DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND...

32
gÁdå ²PÀët ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzs À£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀgÀ¨ÉÃw E¯ÁSÉ DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING NO. 4, 100 FT RING ROAD, BANASHANKARI, 3RD STAGE, BANGALORE-560 085 gÁdå ªÀÄlÖzÀ J£ï.n.J¸ï.E. ¥ÀjÃPÉë, £ÀªÉA§gï 2012 STATE LEVEL NTSE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2012 ¥ÀwæPÉ – II / PAPER – II vÀgÀUÀw – 10 / CLASS – 10 ªÁå¸ÀAVPÀ ¥À æªÀÈwÛ ¥ÀjÃPÉë /SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST REGISTER NO : ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ : 90 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ¼ÀÄ EAVèµï/PÀ£ÀßqÀ UÀjµÀ × CAPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ : 90 TIME : 90 MINUTES ENGLISH/KANNADA MAX. MARKS : 90 Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination check that this Question Booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by another Question Booklet. 2. The sealed Question Booklet containing 90 questions enclosed with the OMR answer sheet is given to you. 3. Fill up the general information in OMR sheet such as (Register No., Medium, Sex, Type of school, category, Disability status etc.) darken the concerned blocks in OMR sheet for the above information (Shading). 4. All questions are compulsory, each question carries one mark. 5. During the examination, • Read the questions carefully. • Determine the correct answer from out of the four available choices given under each question. • Completely darken/shade the relevant oval against Question No. in the OMR answer sheet, using blue/black ball point pen. • Ex: In an question paper if Sl. No. 3 is correct answer for Question No. 20, then darken OMR answer sheet using blue/black ball point pen as follows. 20. 1 2 3 4 (This is an Example only) 6. If more than one oval is darkened for a given question, such answer is treated as wrong and no marks will be given. 7. Sheets for rough work are appended in the question booklet. 8. The Candidate and Room Supervisor should sign in the OMR sheet. 9. Candidate should return the OMR answer sheet to the room supervisor before leaving the examination hall. 10. The calculator, mobiles and any other electronic equipments are not allowed inside the examination hall. 11. Instructions to fill up the OMR sheets : • There is only one correct answer for each question. All entries in the oval must be shaded with blue/black ball point pen only. Do not try to alter the entry. • Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is not visible. • Do not make any stray marks on OMR sheet. 12. No marking should be made on the bar codes appearing in the OMR answer sheet. SAT(K-10) 1 4 1 1 2 WÜÊÜá¯Ô : ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ PܮܰvÜ BÊÜ꣤¿áá D ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ×í»ÝWܨÜÈÉ ÊÜáá©ÅÓÜƳqr¨æ.

Transcript of DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND...

Page 1: DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND …dsert.kar.nic.in/applications/sat10_12/sat(k-10).pdf · Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after

���������� ���������������������������DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

NO. 4, 100 FT RING ROAD, BANASHANKARI, 3RD STAGE, BANGALORE-560 085

����������� �!"#" �!"�"�$%���&���� '�!�2012STATE LEVEL NTSE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2012

$�(���– II / PAPER – II ��������������)� – 10 / CLASS – 10

���� *��$(�+���$%����/SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

REGISTER NO :

��� ,��-�90 ./�0)1� ���� *20!3��45 ��)%06�7 �)1��-�90

TIME : 90 MINUTES ENGLISH/KANNADA MAX. MARKS : 90

Question Booklet Sl. No.

Instructions to the Candidates1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination check that this Question Booklet does not have

any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by another Question Booklet.2. The sealed Question Booklet containing 90 questions enclosed with the OMR answer sheet is given

to you.3. Fill up the general information in OMR sheet such as (Register No., Medium, Sex, Type of school,

category, Disability status etc.) darken the concerned blocks in OMR sheet for the above information(Shading).

4. All questions are compulsory, each question carries one mark.5. During the examination,

• Read the questions carefully.• Determine the correct answer from out of the four available choices given under each question.• Completely darken/shade the relevant oval against Question No. in the OMR answer sheet, using

blue/black ball point pen.• Ex: In an question paper if Sl. No. 3 is correct answer for Question No. 20, then darken OMR

answer sheet using blue/black ball point pen as follows.20. 1 2 3 4 (This is an Example only)

6. If more than one oval is darkened for a given question, such answer is treated as wrong and nomarks will be given.

7. Sheets for rough work are appended in the question booklet.8. The Candidate and Room Supervisor should sign in the OMR sheet.9. Candidate should return the OMR answer sheet to the room supervisor before leaving the examination

hall.10. The calculator, mobiles and any other electronic equipments are not allowed inside the examination hall.11. Instructions to fill up the OMR sheets :

• There is only one correct answer for each question.• All entries in the oval must be shaded with blue/black ball point pen only. Do not try to alter the entry.• Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is not visible.• Do not make any stray marks on OMR sheet.

12. No marking should be made on the bar codes appearing in the OMR answer sheet.

SAT(K-10)

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SL.NO. SUBJECT QUESTION NO. PAGE

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01. PHYSICS ....... 1 12 3-5

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02. CHEMISTRY ....... 13 23 6-8

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03. BIOLOGY ....... 24 35 9-12

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04. HISTORY ....... 36 45 13-15

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05. GEOGRAPHY AND ECONOMICS ....... 46 60 16-22

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06. CIVICS ....... 61 70 23-25

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07. MATHEMATICS ....... 71 90 26-30

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1. Einstein’s Photo electric equation :

1) hν = ½mv2 + W

2) hν = ½mv2 – W

3) hν = ½mv + W

4) hν = ½mv – W

2. Kepler’s third law of planetary

motion :

1) V0 = Rg

2) F = – F

3) r2 ∝ T3

4) r3 ∝ T2

3. One among the following is doping

material in P-type semiconductor :

1) Carbon

2) Indium

3) Arsenic

4) Phosphors

4. Escape velocity of the rocket

depends on :

1) Mass of the rocket

2) Mass of the satellite

3) Radius of the earth

4) Speed of the rocket

1. ������������ ����� ������������

1) hν = ½mv2 + W

2) hν = ½mv2 – W

3) hν = ½mv + W

4) hν = ½mv – W

2. �������������������������� ��!����"���� ���

1) V0 = Rg

2) F = – F

3) r2 ∝ T3

4) r3 ∝ T2

3. ����#�� �$����%� &���� P-'��

(� )��������%�*���� ��)+��,+�� � ����- �

1) �����

2) ������

3) � �����

4) ����

4. )��.��� � �!����� ���� ( ���/

��� �$��� �

1) ���������������

2) ��������������

3) !"#����$���

4) ����������

*01��2)��-3PHYSICS

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5. Fronhoffer’s spectral lines are also

called :

1) Line absorption spectra

2) Line emission spectra

3) Continuous spectra

4) Continuous emission spectra

6. Current is flowing through the

circular loop, then the imaginary

magnetic poles are produced at :

1) Top and bottom of the loop

2) Right and left parts of the loop

3) Both side of the plane of loop

4) Each and every part of the loop

7. The amount of energy consumed by

the 10HP water pump in 30 minutes

to lift the water to overhead tank :

1) 26.856 x 106 J

2) 0.8949 x 106J

3) 53.712 x 106 J

4) 13.428 x 106J

8. In the nuclear reaction

H2 + H2 → He3 + X : X stands for :

1)+1

e0 2)0n1

3)−1

e0 4) H1

5. �0)�����!��0���!�4������������54���!���������)-� �1) ��%&��'%(�����"%')2) ��%&��� *�+���"%')3) ,#-.�/���"%')4) ,#-.�/�'%(�����"%')

6. �6�)-�)��� �����7 ��!��� ���� ����'������-�� )��8�.)��� �9�)��:���)��� �0��� ������1) ���0��� ���%1�� ��)�2� ��34�

!���356��)2��2) �� �0� �� 7�� ��)� 2 � 89

!���356��)2��3) ���0��� 8�9"� 7:��� ��

)��356��)2��4) ���0�����$��"���� !���356��)2��

7. 10HP "�'�������$30"��;�����%� ����-<�

��!=���"����-��>�����!�+�2�?- �

1) 26.856 x 106 J

2) 0.8949 x 106J

3) 53.712 x 106 J

4) 13.428 x 106J

8. *�@A�����������H2 + H2 → He3 + X�

��%�X��"�� �$�

1)+1

e0 2)0n1

3)−1

e0 4) H1

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9. High energetic radiations among the

followings :

1) ë = 0.01 �

A

2) ë = 0.10 �

A

3) ë = 1.00 �

A

4) ë = 40.0 �

A

10. One Joule is equivalent to :

1) 4.18 calories

2) 4.12 calories

3) 0.239 calories

4) 0.283 calories

11. The flow of energy from autotrophs

to herbivores is :

1) Bidirectional

2) Unidirectional

3) Reverse directional

4) Multi directional

12. National Science Day :

1) 15th September

2) 14th February

3) 5th April

4) 28th February

9. ����#�� �$����%������B2�?-�������C�?�� �

1) ë = 0.01 �

A

2) ë = 0.10 �

A

3) ë = 1.00 �

A

4) ë = 40.0 �

A

10. &����D!<�����'�� ���)������ �

1) 4.18 ��������

2) 4.12 ��������

3) 0.239 ��������

4) 0.283 ��������

11. �� E� �F�;�� ���7��� ���) �)'��7��

��'����� �2�?-����� �

1) :;���<��4��)2��

2) =�����<��4��)2��

3) '���><��4��)2��

4) 7�����<��4��)2��

12. )G�3������H)I��J�)���K��

1) 15��%� ���?�7��

2) 14��%��!�7��(

3) 5��%�=@�1�

4) 28��%��!�7��(

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13. Electronic configuration of copper

(atomic No. Cu – 29) is :

1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2 4p1

2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s1 4p1

3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s1 4p1

4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 4p0

14. The composition of alloy, German

silver is :

1) Copper, zinc and nickel

2) Copper, tin and lead

3) Copper, nickel and lead

4) Copper, lead and silver

15. Which of the following statement is

correct ?

1) Fusion of 1 gram of hydrogen gives

more energy than fission of 1 gram

of uranium 235

2) Fusion of 1 gram of hydrogen gives

less energy than fission of 1 gram

of uranium 235

3) Fusion of 1 gram of hydrogen gives

same energy as in fission of 1 gram

of uranium 235

4) Fission of 1 gram of uranium gives

less energy than the combustion of

1 ton of coal

13. �) ����� L<��)�3�� ��) �� (��� ��)�����M� Cu – 29) :

1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2 4p1

2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s1 4p1

3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s1 4p1

4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 4p0

14. ND ��O�� ��E�P ��2��<�!�����%�����������!�D��

1) )����A�(B�������)�2���C1�

2) )����A�D�����)�2�E%

3) )����A���C1����)�2�E%

4) )����A�E% ���)�2� �0F

15. Q ����#�� �$����% � � � � �) � ���7����'����)�����R S1) 1������������� �GH�� #�>3��

IJ2����1�����������%������235 �GH��#�3�JC�)���K�L

2) 1������������� �GH�� #�>3��IJ2����1�����������%������235 �GH��#�3�JC�)������

3) 1������������� �GH�� #�>3���)M$2������ IJ2���� 1� ���������%������235 �GH��#�3��IJ2��� ��

4) 1� ����� �����%����� �GH�#�3��56���������IJ2�1�N���56:O56�� ����J������56�7���IJ24�)������

CHEMISTRY ��)������2)��-3

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16. The chemical composition of plaster

of paris is :

1) CaSO4. 2H

2O

2) CaSO4. H

2O

3) CaSO4. ½ H

2O

4) CaSO4. 3H

2O

17. In iron metallurgy, lime stone is used :

1) To obtain heat energy

2) To reduce iron oxide into iron

3) As an iron ore

4) To remove sand (SiO2)

18. The equation given below indicates

NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl +NaNO3 :

1) Chemical decomposition

2) Chemical combination

3) Chemical displacement

4) Chemical double decomposition

19. The compound which shows

hydrogen bonding is

1) Hydrogen sulphide

2) Table salt

3) Methane

4) Ammonia

16. N�)�����T�0� �) '��P �� )�)����"��

������!�D�� �

1) CaSO4. 2H

2O

2) CaSO4. H

2O

3) CaSO4. ½ H

2O

4) CaSO4. 3H

2O

17. ��/U��� 8��R�K�����%� ����V�� �������5

>������)-�WX����������V������� �

1) I�<���/��)M$2���9�)2��

2) �PQ+�����* G9���/�,��R� �)2��

3) �PQ+��,:����4��)2��

4) ���3��/�(SiO2)� �%��� �)2��

18. Q����#��)�)����"���������������) �

)�)����"�����?������������5��!Y�����-��S

NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl +NaNO3 :

1) �� ������# !���

2) �� ������ ���"%�

3) �� ������ �S����6N

4) �� ������:; �S����6N

19. D�D���� >�� 0 � ���� 5 �� �� �ZO��� �

)�)����"�� ����������-

1) ��G9�"����� 1�TUG9�

2) ,������MV

3) #�W�%��

4) ,��"%���

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SAT(K-10) ��������

20. In the process of vulcanization :

1) Natural rubber is heated withsulphur

2) Natural rubber is heated withcarbon

3) Natural rubber is heated withphosphorus

4) Natural rubber is heated withsodium

21. Which of the following statement istrue ?1) Colloidal solutions does not show

Tyndal effect2) Colloidal solutions show Brownian

movement3) Colloidal solutions are

heterogeneous4) Size of the colloidal particles is less

than 1 nm

22. The pair of the solutions whichhave pH value less than 71) Solution of washing soda and

vinegar2) Solution of soap and solution of

washing soda3) Solution of copper sulphate and

solution of washing soda4) Solution of copper sulphate and

vinegar

23. The mass of oxygen required for thecomplete combustion of 1.6 Kg ofmethane is :1) 6.4 Kg 2) 3.2 Kg3) 1.2 Kg 4) 12.8 Kg

20. N ��[��@��2���P���?������������� �1) ��G 4����7Q���/����!���"�:��

��X� ��V��2) ��G 4����7Q���/��������"�:��

��X� ��V��3) ��G 4����7Q���/�������"�:��

��X� ��V��4) ��G 4��� �7 Q��� /

�"%������"�:�����X� ��V��

21. Q�������+�����) ����7�������"D )#��S1) �5��3��YD�9�1���(Z���[���/

����� ��V:�62) �5��3�� Y \������� K���[

����� �)2��3) �5��3��#]���̂ �)������+�3�4) �5��356��+�3���)��1 nm �4�)

�����

22. pH ��1� 7?[�����\ ��L�� �H�!�\�)� �������1) ��R���� �"%9�� ����+� ��)�2

#��%���2) �7"�������+���)�2���R���

�"%9������+3) )������ 1�T%��� ����+� ��)�2

��R���� �"%9������+4) )������ 1�T%��� ����+� ��)�2

#��%���

23. 1.6 ��WAW ���]�������5��F�O )#��4����*���)��� �T ���D��������� � )Z �1) 6.4 ��_H_ 2) 3.2 ��_H_3) 1.2 ��_H_ 4) 12.8 ��_H_

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24. The normal systolic and diastolic

pressure in human beings is :

1) 80 / 120 mm of Hg

2) 130 / 90 mm of Hg

3) 120 / 80 mm of Hg

4) 140/ 80 mm of Hg

25. While observing the cross section

of an angiosperm stem, if you find

complex permanent tissue, it could

be :

1) Epidermal tissue and collenchyma

2) Sclerenchyma and parenchyma

3) Parenchyma and epidermal tissue

4) Xylem and phloem

26. One of the basic characteristics of

living organisms which is well

developed in nervous system is :

1) Movement

2) Growth

3) Irritability

4) Nutrition

24W ��)�� ��%������!����� �����- ) ��!�����

&��-+� �$�) ��)�� )#____________

T#����-��W

1) 80 / 120 mm of Hg

2) 130 / 90 mm of Hg

3) 120 / 80 mm of Hg

4) 140/ 80 mm of Hg

25W &����T ���O/�A���� ���)�+���(+�^

���������������5 ��?_��� )�� ���?��O

2)2�E��(��)�2� ����5"� �$�� ��"����

(���__________T#�>������W

1) ��"�K������)�2���"%1����G��

2) EC`6%�����G�����)�2���%�����G��

3) ��%�����G�����)�2���"�K���

4) ��*UG������)�2���6a%����

26W A������ ��� �F ����%� 8��- �� )#

(/` �6Ja ��!�J�� � &���� ��� ���b

�������_��

1) K���

2) �3�+b��

3) ��K�%)�

4) ��a%]Z�

BIOLOGY A� �2)��-3

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27. If a person cannot walk in a straight

line or cannot balance a ride on

bicycle, probably which part of his

brain is not working properly ?

1) Cerebrum

2) Cranium

3) Cerebellum

4) Hypothalamus

28. If the urine excreted by a person

contains glucose the condition iscalled1) Galacturia2) Diabetes mellitus3) Diabetes insipidus4) Gluacoma

29. Choose the correct alternate inwhich the type of tropism exhibitedby plants is correctly matched withthe stimulus to which they respond

Tropism Stimulus

1) Hydrotropism i) Earth

2) Geotropism ii) Light

3) Chemotropism iii) Water

4) Phototropism iv) Chemical

1) 1-ii, 2- i, 3 – iv, 4 – iii

2) 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3- iv, 4 – ii

3) 1 – iv, 2- iii, 3 –i, 4 – ii

4) 1 – iii, 2- i, 3- ii, 4- iv

27W &>U � ?-����� &���� �������M�����%���+������� (]� ) *�@���<� (���5� �+ �� � � )�� � � ��� �!���� �� � � 5�)�����R��!��C��(�� ��]�O�)���>���2�cT��� � �����7�� � � � �) � * 0)�� � $�� ����O�� )# �)����O " �O4����-��d������ ��)O"��>������S1) �(7���2) ���%�����()1�7���9�)3) �( ��6��4) ��G��aW1��� �

28W � ?-��������AO��� ��!�����%�������!������+�� >���%� T �e��������5 4������������)-� S1) ���%�� ���")�2) ���!����%�3) ,$��")�4) ��6��"%��

29W ���� ���� (��� ���O�� �����- ( �$��7���)�� )��� � *)�� 8JR������������5��'����)# ��!�J��� � T����[�������5�������W

(��� ���O�� *)�� 8JR�����1) �1����)��� i) !"#�2) ����)�;���)��� ii) �3��3) � ����)��� iii) �%��4) ���$�,���)���i v)��� �����

1) 1-ii, 2- i, 3 – iv, 4 – iii

2) 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3- iv, 4 – ii

3) 1 – iv, 2- iii, 3 –i, 4 – ii

4) 1 – iii, 2- i, 3- ii, 4- iv

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11

SAT(K-10) ��������

30. Variation combined with

geographical isolation may result in :

1) Mutation

2) Speciation

3) Fossilisation

4) Genetic drift

31. The two hormones secreted by

adrenal glands which regulates the

rate of metabolism and the

concentration of salts in blood and

prepares the body to face the

emergency are _______ and _______

1) Insulin and Glucagon

2) Testosterone and Estrogen

3) Cortisone and Dopamine

4) Cortisone and Adrenaline

32. Concentrated nitric acid is used in

a test to detect adulteration of :

1) Cooking oil

2) Milk

3) Salt

4) Tea powder

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2) �� !�%:��+

3) �!�E5%��+

4) ���D������!�?

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12

SAT(K-10) ��������

33. A biotechnological process that has

found a significant application in

the field of forensic science is :

1) Recombinant DNA technology

2) Tissue culture

3) DNA finger print technology

4) Genetic engineering

34. In an experiment where two potted

plants kept in a dark room are used

to demonstrate that carbondioxide

is essential for photosynthesis

potassium hydroxide is used

because it :

1) Releases oxygen

2) Absorbs carbondioxide

3) Releases carbon dioxide

4) Absorbs oxygen

35. Enzyme linked immuno sorbent

Assay test is used to detect

1) HBV 2) TMV

3) HIV 4) HCV

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1) HBV 2) TMV

3) HIV 4) HCV

Page 13: DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND …dsert.kar.nic.in/applications/sat10_12/sat(k-10).pdf · Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after

13

SAT(K-10) ��������

36. The slogan “Jai Hind” was given

by :

1) Lal Bahadur Shastri

2) Jawaharlal Nehru

3) Subhash Chandra Bose

4) Ras Behari Bose

37. Hydro-Electric Power provided in

Shivana Samudra was first of its

kind in the whole of Asia. The Diwan

of Mysore responsible for this is

1) Dewan Rangacharlu

2) Sir M. Visweswaraiah

3) Dewan Sheshadri Iyer

4) Sir Mirza Ismail

38. The dictatorship of the proletariat

as the only solution for all feudal

problems was advocated by :

1) Czar Nicholas II

2) Karl Marx

3) Vladimir Lenin

4) Joseph Stalin

39. Israel was proclaimed as a New State

in 1948 after dividing :

1) Saudi Arabia

2) Palestine

3) Syria

4) Jordan

L��)��

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4) �� ��P��(� �"% �

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HISTORY

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14

SAT(K-10) ��������

40. The State of Mysore came to becalled as Karnataka during the ChiefMinistership of :

1) Sri Devaraj Urs

2) Sri S. Nijalingappa

3) Sri Kengal Hanumanthaiah

4) Sri Ramakrishna Hegde

41. Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch onEducational reforms led to theestablishment of first threeuniversities in India. They wereestablished during the year :

1) 1854 2) 1857

3) 1858 4) 1904

42. Match List I with List II by using thecode given below :

List I List II

A) Satyashodak 1) Dhondo Keshav

Samaj Karve

B) Satyartha 2) Ishwara Chandra

Prakash Vidya Sagar

C) S.N.D.T 3) Dayananda

University Saraswathi

D) Poona 4) Jyothibha Phule

Sarvajanika 5) Mahadeva

Sabha Govinda Ranade

Code :

1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-5,

2) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

3) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2

4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-5

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3) 1858 4) 1904

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15

SAT(K-10) ��������

43. The First Newspaper published in

India was :

1) The Bengal

2) The Bengal Gazette

3) The Hindu

4) The Indian Mirror

44. 38th parallel is the dividing line

between the countries of :

1) North Vietnam and South Vietnam

2) North Korea and South Korea

3) Communist China and

Taiwan

4) India and Pakistan

45. Which one of the following groups

is in the chronological order ?

1) Home Rule League, Swaraj Party,

Simon Commission, Poona Pact,

Purna Swaraj, Cripp’s Mission

2) Home Rule League, Purna Swaraj,

Simon Commission, Poona Pact,

Cripp’s Mission, Swaraj Party

3) Home Rule League, Swaraj Party,

Simon Commission, Purna Swaraj,

Poona Pact, Cripp’s Mission

4) Home Rule League, Swaraj Party,

Cripp’s Mission, Poona Pact,

Simon Commission, Purna Swaraj

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���O ��)�������� �

1) :� ����1�

2) :� ����1����^���

3) :�'��"

4) :���������#����

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J���*� ���"%�A� �a��� l�M��A

�G��������"%�A��a+�� ;��^�

Page 16: DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND …dsert.kar.nic.in/applications/sat10_12/sat(k-10).pdf · Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after

16

SAT(K-10) ��������

46. Which one of the following is thecorrect sequence of rivers of Indiafrom north to south ?A. GodavariB. The GangaC. NarmadaD. Cauvery

1) B. C. A. D 2) D. B. C. A3) A. C. B. D 4) D. A. C. B

47. Consider the following statements :

A. The north Indian plain is very fertile.

B. Perennial rivers flow across the plain.

C. It’s a flat land, fit for irrigation and

inland navigation and establishment

of industries.

Which one of the following is the best

concluding statement ?

1) It’s a land of sacred rivers.

2) It’s useful to people to some extent.

3) 40% of total population lives in this

region.

4) The region is famous for IT

companies.

48. Which one of the following citiesnever gets the vertical rays of thesun ?1) Simla2) Bombay (Mumbai)3) Ahmedabad4) Bhopal

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1) B. C. A. D 2) D. B. C. A3) A. C. B. D 4) D. A. C. B

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GEOGRAPHY & ECONOMICS *0�!��!���2)��-3 �����-(]�O2)��-3

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17

SAT(K-10) ��������

49W ��@q��� � �)��������� * 0)�����%���7�)���%� 8��-�J��� ��?_��� ��+���4����� �<)��/`� � �� � - � W L�� �% �(+��� )#�� �(�2� �1) ����)�3�� ��K�L� I�<� ����

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2) ���"*�������)�3��������"��3���<��4���%�P% �)2��_

3) ����)�3����K�L�l)29�����%I:�������� l) 29� � ���%I�� �9���P% �)2��_

4) � ���)� 3 �� � ����� l) 29 ����%I:��� ��K�L� l)29� ����%I��9����P% �)2��_

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49. The south west monsoons start

retreating from north to south in

winter in India. The phenomenon

involved in this is :

1) Winds blow from hot regions to cold

regions.

2) Monsoons always move

downwards.

3) Winds blow from a high pressure

area to a low pressure area.

4) Winds blow from a low pressure

area to a high pressure area.

50. Some statements are given below :

A. Mangrove forests are found in some

delta regions in India.

B. Coniferous forests are found in

tropical regions of India.

C. Date palms are a part of desert

vegetation.

D. Evergreen forests are very dense

forests.

Which of the above statements are

true ?

1) A, B and C

2) A, C and D

3) B, C and D

4) A, B and D

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18

SAT(K-10) ��������

51. Which of the following statements

represent characteristics of black

soil ?

A. It develops cracks during hot

weather.

B. Iron content present in this soil turns

into iron oxide due to diffusion.

C. It’s made of fine clay particles.

D. It retains moisture for long.

1) ‘A’ and ‘C’ only

2) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ only

3) ‘C’ and ‘D’ only

4) ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ only

52. A. Assertion :

Pulses except turdal are grown in

rotation with other crops.

R. Reason :

They are leguminous and helps in

restoring fertility of soil by fixing

nitrogen from air in the roots.

1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’

explains ‘A’.

2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’

doesn’t explain ‘A’.

3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.

4) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

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19

SAT(K-10) ��������

53. Column I is the list of minerals and

Column II is the list of mode of

formation of minerals.

Column I Column II

A. Copper i) by deposition in

layers of

sedimentary

rocks

B. Aluminium ii) solidification of

liquids in

cracks and

crevices in

igneous rocks

C. Coal iii) decomposition

of surface

rocks

D. Platinum iv) evaporation of

water from the

surface of

rocks

v) deposition in

sand beds of

valleys and in

foothills

Which one of the following is correctly

matched set ?

1) A – v, B – iii, C – iv, D – i

2) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – v

3) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – ii

4) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – v

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D. ��6D�� iv) �1��3���%1�>UG�56����%���#�����V�(��

v) �N?���3 !���56��)�2�+b���356����0�����356 �K�����"�����V�(��

d���34��V�356����V��� (��������56���m1) A – v, B – iii, C – iv, D – i2) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – v3) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – ii4) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D- v

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20

SAT(K-10) ��������

54. The following is the list of iron andsteel plants located in various partsof India.

A. Vishakhapatnam

B. Bhadravati

C. Jamshedpur

D. Salem

E. Rourkela

F. Bokaro

G. Vijayanagar

H. Durgapur

Which one of the following represents

iron & steel industries located outside

the Chotanagpur region ?

1) A. D. G. H

2) B. C. F. G

3) A. B. D. G

4) B. E. G. H

55. The following is the list of portslocated along the east coast of India.

A. Paradeep

B. Kolkata

C. Vishakhapatnam

D. Tuticorin

Which one of the following is the

correct sequence of ports from south

to north ?

1) C. D. B. A 2) D. C. A. B

3) B.A. D. C 4) A.C. D. B

54. Q������*0)�����*���*���*0)������%��)ep���,j���/U� �����-8?[���)M)O��������=��������5 ��!=���WA. #I�<�N?+B. !����$C. ^���]�9��V�D. �%��E. �"��C1�F. �"����"G. #������H. ������V�

d� ��34�� ���� ����V� p�"%������V��� ����%I���/� PN�?� ,����"���� �S@ �MN?��PQ+���)�2��JC���&�����3��/���$�:q �)2���m

1) A. D. G. H

2) B. C. F. G

3) A. B. D. G

4) B. E. G. H

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� ������ ������� ������ ���������

��� ����� � ���� !����� "�#$%&��'()

*����������+ ,�#���� -

1) C. D. B. A

2) D. C. A. B

3) B.A. D. C

4) A.C. D. B

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21

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56W Q ����#�� ����) � ���7������� �����)'*���)���������_���7�����>�J`���SA. �������� � �� ������� �� � � ��

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D. �����V�d�(%$��� �% ����81�6�KN��D���3��/����' ��,:q������/���"�:��_

1) ‘A’���)�2 ‘C’���)�2) ‘B’���)�2�‘D’���)�3) ‘B’, ‘D’���)�2 ‘C’���)�4) ‘A’, ‘B’���)�2�‘C’���)�

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C. ���� ��G��(���356� ��-L�� ��N?�)�)�̂ �g����/�73 1���)2�����)�2��-L��7�9��3� �%��4��)2��_

��V�356����V��� (�m1) ‘A’� (A�B���)�2�C��3��)�MV2) ‘A’�)�MVA�B���)�2�C��3�� (3) ‘B’� (A�A����)�2�C��3��)�MV4) ‘C’�)�MVA�‘A’���)�2�‘B’��3�� (

56. Which of the following statements

are associated with co-operative

farming ?

A. Lands of all the members (farmers)are pooled and cultivated.

B. The members lose ownership rights

of their lands.

C. A major portion of the yield is

shared among farmers in proportion

to their size of lands.

D. Management of all the activities, is

under the control of the Government.

1) ‘A’ and ‘C’ only

2) ‘B’ and ‘D’ only

3) ‘B’, ‘D’ and ‘C’ only

4) ‘A’, B and ‘C’ only

57. Read the following statements :

A. Cottage industrial occupations are

hereditary in nature.

B. Some of the goods produced in

cottage industries, are also

exported.

C. Cottage industries adopt high level

of technology and require huge

capital.

Which of the following is correct ?

1) ‘A’ is true and B & C are false

2) ‘A’ is false and B & C are true

3) ‘B’ is true and A & C are false

4) ‘C’ is false and A & B are true

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SAT(K-10) ��������

58W * 0)����� �!�)l����� (�� � �1� ��)+�� �$������ ���b8��R�2� �1) ������/���������9��V�����)�2

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59W Q ����#���������a���� ����p��%� ����) �� � ��p�� � � � � �� � a � � � � � ��!�� ������� )GO�� ���!�D������ ��0�������)�� )l����S1) 1962�� !��)j-%�������n���)�2

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60W &>U�)�����&���� )G��� ��G������5��!�+����!�\�)R�W (���%� ��!�;���� �$��� �)�����"��Q���7J��WT��T ��G�"�� ��))j�)������5 �����-(���������)��������5�����?O��)��(�����!�;��� >��r �7���� ��������5��)��s( �������) �$���'������%�����?�l����WL���%�T�)�����7��Q�������+�����) �N�)�����������[���5P")��'��<)#��S1) ����C������C2) ������� ���k)�����C3) ������)�2� �%���3�7��h�$0����

���C4) ��$�:q ������C

58. The purpose of devaluation of Indianrupee is :1) To reduce imports and to increase

exports.2) To increase imports and to reduce

exports.3) To reduce differences between

value of goods and value ofservices imported.

4) To maintain favourable balance ofpayments.

59. Which of the following set of warswas mainly responsible for failureof the Third 5 Year Plan ?1) Indo – China war of 1962 and

Indo – Pak war of 19472) Indo – China war of 1962 and

Indo – Pak war of 19653) Indo – Pak war of 1971 and the

Kargil war of 19994) Indo – China war of 1962 and the

Indo – Pak war of 1971

60. A customer purchases a washing

machine. She realises that it is

defective. She complains to the

dealer and the manufacturer, to no

effect, which one of the following

right is denied to her, in this case ?

1) right to choose

2) right to consumer’s safety

3) right to information about goods &

services

4) right to represent

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23

SAT(K-10) ��������

61W 17 ����)��O�� ��:����� �$ ��)%^� �g��%�

2011 �% � � �+ �l���� W (�� �(�0� ��_)#��R ��� �1) �����"%���E���2) ��^���k3) �%����E%��4) ���������R%��

62W N(��_��)��!���P �����-N?_�����!�D�)P

�)����O��� ���������5Q�������+�����) �$���H�!������:��!��C<)#��S1) Jk%���)�M���2) ������)�M���3) ,��k�)�4) ���#�%+�79)�

63W 2011�%� �2�E�����e����%� 193 ������

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3) �Jk+� �9���

4) �a���D��"%��

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1) 14 ��%�#:q

2) 15 ��%�#:q

3) 16 ��%�#:q

4) 17 ��%�#:q

61. The 17th SAARC Summit was heldin Maldives in 2011. Its Chair Personwas :

1) Man Mohan Singh

2) Rajpaksha

3) Begum Haseena

4) Mahmud Nasheed

62. Schemes like ‘Akshara Dasoha’ and

‘Ksheera Yojana’ are associated with :

1) Milk production

2) Food production

3) Illiteracy

4) Rural poverty

63. 193rd member of UN admitted in 2011

was :

1) Switzerland

2) Sudan

3) South Sudan

4) East Timor

64. Which one of the following Articlesprovides equality of opportunity inmatters of public employment inIndia ?1) Article 14

2) Article 15

3) Article 16

4) Article 17

�1�"��CIVICS

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24

SAT(K-10) ��������

65. The members of the Commonwealth

Nations were those :

1) Who were subjected to British Rule

2) Who still accept British queen as

their head

3) Who did not support British during

World War I

4) Who did not support British during

World War II

66. The highest body set up in India to

protect Human Rights is :

1) Human Rights Committee

2) Human Rights Commission

3) National Human Rights Committee

4) National Human Rights

Commission

67. The Second Gulf War was fought

between :

1) Iraq and U.S.A.

2) Iraq and Kuwait

3) Iraq and Iran

4) Iraq and Sudan

65W �) ���� �<� - );� � 3 � �� � &��! [j��

������ ����� �

1) P�D]���0;�����l3�D?�O���]?e�3�

2) ��:�"�P�D]����+b����/�)��>

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3) ��"�������������n�56�P�D](��

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4) 8�9��� ��������n�56� P�D](��

�������/���"9�����O���]?e�3�

66W *0)�����%� ��)�� � �����[�������5 �?_����

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� �S�

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4) ��������)�2� �9���

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25

SAT(K-10) ��������

68. The Judges of International Court

of Justice are elected by :

1) Security Council2) General Assembly3) Security Council and Trusteeship

Council4) Security Council and General

Assembly

69. ‘SAPTA’ is an agreement on Trade

among the SAARC Nations. The

expansion of SAPTA is one of the

following :

1) South Asian Protection of Trade

Agreement

2) South Asian Partial Trade

Agreement

3) South Asian Preferential Trade

Agreement

4) South Asian Pacific Trade

Agreement

70. Universalisation of primary

education is the aim of National

policy on education. It came into

effect during the year :

1) 1980

2) 1985

3) 1986

4) 1989

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��)+�� ������ �

1) !��)�� #�$

2) ������ !�

3) !��)�� #�$���)�2��!������� #�$

4) !��)�� #�$���)�2� ������ !�

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(SAPTA) d�>���� ��� - �K� Q

�������+� �$����%6� &��)#�� �

1) \)�� =R����� ���a���k��� ��!�

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4) \)�� =R����� ��E@q��� ���%9�

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70W �)�]�����Z��_����) �O���������!����

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>������R�

1) 1980

2) 1985

3) 1986

4) 1989

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26

SAT(K-10) ��������

71. Mean of 100 items is 49. It was found

that the three items which should

have been 60, 70, 80 were wrongly

read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The

correct mean is

1) 48 2) 49

3) 50 4) 60

72. The value of ‘P’ for which the

equation a2+ 4 = (P+2)x has equal

roots ?

1) (2, −6) 2) (−2, +6)

3) (−2, −6) 4) (2, 6)

73. There are 3 hockey players Vinay,

Raja and Jayanth, who are equally

capable of scoring a goal in a match,

it was known that the team scored 3

goals, then the probability that Vinay

scored one goal and Raja scored two

goals is

1)271 2)

276

3) 92 4) 9

1

���m��MATHEMATICS

71W � �!�� (������� ��)��' 49W T

���M� �������5u��� )��60s70s80d����

u��� � >��<)# 40s 20s 50 d����

u��<)#��� - W �)�)��� "b� )��

��)��'�����

1) 48 2) 49

3) 50 4) 60

72W ‘P’ ���� ����) � *�<��� a2+ 4 = (P+2)x

����������� ��!�������� ���)#����- �S

1) (2, −6) 2) (−2, +6)

3) (−2, −6) 4) (2, 6)

73W ���� � � ��s )D �)��! D�� �����

��! ��! �)? Tj�)��� N��!�<�P

��7��� �$���%� �� ��)�� �) ��]� O ����5

��+�J���)-�W ����� �F����%� Q

���+� �$ ��!����!����������5��7�����-��W

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���*0� �"������������

1)271 2)

276

3) 92 4) 9

1

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27

SAT(K-10) ��������

74. The ratio of the area of a square tothat of the square drawn on itsdiagonal is :1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 13) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4

75. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, thenthe angles of the quadrilateral in thesame order are :1) 70°, 120°, 110°, 60°2) 120°, 110°, 70°, 60°3) 110°, 70°, 60°, 120°4) 60°, 120°, 70°, 110°

76. If bax1x +=+ ba

x1x −=− then

1) ab = 1 2) ab = 2

3) a + b = 0 4) a = b

77. In the given graph the order of the

nodes A B C D respectively are :

1) 1, 2, 2, 1 2) 2, 1, 2, 1

3) 2, 2, 1, 1 4) 1, 2, 1, 2

78. The product of the roots of the

quadratic equation is equal tosquare of the sum of the roots. Ifthe sum of the roots is 2x, the valueof ‘x’ is :

1) 2 2) 1

3) −2 4) 0

74W &�����1���)��!(������O�� ���<�d�����1���� ��_�����0������(����)�� �

1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1

3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 4

75W ABCD �����&���� �6�-����������*0��OD�)�)���(������ �� )#(�����!��������1) 70°, 120°, 110°, 60°

2) 120°, 110°, 70°, 60°

3) 110°, 70°, 60°, 120°

4) 60°, 120°, 70°, 110°

76. bax1x +=+ T#���R ba

x1x −=− T���

1) ab = 1 2) ab = 2

3) a + b = 0 4) a = b

77W ����-����_����%� A B C D ����� �� ���)��/�������)#��R%� (������ �� )# ( �$���� ���O (��� ��)����� �

1) 1, 2, 2, 1 2) 2, 1, 2, 13) 2, 2, 1, 1 4) 1, 2, 1, 2

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2x T#��R%�‘x’ ��*�<�������

1) 2 2) 1

3) −2 4) 0

D CB

A D CB

A

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28

SAT(K-10) ��������

79. If the length of the chord of a circle

is equal to the radius, then the anglesubtended by it at the centre is :1) 30° 2) 90°

3) 60° 4) 120°

80. The coach of a cricket team buys

7 bats and 6 balls for �� 3,800. Later

he buys 3 bats and 5 balls for �� 1,750.

The cost of each bat and each ball

is

1) �. 3,800, �. 1,750

2) �. 50, �. 500

3) �. 500, �. 50

4) �. 2,150 �. 750

81. A rectangular paper of dimensions

6 cm & 3 cm is rolled to form a

cylinder with height equal to the

width of the paper. Its radius of the

base is

1) π23 2) π

6

3) π29 4) π

3

82. What is the remainder when

(x4 +1) is divided by (x −−−−− 2) ?

1) 17 2) 15

3) 7 4) 1

79W &���� �6��-��%�(���H) ��8��R �$��D ��[�� ���)#��R�s H) �$ ���������%�8�j� ��)+�� ���!��� �

1) 30° 2) 90°

3) 60° 4) 120°

80W &���� ?���.� ���+��� ���*������)���

�� 3,800 ��7��7*) j��)��!6���+���������5 ��!���C�)-�W ������ 3 *) j��)��! 5���+���������5 �. 1,750��7����!�+����!���C�)-�W �)�)��%� &����*) j��)��!&�������\��*�<������1) �_�3,800A ����1,750

2) �_�50A��_�500

3) �_�500A��_�50

4) �_�2,150��_�750

81W 6���W���W�)��!3���W���W(�����������C&����T�����)�)����)���� ����5sd��-�

(�����[�� �� )��� ����&�����%�+��

T��6��� ��' ��O��<)#��W �)�)��%�

(����)������D �$

1) π23 2) π

6

3) π29 4) π

3

82W (x4 +1)���5 (x −−−−− 2)�"���*0)#����>�� � 2��;� �$

1) 17 2) 15

3) 7 4) 1

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29

SAT(K-10) ��������

83. The number of coins of 1.5 cm in

diameter and 0.2 cm thick, to be

melted to form a right circular

cylinder of height 10 cm and

diameter 4.5 cm is :

1) 150 2) 250

3) 450 4) 500

84. If cba1

c1

b1

a1

++=++ where

(a+b+c) ≠ 0 and abc ≠ 0. What isthe value of (a+b) (b+c) (c+a) ?

1) 0 2) 1

3) −1 4) 2

85. A right circular cone is cut by twoplanes parallel to the base andtrisecting the altitude. What is theratio of the volumes of the threeparts : top, middle, bottomrespectively :1) 1: 7: 19 2) 1: 2 : 3

3) 1: 8 : 27 4) 1: 7: 18

86. The value of x satisfying theequation x2 + p2 = (q – x)2 is

1)2

pq 22 −

2) q2qp 22 −

3) q2pq 22 −

4) p2qp 22 +

83W 10 ���W���d��-� �)��! 4W5 ���W��� ) �� � $�� C &���� �6� -�� � �� ��>�%�+���)5#��' ��O����s1W5���W��� ) �� �)��! 0W2 ���W��� ����, L�� ��)� �������5 ���#��*���)�� �)� �������M� �1) 150 2) 2503) 450 4) 500

84W cba1

c1

b1

a1

++=++ T#���R

(a+b+c) ≠ 0 �����- abc ≠ 0T#��R%�(a+b) (b+c) (c+a)����*�<�����;���S1) 0 2) 1

3) −1 4) 2

85W &���� �6�-�������> 2��b ����5(���d��-� �$ ��!��*0)�����)��� ����s�)����[�� ��)���� )# ����-'��<)#��W ���%��s ���0� ���)��!����*0)������ �)��� (i���)����(����)�� �$s(������ �� )#� 1) 1: 7: 19 2) 1: 2 : 3

3) 1: 8 : 27 4) 1: 7: 18

86. x2 + p2 = (q – x)2 ������� ���� [(��El���� ���� ‘x’��*�<������

1)2

pq 22 −

2) q2qp 22 −

3) q2pq 22 −

4) p2qp 22 +

Page 30: DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND …dsert.kar.nic.in/applications/sat10_12/sat(k-10).pdf · Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after

30

SAT(K-10) ��������

87. On a road, three consecutive traffic

lights change after 36, 42 and 72

seconds. If the lights are first

switched on at 9.00 am, at what time

will they change simultaneously ?

1) 9 : 08 : 04

2) 9 : 08 : 24

3) 9 : 08 : 44

4) 9 : 08 : 58

88. AB and CD are two parallel chordsof a circle of radius 3 cms. IfAB = 4 cms and CD = 5cms. Thenthe distance between them in cmsis

1) 1125 +

2) 115 +

3)2115 +

4)5112 +

89. X is a matrix then X – X′ is :

1) symmetric matrix

2) skew symmetric matrix

3) zero matrix

4) identity matrix

90. The value of 0.090.16 (256)(256) × is :

1) 2 2) 8

3) 6 4) 4

87W &���� ��� -����%� ����)' J��������36s 42 �)��! 72 �����+������% �(������ �� )# >��<)�����- �W J��� ����5 �!��� *)'�� 9.00 am ���.���*������ ���� ��)\���s ����) ��� ��������%�( �$��$��c>��<)�����- �S1) 9 : 08 : 042) 9 : 08 : 243) 9 : 08 : 444) 9 : 08 : 58

88W ��!�����W�����D �$��C&���� �6��-��%�AB = 4���W��� �����-CD = 5���W���H) �������5�� ��)���� )#d������<)#��W���W���W��%�( �$������+�����(���� �$

1) 1125 +

2) 115 +

3)2115 +

4)5112 +

89W X &���� ��)��6������)#��R%� X – X′ :1) ��#�$���)c��

2) #]��� ��#�$���)c��

3) I"�����)c��

4) ,������)c��

90. 0.090.16 (256)(256) × �*�<������ �

1) 2 2) 8

3) 6 4) 4

Page 31: DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND …dsert.kar.nic.in/applications/sat10_12/sat(k-10).pdf · Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after

31

SAT(K-10) ��������

FOR ROUGH WORK ONLY

������������ ��������

Page 32: DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND …dsert.kar.nic.in/applications/sat10_12/sat(k-10).pdf · Question Booklet Sl. No. Instructions to the Candidates 1. Immediately after

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Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this booklet.

SAT(K-10) ��������