1. The perimeter of the triangle whose vertices have the position vectors (i + j + k), (5i + 3j – 3k) and (2i + 5j + 9k) is given by

A.

B.

C.

D.

2. If a, b, c are three vectors such that a-b+c and the angle between b and c is π/2 then

A. a²=b²+c²

B. 2a²-b²=c²

C. b²=c²+a²

D. c²=a²+b²

3. The value of x for which the angle between the vectors a=-3i+xj+k and b=xi+2xj+k is acute and the angle between b and x-axis lies between π/2 and π satisfy

A. x>1 Only

B. x<-1 Only

C. x<0

D. x>0

4.

A. 2

B. -2

C. 1

D. 0

5. If the points (1,0,3), (-1,3,4), (1,2,1) and (a,2,5) are coplanar, then a =

A. 2

B. -2

C. 1

D. -1

6. Let be a unit vector and a non zero vector not parallel to . Then the angle

between the vectors is

A. π/2

B. π/3

C. π/6

D. π/4

7.

A.

B.

C. 4-3x

D.

8. 2.3+3.4+4.5+…….. to n terms =

A. None

B. n(n²+6n+14)/9

C. n(n²+6n+11)/3

D. n(n²-6n+11)/6

9. If (1+sinA)(1+sinB)(1+sinC)= (1-sinA)(1-sinB)(1-sinC) then each side is equal to

A. ± sin A Cos B Cos C

B. ± sin A sin B sin C

C. ± cos A Cos B Cos C

D. ± cos A sin B sin C

10.

A. 1

B. 0

C. 2

D. 3

11. If A+C=B, then tanA tanB tanC

A. tanAtanB+tanC

B. tanB-tanC-tanA

C. tanA+tanC-tanB

D. #NAME?

12. If θ and ∅ are angles in the 1st quadrant such that tanθ=1/7 and sin∅=1/√10 .Then

A. θ+2∅=90°

B. θ+2∅=45°

C. θ+2∅=60°

D. θ+2∅=30°

13.

A.

B.

C.

D.

14. Period of sec(x + 2x + 4x) is

A. 14π

B. π/7

C. 2π/7

D. 2π

15. If A + B + C = 270° then cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C + 4 sin A sin B sin C =

A. 0

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

16. cos(α + β + γ) + cos(α – β – γ) + cos(β – γ – α) + cos(γ – α – β) =

A. 2 cosα cos β cos γ

B. 6 cosα cos β cos γ

C. 4 cosα cos β cos γ

D. 3 cosα cos β cos γ

17. The general value of α for which (1+sinα) (1+x²) + x cosα = 0 is an identity in x is ( for integral values of n)

A.

B.

C.

D.

18. tanh(x+y) equals

A.

B.

C.

D.

19. If the sides of a triangle are in ratio 3 : 7 : 8, then R : r is equal to

A.

B.

C.

D.

20.

A. Three solutions

B. No solution

C. Two solutions

D. Only one solution

21. A (2,3), B (-1, 1) are two points. If P is a point such that , ∠APB=90°, PA²+PB²=2PC² then the locus of P is

A. x² +y² +x-4y+1=0

B. x² +y² -x-4y+1=0

C. x² +y² +x+4y-1=0

D. x² +y² -x+4y-1=0

22. The locus of the point represented by x = 3is (cost+sint),y=2(cost-sint)

A.

B.

C.

D.

23. The locus of the point represented by , x=t²+t+1,y=t²-t+1 is

A. x²-2xy-y²+2x+2y+4=0

B. x²-2xy+y²+2x+2y+4=0

C. x²+2xy+y²-2x-2y+4=0

D. x²-2xy+y²-2x-2y+4=0

24. If the sum of slops of the pair of lines represented by 4x²+2hxy-7y²=0 is equal to the product of the slops, then the value of h is

A. 4

B. – 6

C. – 2

D. – 4

25. If the slops of lineof the pair of lines represented by ax²+4xy+y²=0 is 3 times the slope of the other line, then a is

A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 2

26. A(a,b) and B(0,0) are two fixed points.M₁ is the mid point of ,M₂ is the midpoint of

AM₁,M₃ is the midpoint of ans so on. Then M₅ is

A.

B.

C.

D.

27. If the point(x₁+[x₂-x₁],y₁+t[y₂-y₁]) devices the joint of (x₁,y₁) and (x₂,y₂) internally,then

A. t>1

B. t=1

C. 0

D. t<0

28. The points D,E,F are the midpoints of the sides of ∆ ABC respectively. If A=(-2,3),D=(1,4),E=(-5,2),then F=

A. (4,–3)

B. (4,3)

C. (–4,3)

D. (–4,–3)

29.

A.

B.

C.

D.

30.

A. 1/20

B. -1/120

C. 1/120

D. 1/120

31. For the function which one is a true statement

A. f(x) is continuous at x = 0, when a ≠ ±1

B. None of these

C. f(x) is continuous at x = 0

D. f(x) is continuous at x = a

32.

A.

B. f(x) is continuous at x = 0

C. None of these

D.

33.

A. None of these

B.

C.

D.

34.

A.

B.

C.

D.

35. If there is an error of 2% in measuring the length of a simple pendulum then percentage error in its period is

A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 2

36. The radius of a closed cylinder is half of its height. If an error of 0.5% is made in measuring the radius, the percentage error in the surface area is

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. none

37. If then the ratio of the relative error in T to relative error in / is

A. None

B. 1/2re

C. 2

D. 1/2

38.

A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

39. The gradient of one of the lines of ax²+2hxy+by²=0 is twice that of the other,then

A. h=a+b

B. 8h²=9ab

C. 9h²=8ab

D. h²=ab

40.

A. 1

B. -1

C. 1/2

D. 0

41. Two given circles x²+y²+ax+by+c=0 and x²+y²+dx+ey+f=0 will intersect each other orthogonally, only when

A. ad+be=c+f

B. 2ad+2be=c+f

C. a+b+c=d+e+f

D. ad+be=2c+2f

42. The locus of centre of a circle passing through (a, b) and cuts orthogonally to circle x²+y²=p² , is

A.

B.

C.

D.

43. The equation of the circle (1, -2) having centre and passing through the point of intersection of lines 3x+y=14, 2x+5y=18 is

A. x2+y2+2x+4y-20=0

B. x2+y2-2x-4y-20=0

C. x2+y2+2x-4y-20=0

D. x2+y2-2x+4y-20=0

44. For all values of θ , the locus of the point of intersection of the lines xcosθ+ysinθ=a and xsinθ-ycosθ=b is

A. A circle

B. An ellipse

C. A parabola

D. A hyperbola

45. The focus of the parabola x²=2x+2y is

A. (1, -1/2)

B. (0, 1)

C. (3/2, -1/2)

D. (1, 0)

46. The focus of the parabola 4y²-6x-4y=5 iss

A. (5/8, –1/2)

B. (–8/5, 2)

C. (–5/8, 1/2)

D. (1/2, 5/8)

47. The equation of a hyperbola, whose foci are (5, 0) and (-5,0) and the length of whose conjugate axis is 8, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

48. The equation of the hyperbola referred to its axes as axes of coordinate and whose distance between the foci is 16 and eccentricity is √2, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

49. The distance between the foci of is

A.

B. 8

C.

D. 16

50. The auxiliary circle of the ellipse 9x²+25y²-18x-100y-116=0

A.

B.

C.

D.

51. A point which the tangent to the curve y = x² (x – 2)² is parallel to the x – axis is

A. (-1,9)

B. |a|/2

C. none

D. 2a

52. Length of the sub tangent at (-a,a) on x² y² = a⁴ (a > 0) is

A. 3a

B. 4a

C. 2a

D. a

53.

A. e³ log x + c

B. None of these

C.

D. e . 3¯³˟+ c

54.

A. -cosx + c

B. None of these

C. sin x + c

D.

55.

A.

B.

C.

D.

56.

A.

B.

C.

D.

57. Area bounded by the curve y = logx, x- axis and the ordinates x = 1, x= 2 is

A. (log4 – 1)sq. unit

B. None of these

C. log4 sq. unit

D. (log4 + 1)sq. unit

58. Area bounded by the lines y = x, x= -1, x = 2 and x-axis is

A. None of these.

B. 1/2 sq. unit

C. 5/2 sq. unit

D. 3/2 sq. unit

59. The order of the differential equation of a family of curves represented by an equation containing four arbitrary constants, will be

A. 2

B. None of these

C. 6

D. 4

60.

A. 4 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 1 and 2

D. 2 and 4

61. Three letters are to be sent to different persons and addresses on the three envelopes are also written. Without looking at the addresses, the probability that the letters go into the right envelope is equal to

A.

B.

C.

D.

62. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining a multiple of 2 on one of them and a multiple of 3 on the other

A.

B.

C.

D.

63. The binomial distribution for which mean = 6 and variance = 2, is

A.

B.

C.

D.

64. If the probability that a student is not a swimmer is 1/5, then the probability that out of 5 students one is swimmer is

A.

B. None of these

C.

D.

65. If we draw a perpendicular on the x-axis from the point where both less than and more than curves meet, we get,

A. mode

B. arithmetic mean

C. median

D. quartiles

66. In a histogram with equal class intervals, heights of bars are proportional to_______

A. Mid-value of the classes

B. Cumulative frequencies of the classes

C. Frequencies of respective classes

D. Class interval of the classes

67. The real roots of the equation x² + 5 | x | + 4 = 0 are

A. None of these

B. 1, 4

C. -1, 4

D. -4, 4

68. If the roots of the equation (p² + q²) x² – 2q(p + r)x + (q² + r²)=0 be real and equal, then p,q,r will be in

A. A.P.

B. H.P.

C. G.P.

D. None of these

69. If the coefficients of pᵗʰ , (p + 1)ᵗʰ and (p + 2)ᵗʰ terms in the expansion of (1 + x)ⁿ are in A.P., then

A.

B.

C. None of these

D.

70. If the coefficients of 5ᵗʰ ,6ᵗʰ and 7ᵗʰ terms in the expansion of (1 + x)ⁿ be in A.P., then n =

A. 7 or 14

B. None of these

C. 14 only

D. 7 only

71. The total number of permutations of the letters of the word “BANANA” is

A. 120

B. 720

C. 24

D. 60

72. How many words can be formed with the letters of the word MATHEMATICS by rearranging them

A. 11!/2!2!

B. 11!/2!2!2!

C. 11!

D. 11!/2!

73.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

74. If a=cosθ + isinθ, then 1+a/1-a =

A. itanθ/2

B. cotθ

C. cotθ /2

D. icotθ/2

75. A box contains 10 good articles and 6 with defects. One article is chosen at random. What is the probability that it is either good or has a defect

A.

B.

C.

D.

76. A biased coin with probability p, 0 < p < 1, of heads is tossed until a head appears for the first time. If the probability that the number of tosses required is even is 2/5 then p =

A.

B.

C. None of these

D.

77. If a variate x is expressed as a linear function of two variates v and v in the form x=au+bv, then mean of x is

A.

B.

C.

D.

78. Let α and β be the roots of the equation x² + x + 1 = 0 The equation whose roots are α¹⁹ β⁷ is

A. x² + x – 1 = 0

B. x² – x + 1 = 0

C. x² – x – 1 = 0

D. x² + x + 1 = 0

79. If the coefficient of 4ᵗʰ term in the expansion of (a + b)ⁿ is 56, then n is

A. 6

B. 12

C. 10

D. 8

80. The value of ⁿPr is equal to

A.

B.

C.

D.

PHYSICS

81. The dimensions of (velocity)/radius are the same as that of

A. gravitational constant

B. Dielectric constant

C. Planck’s constant

D. acceleration due to gravity

82. The type of errors that can never be completely eliminated are

A. random errors

B. instrumental errors

C. proportional errors

D. Determinate errors

83. Choose the correct statement

A. If a particle travels along a st. line average speed equals average velocity

B. If a particle is in motion average speed always equals average velocity

C. If acceleration is constant speed is constant in a given direction

D. Particle can travel with constant velocity and variable speed in a given.

84. Figures (i) and (ii) below show the displacement – time graphs of two particles moving

along the x – axis. We can say that

A. both the particles are having a uniformly accelerated motion.

B. particle (i) is having a uniformly accelerated motion while particle (ii) is having a

uniformly retarded motion.

C. particle (i) is having a uniformly retarded motion while particle (ii) is having a

uniformly accelerated motion.

D. both the particles are having a uniformly retarded motion.

85. Three vectors A satisfy the relation The vector is parallel to

A.

B.

C.

D.

86. Two vectors lie in a plane and another vector lies outside this plane. Then the resultant of these three vectors

A.

B.

C. can be zero

D. can never be zero

87. An aero plane starting from a point travels towards north-east with a velocity of 400 kmph. Another aero plane starting from the same point travels towards north west with a velocity of 300 kmph. The relative velocity of one aero plane w.r.t. other is

A. 100 kmph

B. 200 kmph

C. 500 kmph

D. 350 kmph

88. Two bodies are projected at angles 30° and 60° to the horizontal from the ground such that the maximum heights reached by them are equal. Then a) Their times of flight are equal b) Their horizontal ranges are euqal c) The ratio of their initial speeds of projection is √3 : 1 d) Both take same time to reach the maximum height. Mark the answer as

A. If only a and c are correct

B. If a, b, c and d are correct

C. If a, c and d are correct

D. If only a, b and c are correct

89. A) : For a body projected horizontally from the top of a tower, the velocity on reaching the ground depends both on velocity of projection and height of the tower. R) : For a projectile velocity varies both in horizontal and vertical directions.

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

B. (A) is true but (R) is false

C. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

90. When a running train stops suddenly, passengers in it feel an instant jerk in the forward direction because

A. Inertia of rest stops the train and takes the body forward

B. Nothing can be said due to insufficient data

C. Upper part of the body continues to be in the state of motion whereas the lower

part of the body in contact with seat comes to rest

D. The back of seat suddenly pushes the passengers forward

91. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are connected by a massless spring and are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A force of 200 N is applied on 20 kg mass as shown in the diagram. At the instant, the acceleration of 10 kg mass is 12 ms⁻², the acceleration of 20kg mass is,

A. 20 ms⁻²

B. 12 ms⁻²

C. 4 ms⁻²

D. 8 ms⁻²

92. A pulling force making an angle θ to the horizontal is applied on a block of weight W, placed on a table. If the angle of friction is φ , the magnitude of the force required just to move the body is equal to

A.

B.

C.

D.

93. A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some height and then rolls down (without slipping through out these motions). The directions of frictional force acting on the cylinder are

A. up the incline while ascending and down the incline while descending

B. down the incline while ascending as well as descending

C. down the incline while ascending and up the incline while descending

D. up the incline while ascending as well as descending

94. A block A with mass 100 kg is resting on another block B of mass 200 kg. As shown in figure a horizontal rope tied to a wall holds it. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 while coefficient of friction between B and the ground is 0.3. The minimum required force

F to start moving B will be

A. 900 N

B. 1100 N

C. 1200 N

D. 100 N

95. Identify the increasing order of angular velocities of following a) Earth rotating

about its own axis b) Hour’s hand of clock c) Seconds hand of clock d) Fly wheel of radius 2m making 300 r.p.m.

A. a, b, c, d

B. c, d, a, b

C. d, a, b, c

D. b, c, d, a

96. Two springs have their force constants k₁ and k₂ (K₂>K₁). When they are stretched by the same force, work done is

A. more in spring K₁

B. none

C. same in both the springs

D. more in spring K₁

97. A small ball of mass m, initially at rest rolls down the loop track from height h. If h = 2.5R, where R is the radius of the truck, then (a) the normal reaction of the bottom of the loop will be equal to 6 mg. (b) the normal reaction at the bottom of the loop will be less than 6 mg. (c) the ball will be able to just complete the circular track (d) the ball will not be able to complete the circular path.

A. a, c

B. a, d

C. b, c

D. b, d

98. A heavier sphere moving eastward with a certain velocity ‘v’ collides with a lighter sphere at rest. If it is perfect elastic head on collision, then after collision

A. lighter sphere moves eastward with velocity approximately

B. heavier sphere comes to rest

C. lighter sphere moves eastward with velocity 2v approximately

D. heavier sphere moves west ward with same speed

99. A shell moving in a parabolic path explodes. The centre of mass of the fragments move

A. in the same parabolic path

B. vertically down wards

C. vertically upwards

D. horizontally

100. If I₁ I₂, and I₃ are moments of inertia of a disc about its geometric axis, diameter and a tangent in its plane, then

A. I₁ > I₂ > I₃

B. I₃ > I₂ > I₁

C. I₃ > I₁ > I₂

D. I₂ > I₁ > I₃

101. Among the following find the wrong statement

A. When the range is long, gravitational force becomes repulsive

B. Law of gravitation is framed using Newton’s third law of motion

C. Law of gravitation does not explain the presence of force even when the particles

are not in physical contact

D. Law of gravitation cannot explain why gravity exists

102. When a body is taken from the equator to the poles, its weight

A. decreases

B. remains same

C. increases

D. increases at N-pole and decreases at S-pole

103. There is no atmosphere on moon because

A. it gets light from the earth

B. it revolves round the earth

C. RMS speed of any gas moleculer is greater than the escape velocity on the surface

of the moon

D. it is closer to earth

104. A body of mass 1 gm and carrying a charge 10⁻⁸C passes from the point P to Q which one at electric potentials 600 V and 0V respectively. The velocity of the body at Q is 20 cm/sec. Its velocity in m/sec at ‘P’ is…

A.

B.

C.

D.

105. A charge of1μC is divided into two parts such that their charges are in the ratio of 2: 3. These two charges are kept at a distance 1m apart in vaccum. Then, the electric force between them (in newton) is

A. 2.16

B. 0.0216

C. 0.216

D. 0.00216

106. A current of 2 A flows in an electric circuit as shown in figure. The potential difference (VR – VSin volts (VR and VS are potentials at R and S respectively) is

A. 2

B. 4

C. -4

D. -2

107. If a bar magnet of moment M is bent as arc its magnetic moment

A. may change

B. does not change

C. decreases

D. increases

108. A square conducting loop of length L on a side has a current ‘i’ in it. The magnetic induction at the centre of the loop is:

A. Inversely proportional to L

B. Independent of L

C. Inversely proportional to L²

D. Directly proportional L

109. Alternating current can not be measured by dc ammeter because

A. Average value of complete cycle is zero

B. ac is virtual

C. ac changes its direction

D. ac cannot pass through dc ammeter

110. A copper ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet while it is passing through the ring is

A. More than that due to gravity

B. Depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet

C. Equal to that due to gravity

D. Less than that due to gravity

111. Energy stored in electromagnetic oscillations is in the form of:

A. Electrical energy

B. none of these

C. both (a) and (b)

D. magnetic energy

112. The two surfaces of a biconvex lens has same radii of curvatures. This lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5 and has a focal length 10 cm in air. The lens is cut into two equal halves along a plane perpendicular to its principal axis to yield two plano convex lenses. The two pieces are glued such that he convex surface touch each other. If this combination lens is immersed in water (refractive index = 4/3), its focal length (in cm) is

A. 20

B. 10

C. 40

D. 5

113. The work function of nickel is 5eV. When light of wavelength 2000A0 falls on it, it emits photoelectrons in the circuit. Then the potential difference necessary to stop the fastest electrons emitted is (given h=6.67×10⁻³⁴Js)

A. 1.75V

B. 1.0V

C. 0.75V

D. 1.2V

114. A free neutron decays spontaneously into:

A. a proton, an electron and an anti-neutrino

B. a proton, an electron, a neutrino and an anti-neutrino

C. a proton and electron

D. a proton, an electron and a neutrino

115. In a n – type semiconductor, the fermi energy level lies

A. in the forbidden energy gap nearer to the conduction band.

B. in the forbidden energy gap nearer to the valence band.

C. in the middle of forbidden energy gap

D. outside the forbidden energy gap

116. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are

A. Torque and work

B. Stress and Young’s modulus

C. speed and

D. momentum and Planck’s constant

117. Which of the following error is not systematic error?

A. Zero error

B. Least count error

C. Backlash error

D. Theoretical error due to approximate

118. u̅=2i̅ – 2j̅ +3k̅ If and the final velocity v̅=2i̅ – 4j̅ +5k̅ is and it is covered in a time of 10 sec, find the acceleration vector..

A.

B.

C.

D.

119. Velocity – time curve for a body projected vertically upwards is

A. Hyperbola

B. Ellipse

C. Straightline

D. Parabola

120. Two vectors are such that Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

B. none of these

C.

D.

CHEMISTRY

121. A certain compound has the molecular formula X₄O₆. If the compound contains 56.2% of X. Then the atomic mass of X is

A. 62.0 a.m.u

B. 48 a.m.u

C. 30.8 a.m.u

D. 42 a.m.u

122. An organic compound containing C, H & O has a vapour density 83. The molecular formula of the compound is

A. C₆H₃O₂

B. C₈H₁₀O₃

C. C₅H₆O₂

D. C₈H₆O₄

123. Law of multiple proportions is given by the pair

A. NaCl & NaBr

B. SO₂ & SO₃

C. H₂O & D₂O

D. MgO & MgCl₂

124. Percentage of copper & oxygen in samples of CuO obtained by different methods were found to be the same. This proves the law of

A. Constant proportions

B. Multiple proportions

C. Reciprocal proportions

D. None

125. The number of grams of NaOH that completely neutralises 4.9g of phosphoric acid is

A. 36

B. 6

C. 24

D. 120

126. The volume of oxygen required for the complete combussion of 10lit of methane under the same conditions is

A. 10lit

B. 40lit

C. 4lit

D. 20lit

127. Which of the following is true for a ‘p’ orbital?

A. all

B. dumbell in shape

C. has directional character

D. has’m’ value+1,-1 or 0

128. The maximum number of electrons accommodated by 3d sublevel is

A. 14

B. 2

C. 6

D. 10

129. Kinetic energy of photo electrons is independent of

A. Intensity of incident radiation.

B. Wavelength of incident radiation

C. Wave number of incident radiation.

D. Frequency of incident radiation.

130. Photo electric effect is observed in case of

A. Potassium

B. in all of these

C. Caesium

D. Rubidium

131. Atomic radii of fluorine atom and neon atom in angstrom units are respectively

A. 0.72, 0.72

B. 1.60, 0.762

C. 1.60, 1.60

D. 0.762, 1.60

132. Which one is the correct order of the size of the iodine species?

A. I > I⁻ > I⁺

B. I⁻ > I > l⁺

C. I > I⁺ > I⁻

D. I⁺ > I⁻ > I

133. Incorrect statement is

A. Alkali metals have the highest electron affinity

B. Greater the nuclear charge, greater is the electron affinity

C. The first electron affinity of Magnesium is positive

D. Chlorine has highest electron affinity

134. The electron affinity values of four elements A, B, C and D are respectively –135, –60, –200 and –348 kJ mol⁻¹. The outer electronic configuration of element B is

A. 3s² 3p²

B. 3s² 3p⁴

C. 3s² 3p⁵

D. 3s² 3p³

135. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in ⁸⁵₃₅ Br are respectively

A. 80, 80, 35

B. 45, 45, 35

C. 35, 35, 45

D. 35, 35, 47

136. The number of neutrons in the Zn⁺² ion (Mass no. of Zn = 65)

A. 35

B. 65

C. 67

D. 33

137. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 6.625 g moving with a velocity of 100cm per second is

A. 10⁻³³ cm

B. 10⁻³¹ cm

C. 10⁻³³ m

D. 10⁻³¹ m

138. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass, 200 g and moving at a speed of 5 metres/sec, is in the order of

A. 10⁻³⁰ m

B. 10⁻³² m

C. 10⁻³⁴m

D. 10⁻³⁴m

139. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom ?

A. n = 2, l =1, m = 0, s = +1/2

B. n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + 1/2

C. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

D. n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2

140. The following has the lowest number of unpaired electrons in the valence shell

A. F

B. N

C. S

D. C

141. Diazepam (valium) is used as

A. An anaesthetic

B. An antibiotic

C. An analgesic

D. A tranquillizer

142. The substances which affect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called.

A. Analgesics

B. Antibiotics

C. Tranquilizers

D. Antipyretics

143. Which of the following is not a biopolymer?

A. Nucleic acids

B. Cellulose

C. Proteins

D. Neoprene

144. Which of the following is a synthetic polymer?

A. Polystyrene

B. Starch

C. Silk

D. Protein

145. Five membered ring structure of glucose is known as

A. Furanose

B. Pyranose

C. Haworth structure

D. Baeyer’s structure

146. The reversible isomerisation of glucose is known as

A. Amadri rearrangement

B. Curtius rearrangement

C. deBruyn -van Ekestein rearrangement

D. Hoffmann rearrangement

147. The P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus is

A. 1200

B. 1090 28’

C. 600

D. 900

148. The total number of lone pairs of electrons present in a P4 molecule is

A. 6

B. 8

C. 2

D. 4

149. The decreasing tendency to exist in puckered 8-membered ring structure is

A. S>Se>Te>Po

B. S>Te>Se>Po

C. Te>Se>S>Po

D. Se>S>Te>Po

150. Which one of the following bonds has the highest bond energy?

A. Te – Te

B. Se – Se

C. O – O

D. S – S

151. The T-shaped intrhalogen compound is

A. ICI

B. ClF3

C. ClF5

D. IF5

152. HF is not stored in glass bottles because

A. It reacts with the aluminium oxide of the glass

B. It reacts with visible part of light

C. It reacts with SiO2 of the glass

D. It reacts with sodium oxide of the glass

153. How many unit cells are present in a cube-shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g?

A. 5.14 × 1021 unit cells

B. 1.71 × 1021 unit cells

C. 2.57 × 1021 unit cells

D. 1.28 × 1021 unit cells

154. An element having bcc structure has 12.08 × 10 23 unit cells. The number of atoms in these cells is

A. 12.08 × 1022

B. 48.38 × 1023

C. 12.08 × 1023

D. 24.16 × 1023

155. Which one of these solutions has highest normality?

A. 0.5M H2SO4

B. 8g KOH per 100 ml

C. 1N H3PO4

D. 6g NaOH per 100 ml

156. 10.6 g Na2CO3 is dissolved in water to get 2 M solution. The volume of the solution (in ml) is

A. 10 ml

B. 40 ml

C. 50 ml

D. 100 ml

157. Which has greater lowering of vapour pressure?

A. equal in all cases

B. 0.1m Sucrose

C. 0.1m Glucose

D. 0.1m Urea

158. The vapour pressure is highest for

A. 0.1m aqueous urea

B. Pure water

C. 0.3m aqueous urea

D. 0.2m aqueous urea

159. Lother Meyer’s curve is a plot of

A. atomic masses Vs densities

B. atomic masses Vs ionization energies

C. atomic numbers Vs atomic masses

D. atomic volumesVs atomic masses

160. In Lother Meyer plot,the maxima of the curve occupied by

A. alkali metals

B. halogens

C. alkaline earth metals

D. noble gases