ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 SELF EVALUATION TEST …€¦ · ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES...

ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 SELF EVALUATION TEST (CSAT)

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Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each

item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer.

5. In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within time shall not be entertained at all.

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8. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is left blank.

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2 Self-Evaluation Test (CSAT) BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

Directions for the following four items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only.

Passage - I Self-government depends entirely upon our own internal strength, upon our ability to fight against the heaviest odds. Indeed, self-government which does not require continuous striving to attain it and sustain it is not worth the name. I have, therefore, endeavoured to show both in word and deed that political self-government-that is self-government for a large number of men and women is no better than individual self-government, and therefore, it is to be attained by precisely the same means that are required for individual self-government or self-rule. The true source of rights is duty. If we all discharge our duties, right will not be far to seek. If leaving duties unperformed we ran after rights, they will escape us like a will-o'-the-wisp. The more we pursue them, the farther will they fly. To me political power is not an end but a means of enabling people to better their condition in every sphere of life. Political power means capacity to regulate national life through national representative. If

national life becomes so perfect as to become self-regulated, no representation becomes necessary, there is then a state of enlightened anarchy. In such a state, everyone is his own ruler. He rules himself in such a manner that he is never a hindrance to his neighbour. Hence, the classical statement of Thoreau that

government is best, which governs the least. I believe that true democracy can only be an outcome of non-violence. The structure of a world federation can be raised only on a foundation of non violence, and violence will have to be totally given up in world affairs. My idea of society is that while we are born equal, meaning that we have a right to equal opportunity, all have not the same capacity. It is, in the nature of things, impossible. For instance, all cannot have the same height, or colour or things, some will have ability to earn more and others less. People with talents will have more, and they will utilise their talents for this purpose. If they utilise kindly, they will be performing the work of the State. Such people exist as trustees, on no other terms. I would allow a man of intellect to earn more, I would not cramp his talent. But the bulk of his greater earnings must be used for the good of the State, just as the income of all earning sons of the father goes to the common family fund. They would have their earning only as trustees. It may be that I would fail miserably in this. But that is what I am sailing for.

Q1) Examine whether the following inferences can be drawn from the passage or not. 1) Men though not born equal can become equal by proper governance. 2) Rights emanate from duties.

Select the correct option: (a) Only Inference 1 can be drawn. (b) Only Inference 2 can be drawn. (c) Both inferences can be drawn. (d) Neither of the two inferences can be drawn.

Q2) Which of the following cannot be said to be correct as per the passage? (a) Political power is a means but not an end in itself.

(b) It is a means to uplift the condition of people. (c) This power in democracy is to be exercised through national representatives. (d) None of the above

Q3) What is meant by a state of enlightened anarchy? (a) A state where there is confusion among the enlightened masses. (b) A state where people have awareness but are engulfed in confusion about their duties.

(c) A state which does not regulate its subjects but still they are conscious of their duties. (d) None of the above. Q4) Examine the following statements in light of what is stated in the passage and determine which of the following are correct? 1) Rights and duties are inter-linked. 2) An ideal state is devoid of political power. 3) Democracy can only rest on the foundation of non-violence. 4) Equality of opportunity is an ideal which cannot be realised.

Select the correct code: (a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4 (c) Only 1, 3 & 4 (d) All 1, 2, 3 & 4



Passage - II Cultural activities are becoming increasingly important in the modern post- industrial knowledge-based economy. World over, they have been recognised as an important component of growth and job creation as well as a vehicle of cultural identity. Cultural life has become an economically viable private and public service activity as well as social integrator. There is growing positive correlation between culture and employment. A large number of people are getting viable employment by engaging in cultural activities as writers, publishers, librarians, photographers, sculptors, painters, musicians, singers, choreographers, dancers and actors. Cultural activities also support other economic activities, cultural tourism being one such example. A major chunk of tourism in India, national and international, can be classified as cultural tourism because it is geared to visit monuments, museums, archaeological sites and cultural heritage including traditional fairs and festivals. To meet the objective of preserving and promoting all forms of art and culture, a variety of activities are

being undertaken by the Government of India, ranging from protecting and encouraging cultural endeavours at grassroots level to promoting cultural exchanges internationally; from programmes to preserve India's ancient heritage to encouraging an array of contemporary creative arts. A network of 41

organisations is functioning under the Ministry of Culture, for protection, development, and promotion of tangible heritage, intangible heritage, and knowledge heritage. There are also a large number of schemes and programmes to extend financial support to individuals, group of individuals, and cultural organisations engaged in performing, visual and literary arts. Creative industry includes cultural heritage; printed matter and literature; music and performing arts; visual arts; audio-visual media including cinema, television, radio and photography, and socio-cultural activities; museum and archives.

Q5) Which of the following inferences can be drawn from what is stated in the passage? 1) Cultural activities and services are helping in earning valuable foreign exchange. 2) Cultural services create a sense of national identity.

Select the correct option: (a) Only Assertion 1 is correct. (b) Only Assertion 2 is correct. (c) Both Assertions 1 and 2 are correct. (d) Neither Assertion 1 nor 2 is correct.

Q6) Which amongst the following can be said to be true about cultural services and activities? 1) They are social integrators. 2) They are job creators. 3) They are good source of entertainment.

Select the correct option: (a) All 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 1 & 2 (c) Only 1 & 3 (d) Only 2 & 3

Q7) Which amongst the following cannot be treated as cultural activity in terms of what is stated in the passage? (a) Activity of a production house engaged in production of a dance- drama (b) Activity of a publishing house engaged in printing and publication of children's literature (c) Activity of a government organisation dealing with archiving of manuscripts (d) Activity of a chain of resorts operating in cities/places where world heritage sites are located

Q8) Which amongst the following does the passage highlight as the measures undertaken by the government to promote and preserve arts and culture? 1) The government has a network of organisations functioning under it which undertake the work of

protection/promotion of culture. 2) The government promotes cultural activities at the grass root levels. 3) The government operates a number of guest houses/ hotels through undertakings in important

tourist places. 4) Government has a number of schemes to extend financial support to artists.

Select the correct code: (a) All 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) Only 1, 2 & 3 (c) Only 1, 2 & 4 (d) Only 2, 3 & 4



Passage - III The year 2013 will widely be known as the one in which whistle-blower Edward Snowden told us that powerful governments had pierced the cover of privacy that is so dear to us and which is at the core of free expression. The Indian government's position, in 2011, at the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), and yet again in November 2013 in another U.N. meeting, has been to demand "a multilateral body for the formulation of international Internet related public policies." The government would like this body to be under the aegis of the U.N. "with all stakeholders and relevant international organizations in 'advisory capacity' within their respective roles." There is no denying that the current Internet Governance (IG) framework is imperfect, especially with the U.S.'s strong influence and legal proximity to IG-related mechanisms - all these need to be transformed for the Internet to become more democratic and inclusive. Given the emerging issues and the changing nature of the conflicts, and the fact that the discourse within the IG space is broken, these existing

processes cannot address these concerns sufficiently. A lot of fixing, enabling and rethinking and even strengthening is required. The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN), is a good place to start; decentralisation and renegotiating ICANN's cozy relationship with the U.S., as rightly

pointed out by the EU, are some of the steps that need to be undertaken. However, the position taken by India will only take global IG out of the frying pan into the fire, from the "influence" of one country to the control of global governments who, consistent with the U.N. Charter, will make all decisions behind closed doors, with hardly any voice for other stakeholders or participation in active, meaningful dialogue, leave alone decision-making. While the U.N. does excellent work in peacekeeping and developing friendly relations among nations, it has severe limitations of expertise, speed, and above all, transparency, when it comes to decisions related to Internet policy. Q9) What is India's stand on internet piracy? 1) The internet policies need to be standardized across borders 2) The policy level decisions for the internet need to be driven by the UN 3) Internet related policy needs to be prioritized so that we do not have more cases like Edward Snowden 4) UN is the only body with expertize to drive internet related policy.

Select the correct code: (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 4 (c) Only 3 (d) All of the above

Q10) Who is Edward Snowden? (a) He highlighted the need for a uniform internet policy by uncovering the level of intrusion of

government bodies in our privacy. (b) He highlighted the lack for a uniform internet policy by uncovering the level of intrusion of

government bodies in our privacy. (c) He highlighted the farce of internet laws by uncovering the level of intrusion of government bodies in

our privacy. (d) He highlighted that the ambit of current internet laws are not enough to preserve our privacy.

Q11) Which statement is in accordance with the passage? 1) The current Internet Governance framework is skewed towards the US government. 2) The current Internet Governance framework has no room for a liberal democratic dialogue. 3) The current Internet Governance framework cannot keep up with the dynamic nature of the internet.

4) There is room for a lot more dialogue to develop a robust and independent Internet governance framework. Select the correct code: (a) Only 1, 2 & 3 (b) Only 2, 3 & 4 (c) Only 3 & 4 (d) Only 1, 3 & 4

Q12) The current body for IG, ICANN is considered inept because - (a) Its inability to keep up with the ever changing face of the internet. (b) Its inability to discourse on relevance of a democratic liberal IG framework. (c) Strong influence of the main perpetrators of Internet intrusion. (d) Misrepresentation of weaker nations in the body.


Q13) If X+1/X =2 then X2+1/X

2=

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q14) The sum of two numbers is 29 and the difference of their squares is 145. The difference between the numbers is: (a) 13 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 11

Q15) Which of the two numbers is greater, 2300

or 3200

?

(a) 2300

(b) 3200

(c) Both are equal (d) Not possible to say without log tables

Q16) The product of two two-digit numbers is 2160 and their G.C.D is 12. The numbers are: (a) 72, 30 (b) 36, 60 (c) 96, 25 (d) None of these

Q17) The number of prime factors in the expression (6)10 × (7)17 × (11)27 is: (a) 54 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q18) The length of the minute hand of a clock is 8 cm. Find the distance travelled by its outer end in 15 minutes. (a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 4 (d) 18

Q19) 24 is divided into two integral parts such that 7 times the first part added to 5 time the second part makes 156. The first part is (a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 17 Q20) The difference between a discount of 40% on Rs 500 and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% on the same amount is: (a) 0 (b) Rs. 2 (c) Rs. 1.93 (d) Rs. 7.20

Q21) If m and n are integers and (mn) is 10. Which of the following cannot be the value of m + n? (a) 29 (b) 25 (c) 52 (d) 50

Directions For The Following 4 (Four) (22-25) Items: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow. There are six cities M, N, O, P, Q and R.

1. M is not a hill station. 2. N and E are not historical places. 3. P is not an industrial city. 4. M and P are not historical cities. 5. M and N are not alike.

Q22) Which two cities are industrial centers? (a) M and P (b) M and R

(b) O and P (d) N and R

Q23) Which two cities are historical places? (a) M and O (b) N and R (c) O and R (d) N and Q

Q24) Which two cities are hill stations? (a) M and N (b) C and A (c) N and P (d) M and R


Q25) Which city is al hill station and an industrial center but not a historical place? (a) Q (b) R (c) M (d) N

Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. By the time a child is six or seven she has all the essential avoidances well enough by heart to be trusted with the care of a younger child. And she also develops a number of simple techniques. She learns to weave firm square balls from palm leaves, to make pinwheels of palm leaves or frangipani blossoms, to climb a coconut tree by walking up the trunk on flexible little feet, to break open a coconut with one firm well-directed blow of a knife as long as she is tall, to play a number of group games and sing the songs which go with them, to tidy the house by picking up the litter on the stony floor, to bring water from the

sea, to spread out the copra to dry and to help gather it in when rain threatens, to go to a neighboring house and bring back a lighted faggot for the chief's pipe or the cook-house fire. But in the case of the little girls all these tasks are merely supplementary to the main business of baby-tending. Very small

boys also have some care of the younger children, but at eight or nine years of age they are usually relieved of it. Whatever rough edges have not been smoothed off by this responsibility for younger children are worn off by their contact with older boys. For little boys are admitted to interesting and important activities only so long as their behavior is circumspect and helpful. Where small girls are brusquely pushed aside, small boys will be patiently tolerated and they become adept at making themselves useful. The four or five little boys who all wish to assist at the important, business of helping a grown youth lasso reef eels, organize themselves into a highly efficient working team; one boy holds the bait, another holds an extra lasso, others poke eagerly about in holes in the reef looking for prey, while still another tucks the captured eels into his lavalava. The small girls, burdened with heavy babies or the care of little staggerers who are too small to adventure on the reef, discouraged by the hostility of the small boys and the scorn of the older ones, have little opportunity for learning the more adventurous forms of work and play. So while the little boys first undergo the chastening effects of baby-tending and then have many opportunities to learn effective cooperation under the supervision of older boys, the girls' education is less comprehensive. They have a high standard of individual responsibility, but the community provides them with no lessons in cooperation with one another. This is particularly apparent in the activities of young people: the boys organize quickly; the girls waste hours in bickering, innocent of any technique for quick and efficient cooperation.

Q26) The primary purpose of the passage with reference to the society under discussion is to- (a) explain some differences in the upbringing of girls and boys (b) criticize the deficiencies in the education of girls (c) give a comprehensive account of a day in the life of an average young girl (d) delineate the role of young girls

Q27) The list of techniques in paragraph could best be described as- (a) household duties (b) rudimentary physical skills (c) important responsibilities (d) useful social skills

Q28) It can be inferred that in the community under discussion all of the following are important except - (a) domestic handicrafts (b) well-defined social structure (c) fishing skills (d) formal education

Q29) Which of the following is the best description of the author's technique in handling her material? (a) Both description and interpretation of observations. (b) Presentation of facts without comment. (c) Description of evidence to support a theory. (d) Generalization from a particular viewpoint.


Directions for the following 4 (four) items : Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. After the two atomic bombs were dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945, military analysts were quick to proclaim a “nuclear revolution”. These new weapons- enhanced many-fold by hydrogen bombs- caused such horrendous destruction that it was inconceivable they could actually be used as instruments of warfare. Their sole purpose, aside from serving as indicators of prestige, is deterrence- the prevention of war. Nuclear technology was making was obsolete. Should not this development constitute a fifth revolution in the use of armed force in international politics? The contemporary concern with nuclear proliferation indicates that, in both popular and officials minds, nuclear weapons constitute a continuity of threats to international peace and security, not a break from the past. Whereas the leaders of both Cold War blocs and their allies insisted that their possession of nuclear weapons for purposes of deterrence was fully rational and a contribution to international peace and security, they perceived the expansion of nuclear capabilities to other states as a serious threat. The

leaders of new states or "rogue" states could not be assumed to possess the rationality and moderation of leaders in Moscow, Paris, London or Washington. For some unexplained reason, the prudence learned by the nuclear great powers cannot be trusted to be learned by others. This view has prevailed despite

evidence that, for example, the crisis between India and Pakistan in 2002 might well have resulted in war had their governments not feared that military necessity would demand the use of nuclear weapons. Nuclear proliferation is a serious problem, to be sure, but it must be differentiated. It makes a considerable difference whether additional aspirants to the nuclear club are well-established states such as India or Japan or non-state-based terrorist groups. Yet the conventional wisdom underlying the view of proliferation as a profound and continuing threat is that such weapons have not at all altered the calculus of war and that therefore the greater the number of states possessing these weapons, the greater the probability they will be used. There are serious problems with this view, but there are more important reasons why nuclear weapons have not produced a revolution in the use of force. The record clearly indicates that for most crises, wars and armed interventions since 1945 nuclear weapons have been irrelevant. The possession of nuclear weapons undoubtedly moderate behaviour in a few crises, such as Berlin in 1961, Cuba in 1962 and Czechoslovakia in 1968, but, for the hundreds of other instances where force was used, they did not come into play in any meaningful sense. War has not become obsolete, states still possess armed forces primarily for "national security" and many states have launched those armed forces against then neighbours and more distant societies. Nuclear weapons may complicate defence decision-making, but by themselves they have not brought forth a revolution as defined earlier.

Q30) What is the central idea of the passage? a) Nuclear weapons indicate both anticipation and esteem in today's world b) Though nuclear weapons have led to a revolution but do this indicate prevention of war or has it

upsurged the probability of more attacks. c) Nuclear weapons are irrelevant in terms of securing International peace d) Possession and dependence on nuclear weapons is a debatable issue.

Q31) The passage states that nuclear proliferation is a menace. This can be supported by the fact that a) Despite their ill effects, they are indicators of esteem of a country. b) There have been instances where the nuclear weapons have moderated behaviour. c) With an increase in the number of states possessing such these weapons, the probability of their use

is raised. d) Although nuclear weapons are harmful, but they are required for national security.

Q32) From the passage, it can be inferred that: a) Nuclear weapons have only led to terrible destruction. b) Despite their demerits, there are certain positive things as well about the possession of nuclear

weapon. c) With an increase in the number of nations possessing such weapons, the threat to International

peace also rises. d) The use or possession of nuclear weapons is, in general, both harmful and threatening to the world

peace.


Q33) The author agrees with all the statements except a) Nuclear weapons serve as indicators of prestige of a nation. b) Nuclear weapons have not produced a revolution the use of force c) Mere possession of nuclear weapons by countries cannot hamper world peace. d) For most of the wars that involved the use of force nuclear weapons had no meaningful use.

Q34) There are three addressed envelopes and three letters. Find the probability that the typist inserts exactly one letter in the envelope incorrectly. (a) 1/6 (b) 7/12 (c) 43/216 (d) None of these Q35) Sanjeev can run one km in 3 minutes 10 seconds and Motiani can run the same distance in 3 minutes 20 seconds. If they start together, by what distance can Sanjeev beat Motiani in that race? (a) 100 m (b) 25 m (c) 50 m (d) 75 m

Q36) The work done by a man, a woman and a child is in the ratio of 3: 2: 1 and the wages that they receive are proportional to the work done by them in a week. There are 20 men, 30 women and 36

children in a factory. Their weekly wages amount to Rs.780. What will be the wages of 15 men, 21 women and 30 children for a month, which is made of 4 working weeks? (a) Rs. 5850 (b) Rs. 2925 (c) Rs. 2340 (d) Rs. 1170 Q37) Vikas leaves Aravali hostel and walks towards West. After walking a distance of 30 metres, he turns right and walks 20 metres. He then turns left and moves 10 metres before taking another left and walking 40 metres. He then takes another left turn and walks 40 metres before taking a final left turn. If Aravali hostel is the origin then all other hostels are at a distance of 500 metres from it such that Nilgiri hostel lies to its North, Karakoram lies to the South, Jwalamukhi lies to the East and Kailash lies to the West. Towards which hostel is Vikas finally walking? (a) Nilgiri (b) Karakoram (c) Kailash (d) Jwalamukhi Q38) A rectangular pool of 20 m wide and 60 m long is surrounded by a walkway of uniform width. If the total area of the walkway is 516 m2, how wide, in metres, is the walkway? (a) 43 m (b) 3 m (c) 2.5 m (d) 3.5 m Q39) Janshakti Constructions Limited undertakes to construct a road 1000 metres long in 50 days. It initially uses 56 road-rollers and finds at the end of 27 days that only 448 metres of the road has been built. How many more road-rollers must be used so that the work may be finished on schedule? (a) 81 (b) 25 (c) 38 (d) 58 Q40) Which of the following cannot be the greatest common divisor of two positive integers x and y (a) 1 (b) x (c) y (d) x + y

Q41) Deepak had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as one of the multipliers, he took 53. As a result, the product went up by 540. What is the new product? (a) 1050 (b) 540 (c) 1440 (d) 1590

Q42) In a chess tournament, a player gets one point for every game won, ½ point for a draw and 0 point for a loss. A grandmaster played 11 games without losing and scored 9 points. How many games did he win? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: The following six items (Questions 43 to 48) are based on two passages in English to test the comprehension of English language. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

PASSAGE


A book is written, not to multiply the voice merely, not to carry it merely but to perpetuate it. The author has something to say which he perceives to be true and useful or helpfully beautiful. So far he knows no one has said it, so far as he knows no one else can say it. He is bound to say it clearly and melodiously if he may; clearly at all events. In the sum of his life, he finds this to be the thing or group of things, manifest him; this the piece of true knowledge or sight, which his share or sunshine and earth has permitted him to seize. That is a book.

Q43) The opening sentence of the passage implies that the aim of writing a book is to- (a) repeat the message it contains (b) enable the author to express his ideas in writing (c) preserve from extinction the message it contains (d) propagate the ideology of the author

Q44) According to the author, a person is implied to write a book because-

(a) he wishes to satisfy his ego (b) he has something nice and pleasing to say (c) he is capable of exercising whatever he wants to say

(d) he has discovered something unique, true and good which he may convey distinctly

Q45) Which of the following is not implied in the passage? (a) A writer is motivated to write a book if he discerns a great truth (b) An author of a book generally gathers some common truths and gives them a popular and pleasing

expression (c) A great writer is convinced that whatever he says is not an echo or imitation of what others have said (d) An eminent writer’s message is conveyed through plain unambiguous language

PASSAGE The artificial ways of inducing sleep are legion, and are only alike in their ineffectuality. In Lavengro there is an impossible character, a victim of insomnia, who finds that a volume of Word worth’s poems is the only sure soporific, but that was Borrow’s Malice. The famous old plan of counting sheep jumping over a stile has never served a turn. I have herded imaginary sheep until they insisted on turning themselves into white bears or blue pigs and I defy any reasonable man to fall asleep while mustering a herd of stupid swine.

Q46) The author points out that- (a) sleep can easily be induced (b) the artificial means of inducing sleep are not good (c) artificial means of inducing sleep are ineffective (d) artificial means of inducing sleep are expensive

Q47)According to the author, the character in Lavengro- (a) resorts to external aids to get some sleep (b) is an admirer of Wordsworth (c) spends sleepless nights reading Wordsworth (d) is an avid reader of poetry

Q48) Borrow’s Malice is most probably directed at- (a) sleeplessness

(b) the artificial ways of inducing sleep (c) Wordsworth’s poetry (d) poetry in general Q49) If you get 50 successive discounts of 2%, 4%, 6%, 8% etc. on marked price P of a car. How much will you have to pay for it? (a) P/100 (b) P (.01)50 (c) P (.1)100 (d) None of these

Q50) Two numbers x and y are such that x = y2. If y is increased by 10% then x is increased by

(a) 100% (b) 15% (c) 40% (d) 21%


Q51) Total expenses of boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700 when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600 when there are 50 boarders. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders? (a) Rs.550 (b) Rs.560 (c) Rs.540 (d) Rs.570

Q52) Consider the following matrix:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix:

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE One of the major crises facing the country is the looming water shortage. A recent report of the UN has named India among the worst countries for poor quality of water. The report ranks 122 countries according to the quality of their water as well as their ability and communing to improve the situation. Belgium is considered the worst basically because of the quality of its ground water. Rains failed in most parts of India last year and the vast areas of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra and Orissa were in the grip of devastating drought. People without water turn desperate and violent. Villagers in Rajasthan last year attacked the Food Corporation godowns. Worse may be coming. With man refusing to control pollution (America, the world’s greatest polluter, refuses to cooperate with, other countries) the world is getting hotter. This means that the great ice shelves (weighing billions of tonnes) of the Antarctic are collapsing. We cannot even conceptualize the dangerous consequences. Last century, sea levels in Venice

rose by one step of a staircase. This century they are expected to rise by five steps. An additional cause for Venice’s sinking is the draining of underground water table due to industrialization. The water tables in our cities have also been going lower and lower. When ocean level rises, Tuvalu in the Pacific Ocean will be the first to go under the waves. Citizens of that country are already migrating to New Zealand. Will citizens of Maldives crowd to Kerala? Will another mass migration from Bangladesh turn West Bengal upside down?

Q53) Belgium, is suffering acutely because: (a) The sluggish pace of its economy. (b) The discharge of industrial effluents. (c) Quality of its ground water. (d) Rising cost of living.

Q54) Villagers in Rajasthan attacked Food Corporation godowns because of: (a) Low prices offered to them for wheat. (b) Refusal of Food Corporation to buy wheat from the local farmers. (c) No financial help from the government bodies. (d) Shortage of water.


Q55) One of the reasons for Venice’s sinking is: (a) Industrialization (b) Its proneness to earthquake (c)Felling of trees (d) Civil construction

PASSAGE Most of us use the products of science railways. Aero planes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others-without thinking how did they come into existence. We take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of right. And we are very proud of the tact that we live in an advanced age and ate ourselves so very advanced. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different

thing from saying that we as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say that because an engine driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine driver is more advanced than, or is superior to, Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that

the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.

Q56) Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) An engine driver cannot be compared to Plato or Socrates. (b) Plato or Socrates is in no way inferior to the engine driver. (c) Plato or Socrates surpassed the engine driver in every respect. (d) An engine driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.

Q57) People today are very proud because they: (a) Live in a philosophically advanced age. (b) Live in a spiritually advanced age. (c) Enjoy digital communications. (d) Live in a scientifically advanced age.

Q58) Many of us make use of machines- (a) With full knowledge of their genesis. (b) Without knowing how were they invented. (c) With very little knowledge of their mechanism. (d) Without any knowledge of their historical Significance

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: The following pie charts exhibit the distribution of the overseas tourist traffic from India. The two charts shows the tourist distribution by country and the age profiles of the tourists respectively.

Distribution of Overseas Tourist Traffic from India.


Q59) What percentage of Indian tourist went to either USA or UK?

(a) 40 % (b) 50 % (c) 60 % (d) 70 %

Q60) The ratio of the number of Indian tourists that went to USA to the number of Indian tourists who were below 30 years of age is? (a) 2:1 (b) 8:3 (c) 3:8 (d) Cannot be determined

Q61) If amongst other countries, Switzerland accounted for 25% of the Indian tourist traffic, and it is known from official Swiss records that a total of 25 lakh Indian tourists had gone to Switzerland during the year, then find the number of 30-39 year old Indian tourists who went abroad in that year ? (a) 18.75 lakh (b) 25 lakh (c) 50 lakh (d) 75 lakh

Q62)At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not

together?

(a) 5 min. past 7 (b) 52

11 min. past 7

(c) 53

11min. past 7 (d) 5

5

11min. past 7

Q63)A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3:2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is: (a) Rs. 1425 (b) Rs. 1500 (c) Rs. 1537.50 (d) Rs. 1576

Q64)A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30º with the man's eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of the elevation becomes 60º. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P? (a) 43 units (b) 8 units (c) 12 units (d) Data inadequate

Q65)39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work? (a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15

Q66)A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be 27, then how old is B? (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10

Q67)A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron weighs 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is:

(a) 3.6 kg (b) 3.696 kg (c) 36 kg (d) 36.9 kg

Q68)A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage decrease in area is:

(a) 10% (b) 10.08% (c) 20% (d) 28%

Q69)A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond acertain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs.250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the thirdday etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days?

a) Rs. 4950 b) Rs. 4250 c) Rs. 3600 d) Rs. 650


Direction: The following Questions containa small paragraph followed by Questions on it. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the Questions given below:

Q70)It is often the case that our friends share beliefs and attitude similar to ours. Indeed, this may have been one reason for becoming friends in the first place. For example, non-smokers tend, by and large, to have non-smoking friends and supporters of the same football team may have this common feature as one basis for their liking of each other. The paragraph best supports the statement that: (a) Most of the people live in similar conditions. (b) Adversity brings the people of differing views together. (c) Liking others is the inherent characteristic of people. (d) Birds of a feather flock together.

Q71) Smoking in bed has long been the main cause of home fires. Despite a significant decline in

cigarette smoking in the last two decades, there has been no comparable decline in the number of people killed in home fires. Each one of the following statements, if true over the last two decades, helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy above EXCEPT:

(a) Compared to other types of home fires, home fires caused by smoking in bed usually cause relatively little damage before they are extinguished.

(b) Home fires caused by smoking in bed often break out after the home's occupants have fallen asleep. (c) Smokers who smoke in bed tend to be heavy smokers who are less likely to quit smoking than are

smokers who do not smoke in bed. (d) An increasing number of people have been killed in home fires that started in the kitchen.

Directions: The following two Questions are based on the following information: 1. All the faces of cubes are painted with red colour. 2. The cubes are cut into 64 equal small cubes.

Q72)How many small cubes have only one face coloured? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24

Directions for Questions73-77: Read the following Information and answer the 4 (Four) items that follow:

Sixteen teams have been invited to participate in the ABC Gold Cup cricket tournament.

The tournament is conducted in two stages. In the first stage, the teams are divided into two groups.

Each group consists of eight teams, with each team playing every other team in its group exactly once.

At the end of the first stage, the top four teams from each group advance to the second stage while the

rest are eliminated.

The second stage comprises of several rounds. A round involves one match for each team. The winner of

a match in a round advances to the next round, while the loser is eliminated.

The team that remains undefeated in the second stage is declared the winner and claims the Gold Cup.

The tournament rules are such that each match results in a winner and a loser with no possibility of a tie.

In the first stage a team earns one point for each win and no points for a loss.

At the end of the first stage, teams in each group are ranked on the basis of total points to determine

the qualifiers advancing to the next stage.

Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie-breaking rules so that exactly four teams from each group

advance to the next stage.

Q73)What is the total number of matches played in the tournament? (a) 28 (b) 55 (c) 63 (d) 35 Q74)The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the next stage is (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 4 Q75)What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage in spite of which it would be eliminated at the end of first stage? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


Q76)What is the number of rounds in the second stage of the tournament? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Q77) There is a shift in our economy from a manufacturing to a service orientation. The increase in service sector will require the managers to work more with people rather than with objects and things from the assembly line. The passage best supports the statement that- (a) Managers should have a balanced mind. (b) Assembly line will exist in service organizations. (c) Interpersonal skills will become more important in the future work place. (d) Manufacturing organization ignore importance of people.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items (78 to 80): Study the following table and answer the questions. Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from Different States Over the Years.

State

Year

1997 1998 1999 2000 2001

App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual.

M 5200 720 8500 980 7400 850 6800 775 9500 1125

N 7500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 8800 1020

P 6400 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 1010 9750 1250

Q 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 1200 8950 995

R 7800 870 7600 940 9800 1350 7600 945 7990 885

Q78) Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1998? (a) 72% (b) 77% (c) 80% (d) 83%

Q79) What is the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years? (a) 8700 (b) 8760 (c) 8990 (d) 8920

Q80) In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has maximum percentage of qualified candidates? (a) 1997 (b) 1998 (c) 1999 (d) 2001

ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 SELF EVALUATION TEST …€¦ · ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES...

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