2017 Spring Final Review PAP/GT Physics

Inverse Square Laws Ch 7 and Ch 16 mixMomentum and Collisions Ch 6Mechanical Energy Ch 5Heat/Thermo Ch 9 and Ch 10 mixWaves and Sound Ch 11 and Ch 12 mixLight and Reflection Ch 13Refraction, Interference, Diffraction Ch 14 and Ch 15 mixElectric Energy, Current, Power, and Circuits Ch 17 and Ch 18 mix

Section Quiz: Newton’s Law of Universal GravitationWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. What is the centripetal force that holds planets in orbit?a. inertiab. gravitational forcec. planetary forced. Kepler’s force

__________ 2. The force that Earth exerts on the moona. is greater than the force the moon exerts on Earth.b. is less than the force the moon exerts on Earth.c. is equal in magnitude to the force the moon exerts on Earth.d. causes tides.

__________ 3. How does the gravitational force between two objects change if the distance between the objects doubles?a. The force decreases by a factor of 4.b. The force decreases by a factor of 2.c. The force increases by a factor of 2.d. The force increases by a factor of 4.

__________ 4. What does G stand for?a. free-fall accelerationb. gravitational field strengthc. the constant of universal gravitationd. gravitational force

__________ 5. Which of the following is an expression of gravitational field strength?

a. c.

b. d.

__________ 6. Tides are caused bya. differences in the gravitational force of the moon at different points on Earth.b. differences in Earth’s gravitational field strength at different points on Earth’s surface.c. differences in the gravitational force of the sun at different points on Earth.d. fluctuations in the gravitational attraction between Earth and the sun.

__________ 7. When a person holds a ball above Earth’s surface, the system contains gravitational potential energy. Where is this potential energy stored?a. in the ballb. inside Earthc. in the person holding the balld. in the gravitational field between Earth and the ball

__________ 8. Evidence confirms that gravitational massa. depends on gravitational field strength.b. varies with location.c. depends on free-fall acceleration.d. equals inertial mass.

9. Explain why an astronaut weighs less on the moon than on Earth.___________________________________________________________________________________

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10.The moon has a mass of 7.35 1022 kg and a radius of 1.74 106 m. What is the gravitational force between the moon and an 85 kg astronaut? (G = 6.673 1011 Nm2/kg2)

Section Quiz: Electric ChargeWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. Objects become electrically charged as a result of the transfer ofa. protons.b. electrons.c. neutrons.d. nuclei.

__________ 2. The nucleus of an atom has _______________ electric charge.a. a positiveb. a negativec. a neutrald. both positive or negative

__________ 3. Rubbing a balloon through dry hair gives the balloon a _______________ electric charge.a. positiveb. negativec. neutrald. balanced

__________ 4. Robert Milliken’s research showed that electric charge is quantized, which means thata. a proton has a charge equal to that of two electrons.b. an electron can have any amount of electric charge.c. all charge is an integer multiple of a fundamental charge.d. all charge is an integer multiple of the charge of a neutron.

__________ 5. A student rubs a certain rod with plastic wrap. The rod then repels a glass rod that has been rubbed with silk and attracts a rubber rod that has been rubbed with fur. This observation shows that the first rod has a(n) _______________ charge.a. positiveb. negativec. neutrald. undetermined

__________ 6. A negatively charged rod is brought near a metal sphere that is not grounded. When the rod is taken away, the metal sphere will havea. a positive charge.b. a negative charge.c. an induced charge.d. no charge.

__________ 7. A conductor, such as a copper rod, can be charged by contact with another charged object only if the metal rod isa. an insulator.b. grounded to Earth.c. insulated from Earth.d. positively charged.

__________ 8. Uncharged objects can be attracted by a charged object because the uncharged objects acquire a surface charge by the process ofa. contact.b. polarization.c. conduction.d. charge transfer.

9. Electrons in conducting materials are loosely held by atoms in contrast to electrons in insulators, which tend to be tightly held. How does this fact explain the difference between electrical conductors and electrical insulators?___________________________________________________________________________________

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10.A grounded conductor may be charged by the process of _______________ when a charged object is brought near the conductor.___________________________________________________________________________________

Section Quiz: Electric ForceWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1 An electric force F exists between two objects, both having the charge q. If the charge on one object is doubled to 2q, the force between the objects becomes

a. F c. 2F.

b. F d. 4F.

__________ 2. An electric force F exists between two objects separated from each other by distance r. If the distance is decreased to 0.5r, the force between the two objects becomes

a. F c. 2F

b. F d. 4F.

__________ 3. Two point charges, initially 2 cm apart, are moved to a distance of 8 cm apart. By what factor does the resulting electric force between them change?

a. 2 c.

b. 4 d.

__________ 4. Two charged objects are near each other. One has a charge of

a. 16 c. 2b. 4 d. No change occurs.

__________ 5. Electric force and gravitational force are alike in that both forcesa. depend on charge. c.act only when objects are

touching.b. depend on mass. d. are field forces.

__________ 6. The diagram above represents an array of point charges of the magnitudes shown. Assume that no net force acts on charge q3. What can you say about the sign and magnitude of charge q3?

a. The charge must be positive and less than the charge on q1 and q2.

b. The charge must be positive and the same as the charge on q1 and q2.

c. The charge must be negative and the same as the charge on q1 and q2.d. The charge can have any sign and any magnitude.

__________ 7. The diagram above represents an array of point charges of the magnitudes shown. Which of the following choices best represents the direction of the net electric force acting on charge q3?

__________ 8. Which of the following best represents a difference between electric force and gravitational force?

a. Gravitational force is stronger than electric force.b. Electric force can both attract and repel.c. Electric force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between objects.d. Gravitational force exists between objects that are not touching.

9. The resultant force acting on a charged object placed near other charged objects is the _______________ sum of the of the individual forces acting on the object.___________________________________________________________________________________

10.Two point charges having charge values of 4.0 106 C and 8.0 106 C, respectively, are separated by 2.4 102 m. What is the value of the mutual force between them? (kc = 8.99 109 Nm2/C2)

Momentum and Collisions

Chapter Test BMULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. Which of the following has the greatest momentum?a. a tortoise with a mass of 275 kg moving at a velocity of 0.55 m/sb. a hare with a mass of 2.7 kg moving at a velocity of 7.5 m/sc. a turtle with a mass of 91 kg moving at a velocity of 1.4 m/sd. a roadrunner with a mass of 1.8 kg moving at a velocity of 6.7 m/s

__________ 2. A person sitting in a chair with wheels stands up, causing the chair to roll backward across the floor. The momentum of the chaira. was zero while stationary and increased when the person stood.b. was greatest while the person sat in the chair.c. remained the same.d. was zero when the person got out of the chair and increased while the person sat.

__________ 3. A 0.2 kg baseball is pitched with a velocity of 40 m/s and is then batted to the pitcher with a velocity of 60 m/s. What is the magnitude of change in the ball’s momentum?a. 2 kgm/s c. 8 kgm/sb. 4 kgm/s d. 20 kgm/s

__________ 4. Which of the following statements properly relates the variables in the equation Ft = p?a. A large constant force changes an object’s momentum over a long time interval.b. A large constant force acting over a long time interval causes a large change in momentum.c. A large constant force changes an object’s momentum at various time intervals.d. A large constant force does not necessarily cause a change in an object’s momentum.

__________ 5. Two objects with different masses collide and bounce back after an elastic collision. Before the collision, the two objects were moving at velocities equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. After the collision,a. the less massive object had gained momentum.b. the more massive object had gained momentum.c. both objects had the same momentum.d. both objects lost momentum.

6.Two swimmers relax close together on air mattresses in a pool. One swimmer’s mass is 48 kg, and the other’s mass is 55 kg. If the swimmers push away from each other,

a. their total momentum triples.b. their momenta are equal but opposite.c. their total momentum doubles.d. their total momentum decreases.

__________ 7. Which of the following statements about the conservation of momentum is not correct?a. Momentum is conserved for a system of objects pushing away from each other.b. Momentum is not conserved for a system of objects in a head-on collision.c. Momentum is conserved when two or more interacting objects push away from each other.d. The total momentum of a system of interacting objects remains constant regardless of forces between the

objects.

__________ 8. Two balls of dough collide and stick together. Identify the type of collision.a. elastic c. inelasticb. perfectly elastic d. perfectly inelastic

__________ 9. Which of the following best describes the momentum of two bodies after a two-body collision if the kinetic energy of the system is conserved?a. must be less c. might also be conservedb. must also be conserved d. is doubled in value

SHORT ANSWER10.A baseball pitcher’s first pitch is a fastball, moving at high speed. The pitcher’s second pitch—with the same ball—is a

changeup, moving more slowly. Which pitch is harder for the catcher to stop? Explain your answer in terms of momentum.___________________________________________________________________________________

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11.Is it possible for a spaceship traveling with constant velocity to experience a change in momentum? Explain your answer.___________________________________________________________________________________

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12.Each croquet ball in a set has a mass of 0.50 kg. The green ball travels at10.5 m/s and strikes a stationary red ball. If the green ball stops moving, what is the final speed of the red ball after the collision?___________________________________________________________________________________

13.A moderate force will break an egg. Using the concepts of momentum, force, and time interval, explain why an egg is more likely to break when it is dropped on concrete than if it is dropped on grass.___________________________________________________________________________________

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14.Why is the sound produced by a collision evidence that the collision is not perfectly elastic?___________________________________________________________________________________

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PROBLEM15.What velocity must a 1340 kg car have in order to have the same momentum as a 2680 kg truck traveling at a velocity of 15

m/s to the west?

16.A 6.0 102 kg tennis ball moves at a velocity of 12 m/s. The ball is struck by a racket, causing it to rebound in the opposite direction at a speed of 18 m/s. What is the change in the ball’s momentum?

17.A train with a mass of 1.8 103 kg is moving at 15 m/s when the engineer applies the brakes. If the braking force is constant at 3.5 104 N, how long does it take the train to stop? How far does the train travel during this time?

18.An astronaut with a mass of 85 kg is outside a space capsule when the tether line breaks. To return to the capsule, the astronaut throws a 2.0 kg wrench away from the capsule at a speed of 14 m/s. At what speed does the astronaut move toward the capsule?

19.A 0.10 kg object makes an elastic head-on collision with a 0.15 kg stationary object. The final velocity of the 0.10 kg object after the collision is0.045 m/s, and the final velocity of the 0.15 kg object after the collision is 0.16 m/s. What was the initial velocity of the 0.10 kg object?

20.A 90 kg halfback runs north and is tackled by a 120 kg opponent running south at 4 m/s. The collision is perfectly inelastic. Just after the tackle, both players move at a velocity of 2 m/s north. Calculate the velocity of the 90 kg player just before the tackle.

Work and Energy

Chapter Test BMULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. If the sign of work is negative,a. the displacement is perpendicular to the force.b. the displacement is in the direction opposite the force.c. the displacement is in the same direction as the force.d. no work is done.

__________ 2. A child moving at constant velocity carries a 2 N ice-cream cone 1 m across a level surface. What is the net work done on the ice-cream cone?a. 0 J c. 2 Jb. 0.5 J d. 20 J

__________ 3. A worker does 25 J of work lifting a bucket, then sets the bucket back down in the same place. What is the total net work done on the bucket?a. 25 J c. 25 Jb. 0 J d. 50 J

__________ 4. If both the mass and the velocity of a ball were tripled, the kinetic energy of the ball would increase by a factor ofa. 3. c. 9.b. 6. d. 27.

__________ 5. What is the kinetic energy of a 0.135 kg baseball thrown at 40.0 m/s?a. 54.0 J c. 108 Jb. 87.0 J d. 216 J

__________ 6. If friction is the only force acting on an object during a given physical process, which of the following assumptions can be made in regard to the object’s kinetic energy?a. The kinetic energy decreases.b. The kinetic energy increases.c. The kinetic energy remains constant.d. The kinetic energy decreases and then increases.

__________ 7. The equation for determining gravitational potential energy isPEg = mgh. Which factor(s) in this equation is (are) not intrinsic to an object?a. m c. hb. g d. both g and h

__________ 8. Which of the following parameters does not depend on how resistant a spring is to being compressed or stretched?a. compression distance c. spring constantb. relaxed length d. stretching distance

__________ 9. What is the potential energy of a 1.0 kg mass 1.0 m above the ground?a. 1.0 J c. 10 Jb. 9.8 J d. 96 J

__________ 10. Why doesn’t the principle of mechanical energy conservation hold in situations when frictional forces are present?a. Kinetic energy is not completely converted to a form of potential energy.b. Potential energy is completely converted to a form of gravitational energy.c. Chemical energy is not completely converted to electrical energy.d. Kinetic energy is completely converted to a form of gravitational energy.

__________ 11. For which of the following situations is the conservation of mechanical energy most likely to be a valid assumption?a. A skateboard rolls across a sewer grate.b. A parachutist falls from a plane.c. You rub your hands together to keep warm.d. A soccer ball flies through the air.

__________ 12. A 3.00 kg toy falls from a height of 1.00 m. What will the kinetic energy of the toy be just before the toy hits the ground? (Assume no air resistance and that g = 9.81 m/s2.)a. 98.0 J c. 29.4 Jb. 0.98 J d. 294 J

__________ 13. What is the average power supplied by a 60.0 kg person running up a flight of stairs a vertical distance of 4.0 m in 4.2 s?a. 57 W c. 560 Wb. 240 W d. 670 W

SHORT ANSWER14.Explain the scientific meaning of work.

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15.What form of energy is associated with the position of an object in Earth’s gravitational field?___________________________________________________________________________________

16.Describe the relationship between kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy during the free fall of a pencil from a desk.___________________________________________________________________________________

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17.Write an equation that expresses the conservation of mechanical energy in a system that involves kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, and elastic potential energy.___________________________________________________________________________________

18.Show how the alternative definition of power can be derived by substituting the definitions of work and speed into the

standard definition of power, .

19.Which motor performs more work in the same amount of time—a 10 kW motor or a 20 kW motor? How much more work can it do?___________________________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________________________PROBLEM20.What is the kinetic energy of a 1.5 103 kg car traveling at 25 m/s?

21.A worker pushes a box with a horizontal force of 50.0 N over a level distance of 5.0 m. If a frictional force of 43 N acts on the box in a direction opposite to that of the worker, what net work is done on the box ?

22.A professional skier starts from rest and reaches a speed of 56 m/s on a ski slope angled 30.0 above the horizontal. Using the work-kinetic energy theorem and disregarding friction, find the minimum distance along the slope the skier would have to travel in order to reach this speed.

23.An 80.0 kg climber climbs to the top of Mount Everest, which has a peak height of 8848 m. What is the climber’s potential energy with respect to sea level?

24.Old Faithful geyser in Yellowstone National Park shoots water every hour to a height of 40.0 m. With what velocity does the water leave the ground? (Assume no air resistance and that g = 9.81 m/s2.)

25.Water flows over a section of Niagara Falls at a rate of 1.20 106 kg/s and falls 50.0 m. What is the power of the waterfall?

Section Quiz: Temperature and Thermal EquilibriumWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. Which of the following is proportional to the average kinetic energy of particles in matter?a. heatb. temperaturec. thermal equilibriumd. internal energy

__________ 2. What is the energy due to both the random motions of a substance’s particles and the potential energy due to the bonds between those particles called?a. vibrational energyb. rotational energyc. translational energyd. internal energy

__________ 3. What is the type of kinetic energy associated with a molecule spinning about its center of mass called?a. vibrational energyb. rotational energyc. translational energyd. internal energy

__________ 4. Which of the following statements best describes a state of thermal equilibrium between two systems?a. Both systems have the same mass.b. Both systems have the save volume.c. Both systems have the same temperature.d. Both systems contain the same amount of internal energy.

__________ 5. Which of the following statements correctly describes what occurs to a substance that undergoes thermal expansion?a. As the temperature increases, the volume of the substance increases.b. As the temperature increases, the volume of the substance decreases.c. As the temperature increases, the density of the substance increases.d. As the temperature increases, the mass of the substance decreases.

Heat continued

__________ 6. The temperature of the air is measured as 235 K. What is this temperature equal to in degrees Celsius?a. 508Cb. 203Cc. 38Cd. 68C

__________ 7. How are the Celsius and Kelvin temperature scales similar?a. Both scales are based on the freezing and boiling points of water.b. Both scales are based on absolute zero.c. Neither scale has negative temperature values.d. The difference of one degree is the same for both scales.

__________ 8. Which temperature scale is used widely in science, and is applied to non-scientific uses throughout most of the world?a. Celsiusb. Rankinec. Fahrenheitd. Kelvin

9. Explain how the kinetic energy of molecules in water accounts for its temperature.___________________________________________________________________________________

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10.The temperature on a warm day is 309.7 K. Calculate the equivalent to this temperature on the Fahrenheit temperature scale.

Section Quiz: Defining HeatWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. What term is defined as the energy transferred between objects with different temperatures?a. internal energyb. workc. heatd. thermal equilibrium

__________ 2. What must be true if energy is to be transferred as heat between two bodies in physical contact?a. The two bodies must have different volumes.b. The two bodies must be at different temperatures.c. The two bodies must have different masses.d. The two bodies must be in thermal equilibrium.

__________ 3. What occurs to the particles in a substance at low temperature when energy is transferred to the substance as heat?a. The average kinetic energy of the particles increases.b. The average kinetic energy of the particles remains constant.c. The average kinetic energy of the particles decreases.d. The average kinetic energy of the particles varies unpredictably.

__________ 4. If energy is transferred spontaneously as heat from a substance with a temperature of T1 to a substance with a temperature of T2, which of the following statements must be true?a. T1 < T2

b. T1 = T2

c. T1 > T2

d. More information is needed.

__________ 5. A container with a temperature of 37C is submerged in a bucket of water with a temperature of 15C. An identical container with a temperature of T1 is submerged in an identical bucket of water with a temperature of T2. If the amounts of energy transferred as heat between the containers and the water are the same in both cases, which of the following statements is true?a. T1 = 5C; T2 = 37Cb. T1 = 10C; T2 = 47C

c. T1 = 12C; T2 = 32Cd. T1 = 7C; T2 = 29C

__________ 6. What is the process by which energy is transferred by the motion of cold and hot matter?a. thermal conductionb. thermal insulationc. convectiond. radiation

__________ 7. Which of the following is not a good thermal insulator?a. ceramicb. ironc. fiberglassd. cork

__________ 8. An arrow strikes a target, causing an internal energy increase of 18 J. If the arrow is fired so that it enters the target at the same height above the ground as when it was fired, what is the arrow's initial kinetic energy?a. 0 Jb. 9 Jc. 18 Jd. 27 J

9. Describe how energy is transferred between two objects at different temperatures, and how they reach thermal equilibrium.___________________________________________________________________________________

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10.A stone with a mass of 0.450 kg is dropped from the edge of a cliff. When the stone strikes the ground, the internal energy of the stone and ground increase by 1770 J. If the stone is initially at rest when it is dropped, how high above the ground is the cliff? (g = 9.81 m/s2)

Vibrations and Waves

Chapter Test BMULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. Vibration of an object about an equilibrium point is called simple harmonic motion when the restoring force is proportional toa. time. c. a spring constant.b. displacement. d. mass.

__________ 2. A mass-spring system can oscillate with simple harmonic motion because a compressed or stretched spring has what kind of energy?a. kinetic c. gravitational potentialb. mechanical d. elastic potential

__________ 3. A pendulum swings through a total of 28. If the displacement is equal on each side of the equilibrium position, what is the amplitude of this vibration? (Disregard frictional forces acting on the pendulum.)a. 28 c. 56b. 14 d. 7.0

__________ 4. If a pendulum is adjusted so that its frequency changes from 10 Hz to 20 Hz, its period will change from n seconds toa. n/4 seconds. c. 2n seconds.b. n/2 seconds. d. 4n seconds.

__________ 5. By what factor should the length of a simple pendulum be changed in order to triple the period of vibration?a. 3 c. 9b. 6 d. 27

__________ 6. Each stretched region in the waveform of the longitudinal wave shown on the right corresponds to what feature of the transverse wave below it?a. wavelengthb. crestsc. troughsd. amplitude

__________ 7. Suppose that two sound waves passing through the same medium have different wavelengths. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason for the differing wavelengths?a. the nature of the medium c.differences in frequencyb. differences in amplitude d.the type of wave

__________ 8. When a mechanical wave’s amplitude is reduced by half, the energy the wave carries in a given time interval isa. doubled. c. decreased to one-half.b. increased by a factor of 1.4. d. decreased to one-fourth.

__________ 9. Two waves traveling in opposite directions on a rope meet and undergo complete destructive interference. Which of the following best describes the waves a moment after the waves meet and coincide?a. The waves no longer exist.b. The waves continue unchanged.c. The waves reflect and travel backward.d. A single wave continues along the rope.

__________ 10. Which of the following types of interference will occur when the pulses in the figure above meet?a. no interference c. partial destructiveb. complete constructive d. complete destructive

__________ 11. Consider two identical wave pulses on a rope having a fixed end. Suppose the first pulse reaches the end of the rope, is reflected back, and then meets the second pulse. When the two pulses overlap exactly, what will be the amplitude of the resultant pulse?a. zerob. same as the original pulsesc. double the amplitude of the original pulsesd. half the amplitude of the original pulses

__________ 12. A 2.0 m long stretched rope is fixed at both ends. Which wavelength would not produce standing waves on this rope?a. 2.0 m c. 4.0 mb. 3.0 m d. 6.0 m

__________ 13. A 3.0 m long stretched string is fixed at both ends. If standing waves with a wavelength of two-thirds L are produced on this string, how many nodes will be formed?a. 0 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

SHORT ANSWER14.In an oscillating mass-spring system, the restoring force is a result of the force exerted by the spring. What causes the

restoring force in a swinging pendulum?___________________________________________________________________________________

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15.If a spring is stretched from a displacement of 10 cm to a displacement of 30 cm, the force exerted by the spring increases by a factor of ___________.___________________________________________________________________________________

16.In an old-fashioned pendulum clock, the bob is moved up and down to adjust the clock to keep accurate time. How would you adjust the bob in order to correct a clock that runs too fast? Explain why the adjustment works.___________________________________________________________________________________

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17.A boat produces a wave as it passes an aluminum can floating in a lake. Explain why the can is not moved along in the direction of wave motion.___________________________________________________________________________________

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18.What is the difference between a pulse wave and a periodic wave?___________________________________________________________________________________

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19.What feature of a wave increases when the source of vibration increases in energy?___________________________________________________________________________________

20.A standing wave is produced by plucking a string. The points along the plucked string that appear not to be vibrating are produced by _____________ interference.___________________________________________________________________________________

PROBLEM21.A mass on a spring that has been compressed 0.1 m has a restoring force of

20 N. What is the spring constant?

24.Radio waves from an FM station have a frequency of 103.1 MHz. If the waves travel with a speed of 3.00 108 ms, what is the wavelength?

25.Vibration of a certain frequency produces a standing wave on a stretched string that is 2.0 m long. The standing wave has 7 nodes and 5 antinodes. What is the wavelength of the wave that produces this standing wave?

Sound Chapter Test B

MULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. Of the following materials, sound waves travel fastest througha. helium at 0C. c. copper at 0C.b. air at 0C. d. air at 100C.

__________ 2. The point at which a ray crosses a wave front corresponds to a _____________ of a sound wave.a. wavelength c. troughb. compression d. source

__________ 3. A train moves down the track toward an observer. The sound from the train, as heard by the observer, is _______________ the sound heard by a passenger on the train.a. the same as c. higher in pitch thanb. a different timbre than d. lower in pitch than

__________ 4. If you are on a train, how will the pitch of the train’s whistle sound to you as the train moves?a. The pitch will become steadily higher.b. The pitch will become steadily lower.c. The pitch will not change.d. The pitch will become higher, and then become lower.

__________ 5. At a distance of 3 m, the intensity of a sound will be _____________ the intensity it was at a distance of 1 m.a. one-ninth c. 3 timesb. one-third d. 9 times

__________ 6. The intensity of a sound at any distance from the source is directly proportional to the sound’sa. wavelength. c. power.b. pitch. d. frequency.

__________ 7. If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 100, the new decibel level will increasea. by two units. c. by a factor of 10.b. to twice the old one. d. by 20 units.

__________ 8. The Tacoma Narrows bridge collapsed in 1940 when winds caused ______________ to build up in the bridge.a. a compression wave c. a standing waveb. a longitudinal wave d. friction

__________ 9. For a standing wave in an air column in a pipe that is open at both ends, there must be at leasta. one node and one antinode.b. two nodes and one antinode.c. two antinodes and one node.d. two nodes and two antinodes.

__________ 10. If a guitar string has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz, what is the frequency of its second harmonic?a. 250 Hz c. 1000 Hzb. 750 Hz d. 2000 Hz

__________ 11. Musical instruments of different types playing the same note may often be identified by the ______________ of their sounds.a. pitch c. fundamental frequencyb. intensity d. timbre

__________ 12. How many beats per second are heard when two vibrating tuning forks having frequencies of 342 Hz and 345 Hz are held side by side?a. 687 Hz c. 5 Hzb. 343.5 Hz d. 3 Hz

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13._In the figure shown above, a beat occurs ata. t1. c. t3.b. t2. d. t1 and t3.

SHORT ANSWER

14.Unlike a transverse wave on a rope, sound travels as a(n) ___________ wave.___________________________________________________________________________________

15.Each trough of a sine wave used to represent a sound wave corresponds to a(n) _______________ of the sound wave.___________________________________________________________________________________

16.What happens to pitch when the frequency of a sound wave increases?___________________________________________________________________________________

17.Under what conditions can a spherical wave front be regarded as a plane wave front? Explain.___________________________________________________________________________________

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18.Describe any changes in pitch of the sound a stationary observer hears from the siren of an ambulance as the ambulance passes the observer.___________________________________________________________________________________

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19.What happens to the intensity of a sound as the distance from the source increases from 10 m to 20 m? Explain.___________________________________________________________________________________

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20.Suppose you play a music CD in a room where there is a piano. During the silence between songs, you hear a musical note coming from the piano, but no one has touched the piano. Explain your observation.___________________________________________________________________________________

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21.It is possible for a highly amplified musical note to cause a crystal goblet to shatter. Explain how this might occur.___________________________________________________________________________________

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PROBLEM22.What is the intensity of sound waves produced by a trumpet at a distance of 1.6 m when the power output of the trumpet is

0.30 W?

25.As two notes are sounded, 6 beats per second are heard. The frequency of one note is 571 Hz. What is the frequency of the other note?

Light and Reflection

Chapter Test BMULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. What is the wavelength of microwaves of 3.0 109 Hz frequency?a. 0.050 m c. 0.10 mb. 0.060 m d. 0.20 m

__________ 2. What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave with a wavelength of 1.0 105 m?a. 1.0 1013 Hz c. 3.0 1013 Hzb. 3.0 103 Hz d. 1.0 103 Hz

__________ 3. When red light is compared with violet light,a. both have the same frequency.b. both have the same wavelength.c. both travel at the same speed.d. red light travels faster than violet light.

__________ 4. The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and speed holds for light waves becausea. light travels slower in a vacuum than in air.b. all forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at a single speed in a vacuum.c. light travels in straight lines.d. different forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at different speeds.

__________ 5. If you are reading a book and you move twice as far away from the light source, how does the brightness at the new distance compare with that at the old distance? It isa. one-eighth as bright. c. one-half as bright.b. one-fourth as bright. d. twice as bright.

__________ 6. Snow reflects almost all of the light incident upon it. However, a single beam of light is not reflected in the form of parallel rays. This is an example of _______________ reflection off a _______________ surface.a. regular, rough c. diffuse, specularb. regular, specular d. diffuse, rough

Chapter Test B continued

__________ 7. When incoming rays of light strike a flat mirror at an angle close to the surface of the mirror, the reflected rays area. inclined high above the mirror’s surface.b. parallel to the mirror’s surface.c. perpendicular to the mirror’s surface.d. close to the mirror’s surface.

__________ 8. If a light ray strikes a flat mirror at an angle of 29 from the normal, the reflected ray will bea. 29 from the normal. c. 29 from the mirror’s surface.b. 27 from the normal. d. 61 from the normal.

__________ 9. When two parallel mirrors are placed so that their reflective sides face each other, _______________ images form. This is because the image in one mirror becomes the _______________ for the other mirror.a. multiple, object c. inverted, center of curvatureb. reduced, virtual image d. enlarged, focal point

__________ 10. A concave mirror with a focal length of 10.0 cm creates a real image 30.0 cm away on its principal axis. How far from the mirror is the corresponding object?a. 20 cm c. 7.5 cmb. 15 cm d. 5.0 cm

__________ 11. In the diagram shown above, the image of object B would bea. virtual, enlarged, and inverted.b. real, enlarged, and upright.c. virtual, reduced, and upright.d. virtual, enlarged, and upright.

Chapter Test B continued

__________ 12. In the diagram shown above, the image of object B would bea. real, reduced, and upright.b. virtual, enlarged, and upright.c. virtual, reduced, and inverted.d. virtual, reduced, and upright.

__________ 13. When parallel rays that are also parallel to the principal axis strike a spherical mirror, rays that strike the mirror _______________ the principal axis are focused at the focal point. Those rays that strike the mirror _______________ the principal axis are focused at points between the mirror and the focal point.a. perpendicular to, far fromb. close to, perpendicular to

c. close to, far fromd. far from, close to

__________ 14. If you looked at a light through the lenses from two polarizingsunglasses that were overlapped at right angles to each other,a. all of the light would pass through.b. most of the light would pass through.c. little of the light would pass through.d. none of the light would pass through.

SHORT ANSWER15. Why is the ultraviolet portion of the electromagnetic spectrum, not the microwave or infrared red portion, used to sterilize

medical instruments?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

16.The electromagnetic spectrum is continuous and there is no sharp division between one kind of wave and the next. Assuming that the preceding statement is true, how do physicists distinguish one type of electromagnetic wave from another?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

17. How are the terms luminous flux and illuminance related to each other?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

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18. If a light ray strikes a flat mirror with an angle of incidence equal to 52, what is the angle of reflection? Explain.___________________________________________________________________________________

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Refraction

Chapter Test BMULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. Which is an example of refraction?a. A parabolic mirror in a headlight focuses light into a beam.b. A fish appears closer to the surface of the water than it really is when observed from a riverbank.c. In a mirror, when you lift your right arm, the left arm of your image is raised.d. Light is bent slightly around corners.

__________ 2. The _______________ of light can change when light is refracted because the velocity changes.a. frequency c. wavelengthb. medium d. transparency

__________ 3. When a light ray moves from air into glass, which has a higher index of refraction, its path isa. bent toward the normal.b. bent away from the normal.c. parallel to the normal.d. not bent.

__________ 4. When a light ray passes from water (n 1.333) into diamond(n 2.419) at an angle of 45, its path isa. bent toward the normal.b. bent away from the normal.c. parallel to the normal.d. not bent.

__________ 5. When a light ray passes from zircon (n 1.923) into fluorite(n = 1.434) at an angle of 60, its path isa. bent toward the normal. c. parallel to the normal.b. bent away from the normal. d. not bent.

__________

__________ 7. All of the following images can be formed by a converging lens except which one?a. virtual, upright, and magnifiedb. real and pointc. real, inverted, and magnifiedd. real, upright, and magnified

__________

__________ 10. If atmospheric refraction did not occur, how would the apparent time of sunrise and sunset be changed?a. Both would be later.b. Both would be earlier.c. Sunrise would be later, and sunset would be earlier.d. Sunrise would be earlier, and sunset would be later.

SHORT ANSWER11.What type of situation will produce the largest amount of bending when a light ray crosses the boundary between two

transparent media?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

12.How are two converging lenses used to view an object in a compound microscope?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

13.Why is it impossible to see an atom with a compound microscope?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

14.No refraction occurs when a light ray that is parallel to the normal strikes a transparent medium. Use the wave model of light to explain why.___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

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15.What is the position and kind of image produced by the lens shown below? Draw a ray diagram to support your answer.___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

18.What is dispersion?___________________________________________________________________________________

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WS 8: Ch 15 section 2 Diffraction (p. 526 – 533)

1. The bending of a wave when encountering an obstacle, opening, or edge is called ________________________.

2. An interference pattern, like the one produced with double slit interference, is produced when light passes through a single narrow slit. This is called a _________________________ pattern, and is evidence of light interfering with

itself. In order to understand this phenomena, we invoke __________________________ principle, which states that a single slit can be viewed as a source of multiple point sources (wavelets) of light. In other words, light from ________ portion of the slit can interfere with light from _________________ portion of the slit.

3. Diffraction becomes more evident as the width of the slit is ________________________.

4. In diffraction, longer waves tend to bend ________________(more/less) than shorter waves.For this reason, ___________________ waves are best suited for communication around buildings and mountains.

5. Diffraction is the reason why the edges of shadows ___________(are/aren’t) sharp.

6. Diffraction gratings are used inside ______________________ to disperse white light in order to see characteristic wavelengths that are unique to each ____________________.

Section Quiz: Current and ResistanceWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. Electric current in a wire is thea. number of electric charges moving from one location to another in the wire.b. net movement of electrical energy through the wire.c. rate at which electric charges move through an area of the wire.d. rate at which electrical energy is used to move charges through the wire.

__________ 2. One ampere of current is the movement of ______________ through a given area in one second.a. one coulomb of chargeb. one volt of potential differencec. one joule of energyd. one electron

__________ 3. The diagram above represents a wire in which the net flow of electrons is to the right. The direction of the conventional current in the wirea. depends on the potential difference.b. is to the left.c. is the same direction as the electron flow.d. cannot be determined.

__________ 4. The speed at which an electron moves in an electric field in a conductor is thea. speed of light.b. average collision speed.c. drift velocity.

d. average electron speed.

__________ 5. When a current moves through a copper conductor, electrons collide with copper atoms. The result of these collisions isa. an increase in voltage.b. a decrease in resistance.c. an increase in temperature.d. a decrease in voltage.

__________ 6. What is the potential difference across a 10 resistor if the current in the resistor is 3.0 A?a. 0.3 Vb. 3 Vc. 30 Vd. 15 A

__________ 7. The current of a non-ohmic material is plotted against the applied potential. How would you describe the resulting graph?a. The graph will have a constant positive slope.

b. The graph will have a variable positive slope.c. The graph will have a variable negative slope.d. The graph will have a constant negative slope.

__________ 8. Which factor is least likely to affect the resistance of a conductor?a. the length of the conductorb. the temperature of the conductorc. the overall shape of the conductord. the material the conductor is made from

9. When a light switch is turned on, the light comes on almost instantly. Why does the light come on so quickly if the drift velocity of the electrons in the wires is very small?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

10.A current of 295 A passes through an automobile starter motor. How long does the starter motor operate if 377 coulombs pass through the starter?

Section Quiz: Electric PowerWrite the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.

__________ 1. A generator converts ______________ energy into electrical energy.a. chemicalb. mechanicalc. kineticd. potential

__________ 2. Electrical current in which there is no net motion of the charge carriers isa. direct current.b. alternating current.c. static current.d. static electricity.

__________ 3. In alternating current, the charge carriers movea. in all directions.b. in only one direction.c. repeatedly in one direction then in the opposite direction.d. from a lower to a higher electric potential.

__________ 4. Electrical appliances have labels that state the power used by the appliance. What does the power rating listed on the label represent?a. the amount of current the appliance usesb. the amount of electrical energy converted to heat or light by the appliancec. how quickly the appliance heats upd. the amount of energy converted each second into other forms of energy

__________ 5. Electric power is the rate at which charge carriersa. pass through an area.b. do work.c. move through a potential difference.d. collide with atoms.

__________ 6. The phenomenon called I2R loss is also known asa. joule heating.b. resistance.c. ohmic energy.d. alternating current loss.

__________ 7. Which statement is correct regarding electric power?a. Electric power equals current times resistance.b. Electric power equals the amount of electrical energy used by a device.c. Electric power equals the current times potential difference.d. Electric power equals the amount of electrical energy converted to other forms of energy.

__________ 8. A certain circuit connected to a 1.5 V battery dissipates 2.0 W of power. If a second battery is added to the circuit, resulting in a potential difference of 3.0 V, what power will be dissipated? Assume that the resistance of the circuit does not change.a. 0.50 Wb. 1.0 Wc. 2.0 Wd. 4.0 W

9. Explain how alternating current can deliver energy to a motor without any net flow of electrons through the motor.___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

10.A microwave oven connected to a 117 V outlet operates at a current of 8.7 A. If the microwave oven is operated exactly 1 hour each day for 28 days, what is the cost of operating this microwave oven if the cost of electric energy is $0.115 per kWh?

Circuits and Circuit Elements

Chapter Test AMULTIPLE CHOICEIn the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes each statement or best answers each question.

__________ 1. Which of the following is the best description of a schematic diagram?a. uses pictures to represent the parts of a circuitb. determines the location of the parts of a circuitc. shows the parts of a circuit and how the parts connect to each otherd. shows some of the parts that make up a circuit

__________ 2. A circuit has a continuous path through which charge can flow from a voltage source to a device that uses electrical energy. What is the name of this type of circuit?a. a short circuit c. an open circuitb. a closed circuit d. a circuit schematic

__________ 3. How does the potential difference across the bulb in a flashlight compare with the terminal voltage of the batteries used to power the flashlight?a. The potential difference is greater than the terminal voltage.b. The potential difference is less than the terminal voltage.c. The potential difference is equal to the terminal voltage.d. It cannot be determined unless the internal resistance of the batteries is known.

__________ 4. Three resistors connected in series carry currents labeled I1, I2, and I3, respectively. Which of the following expresses the total current, It, in the system made up of the three resistors in series?a. It I1 + I2 + I3 c. It I1 I2 I3

b. d.

__________ 5. Three resistors connected in series have potential differences across them labeled V1, V2, and V3. Which of the following expresses the potential difference taken over the three resistors together?a. Vt V1 V2 V3

b.c. Vt V1 V2 V3

d.

__________ 6. Three resistors with values of R1, R2, and R3 are connected in series. Which of the following expresses the total resistance, Req, of the three resistors?a. Req R1 R2 R3 c. Req R1 R2 R3

b. d.

__________ 7. Three resistors connected in parallel carry currents labeled I1, I2, and I3. Which of the following expresses the total current It in the combined system?a. It = I1 I2 I3 c. It I1 I2 I3

b. d.

__________ 8. Three resistors connected in parallel have potential differences across them labeled V1, V2, and V3. Which of the following expresses the potential difference across all three resistors?a. Vt = V1 V2 V3 c. Vt V1 V2 V3

b. d.

__________ 9. Three resistors with values of R1, R2, and R3 are connected in parallel. Which of the following expresses the total resistance, Req, of the three resistors?a. Req R1 R2 R3 c. Req R1 R2 R3

b. d.

__________ 10. Three resistors with values of 3.0 , 6.0 , and 12 are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination?a. 0.26 c. 9.0 b. 1.7 d. 33

__________ 11. The equivalent resistance of a complex circuit is usually determined bya. inspection.b. simplifying the circuit into groups of series and parallel circuits.c. adding and subtracting individual resistances.d. dividing the sum of the individual resistances by the number of resistances.

__________ 12. To find the current in a complex circuit, it is necessary to know thea. potential difference in each device in the circuit.b. current in each device in the circuit.c. equivalent resistance of the circuit.d. number of branches in the circuit.

__________ 13. Two resistors with values of 6.0 and 12 are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series with a 4.0 resistor. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination?a. 0.50 c. 8.0 b. 2.0 d. 22

__________ 14. What is the equivalent resistance for the resistors in the figure shown above?a. 1.3 c. 3.0 b. 2.2 d. 0.75

__________ 15. In any complex resistance circuit, the voltage across any resistor in the circuit is alwaysa. less than the voltage source.b. equal to or less than the voltage source.c. equal to the voltage source.d. greater than the voltage source.

SHORT ANSWER

16. Identify the types of elements in the schematic diagram above and the number of each type.

___________________________________________________________________________________

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17.Which bulb or bulbs will have a current in the schematic diagram shown on the right?_______________________________________________

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18.Why does the potential difference measured at the terminals of a battery decrease as the amount of current supplied to a load increases?___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

PROBLEM19.A current of 0.20 A passes through a 3.0 resistor. The resistor is connected in series with a 6.0 V battery and an unknown

resistor. What is the resistance value of the unknown resistor?

20.Three resistors with values of 27 , 81 , 16 , respectively, are connected in parallel. What is their equivalent resistance?

21.Use Kirchhoff’s Rules to solve for the currents running through the wires. Write out all relevant equations.

Solve for all blanks.

Solve for Req