Biology I Final Exam Review Professor Pamela Thomas

SI Leader Camila

I made this review for additional practice, however it is not an entirely comprehensive exam, and should only be used as a supplement. Not all information is guaranteed to be correct.

1. What is the difference between valence and valence electrons? a. Valence: the number of electrons in the outer shell

Valence electrons: the number of electrons needed to fill the outer shellb. Valence: the number of electrons needed to fill the outer shell

Valence electrons: the number of electrons in the outer shell

2. What is the valence of Nitrogen? a. 3b. 5c. 1d. 6

3. T/F: Electrons are transferred between two atoms in a covalent bond.a. Trueb. False this is definition of ionic

4. T/F: In polar covalent bonds, the atoms involved have very similar electronegativity. a. True b. False this is true in nonpolar covalent

5. Which molecule below contains an ionic bond? a. CH4

b. H2Oc. NaCld. NO

6. Which of the following is polar? a. CH3OH b. CH4

c. CO2

d. Fats and Oils

7. What does pH measure? a. OH- concentration b. The amount of energy in a solution c. H+ concentration d. H2O concentration

8. What is the maximum number of bonds that carbon make? a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

9. Draw 2 water molecules and label the hydrogen bond:

10. A _hydrophilic__ molecule is one that can dissolve in water. A

___hydrophobic___ molecule is one that cannot be dissolved in water.

11. An acid is a substance that: a. Donates H+ and OH- ions b. Gains H+ ions c. Donates H+ ions

12. What type of partial charge does Hydrogen have in the polar covalent compound H2O?a. Positiveb. Negativec. Uncharged

13. An acid has a high concentration of:a. Hydroxideb. Hydronium

c. Both

14. What is the pH of a substance if it has a hydroxide concentration of 0.00001?a. 5b. 1c. 13d. 9

15. Which of the following is an acid? a. [H+] = 1 x 10-14 b. [H+] = 1 x 10-7 c. [H+] = 1 x 10-9 d. [H+] = 1 x 10-6

16. What is the study of compounds that contain carbon?a. Carbonic chemistryb. Chemistryc. Organic chemistry

17. How many times greater is the [H+] concentration of a solution of pH 7 than that of pH 11?

a. 10 times greater b. 100 times greater c. 1000 times greater d. 10000 times greater

18. Which of the following are present in amino acids (Select all that apply):a. Carboxyl groupb. Sulfide group c. COOHd. Central Carbone. Charged ion f. NH2

19. Hydrogen bonds hold together the __secondary___ structure of a protein.

20. __glycosidic linkages___ hold together carbohydrates and ___peptide bonds____ hold together the primary structure of a protein.

21. Which of the following refers to the process in which a water molecule is added to separate monomers?

a. Dehydration Reaction b. Glycosidic Linkage c. Hydrolysis d. Peptide Bond

22. Beta pleated sheets and alpha helices are a type of which level of protein organization? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary

23. The role of chaperonins is to: a. Assist in taking a protein outside the nucleus b. Assist in folding a protein into its 3D structure c. Tell a protein where it needs to go d. “UPS” of the protein

24. Which of the following will NOT result in the denaturation of a protein? a. Harsh temperatures b. Chemicals c. Presence of an acidic amino acid d. High salt concentrations

25. If a cell needs to quickly transport a large molecule to another cell, what mechanism of transport will likely be used?

a. Integral membrane protein b. Gap junction c. Aquaporins d. Exocytosis

26. What does it mean to be amphipathic? a. Can exist in water and on land b. Cannot exist in water c. Has both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions d. Is neither hydrophobic or hydrophilic

27. What type of structure is classified as amphipathic? a. Cell membrane b. Integral protein

c. Peripheral protein d. Glycolipid

28. What type of reaction is shown in the graph below? Label it and explain why it looks like that.

Exothermic; giving up energy, products have lost energy, lower potential energy than reactants (potential energy, time, activation energy, delta G)

29. What type of reaction is this?121 J + Na + Cl → NaCl

a. Exergonic b. Endergonic c. Redox d. None of the above

30. What reaction would this reaction likely be coupled with? A + B → C ΔG = 20 kJ

a. D + E → F ΔG = - 18 kJb. F + G → H ΔG = 25 kJc. I + J → K ΔG = -30 kJ

31. What is the first law of thermodynamics? a. Every reaction increases the entropy of the universe b. Every reaction gives off heat

c. Energy cannot be created or destroyed d. Endothermic reactions are spontaneous

32. Where does glycolysis occur? a. Mitochondrial matrix (Kreb’s) b. Inner mitochondrial membrane (ETC) c. Nucleus (DNA synthesis)d. Cytoplasm

33. What type of enzyme phosphorylates other molecules? a. Phosphatase b. Kinase c. Holoenzyme d. Protease

34. During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for division? a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Interphase d. G phase

35. What types of cells are haploid a. All human cells b. All body (somatic) cells c. All sex cells d. None of the above are haploid

36. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated? a. G2b. Prophase c. G1 d. S

37. During Anaphase II, what is separated? a. Homologous chromosomes b. Diploid cells c. Sister chromatids d. None of the above

For questions 38 and 39, use the word bank below to fill in the blanks.

a. Sister chromatids b. Homologous chromosomes c. Diploid d. Not replicated

e. Replicated

38. During G1 after mitosis, the DNA in the cell is __c.____ and _d.___.

39. __b._____ are present during Prophase I, when the cell is ___c.____ and the DNA in the cell is ___e._____.

40. ______________________ are connected at the centromere. a. Spindle fibers b. Homologous chromosomes c. Sister chromatids d. Chromosomes

41. Which of the following G0 checkpoints is called the restriction point?a. The one in G1b. The one in G2c. The one in M phased. The one in S phase

42. At the end of meiosis I, the cell is considered to be: a. Diploid b. Haploid c. A gamete d. A somatic cell

43. Which of the following are part of interphase? [select all that apply]a. G1b. M phase c. G2d. Se. Meiosis

44. After which of the following processes does the cell not do a full interphase cycle? a. Mitosis b. Meiosis I c. Meiosis II d. Mitosis II

45. During which part of the cell cycle are chromosomes first fully visible under a microscope?

a. Metaphase b. Prophase c. Anaphase d. Telophase

46. During which of the following processes does a cell go from haploid to haploid? a. Meiosis I b. Mitosis c. Meiosis II d. S phase

47. Where in the cell cycle does a cell spend most of the time? a. Prophase b. Interphase c. S phase d. M phase

48. During Metaphase I, chromosomes form: a. Duos b. Chromatids c. Tetrads d. Homologous pairs

49. Which choice below properly matches the stage of mitosis with its description? a. Telophase: Formation of two nuclei b. Metaphase: sister chromatids separate and migrate to poles (anaphase)c. Prophase: Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate (metaphase)d. Anaphase: Chromatin condenses and microtubules form (prophase)

50. .When referring to the paternal and maternal versions of chromosome 3, we can call them _____ in relation to each other.

a. Sister Chromatids b. Homologous c. Exactly identical d. None of the above

51. If an animal is 2n =54, what is true of a somatic cell from this animal during metaphase? a. It has 54 chromatids b. It has 27 chromosomes c. It has 108 chromatids d. It has 27 chromatids

52. Having unattached earlobes is an autosomal dominant trait. If a woman with blue eyes and attached earlobes has a child with a man who is heterozygous for both, what is the probability of having a blue eyed child with attached earlobes?

a. ¼b. ⅓c. ⅛

d. 0

53. Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is correct? a. Mitosis only occurs in prokaryotes, including all bacteria, while meiosis occurs in

higher life forms. b. Mitosis results in higher genetic variability than meiosis c. Both A and B are correct d. In the human body, mitosis occurs in somatic cells whereas meiosis occurs in sex

cells.

54. How many different possible gametes can a man with BbAA make? a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4

55. Which of the following is true of both meiosis 1 and meiosis 2? a. Both produce haploid cells. b. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase of meiosis 1, but not in meiosis 2. (other

way around)c. The G2 phase precedes both. d. Both include crossing over.

56. Munchkin is an autosomal dominant trait that is lethal in the homozygous condition. If two munchkin cats mate, what is the probability that they will have a munchkin daughter?

a. ½b. ¼ c. ⅛ d. ⅓

57. What are all of the possible blood phenotypes? a. A and B b. A, B, and O c. AA, AO, AB, BB, BO, OO d. A, AB, and B e. A, AB, B, and O

58. Which of the following terms refers to having an abnormal number of chromosomes? a. Polyploidy (more than two complete sets of chromosomes)b. Monosomy c. Trisomy d. Aneuploidy

59. Which of the following is the complex of proteins at which the mitotic spindle will attach to the chromosomes, one microtubule from each side?

a. Centrosome b. Centromere c. Cohesin d. Kinetochore

60. A black male cat mates with a calico female. What are the phenotypes of their children? [select all that apply]

a. ¼ orange male and ¼ black maleb. ½ orange male c. ¼ black female d. ¼ calico female

61. Calico syndrome is the result of: a. Overaccumulation of Barr bodies b. Y inactivation c. X inactivation d. Only receiving one X from your mother

62. Color blindness is an X linked recessive trait. A woman whose father was colorblind mates with a man whose mother was colorblind. What is the probability that:

a. They have a son with colorblindness (½)b. They have a daughter with colorblindness (½) c. They have a child who is not colorblind (½)

63. A woman who has A + blood whose father had blood type OO -- mates with a man who is homozygous for A+ blood type. What is the probability of them having a child with A- blood type?

a. ½ b. ¼c. 0d. ¾

64. Tay Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease. If a woman who is a carrier for Tay Sachs mates with a man who is also a carrier, what is the probability of them having a son with Tay Sachs?

a. ¼b. ½c. ⅛ d. ¾

65. What is responsible for the initiation of male development in humans?a. Mitosis b. SRY c. Meiosis d. Barr bodies e. X inactivation

66. T/F: DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5’ end of a DNA strand. a. True b. False

67. If a sequence of DNA contains 30% T bases, what percentage of C bases are there? a. 30%b. 45%c. 20%d. 40%e. 70%

68. DNA is __antiparallel____, meaning that strands run in opposite

directions of each other. It is also ___complimentary___, meaning that C binds with

_G_ and A binds with _T_.

69. T/F: The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by weak hydrogen bonds.

a. True b. False

70. Where is a TATA box found and what is its function? a. On an intron called the initiation sequence; binding RNA polymerase b. On an exon in the promoter region; binding and initiating polymerase action c. On an intron in the promoter region; binding and initiating polymerase action

71. A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is ATC. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds to the codon on the mRNA is:

a. TUG b. AUC c. TAG

d. AUG

72. DNA is ___double____ stranded, while RNA is __single___ stranded.

73. When a ribosome first attaches to mRNA, the first anticodon on tRNA that will bind to the mRNA strand will bind at the:

a. E site b. Small subunit c. P site d. A site e. Large subunit

74. Primase has the function of: a. Setting down a DNA primer during transcriptionb. Setting down a DNA primer during translation c. Setting down an RNA primer during transcription d. Setting down an RNA primer during translation

75. The first enzyme during DNA synthesis: a. Releases the tension ahead of the replication fork (topoisomerase)b. Sets down a primer (primase)c. Sets down complementary bases (DNA pol III,)d. Unwinds the DNA helix

76. Put the following enzymes in the correct order: Primase ligase DNA pol I. DNA pol III. helicase topoisomerase SSBP

_4_ _7_ _6_ _5_ _1_ _3_ _2_

77. What is true of both DNA and RNA synthesis? a. They both require primers b. They both use polymerase III c. They both synthesize in the 5’ ---- 3’ direction d. They both form Okazaki fragments

78. DNA replication is considered to be: a. Conservative b. Fragmented c. Semiconservative d. None of these

79. Why does DNA synthesis occur from 5’ ----- 3’? a. There is an OH group at the 5’ end that does not allow bases to bind b. DNA polymerase does not fit at the 3’ end c. There is a free OH group at the 3’ carbon

d. There is a 5’ cap that does not allow bases to bind

80. DNA ligase is used to: a. Bind the DNA backbone together b. Unwind the DNA strand c. Bind together Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand d. Proofread the developing DNA strand

81. Translation: [select all that apply]a. Requires ribosomes b. Requires a primer c. Requires mRNA with a 5’ cap and a 3’ poly A tail d. Makes a protein from the 3’ ----- 5’ strand of DNA

82. What is a nonsense mutation? a. When a portion of a chromosome switches with a piece on a non homologous

chromosome b. When a premature stop codon is made and the protein is dysfunctional c. When a thymine dimer is made due to UV damage d. When a valine is made in place of glutamic acid and sickle cell anemia results

83. DNA methylation ________ or ________ transcription a. Speeds up; cancels b. Silences; speeds up c. Silences; slows d. Speeds up; slows

84. What is the most common cause of developmental delay globally? a. Nonsense mutation b. Missense mutation c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome

85. The non-coding regions of DNA are: a. Introns b. Exons c. In the 5’ ---- 3’ direction d. Not translated e. A and D f. A and C

86. What makes up DNA? a. Nitrogenous base, amino group, phosphateb. Sugar, amino group, nitrogenous base c. Sugar, nitrogenous base, phosphate

d. None of the above

87. What is responsible for the number of replications cells can undergo? a. Centromeres b. poly-A tailc. Telomeres d. The longevity of DNA pol. III

88. What are the roles of the 5’ cap and the 3’ poly A tail? a. Longevity of the mRNA strand; getting the mRNA out of the nucleus b. Ensuring translation is done properly; longevity of the mRNA strandc. Getting the mRNA out of the nucleus; ensuring translation is done properly d. None of the above, getting it out; longevity of mRNA strand

89. RNA polymerase is a holoenzyme. What does this mean? a. It acts by itself in transcription b. It comes in pieces (coenzymes) that must be assembled on the 5’ end of DNA c. It is shaped like a hollow shell d. It comes in pieces (coenzymes) that must be assembled on the 5’ end of DNA

90. What polypeptide chain will result from the following DNA sequence? DNA 5’ - GCT CGT CCC AGA TGG - 3’

a. Arg - Ala - Gly - Ser - Thr b. Arg - Pro - Lys - Arg - Trp c. Ala - Arg - Lys - Ser - Thrd. Ala - Arg - Pro - Arg - Trp