7.5 s (3) 12.5 s (4) 15.0 s

32. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular

loop of radius R.A body slides down the track

from point A which is at a height h = 5 cm.

Maximum value of R for the body to successfully

complete the loop is

2R C

DA

E

B

h

(1) 5 cm (2) 15

cm4

(3) 10

cm3

(4) 2 cm

33. If I1, I

2 and I

3 are moments of inertia of solid

sphere, hollow sphere and a ring of same mass and

radius about geometrical axis, which of the

following statements hold good ?

(1) I1 > I

2 > I

3(2) I

3 > I

2 > I

1

(3) I2 > I

1 > I

3(4) I

2 > I

3 > I

1

34. The tension of a stretched string is increased by

69%. In order to keep its frequency of vibration

constant, its length must be increased by

(1) 30% (2) 20% (3) 69% (4) 69%

29. y1 = a sin (1000 t) y2 = a sin (998 t)

(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

30. AB BC ()

A BC

(1) (2) (3) AB BC (4) AB BC

31. 200 m 300 m 30 ms–1 50 ms–1 (1) 2.5 s (2) 7.5 s (3) 12.5 s (4) 15.0 s

32. ABCDE R A h = 5 cm R A

2R C

DA

E

B

h

(1) 5 cm (2) 15

cm4

(3) 10

cm3

(4) 2 cm

33.

I1, I

2 I

3 :–

(1) I1 > I

2 > I

3(2) I

3 > I

2 > I

1

(3) I2 > I

1 > I

3(4) I

2 > I

3 > I

1

34. 69%

(1) 30% (2) 20% (3) 69% (4) 69%

Key Filling

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1001CM305615042

35. The pressure of an ideal gas is written as

E = 2

PV3. Here E stands for

(1) total translational kinetic energy(2) rotational kinetic energy

(3) average translational kinetic energy(4) total kinetic energy.

36. A particle moves along a straight line such that

its displacement at any time t is given by :

s = (t3 – 3t2 + 2)m

The displacement when the acceleration becomes

zero is :-

(1) 0 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) –2 m

37. The work done by a force F

= 3ˆ6x i N, in

displacing a particle from x = 4 m to x = –2 m is :-

(1) 360 J (2) 240 J (3) –240 J (4) –360J

38. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is

rotating about its axis with a constant angular

velocity . Two objects, each of mass m, are

attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter

of the ring. The ring rotates now with an angular

velocity :-

(1) M

M m

(2) (M 2m)

M 2m

(3) M

M 2m

(4) (M m)

M

39. A car P approaching a crossing at a speed of

10 m/s sounds a horn of frequency 700 Hz when

40 m in front of the crossing. Speed of sound in

air is 340 m/s. Another car Q is at rest on a road

which is perpendicular to the road on which car

P is reaching the crossing (see figure). The driver

of car Q hears the sound of the horn of car P when

he is 30 m in front of the crossing. The apparent

frequency heard by the driver of car Q is

P40m Crossing

30 m

Q

(1) 700 Hz (2) 717 Hz

(3) 1000 Hz (4) 679 Hz

35. E = 2

PV3E

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36. t :

s = (t3 – 3t2 + 2)m

:-(1) 0 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) –2 m

37. F

= 3ˆ6x i N x = 4 m

x = –2 m :-(1) 360 J (2) 240 J (3) –240 J (4) –360J

38. M R

m :-

(1) M

M m

(2) (M 2m)

M 2m

(3) M

M 2m

(4) (M m)

M

39. P 10 / 40 700 340/Q () Q P 30 Q

P40m Crossing

30 m

Q

(1) 700 (2) 717 (3) 1000 (4) 679

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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1001CM305615042

40. The centre of mass of two masses m & m' moves

by distance x

5 when mass m is moved by distance

x and m' is kept fixed. The ratio m '

m is :-

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1/4 (4) None of these

41. A particle starting from the origin (0,0) moves in

a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates

at a later time are 3,3 . The path of the particle

makes with the x - axis an angle of :-

(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°

42. A bullet of mass 0.02 kg travelling horizontally

with velocity 250 ms–1strikes a block of wood of

mass 0.23 kg which rests on a rough horizontal

surface. After the impact, the block and bullet

move together and come to rest after travelling

a distance of 40m. The coefficient of sliding

friction of the rough surface is (g = 9.8 ms–2) :-

(1) 0.75 (2) 0.61 (3) 0.51 (4) 0.30

43. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two

materials A and B are as shown in the figure. IfYA

and YB are the Young's modulus of the

materials, then :-Y

B

A

XO Strain

Str

ess

60°

30°

(1) YB = 2YA (2) YA = YB

(3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB

44. The expansion of an ideal gas of mass m at aconstant pressure P is given by the straight line

B. Then the expansion of the same ideal gas of mass2 m at a pressure 2P is given by the straight line

(1) C (2) A (3) B (4) none

45. The centre of mass of a body :

(1) Lies always outside the body

(2) May lie within, outside of the surface of the

body

(3) Lies always inside the body

(4) Lies always on the surface of the body

40. m m' x

5

m' m x

m '

m :-

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1/4 (4) 41. (0,0) (x, y)

3,3

x-

(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°

42. 0.02 kg 250 ms–1

0.23 kg

40m (g = 9.8 ms–2) :-

(1) 0.75 (2) 0.61 (3) 0.51 (4) 0.30

43. A B

YA YB

A B :-Y

B

A

XO

60°

30°

(1) YB = 2Y

A(2) Y

A = Y

B

(3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB

44. m PB 2 P 2m

(1) C (2) A (3) B (4) 45.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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1001CM305615042

46. Density of aqueous solution of 4% by strength NaOH

solution is 1.04g/mL then molality of solution is :-

(1) 1 m (2) < 1m

(3) > 1 m (4) Can't predic

47. Example of instantaneous dipole-induced dipole

attraction :-

(1) HCl----HCl (2) HCl----Cl–

(3) CO2-----CO

2(4) Cl

2-----Cl–

48. Hybrid state of Aluminium in acidified aqueons

solution of AlCl3 is :-

(1) sp3 (2) sp3d (3) sp3d2 (4) sp3d3

49. What changes does not occur when K2Cr2O7 react

with H2O2 solution :-

(1) Orange colour of solution turns blue

(2) O.S. of Cr atom decreases

(3) O.S. of Cr atom remains constant

(4) None of these

50. The percentage degree of hydrolysis of a salt of

weak acid (HA) and weak base (BOH) in its 0.1 M

solution is found to be 10%. If the molarity of the

solution is 0.05 M, the percentage hydrolysis of

the salt should be–

(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 20% (4) 30%

51. At 400K, 1 mol of a hydrocarbon completely

burned. It gives 132 g of a gas along with 72 g

of water vapour then hydrocarbon may be :-

(1) CH4 (2) C3H8 (3) C2H4 (4) C4H10

52. Correct order of strength of -bond(s) are :-

(I) BO3–3 > CO3

–2 > NO3–

(II) ClO4– > SO

4–2 > PO

4–3

(III) BF3 > BCl

3 > BBr

3

(IV) AlCl3 > BCl3

(1) II, III, IV (2) II, III

(3) I, II, III (4) I, II, III, IV

53. The silicates which contain Si2O7–6 units are called:-

(1) Cyclic silicates (2) Chain silicates

(3) Pyro silicates (4) Ortho silicates

54. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO2 is

equal to

(1) zero

(2) the standrad molar enthalpy of combustion of

carbon (diamond)

(3) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of

formation of CO and O2

(4) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of

carbon (graphite)

46. 4% NaOH 1.04g/mL

:-(1) 1 m (2) < 1m

(3) > 1 m (4) 47. :-

(1) HCl----HCl (2) HCl----Cl–

(3) CO2-----CO

2(4) Cl

2-----Cl–

48. AlCl3 :-(1) sp3 (2) sp3d (3) sp3d2 (4) sp3d3

49. K2Cr

2O

7, H

2O

2

:-(1) (2) Cr (3) Cr (4)

50. (HA) (BOH) 0.1 M 10% 0.05 M (1) 5% (2) 10%

(3) 20% (4) 30%

51. 1 400K 132 g 72 g :-(1) CH

4(2) C

3H

8(3) C

2H

4(4) C

4H

10

52. - :-(I) BO3

–3 > CO3–2 > NO

3–

(II) ClO4– > SO

4–2 > PO

4–3

(III) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3

(IV) AlCl3 > BCl3

(1) II, III, IV (2) II, III

(3) I, II, III (4) I, II, III, IV

53. Si2O7–6 :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

54. CO2

(1)

(2)

(3) CO O2

(4)

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55. What is the molar solubility of Mn(OH)2

(Ksp = 4.5 × 10–14) in a buffer solution contain equal

moles of 4NH and NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) ?

(1) 3.0 × 10–4 (2) 1.38 × 10–4

(3) 1.3 × 10–3 (4) 7.3 × 10–4

56. H2SeO4 + NaOH NaHSeO4 ; E.W. of H2SeO4 = E1

H2SeO

4 + 2NaOH Na

2SeO

4 ; E.W. of H

2SeO

4 = E

2

Relation between E1 and E

2 :-

(1) E1 < E

2(2) E

1 > E

2

(3) E1 = E

2(4) E

1 =

2E

3

57. Metal have the tendency to lose an electron to

form cation. When Zn is added to NaOH complex

is formed. In complex Zn is present in :-

(1) Cationic part (2) Anionic part

(3) In both part (4) Can't say

58. Compound having highest oxidation state of

central atom act as acid lowest one act as basic

and intermediete O.S. act as amphoteric. Which

one of the following is amphoteric :-

(1) HOCl (2) HClO2

(3) HClO4

(4) None

59. A mixture of gas expands form 0.03 m3 to

0.06 m3 at a constant pressure of 1M Pa and

absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The

change in internal energy of the mixture is

(1) 30 kJ (2) 54 kJ

(3) 84 kJ (4) 3132 kJ

60. What mass of AgI will dissolve in 1.0 L of its saturated

solution ? [Given : Ksp(AgI) = 1.0 × 10-16;

(At wt. Ag = 108; I=127)

(1) 2.35 × 10-6 g (2) 0.0056 g

(3) 0.035 g (4) 0.011 g

61. The co-ordination number of Ba2+ ion in Barium

fluoride (BaF2) is 8. What must be the

co-ordination number of fluoride ion (F–) :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6

62. Which of the following hydride is neutral :-

(1) PH3(2) NaBH

4(3) HBr (4) CH

4

63. Which of the following does not produce N2 gas

on heating :-

(1) NH2CONH

2(2) NaN

3

(3) NH4NO

2(4) Ba(N

3)

2

55. Mn(OH)2 (Ksp = 4.5 × 10–14)

4NH NH3

(Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) ?

(1) 3.0 × 10–4 (2) 1.38 × 10–4

(3) 1.3 × 10–3 (4) 7.3 × 10–4

56. H2SeO4 + NaOH NaHSeO4 ; H2SeO4 = E1

H2SeO

4 + 2NaOH Na

2SeO

4 ; H

2SeO

4 = E

2

E1 E2

:-(1) E

1 < E

2(2) E

1 > E

2

(3) E1 = E

2(4) E

1 =

2E

3

57. e– Zn NaOH Zn :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

58. :-(1) HOCl (2) HClO

2

(3) HClO4

(4) 59. 1M Pa 0.03 m3

0.06 m3 84 kJ

(1) 30 kJ (2) 54 kJ

(3) 84 kJ (4) 3132 kJ

60. 1.0 AgI [ : Ksp(AgI) = 1.0 × 10-16;

(At wt. Ag = 108; I=127)

(1) 2.35 × 10-6 g (2) 0.0056 g

(3) 0.035 g (4) 0.011 g

61. (BaF2) Ba2+

8 (F–) :-(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6

62. :-(1) PH

3(2) NaBH

4(3) HBr (4) CH

4

63. N2

:-(1) NH2CONH2 (2) NaN3

(3) NH4NO2 (4) Ba(N3)2

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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64. How many quantities have similar unit as molar

entropy

(i) Heat capacity

(ii) Molar heat capacity

(iii)Universal gas constant

(iv)Specific heat capacity

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

65. In winter, the normal temperature in Kullu valley

was found to be –11ºC. Is a 28% (by mass)

aqueous solution of ethylene glycol suitable for

a car radiator? Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1.

(1) Yes

(2) No

(3) can’t predict

(4) None of these

66. Edge length of a bcc unit cell is 4 × 10–10 m. The

radius of the atom which are occupying the body

centre of cubic unit cell will be :-

(1) 3 × 10–10 m (2) 4 × 10–10 m

(3) 0.414 × 4 × 10–10 m (4) None of these

67. The correct statements is/are :-

(1) At the same temperature D2O has higher

density than H2O

(2) Temperature of maximum density is higher

for D2O than H

2O

(3) At the same temperature H2O is more viscous

than D2O

(4) Both 1 and 2

68. The quantitative estimation of O3 is based on :-

(1) Its reaction with PbS

(2) Its reaction with NO

(3) Its reaction with KI and titration of I2 liberated

with sodium thiosulphate

(4) Its reaction with H2O

2 in presence of

K2Cr

2O

7

69. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that

its kinetic energy changes from x to x

4. The

change in potential energy will be :-

(1) +3

2 x (2) –

3

8 x (3) +

3

4x (4) –

3

4x

64. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii)(2) (ii) (iii)(3) (iii) (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)

65. –11ºC 28% [H

2O K

f = 1.86 K mol–1 kg]

(1) (2) (3) (4)

66. bcc 4 × 10–10 m

:-

(1) 3 × 10–10 m (2) 4 × 10–10 m

(3) 0.414 × 4 × 10–10 m (4) 67. :-

(1) D2O H2

O

(2) H2O D2O

(3) D2O H2O

(4) 1 2 68. O3 :-

(1) PbS (2) NO (3) KI I2

(4) K2Cr2O7 H2O2

69. H- e–

x x

4

(1) +3

2 x (2) –

3

8 x (3) +

3

4x (4) –

3

4x

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70. If vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ & ‘B’ are

300 and 800 torr respectively at 25°C. When these

two liquids are mixed at this temperature to form a

solution in which mole percentage of ‘B’ is 92, then

the total vapour pressure is observed to be

0.95 atm. Which of the following is true for this solution.

(1) Vmix

> 0 (2) Hmix

< 0

(3) Vmix

= 0 (4) Hmix

= 0

71. In a solid AB2 co-ordination number of A is 8. It

has a cubic close packed lattice. Half of the

B atoms are however ejected from the solid. Now

number of tetrahedral holes (voids) remain filled are:-

(1) Equal to 2A atoms (2) Equal to 4A atoms

(3) Equal to 9A atoms (4) Equal to A atoms

72. An element (A) occurs in the short period having

electronic configuration ns2np1. The formula of its

oxide will be:-

(1) AO3 (2) AO2

(3) A2O3 (4) AO

73. In thermal decomposition of metal carbonate the

oxidation state of metal changed if metal is :-

(1) Be (2) Na (3) Zn (4) Ag

74. Each quantum mechanical wave function does not

have a readily interpretable physical meaning, but

the square of the wave function gives the _______

of finding the electron at a certain point.

(1) Bohr orbital (2) probability density

(3) energy (4) velocity

75. Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a

binary liquid solution when :

(1) the forces of attractions between like molecules

are greater than those between unlike molecules.


are smaller than those between unlike molecules.


are identical with those between unlike molecules.

(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are

different.

76. Which of the following compounds is consumed

during the preparation of Na2CO3 by solvay's process:-

(1) NH3 + CaCO3 + NaCl

(2) NH4Cl + CaO + NaCl

(3) CaCO3 + NaCl

(4) NaCl + NH4HCO3

70. 25°C ‘A’ ‘B’ 300 800 ‘B’ 92, 0.95 atm :-(1) V

> 0 (2) H

< 0

(3) V

= 0 (4) H

= 0

71. AB2 A 8 B :-(1) 2A atoms (2) 4A atoms (3) 9A atoms (4) A

72. (A) ns2np1 :-

(1) AO3 (2) AO2

(3) A2O

3(4) AO

73. :-(1) Be (2) Na (3) Zn (4) Ag

74. ____ (1) (2) (3) (4)

75. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

76. Na2CO

3

:-(1) NH

3 + CaCO

3 + NaCl

(2) NH4Cl + CaO + NaCl

(3) CaCO3 + NaCl

(4) NaCl + NH4HCO3

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77. (A) IE1 = 20ev IE2 = 45ev, IE3 = 150ev,

IE4 = 900ev IE

5 = 1800 ev (A)

:-(1) AX (2) AX

3(3) AX

4(4) AX

5

78. :-(1) NaF and MgO

(2) CuSO4 . 5H

2O and FeSO

4 . 7H

2O

(3) CaCl2 and K2S

(4) MgCO3 and KNO

3

79. ?

n m1

ms

(1) 3 2 –2 + 1/2

(2) 4 0 0 + 1/2

(3) 3 2 –3 + 1/2

(4) 5 3 0 – 1/2

80. 2.38 ×10–4 8.15 × 10–5 (1) 0.342 (2) 2.92

(3) 0.292 (4) 3.42

81. 'x' 'y' 'y' CO

2

z 'z' x 'x' :-(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(HCO3)2

(3) NaHCO3 (4) NaOH

82. :-(1) I+ < I < I– ()(2) CO, N2, CN– ()

(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ()(4) Cl > F > Br > I ()

83. C2 C

2–2 :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

84. NTP 1 O2 (1) O2 32 (2) O2 22.4 (3) 6.022 × 1023 CO2 (4) O2 16

77. The successive Ionisation energies of an element

(A) is given as IE1 = 20ev IE2 = 45ev, IE3 = 150ev,

IE4 = 900ev, IE

5 = 1800 ev Formula of halide of

(A) is :-

(1) AX (2) AX3

(3) AX4

(4) AX5

78. Which pair is not isomorphous :-

(1) NaF and MgO

(2) CuSO4 . 5H

2O and FeSO

4 . 7H

2O

(3) CaCl2 and K2S

(4) MgCO3 and KNO

3

79. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers

represents an impossible arrangement?

n m1

ms

(1) 3 2 –2 + 1/2

(2) 4 0 0 + 1/2

(3) 3 2 –3 + 1/2

(4) 5 3 0 – 1/2

80. For a reversible reaction, the rate constants for

the forward and backward reactions are

2.38 ×10–4 and 8.15 × 10–5 respectively. The

equilibrium constant for the reaction is –

(1) 0.342 (2) 2.92

(3) 0.292 (4) 3.42

81. A compound 'x' on heating gives a colourless gas.

The residus is dissolve in water to obtain 'y',

excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution

of y and z is formed. 'z' on gentle heating gives

back x. The 'x' is :-

(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(HCO3)2

(3) NaHCO3 (4) NaOH

82. Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) I+ < I < I– (Radii)

(2) CO, N2, CN– (Isoelectronic)

(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (Bond energy)

(4) Cl > F > Br > I (Electron Affinity)

83. Incorrect statement when C2 change to C

2–2 :-

(1) Magnetic properties remain same

(2) Bond order increases

(3) bond decreases

(4) bond increases

84. Which of the following figures does not represent

1 mole of O2 gas at NTP ?

(1) 32 grams of O2 gas

(2) 22.4 litres of O2 gas

(3) 6.022 × 1023 CO2 molecules

(4) 16 grams of O2 gas

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85. For reaction; 2(g) 2(g) (g)H I 2HI . The value

of Kp changes with :

(1) Catalyst

(2) Temperature

(3) Amounts of H2 and I

2

(4) All the above factors

86. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm and

Yb in +3 oxidation state is :-

(1) La+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < Yb+3

(2) La+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < Yb+3

(3) Yb+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < La+3

(4) Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3

87. (a) Be and Mg are alkaline earth metal.

(b) K+ have larger radii than Ca+2.

(c) All d-block element are transition elements.

(d) H ions is larger than F.

Incorrect statement is/are :-

(1) a, c and d (2) b and c

(3) a and d (4) a and c

88. If compound MX4 is non-polar without lone pair

at central atom than bond angle < XMX in

compound may be :-

(1) 90° (2) 180°

(3) 109°28' (4)All

89. Gases possess characteristic critical temperature

which depends upon the magnitude of intermolecular

forces between the particles. Following are the critical

temperatures of some gases.

Gases H2 He O2 N2

Critical 33.2 5.3 154.3 126

temperature (in Kelvin)

From the above data what would be the

decreasing order of liquefaction of these gases?

(1) H2, He, O2, N2

(2) He, O2, H2, N2

(3) N2, O2, He, H2

(4) O2, N2, H2, He

90. For a reaction; A B C D , the initial

concentration of A and B are equal but the

equilibrium concentration of C is twice that of

equilibrium concentration of A. The Kc is :

(1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/9

85. 2(g) 2(g) (g)H I 2HI Kp

(1) (2) (3) H

2 I

2

(4) 86. Ce, La, Pm Yb +3

:-(1) La+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < Yb+3

(2) La+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < Yb+3

(3) Yb+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < La+3

(4) Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3

87. (a) Be Mg (b) K+ Ca+2 (c) d-(d) H F :-(1) a, c and d (2) b and c

(3) a and d (4) a and c

88. MX4 LP < XMX :-

(1) 90° (2) 180°

(3) 109°28' (4)

89. H2 He O2 N2

33.2 5.3 154.3 126

(1) H2, He, O2, N2

(2) He, O2, H2, N2

(3) N2, O2, He, H2

(4) O2, N2, H2, He

90. A B C D A B

C A K

c

(1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/9

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91. Structure of cockroach that may be analogous to

chlorogogen cells of earthworm and liver of

vertebrate is ?

(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Fat body

(3) Phallic gland (4) Salivary gland

92. Gastric glands of stomach secrete proteolytic

enzymes. These enzymes and their secretory cells

are :-

(1) Pepsin and oxyntic cells

(2) Pepsin and chief cells

(3) Trypsin and chief cells

(4) Trypsin and parietal cells

93. Analysis of hearing impulse and recognition of

sound is done at :-

(1) Wernicke's area (2) Broca's area

(3) Temporal lobe (4) Somesthetic area

94. In which the following conditions are indicative

of diabetes mellitus :-

(1) Glycosuria and uremia

(2) Glycosuria and ketonuria

(3) Albuminuria and renal calculi

(4) Polyuria and uremia

95. Which of the following animals is included under

the group of sea walnuts ?

(1) Pleurobrachia (2) Fasciola

(3) Physalia (4) Locusta

96. Photoperiodic stimulus for flowering is perceived

by :-

(1) Bud (2) Embryo

(3) Root apex (4) Leaf

97. Lipids are the structural component of cells. It may

be present in the form of :-

(1) Monoglyceride, Triglyceride only

(2) Diglyceride, Triglyceride only

(3) Monoglyceride, Diglyceride only

(4) Monoglyceride, Diglyceride, Triglyceride

98. The outline of some event of mitotic cell division

is given below in unorder manner -

(i) Condensation of Chromosomes is completed

(ii) Chromosome lost their identity as discrete elements

(iii)Sister chromatids separate

(iv)Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle

The correct order of steps for cell division is :-

(1) i iv iii ii (2) iv i iii ii

(3) ii i iv iii (4) iv iii i ii

91. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

92. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

93. (1) (2)(3) (4) somesthetic

94. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

95. "" ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

96. (1) (2) (3) (4)

97. (1) (2) (3) (4)

98. -(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)-(1) i iv iii ii (2) iv i iii ii

(3) ii i iv iii (4) iv iii i ii

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99. (patches) ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

100. -(1) (2)

(3) (4)

101. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. (1) (CGH)

(2) FSH

(3) (4)

103. -I -II

-I -II

(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

104. (JGA) :-(a) (b) (c) DCT Na+ (d) (e) II (1) a, e, b, c, d (2) b, c, a, e, d

(3) c, d, a, e, b (4) d, a, e, b, c

99. Two distinct patches of sclerenchyma are present

above and below of each large vascular bundle in?

(1) Dorsiventral leaf (2) Isobilateral leaf

(3) Sunflower stem (4) Cucurbita stem

100. Choose the correct statement regarding gymnosperm-

(1) They form triploid endosperm after fertilization

(2) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and

remain exposed, both before and after fertilization.

(3) They show double fertilization

(4) They from haploid endosperm after fertilization.

101. An open or lacunar type of circulatory system is

found in :-

(1) Earthworm (2) Man

(3) Cockroach (4) Birds

102. The persistence of corpus luteum during

pregnancy is due to a hormone known as:-

(1) Chorionic gonadotropic hormone (CGH)

(2) FSH

(3) Estrogen

(4) Progesterone

103. Match the items of column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cerebral aqueduct (i) Limbic system

(b) Corpus callosum (ii) mid brain

(c) Hippocampus (iii) Joins Cerebralhemisphere

(d) Pons (iv) Hind brain

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

104. Regulation of kidney function of Juxtaglomerular

Apparatus (JGA) involves certain steps given

below. Arrange them in the correct order :-

(a) Release of enzyme renin

(b) Release of aldosterone from adrenal gland

(c) Reabsorption of Na+ and water at DCT

(d) Decrease in blood pressure and blood volume

(e) Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II

(1) a, e, b, c, d (2) b, c, a, e, d

(3) c, d, a, e, b (4) d, a, e, b, c

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105.

(1) = 1

(2) CO2 O2 = 1

(3)

(4)

106. ETS ATP

?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12

107. (a) (b) (c) (d) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

108. -I -II -I II ?-I -II ( )

A. (i) B. (ii) C. (iii) D. (iv) (1) (A - i) (B - ii) (C - iii) (D - iv)

(2) (A - ii) (B - iii) (C - i) (D - iv)

(3) (A - ii) (B - iv) (C - iii) (D - i)

(4) (A - ii) (B - iii) (C - iv) (D - i)

109. -

A B

Spore

Flagellum

C D

(1) A-, B-, C-, D-(2) A-, B-, C-, D-(3) A-, B-, C-, D-(4) A-, B-, C-, D-

105. Which of the following will not be observed

during light compensation point ?

(1) Photosynthesis / Respiration = 1

(2) Metabolic CO2 production / metabolic oxygen

utilisation = 1

(3) Gross production zero

(4) Growth zero

106. How many ATP molecules are formaed in ETS

from Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

generated in one cycle of Krebs cycle ?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12

107. The Singer and Nicolson model differs from

Robertson model in the

(a) number of lipid layer

(b) arrangement of lipid layers

(c) arrangement of proteins

(d) absence of proteins in singer model

How many statements is/are correct :-

(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

108. Match the column-I with column-II and choose

the correct answer on the basis of codes given in

column-I & II?

Column-I Column-II (edible part)

A. Apple (i) Mesocarp & Endocarp

B. Orange (ii) Thalamus

C. Tomato (iii) Juicy hair

D. Banana (iv) Pericarp & Placenta

(1) (A - i) (B - ii) (C - iii) (D - iv)

(2) (A - ii) (B - iii) (C - i) (D - iv)

(3) (A - ii) (B - iv) (C - iii) (D - i)

(4) (A - ii) (B - iii) (C - iv) (D - i)

109. Identify the names of the different bacteria

according to the shapes -

A B

Spore

Flagellum

C D

(1) A-Cocci, B-Bacilli, C-Spirilla, D-Vibrio

(2) A-Bacilli, B-Cocci, C-Spirilla, D-Vibro

(3) A-Spirilla, B-Bacilli, C-Cocci, D-Vibrio

(4) A-Spirilla, B-Vibrio, C-Cocci, D-Bacilli

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110. (1)

(2)(3)r -

(4)

111.

(1) (2)(3)PCT

(4)112. -

(1) (2) (3) (4)

113. ?

a

b

c

d

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

114. (check)

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

115. CO2

?(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 16

110. The members of rhodophyceae are commonly

called red algae, because of the -

(1) They are found in greater concentrations of

warmer area of Ocean.

(2) The have floridean starch as a stored food.

(3) Prodominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body.

(4) They show complex post fertilization

developments.

111.

The above type of epithelial tissue found on

(1)Wall of blood vessels

(2)Ducts of glands

(3)PCT

(4)Lining of stomach

112. Insulin is secreted by -cells of islets of

Langerhans. Which of the following is not truly

concerning with insulin ?

(1) Acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipose tissue

(2) Peptide hormone

(3) Hyperglycemic hormone

(4) Stimulate conversion of glucose to glycogen

113. The following labelled part is not part of brain

stem ?

a

b

c

d

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

114. The hormone which check on the renin

angiotensin mechanism, is released by :-

(1) Kidney (2) Hypothalamus

(3) Heart (4) Lungs

115. Number of light quanta needed for reduction of

two CO2 molecule is :-

(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 16

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116. :-

(1) > >

(2) < <

(3) > >

(4) < >

117. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

118. :-

(1) Br % K C A G(5) (5) 5 (5)

(2) Br K 5 C 5 A 5 G(5)

(3) Br or Ebr K (5) C (5) A 5 G(2)

(4) Ebr % K (5) C (5) A 5 G(2)

119. :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

120. ?(1) (2)(3) (4)

121. (1) (2) (3) (4)

122. ?(1) Mg++ (2) cAMP

(3) IP3 (4) Ca++

123. ___ (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

116. The correct relationship of value of Respiratory

quotient is :-

(1) Glucose > Fats > Organic acid

(2) Glucose < Fats < Organic acid

(3) Fats > Glucose > Organic acid

(4) Fats < Organic acid > Glucose

117. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from

the ER fuse with the which face of the golgi apparatus?

(1) Trans face

(2) Convex face

(3) Maturing face

(4) Vesicle fuse with lysosome

118. Floral formula of family solnaceae is :-

(1) Br % K C A G(5) (5) 5 (5)

(2) Br K 5 C 5 A 5 G(5)

(3) Br or Ebr K (5) C (5) A 5 G(2)

(4) Ebr % K (5) C (5) A 5 G(2)

119. Choose the incorrect statement from followings:-

(1) The sporophyte of liverwort is more elaborate

than that in moss

(2) In Selaginella female gametophyte is retained

on the parent sporophytes for variable period.

(3) In Pythium cell wall is made up of cellulose.

(4) In gymnosperm, gametophyte do not have an

independent free-living existence

120. Which one of the following is a most advance by

evolutionary point of view ?

(1) Selaginella (2) Funaria

(3) Cycas (4) Wheat

121. Epithelium which cover dry surface of the skin

and moist surface of buccal cavity is :-

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium

(3) Compound epithelium

(4) Glandular epithelium

122. Which of the following does not serve as

second messenger ?

(1) Mg++ (2) cAMP

(3) IP3 (4) Ca++

123. Atrial systole increases flow of blood into the

ventricles by about ___ percent .

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

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124. When body is externally and internally divided

into segments with a serial repetition of at least

some organs, This phenomena is known as :-

(1) Metamorphosis (2) Metamerism

(3) Metagenesis (4) Metachrosis

125. In this given diagram select out the correct match

regarding to various steps :–

(1) A = CO2 + RuBP PGA

(2) B = Transport of OAA from mesophyll to

bundle sheath

(3) C = Malic acid + NADP+ Pyruvate + CO2

(4) D = PEP Pyruvate

126. Denitrification is carried by bacteria :-

(1) Pseudomonas (2) Xanthobacter

(3) Nitrococcus (4) Rhizobium

127. The figure given below show the structure of

chloroplast, with its part labelled from A to F.

Identify the correct statement :

A

FC

ED

B

(1) "F" is more permeable than "A"

(2) "B" contain photosynthetic pigment

(3) "E" is the site of photophosphorylation

(4) Most abundant enzyme on the earth is found

in C

124. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

125. :–

(1) A = CO2 + RuBP PGA

(2) B = OAA

(3) C = Malic acid + NADP+ Pyruvate + CO2

(4) D = PEP Pyruvate

126. ?

(1) Pseudomonas (2) Xanthobacter

(3) Nitrococcus (4) Rhizobium

127. A F

A

FC

ED

B

(1) "F", "A" (2) "B" (3) "E" (4) C

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128. Which figure shows twisted aestivation ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)

129. Evolutionary relationship of four major lineages of

organisms is shown in the accompanying diagram,

where A, B, C and D are archaebacteria, eubacteria,

cyanobacteria and protist respectvely. Where the

Noctiluca will placed in this line diagram :-

D

C

A

B

(1) On branch A (2) On branch B

(3) On branch C (4) On branch D

130. Find the correct statements from the followings:-

(A) Suffix - ales, -opsida and -aceae are used in

plants

(B) In plants, classes with a few similar characters

are assigned to a higher category called phylum

(C) Taxonomic keys are not analytical in nature

(D) Obligate categories and extra categories are

also called as broad categories and sub

categories, respectively

(1) Both A & B (2) Both B & C

(3) Both A & C (4) Both A & D

131. Which statement is false ?

(1) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the

mammals.

(2) In adult man 5 to 5.5 million per mm3 RBCs

are present.

(3) Erythrocytes are the most abundant cells in blood.

(4) Liver is called graveyard of RBC

128. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)

129. A, B, C D :-

D

C

A

B

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. :-(A)-ales, -opsida -aceae

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A B (2) B C (3) A C (4) A D

131. ?(1) RBCs (2) 5 5.5 mm3 RBCs

(3)

(4) RBC

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132. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

133. (1) (2) (3) (4)

134. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

135. 'D' TP 6 ?

OP = 12TP = 6

E

OP = 20TP = 14

B

OP = 8TP = 2

A

OP = 15TP = 9

D

OP = 6TP = 0

C

(1) 'D'

(2) 'D'

(3) (4) 'D'

136. :-

(A) (i)

(B) (ii) (C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(2) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

(4) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

132. Hypothyroidism or enlargement of thyroid gland

called goitre is due to deficiency of :-

(1) Iodine (2) Potassium

(3) Selenium (4) Zinc

133. Heart beat becomes faster on stimulation by:

(1) Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine

(2) Sympathetic nerves and adrenaline

(3) Parasympathetic nerves and acetylcholine

(4) Parasympathetic nerves and thyroxine

134. Which organism is connecting link between plants

and animals and it belongs to which phylum :-

(1) Proterospongia, Protozoa

(2) Euglena, Porifera

(3) Mastigamoeba, coelenterata

(4) Euglena, protozoa

135. In the following diagram, If the TP of cell 'D'

decreases to 6, what would be the direction of

water flow ?

OP = 12TP = 6

E

OP = 20TP = 14

B

OP = 8TP = 2

A

OP = 15TP = 9

D

OP = 6TP = 0

C

(1) Cell 'D' actively absorb water from all the other

cells

(2) Water moves to all the other cells from cell 'D'

(3) No movement of water occurs

(4) Water moves into the cell 'D' from all the other

cells

136. Match the following :-

Essential element Role

(A) Sulphur (i) Involved in redox

reaction

(B) Chlorine (ii) Carbohydrate

translocation(C) Boron (iii) Water splitting in

photosynthesis(D) Copper (iv) Main constituent of

several coenzymes

(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(2) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)

(3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

(4) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)

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137.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

138. –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

139.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

140.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

141. ?

(1)

(2) O2

(3)

(4)

142.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

137. Which types of Lysosome is related to the

metamorphosis process ?

(1) Primary lysosomes

(2) Secondary lysosomes

(3) Autophagic vacuole

(4) Residual bodies

138. Drupe fruits are called stony fruits because –

(1) Their pericarp is hard

(2) Their endocarp is hard

(3) Their mesocarp is hard

(4) Their epicarp is hard

139. In which of the following plasmogamy is followed

by karyogamy immediately?

(1) Mucor (2) Aspergillus

(3) Ustilago (4) Puccinia

140. Which of the following secretes maximum types

of antimicrobial substances to compete with other

microbes ?

(1) Actinomycetes (2) Ascomycetes

(3) Chloromycetes (4) Eubacteriales

141. Which of the following is the function of platelets ?

(1) Clotting of blood

(2) O2 transport

(3) Immune response

(4) Allergic reactions

142. Which statement is correct ?

(1) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar

ventilation.

(2) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar

ventilation.

(3) Alveolar ventilation is more than Pulmonary

ventilation.

(4) Alveolar ventilation is less than Pulmonary

ventilation.

Time Management is Life Management

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143.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

144. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

145. (1) (2) (3) (4)

146. :-(1) (2)

(3) (4)

147.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

148. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

149. (1) (2) (3) (4)

143. What is the state of heart in the interval after end

of second heart sound and before begining of first

heart sound again ?

(1) Ventricle remain in systole, auricles undergo

first diastole and then systole

(2) Ventricles remain in diastole, auricles undergo

first diastole and then systole

(3) Ventricles undergo first systole and then

diastole, auricles remain in diastole

(4) Ventricles remain in diastole, auricles remain

in systole

144. Which statement is incorrect about sponges ?

(1) They are generally marine and radially

symmetrical animals

(2) Sponges have water transport or canal system

(3) Choanocytes or collar cells lines the

spongocoel and the canals

(4) Sexes are not seperate

145. Which of the following is required for guttation ?

(1) High humidity

(2) High temperature

(3) Low humidity

(4) Low water absorption

146. Waxes are :-

(1) Ester of glycerole and unsaturate fatty acids

(2) Ester of long chain alcohol and saturated fatty

acids

(3) Complex lipid

(4) Ester of long chain alcohol and unsaturated

fatty acid

147. The stage which is characterised by the appearance

of recombination nodule is :

(1) Leptotene

(2) Diakinesis

(3) Zygotene

(4) Pachytene

148. Which of the following is an example of

schizocarpic fruit regma ?

(1) Orange (2) Castor

(3) Mango (4) Banana

149. Thallophytes do not produce embryo because :-

(1) They exhibit zygotic meiosis

(2) They exhibit gametic meiosis

(3) They exhibit gametic mitosis

(4) They exhibit zygotic mitosis

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150. (+) (–)

Mycelium

(A)

..

..

.

.

..

.

.

+ –

(B) Progametangia

.

.....

. .

.

.........

+ –

. . . . . . .. . .. . . . ....

(C)+ –

Gametangia

Suspensor

. . .. . . . . . .

.(D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

151. 2 1 2 3

2 1 2 3

-

2

2

1

1

2

2

3

3

(1) (2) (3) (4)

152. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) O

2 CO

2

153. :-(1) Motor end plate

(2) (3) (4)

150. (+) (–)

Mycelium

(A)

..

..

.

.

..

.

.

+ –

(B) Progametangia

.

.....

. .

.

.........

+ –

. . . . . . .. . .. . . . ....

(C)+ –

Gametangia

Suspensor

. . .. . . . . . .

.(D)

The figures represent stages in the sexual

reproduction in Rhizopus. If gametagia are fused,

then what is the future of cells ?

(1) They will develop into a oospore

(2) They will develop into a prothallus

(3) They will develop into a parthenospore.

(4) They will develop into a zygospore

151. Dental formula of human adult is 2 1 2 3

2 1 2 3 which

respectively represent

2

2

1

1

2

2

3

3

(1) Incisors Canines Premolars Molars

(2) Incisors Molars Premolars Canines

(3) Incisors Molars Canines Premolars

(4) Incisors Premolars Canines Molars

152. The conducting part of respiratory tract does not

help in :-

(1) Transport the atmospheric air to the alveoli.

(2) Clear air from foreign particles

(3) Humidify and bring the air to body temperature

(4) Diffusion of O2 and CO

2 between blood and air

153. In Myasthenia gravis acetylcholine :-

(1) Receptors on motor end plate are destroyed

(2) Secretion from nerve terminals is reduced

(3) Esterase activity is inhibited

(4) Secretion from nerve terminal enhanced

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154. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

155. (A),

(B) (C) ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

V

Substrate

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

156. m-RNA

5-AUG CUA GUG UAC AUC ACU UGA UGG

UCC-3 m-RNA

?

(1) 5, 5 (2) 9, 8

(3) 5, 6 (4) 8, 9

157. DNA DNA

?

(1)M

(2)

(3) G1 G2 (4) -I -II

154. Alteration of generation is shown by which animal?

(1) Sycon (2) Hydra

(3) Obelia (4) Jelly fish

155. The figure given below shows three velocity substrate

concentration curves for an enzyme reaction, what do

the curves (A), (B) and (C) depict respectively ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

V

Substrate

A B C

(1) Normal Competitive Non competitive

enzyme inhibition inhibition

reaction

(2) Enzyme Normal Competitive

with enzyme inhibition

allosteric activity

modulator

(3) Enzyme Competitive Normal

with inhibitor enzyme

allosteric added reaction

stimulator

(4) Normal Non competitive Allosteric

enzyme inhibitor added inhibitor

reaction added

156. If base sequence in an m-RNA is following

5-AUG CUA GUG UAC AUC ACU UGA UGG

UCC-3. Then how many water molecules will be

released and how many AA will be present in that

polypeptide chain which is formed according to

this m-RNA ?

(1) 5, 5 (2) 9, 8

(3) 5, 6 (4) 8, 9

157. A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in

cells growing in the laboratory and found the

quantity of DNA in a cell doubled. When did this

quantity increase ?

(1) During the M phase of the cell cycle.

(2) Between prophase and metaphase of mitosis.

(3) Between the G1 and G2 phase of the cell cycle.

(4) Between prophase-I and prophase-II of meiosis.

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158. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 159.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

160. (1) (2) (3) (4)

161.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 162. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 163. ATPase

(1) (2) (3) (4)

164. :-(A)

(B)

(C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4)

158. In stems, the primary xylem is called endarch.

Because -

(1) The protoxylem lies towards the periphery and

the metaxylem lies towards the centre.

(2) The protoxylem lies towards the centre and the

metaxylem lies towards the periphery.

(3) Both the protoxylem and the metaxylem lies

towards the centre

(4) The protoxylem is surrounded by the metaxylem

159. The development of the zygote in to young embryos

takes place with in the female gametophyte. This

event is a precursor of the

(1) Seed habit (2) Fruit habit

(3) Vascular habit (4) Tissue habit

160. The activity of an enzyme can be affected by a

change in the conditions which can alter the:-

(1) primary structure of the protein

(2) secondary structure of the protein

(3) Tertiary structure of the protein

(4) Molecular weight of the enzyme

161. Which type of glands are found in submucosa of

duodenum ?

(1) Intestinal gland (2) Mucus gland

(3) Brunner's gland (4) Gastric gland

162. What is true for unmyelinated nerve fibres ?

(1) Layer of schwann cells is absent

(2) Myelin sheath is present

(3) Layer of schwann cells present that do not form

myelin sheath.

(4) Saltatory conduction occurs

163. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is

located in :-

(1) Troponin (2) Myosin

(3) Actin (4) Tropomyosin

164. Read the following statements carefully. These

represent which phylum :-

(A) Body is covered by calcareous shell and is

unsegmented

(B) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic

and coelomate animals

(C) Head, Muscular foot and visceral hump present

(D) The mouth contain file like rasping organ radula

(1) Annelida (2) Arthopoda

(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata

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165. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

166. (1) (2) (3) (4)

167. 24 (1) 1 (2) 95 (3) 22.8 (4) 2.8

168.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

169. (1)(2) (3)(4)

170.

A

B

(1) A Metaphase-I B Anaphase-I

(2) A Anaphase-I B Metaphase-I

(3) A Anaphase-II B Metaphase

(4) A Anaphase-I B Metaphase

165. In which one of the following enzymes, copper

is necessarily associated as an cofactor ?

(1) Tyrosinase

(2) Carbonic anhydrase

(3) Carboxy peptidase

(4) Rubisco

166. Phenomenon, in which more than one codons are

present for one Amino acid, known as :-

(1) Universality (2) Overlapping

(3) Degeneracy (4) Commaless

167. Human cell in culture divide once in about every

24 hrs. The interphase lasts more than:-

(1) 1 Hr (2) 95 Hrs.

(3) 22.8 Hrs (4) 2.8 Hrs

168. In the given figure, which one of following structure

is located just above phloem bundle in the form of

semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma ?

(1) Endodermis (2) Pericycle

(3) Cortex (4) epidermis

169. Gemmae are -

(1) Asexual reproductive structure of moss

(2) Sexual reproductive structure of Liverwort

(3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss

(4) Asexual reproductive structure

170. Identify the given figures :-

A

Double chromatidChromosome

B

(1) A Metaphase-I B Anaphase-I

(2) A Anaphase-I B Metaphase-I

(3) A Anaphase-II B Metaphase

(4) A Anaphase-I B Metaphase

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171. 'A, B, C D' A, B, C D

Lumen (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A = , B = , C = ,D =

(2) A = , B = , C = ,D =

(3) A = , B = , C = ,D =

(4) A = , B = , C = ,D =

172. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

173.

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

174. :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

171. The below diagram represents the T.S. of gut and

it shows the 4 layers in the wall of gut which are

indicated by alphabets 'A, B, C and D'.

Identify A, B, C and D and select the correct

option ?

Lumen (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A = Serosa, B = Muscularis, C = Submucosa,

D = Mucosa

(2) A = Muscularis, B = Serosa, C = Submucosa,

D = Mucosa

(3) A = Serosa, B = Muscularis, C = Mucosa,

D = Submucosa

(4) A = Mucosa, B = Submucosa, C = Muscularis,

D = Serosa

172. Correct sequence of meninges of brain from

inside to outside is

(1) Duramater Arachnoid Piamater

(2) Piamatar Duramater Arachnoid

(3) Piamater Arachnoid Duramater

(4) Duramater Piamater Arachnoid

173. Find out incorrect statement :-

(1) All locomotions are movement but all

movements are not locomotions.

(2) In human macrophages and leucocytes in

blood show amoeboid movement.

(3) Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated.

(4) Cardiac muscles are unstriated, branched and

involuntary.

174. In Echinoderms and chordates organs have

associated to form functional systems. Each

system concerned with a specific physiological

function. This pattern is called :-

(1) Organ level of organisation

(2) Organ system level of organisation

(3) Tissue level of organisation

(4) Cellular level of organisation

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175. (1)

(2) (3)

(4)

176. tRNA ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

177. ?

(1) DNA

(2)

(3) DNA

(4)

178. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

179.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

180.

lelw=kh rdqZ

ds tekoM+s dh

izfØ;k

v/kZxq.klw=k dk

foijhr /kzqoksa dh

vksj tkuk

rkjddsUæ dk

izfrdf̀rdj.k

(1) iwokZoLFkk Ik'pkoLFkk Ik'pkoLFkk

(2) varjkoLFkk vaR;koLFkk iwokZoLFkk

(3) e/;koLFkk iwokZoLFkk vaR;koLFkk

(4) iwokZoLFkk Ik'pkoLFkk varjkoLFkk

175. What causes a green plant to bend towards light,

as it grows?

(1) Becuase green plants need light to carry on

photosynthesis

(2) Becuase green plants are phototrophic

(3) light stimulates plant cells on the illuminated

side to grow faster

(4) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side causing

more cell elongation

176. Growing polypeptide chain is attached with

tRNA. It located on which site of ribosome ?

(1) Peptidyl site (2) Amino acyl site

(3) Codon site (4) Anticodon site

177. In which of the following stages of mitosis,

chromosomes are maximum condensed ?

(1) Stage between the stage of cell plate formation

and stage of DNA replication

(2) Stage between the stage of centrioles

separation and stage of splitting of centromere

(3) Stage between the stage of DNA replication and

stage of initiation of condensation of chromatin

(4) Stage between the stage of metaphase plate

formation and stage of decondensation of

chromosomes

178. Normally dorsiventral leaves are those, in which

(1) Multiple epidermal layers occur on both sides

(2) Stomata are present on upper surface only

(3) Palisade parenchyma tissue occurs on both

surfaces.

(4) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade

parenchyma & spongy parenchyma.

179. The predominant stage of the life cycle of Moss

is gametophyte, which consists of two stages they

are respectively -

(1) Protonema, Prothallus

(2) Spore Mother cell, Protonema

(3) Protonema, Leafy stage

(4) Protonema, Zygote

180. At which stage of cell division do these events occurs?

Initiation of

the assembly of

mitotic spindle

Chromatids

move

to opposite pole

Duplication

of

centriole

(1) Prophase Anaphase Anaphase

(2) Interphase Telophase Prophase

(3) Metaphase Prophase Telophase

(4) Prophase Anaphase Interphase

H-32/32


1001CM305615042

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

Test Date PHASEQ. 150 176

A. Bonus Bonus

Q. 44 169A. Bonus 2 H

Q. 130

A. 4

Q. 74 127 158A. 3 Bonus Bonus

Q. 11 42 176

A. 1 4 2Q. 81A. 4

Q. 147A. 2,4

Q. 45 173A. 3 1

Q. 13 20 57 101 103 117 136 140 156 170A. 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 4 1,3 Bonus

Q. 162

A. 4

Q. 15 121 154A. Bonus 4 3

Q. 57 81

A. 1,2 2,3

Q. 54 102 163A. 1 Bonus(E) 1,2,3

Q. 106A. 3

29.03.2016 All Enthuse,MLM,N,P,Q,MAZE,F,G,H,I

26.03.2016 MLK,MLSP,MAZD

MLI,MLJ,MAZC26.03.2016

15.03.2016

22.03.2016 MLF,MLG,MLH,MAZA.MAZB

25.03.2016 All Enthuse,MLM,N,P,Q,MAZE,F,G,H,I

MLA,MLB,MLC,MLD,MLE

MLI,MLJ,MAZC14.03.2016

20.03.2016 MLI,MLJ,MAZC

22.03.2016 MLA,MLB,MLC,MLD,MLE

CORRECTION IN MAJOR TEST


08.03.2016 MLF,MLG,MLH,MAZA.MAZB


30.03.2016 MLF,G,H,I,J,MAZA,MAZB,MAZC


ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE - ALLEN Kota · Work, Energy & Power and Circular...

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