A Aristotle - IIMTSiimts.com/faculty/wp-content/uploads/2013/01/BIOLOGY.pdfWhich series ends with...
Transcript of A Aristotle - IIMTSiimts.com/faculty/wp-content/uploads/2013/01/BIOLOGY.pdfWhich series ends with...
The term species was coined by______.
A Aristotle
B Linnaeus
C John Ray
D Engler
Question 2
"New Systematics" introduced by Sir Julian Huxley in 1940 is also known as
A Biosystematics
B Cladistics
C Phenetics
D Numerical Taxonomy
Question 3
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
A Puccinia – Smut
B Root pressure – Guttation
C Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
D Root – Exarch protoxylem
Question 4
Nuclear membrane is absent in
A Penicillium
B Nostoc
C Volvox
D Agaricus
Question 5
In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
A Plantae
B Algae
C Protista
D Monera
Question 6
Single-celled eukaryotes are included in
A Fungi
B Protista
C Monera
D Archaea
Question 7
Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group
A Fungi
B Plantae
C Monera
D Animalia
Question 8
Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?
A Diplontic life cycle
B Multiplication by fragmentation
C Mode of Nutrition
D Members of kingdom Plantae
Question 9
Which statement is wrong for viruses?
A All are parasites.
B Antibiotics have no effect on
them.
C They have ability to synthesize
nucleic acids and proteins.
D All of them have helical
symmetry.
Question 10
Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic
group?
A Paramecium and Plasmodium
belong to the same kingdom as
that of Penicillium.
B Nostoc and Anabaena are
examples of protista
C Yeast used in making bread and
beer is a fungus
D
Lichen is a composite organism
formed from the symbiotic
association of an algae and a
protozoan.
Question 11
Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?
A Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
B Tiger - Tigris, the species
C Housefly - Musca, an order
D Humans - primates, the family
Question 12
Arrange the following in the ascending order of Linnaean hierarchy
A Kingdom – Phylum – Class –
Order – Family – Genus –
Species
B Kingdom – Family – Genus –
Species – Class – Phylum –
Order
C Kingdom – Order – Species –
Genus – Class – Family –
Phylum
D Species – Genus – Family –
Order – Class – Phylum –
Kingdom
Question 13
Which one of the following sets of items in the options (1) - (4) are correctly categorized with one
exception in it?
Options Items Category Exception
(1) UAA, UAG, UGA Stop codons UAG
(2) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat
(3) Plasmodium,Cuscuta,Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta
(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseases Diphtheria
A Option (1)
B Option (2)
C Option (3)
D Option (4)
Question 14
Which of the following combination of characters is true for slime molds?
A Parasitic, plasmodium without
walls, spores dispersed by water
B Saprophytic, plasmodium
without walls, spores dispersed
by water
C Parasitic, plasmodium with true
walls, spores dispersed by air
currents
D Saprophytic, plasmodium
without walls, spores dispersed
by air currents
Question 15
Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
A A list of botanists or zoologists
who have worked on taxonomy of
a species or group
B A group of senior taxonomists
who decide the nomenclature of
plants and animals
C Step-wise arrangement of all
categories for classification of
plants and animals
D Classification of a species based
on fossil record
Ans. 1 to 15
1. c
2. b
3. a
4. b
5. c
6. b
7. c
8. b
9. d
10. c
11. b
12. d
13. c
14. d
15. c
Question 16
Identify from the following, the only taxonomic category that has a real existence.
A Phylum
B Species
C Genus
D Kingdom
Question 17
In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is
A Structure of cell wall
B Nutrition
C Structure of nucleus
D Asexual reproduction
Question 18
In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organism, if the five-kingdom system
of classification is used
A Protista
B Fungi
C Plantae
D Monera
Question 19
The Phylogenetic system of classification was put forth by
A Theophrastus
B George Bentham and Joseph
Dalton Hooker
C Carolus Linnaeus
D Adolf Engler and Karl Prantl
Question 20
Which series ends with the cohort umbellales in Bentham and Hooker's system of classification?
A Heteromerae
B Disciflorae
C Thalamiflorae
D Calyciflorae
Question 21
Which one of the taxonomic aids can give comprehensive account of complete compiled information of
any one genus or family at a particular time?
A Taxonomic key
B Flora
C Herbarium
D Monograph
Question 22
A perennial shrub has compound leaves and solitary zygomorphic and epigynous flowers. Each flower
reveals dichlamydeous condition with many stamens and multiple fruit with exalbuminous seeds. What is
the ratio of advanced and primitive charactrs in it?
A 1: 2
B 2: 3
C 1: 1
D 3: 2
Question 23
Classification of organisms based on evolutionary as well as genetic relationships is called
A Numerical taxonomy
B Phenetics
C Biosystematics
D Cladistics
Question 24
Phenetic classification of organisms is based on
A Sexual characteristics
B Dendrogram based on DNA
characteristics
C The ancestral lineage of existing
organisms
D Observable characteristics of
existing organisms
Question 25
In angiosperm, characters of flowers are used in classification because
A Flowers are attractive
B Flowers are large
C Characters of flowers are
conservative
D None of the above
Question 26
Biosystematics aims at
A Identification and arrangement
of organisms on the basis of
cytological characteristics
B The classification of organisms
based on broad morphological
characters
C Delimiting various taxa of
organism and establishing their
relationships
D
The classification of organisms
based on their evolutionary
history and establishing their
phylogeny on the totality of
various parameters from all
fields of studies
Question 27
Practical purpose of taxonomy or classification
A To know the evolutionary
history
B Explain the origin of organisms
C Facilitate the identification of
unknown species
D Identification of medicinal plants
Question 28
Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they
A Have more than 90 percent
similar genes
B Can reproduce freely with each
other and form seeds
C Have same number of
chromosomes
D Look similar and possess
identical secondary metabolites
Question 29
One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that
A One can observe tropical plants
there
B They provide the natural habitat
for wild life
C They allow ex-situ conservation
of germplasm
D They provide a beautiful area for
recreation
Question 30
Which of the following is a merit in the Bentham and Hooker's system of classification?
A The placement of family -
Asteraceae in the beginning of
Gamopetalae
B The placement of order - Ranals
in the beginning
C Closely related families are
placed apart
D The position of gymnosperms in
between dicots and monocots
Ans. 16 to 30
16. b
17. b
18. d
19. d
20. d
21. d
22. c
23. d
24. d
25. c
26. d
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. b
Question 31
Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that
A
Pneumonia is caused by a virus
while the common cold is caused
by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae
B
Pneumonia pathogen infects
alveoli whereas the common
cold affects nose and respiratory
passage but not the lungs
C
Pneumonia is a communicable
disease whereas the common
cold is a nutritional deficiency
disease
D
Pneumonia can be prevented by
a live attenuated bacterial
vaccine whereas the common
cold has no effective vaccine
Question 32
Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
A Tobacco (Chewing)
B Cocaine
C Opium
D Alcohol
Question 33
Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?
A They divide in an uncontrolled
manner
B They show contact inhibition
C They compete with normal cells
for vital nutrients
D They do not remain confined in
the area of formation
Question 34
Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
A Human RBCs
B Human liver
C Gut of female Anopheles
D Salivary glands of Anopheles
Question 35
In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of
immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in
eyes Physical barriers
(2) Mucus coating of epithelium
lining the urogenital tract and
the HCl in stomach
Physiological barriers
(3) Polymorphonuclear
leukocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
(4) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake
bite injections Active immunity
A Example (1)
B Example (2)
C Example (3)
D Example (4)
Question 36
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A: Ranikhet disease is the disease of poultry.Statement B:
It is caused by a virus. Select the correct description :
A Statement A is correct and B is
wrong.
B Statement A is wrong and B is
correct.
C Both the statements A and B are
wrong.
D Both the statements A and B are
correct.
Question 37
Infectious proteins are present in
A Satellite viruses
B Gemini viruses
C Prions
D Viroids
Question 38
Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/ treatment) in Column II.
Column I Column II
(a)
Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(b)
Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(d) Syphilis (iv) Use oval rehydration therapy
A a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (iv), d - (i)
B a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
C a - (ii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (iii)
D a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)
Question 39
Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunization.
A
If due to some reason B and T
lymphocytes are damaged, the
body will not produce antibodies
against a pathogen
B Injection of snake antivenom
against snake bite is an example
of active immunization
C Certain protozoans have been
used to mass produce hepatitis B
vaccine
D Injection of dead/inactivated
pathogens causes passive
immunity
Question 40
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of
organisms as that of
A Taenia, a tapeworm
B Ascaris, a round worm
C Rhizopus, a mould
D Wuchereria, a filarial worm
Question 41
Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
A Red blood corpuscles of humans
suffering from malaria
B Saliva of infected female
Anopheles mosquito
C Salivary glands of freshly
moulted female Anopheles
mosquito
D Spleen of infected humans
Question 42
Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?
A Tears
B Skin
C Monocytes
D Epithelium of Urogenital tract
Question 43
Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism
and mode of infection
Disease Causative
Organisms Mode of Infection
(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria
bancrofti
With infected water
and food
(2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male
Anopheles mosquito
(3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air
(4) Pneumonia Streptococcus
Pneumoniae Droplet infection
A Option (1)
B Option (2)
C Option (3)
D Option (4)
Question 44
Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
A Encephalitis and sleeping
sickness
B Yellow fever and sleeping
sickness
C Elephantiasis and Dengue
D Yellow fever and Dengue
Question 45
Goitre can occur as a consequence of all the following except :
A Iodine deficiency
B Pituitary Adenoma
C Grave’s disease
D Excessive intake of exogenous
thyroxine
Ans. 31 to 45
31. b
32. d
33. b
34. c
35. c
36. d
37. c
38. a
39. a
40. c
41. b
42. a
43. d
44. d
45. d
Question 46
Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
A Greenhouse effect is a natural
phenomenon
B Eutrophication is a natural
phenomenon in freshwater
bodies
C Most of the forests have been
lost in tropical areas
D Ozone in upper part of
atmosphere is harmful to animals
Question 47
In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because
A Cobras were feeding exclusively
on birds
B Many of the birds eggs laid, did
not hatch
C Birds stopped laying eggs
D Earthworms in the area got
eradicated
Question 48
Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for
A
Measuring the activity of
Saccharomyces cerevisiae in
producing curd on a commercial
scale
B Working out the efficiency of
R.B.Cs. about their capacity to
carry oxygen
C Estimating the amount of
organic matter in sewage water
D Working out the efficiency of oil
driven automobile engines
Question 49
dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of
A The dominant Bacillus in a
culture
B The density of bacteria in a
medium
C A certain pesticide
D A particular pollutant
Question 50
Identify the correctly matched pair
A Basal Convention – Biodiversity
Conservation
B Montreal Protocol - Global
warming
C Kyoto protocol – Climatic
change
D Ramsar Convention – Ground
water pollution
Question 51
Common indicator organism of water pollution is:
A Entamoeba histolytica
B Escherichia coli
C Eichhornia crassipes
D Lemna paucicostata
Question 52
Shell of egg in bird becomes thin (not properly formed) due to the pollution of pesticides. This is due to
interference in the activity of :
A Calmodulin
B Mg ATPase
C Ca ATPase
D None of these
Question 53
Lichens can be used as :
A Source of wood
B Initial vegetation for waste lands
C Bio-indicator for water and air
pollution
D To check the air pollution
Question 54
Industrial melanism is an example of
A Protective resemblance with the
surrounding
B Drug resistance
C Defensive adaptation of skin
against UV radiations
D Darkening of skin due to
industries
Question 55
Carbon dioxide is called green-house gas because it is
A Transparent to sunlight but traps
heat
B Transparent to heat but traps
sunlight
C Used in green-house to increase
plant growth
D Transparent to both sunlight and
heat
Question 56
Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for:
A Reclamation of wastelands
B Bioremediation of contaminated
soils
C Biological control of soil-borne
plant pathogens
D Gene transfer in higher plants
Question 57
The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
A CO2 and N2O
B CO2 and CH4
C CH4 and N2O
D CFC5 and N2O
Question 58
The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their:
A Poor nitrogen content
B Low moisture content
C Low cellulose content
D Anaerobic environment around
them
Question 59
Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
A Blood-worms
B Sludge-worms
C Sewage fungus
D Stone flies
Question 60
Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) green house gases
that contribute to the total global warming?
A CO2 40%,CFCs 30%
B CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
C Methane 20%, N2O 18%
D N2O 6%, CO2 86%
Ans. 46 to 60
46. d
47. b
48. c
49. d
50. c
51. b
52. a
53. c
54. a
55. a
56. b
57. b
58. a
59. d
60. b
Question 61
Which one of the following is a correctstatement?
A Antheridiophores and
archegoniophores are present in
pteridophytes.
B Origin of seed habit can be
traced in pteridophytes.
C Pteridophyte gametophyte has a
protonemal and leafy stage.
D In gymnosperms female
gametophyte is free-living.
Question 62
Which one of the following is a correctstatement?
A Fronds are found in Bryophytes.
B Heterocysts are found in Nostoc.
C Diatoms produce basidiospores.
D Multiciliated sperms are found in
Angiosperms.
Question 63
In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a
result:
A There is high degree of sterility
B There is no change in success
rate of fertilization
C Self fertilization is prevented
D One can conclude that the plant
is apomictic
Question 64
Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having:
A Cambium
B Vessels
C Seeds
D Motile Sperms
Question 65
In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of algae
A Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
B Volvox, Spirogyra,
Chlamydomonas
C Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
D Sargassum, Laminaria,
Gracillaria
Question 66
In a moss the sporophyte
A Arises from a spore produced
from the gametophyte
B produces gametes that given rise
to the gametophyte
C is partially parasitic on the
gametophyte
D Manufactures food for itself, as
well as for the gametophyte
Question 67
Algae have cell wall made up of
A Hemicellulose, pectins and
proteins
B Cellulose, galactans and
mannans
C Cellulose, hemicellulose and
pectins
D Pectins, cellulose and proteins
Question 68
Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady places because both :
A depend for their nutrition on
micro-organisms which can
survive only at low temperature
B do not need sunlight for
photosynthesis
C require presence of water for
fertilization
D cannot compete with sun-loving
plants
Question 69
In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
A A cavity in the ovule in which
pollen grains are stored after
pollination
B A cell in the pollen grain in
which the sperms are formed
C The microsporangium in which
pollen grains develop
D
An opening in the
megagametophyte through
which the pollen tube
approaches the egg
Question 70
If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you
should choose?
A Nature of stored food materials
in the cell
B Types of pigments present in the
cell
C Chemical composition of the cell
wall
D Structural organization of thallus
Question 71
Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows:
A Morphologically different sex
organs
B Same size of motile sex organs
C Different size of motile sex
organs
D Physiologically differentiated
sex organs
Question 72
Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by :
A Indusium
B Elaters
C Peristome teeth
D Calyptra
Question 73
Identify the alga known for a biological activity called bioluminescence.
A Spirogyra
B Noctiluca
C Cyclotella
D Chlorella
Question 74
Which of the following groups of algae do not have eukaryotic organization?
A Blue green algae
B Green algae
C Golden brown algae
D Red algae
Question 75
Assertion: Red algae contribute in producing coral reefs.
Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls.
A Both the Assertion and the
Reason are true and the Reason
is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B
Both the Assertion and the
Reason are true but the Reason is
not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
C Assertion is true but the Reason
is false.
D Assertion is false but the Reason
is true.
Ans. 61 to 75
61. b
62. b
63. c
64. d
65. b
66. c
67. b
68. c
69. a
70. a
71. b
72. d
73. b
74. d
75. b