Post on 02-Jun-2018
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
1/14
K
KUNDAN
PRACTICE SET-2
IBPS RRB (Officers) Exam
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each question below are given
three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
1. Statements: All questions are answers.
No answer is correct.
Conclusions: I. At least some questions are correct.
II. No question is correct.
2. Statements: No river is a field.
Some fields are grasses.
Conclusions: I. No grass is a river.
II. Some grasses are definitely not
fields.
3. Statements: Some rows are lines.
All lines are straight.
Conclusions: I. At least some rows are straight.
II. All straight are lines.
4. Statements: All caps are round.
All round are toys.
Conclusions: I. All caps are toys.
II. At least some toys are round.
5. Statements: Some vehicles are black.
Some black are cars.
Conclusions: I. Some cars are vehicles.
II. All cars being vehicles is a
possibility.
Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, a relationship
between different elements is shown in the statement(s). Thestatements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
6. Statement: S R = Q > P OConclusions: I.P < S II.OR
7. Statements: H > X L; K < XConclusions: I.L < K II.H > K
8. Statements: A = B C; A > DConclusions: I.B > D II.D < C
9. Statement: Q P > N = J RConclusions: I.QR II.J = P
10. Statement: J E F = G > HConclusions: I.F > H II.HEDirections (Q. 11-16): Study the following information
and answer the given questions:
Eight persons A, Z, B, Y, C, X, D and E are sitting around
a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the
same order. E sits second to the right of Y. Y is not an immediate
neighbour of either A or C. C sits third to the right of A. X and
Z are immediate neighbours. D is not an immediate neighbour
of E.
11. Who sits second to the right of the one who sits on the
immediate right of D?
1) X 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) None of these
12. How many persons sit between A and X?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
13. Who sits third to the right of E?
1) Z 2) D 3) X
4) Either Z or X 5) None of these
14. What is the position of Z with respect to B?
1) Immediate right 2) Third to the right
3) Fourth to the left 4) Either 2) or 3)5) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on the information given above and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) EA 2) YB 3) XE 4) CD 5) None of these
16. If X is on the immediate right of A then who among the
following sits third to the left of Z?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (Q. 17-21): Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions given below:
4 D # Q H I 3 L @ R E 6 1 M % F A 7 J P U B 5 8 $ K 9
17. How many such symbols are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately preceded andalso immediately followed by a consonant?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) None 5) None of these
18. How many such numbers are there in the given
arrangement each of which is immediate preceded by a
vowel?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None
19. If all the symbols are dropped from the given arrangement
which element will be ninth from the right end?
1) 7 2) A 3) J 4) E 5) None of these
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
2/14
K
KUNDAN
20. Which element is third to the right of fifteenth from the
right end?
1) E 2) M 3) 7 4) @ 5) None of these
21. 4 is related to H in the same way as L is related to 6.
Following the same pattern, F is related to which of the
following?
1) % 2) P 3) U 4) 1 5) None of these22. In a certain code DEPTH is written as 7$%#6 and
POWDER is written as %487$5. How is WORTH written
in that code?
1) 854%6 2) 845#6 3) 745%#
4) 745#6 5) None of these
23. Avinash walked 15 metres towards north, took a left turn
and walked 15 metres, and again he took a right turn and
walked 10 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
1) m345 2) m1725 3) m3410
4) m3415 5) None of these
24. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word
JUSTIFY, each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have between them in the
English alphabet?
1) One 2) None 3) Two
4) Three 5) None of these
25. MP is related to HK in the same way as IL is related
to
1) DG 2) OR 3) NQ
4) DW 5) None of these
26. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English
word with the second, the third, the seventh and the
eighth letter of the word DUPLICATE, which of the
following will be the second letter of that word? If nosuch word can be formed, give X as the answer and if
more than one such word can be formed, give Y as the
answer.
1) A 2) Y 3) P 4) T 5) X
27. How many meaningful English words can be made with
the letters EMNA, using each letter only once in each
word?
1) One 2) Three 3) Five
4) Four 5) More than five
Directions (Q. 28-33): Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, U, V, W and X are sitting in two
parallel rows containing four people in such a way that thereis an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, L,
M, N and O are sitting and all of them are facing north. In row
2, U, V, W and X are sitting and all of them are facing south
but not necessarily in the same order. Both rows are facing
each other.
X sits second to the left of V. L faces the immediate
neighbour of X. Only one person sits between L and N. U
does not face L. M is not an immediate neighbour of L.
28. Who among the following faces W?
1) M 2) N 3) L 4) V 5) None of these
29. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of
the person who faces N?
1) V 2) U 3) X 4) W 5) None of these
30. Who among the following faces M?
1) V 2) X 3) W 4) L 5) None of these
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) V 2) W 3) M
4) O 5) L
32. Who among the following sits on the immediate left of
O?
1) X 2) N 3) L 4) M 5) None of these
33. Which of the following statements is true about U?
1) U sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.
2) U faces L.
3) U sits on the immediate right of W.
4) U faces N.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 34-38): Study the following arrangementcarefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language write in paper is coded as la
sa ka, read and write is coded as ka na pa, and pen and
paper is coded as la na ta.
34. What does sa stand for?
1) write 2) paper 3) in
4) and 5) None of these
35. What may be the code for write with pen?
1) ka ta sa 2) ma ka ta 3) ka pa ta
4) la na ta 5) None of these
36. How will read paper be coded?
1) pa la 2) la na 3) ka ta
4) pa tu 5) None of these37. What will be the code for sa na ta?
1) in read write 2) read and in 3) pen and in
4) pen red write 5) None of these
38. What is the code for and?
1) sa 2) na 3) pa
4) ka 5) ta
Directions (39-40): Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
39. 1) Veteran 2) Mature 3) Unfamiliar
4) Acquainted 5) Experienced
40. 1) Dispute 2) Conflict 3) Brawl
4) Wrangle 5) Accord
Test-II: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 41-45): What will come in place of
question mark (?) in the following questions?
41. 28(?))145()107( 322
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6
4) 3 5) 6
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
3/14
K
KUNDAN
42. 64% of 409600 1.6 = ? 2.56
1) 10 2) 256 3) 160 4) 100 5) 64
43. 38.4% of 1450 + 78.2% of 240 ?2= 20% of 77.4
1) 17 2) 19 3) 27 4) 81 5) 23
44. (2.89)4 (4913 1000)3 (0.17 10)3= (1.7)? 3
1) 4 2) 6 3) 2 4) 5 5) 0
45. 3 832.5 + 35% of 6500 ?% of 1250 = 222.8
1) 164.32 2) 184.23 3) 174.32
4) 194.23 5) 144.321
Directions (Q. 46-50): What approximate value should
come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
46. 69% of 1298 + 27% of 729 469 = ?
1) 524 2) 624 3) 725 4) 583 5) 423
47. 9685 125 14 = ? 6
1) 181 2) 201 3) 281 4) 171 5) 168
48. (67.5)2 (43.2)2 (12.9)2= ?
1) 2501 2) 2450 3) 2425
4) 2525 5) 5225
49. 169% of 1798.98 + 6.25% of 1452 349% of 749 = ?
1) 428 2) 602 3) 528 4) 628 5) 728
50. 185.25650of%?13315.3
779 3
1) 35 2) 25 3) 45 4) 55 5) 65
Directions (Q. 51-53): In the following number series,
only one number is wrong. Find out that number.
51. 2 36 150 393 810 1452 2366
1) 810 2) 393 3) 36
4) 2 5) 1452
52. 88 115 145 175 208 243 280
1) 88 2) 175 3) 145
4) 243 5) 280
53. 448 294 180 100 48 19 4
1) 4 2) 180 3) 294
4) 100 5) 19
54. Two trains are moving in opposite directions on parallel
tracks at the speed of 48 kmph and 96 kmph respectively.
The first train passes a telegraph pole in 6 seconds
whereas the second train passes the pole in 12 seconds.
Find the time taken by the train to cross each other
completely.
1) 16 sec 2) 15 sec 3) 10 sec
4) 18 sec 5) None of these55. The cost of carpeting a room 4m wide with a carpet at
`4.50 per m2 is`180. The length of the room is
1) 6m 2) 4m 3) 8m
4) 10m 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 56-58): In the following questions two
equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the
equations and give answer
1) if x < y 2) if x y3) if x y 4) if x > y5) if x = y or no relationship can be established
56. I. 21
)1681(y4x3 II. 21
)961(y2x3
57. I. 3x2 (6 + 17 )x + 172 = 0
II. 10y2 (15 + 17 ) 173 = 0
58. I. x2 16x + 63 = 0 II.y2 2y 35 = 0
Directions (Q. 59-60): A box contains 9 red, 11 greenand 12 yellow balls. Find out in how many ways can 3 balls be
selected so that
59. All 3 balls are of the same colour.
1) 459 2) 468 3) 469
4) 569 5) None of these
60. All three balls are of different colours.
1) 1178 2) 1188 3) 1172
4) 1168 5) None of these
61. 10 years ago, Sonias mother was 4 times older than her
daughter. After 8 years, the mother will be twice as old as
her daughter. Find the present age of Sonia.
1) 20 years 2) 10 years 3) 19 years
4) 18 years 5) 24 years
62. `3757 is to be divided between A and B such that As
share at the end of 7 years may be equal to Bs share at
the end of 9 years. If rate per cent be 10% per annum
compound interest, Bs share is
1)`1400 2)`2057 3)`1870
4)`1570 5)`1700
63. Find the volume of a triangular prism whose height is
30m and the sides of whose base are 21m, 20m and 13m
respectively.
1) 3780m3 2) 3870m3 3) 5404m3
4) 6804 m3 5) None of these
64. Three pots of size 3 litres, 4 litres and 5 litres containmixture of milk and water in the ratio of 2 : 3, 3 : 7 and
4 : 11 respectively. The contents of all the three pots are
poured into a single vessel. Find the ratio of milk to
water in the resulting mixture.
1) 14 : 30 2) 15 : 31 3) 31 : 14
4) 14 : 31 5) None of these
65. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles
downstream than to travel the same distance upstream.
If the speed of the boat in still water is 10 mph the speed
of the stream is
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
4/14
K
KUNDAN
1) 2 mph 2) 4.5 mph 3) 4 mph
4) 5.5 mph 5) 3 mph
Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the information carefully
and answer the questions that follow:
The following pie-chart shows the percentage of
employees of Bank X who are interested in different sports
activities. Total number of employees = 65000
Cricket30%
Gymnastics2.5%
Hockey
Athletics20%
Football21%
Baseball
14.5%
12%
66. The number of employees interested in Athletics is
approximately what per cent of the number of employees
interested in Baseball?
1) 138% 2) 128% 3) 148%
4) 127% 5) None of these
67. What is the difference between the number of employees
interested in Cricket and the total number of employees
interested in Baseball, Hockey and Gymnastics together?
1) 6500 2) 650 3) 6565
4) 6050 5) 1300
68. What is the ratio of employees interested in Gymnastics
to the number of employees interested in Baseball?1) 5 : 39 2) 29 : 5 3) 25 : 29 4) 14 : 29 5) 5 : 29
69. The number of employees interested in Hockey is
approximately what per cent of the employees interested
in Football, Atheletics and Baseball together?
1) 32% 2) 42% 3) 22% 4) 52% 5) 18%
70. The number of employees interested in Gymnastics is
what percentage of the number of employees interested
in Hockey? (Calculate approximate percentage)
1) 21% 2) 31% 3) %3
216
4) %3
133 5) 50%
Directions (Q. 71-75): Study the following table carefully
and answer the questions given below:
The table shows the number of people working in
various departments of various organisations.
DepartmentOrganisation
P Q R S T
Production 1050 1015 976 888 1004
IT 1017 960 786 1025 963
Accounts 1382 1384 1275 1300 1290
Legal 786 745 801 800 735
Finance 1542 1545 1550 1570 1580
Marketing 48 54 36 30 53
71. The total number of employees working in the Marketing
Departments is approximately what per cent of the total
number of employees working in the Production
Departments of all the organisations together?
1) 4.5% 2) 7% 3) 8.5% 4) 10% 5) 12%
72. What is the approximate difference between the average
number of people working in the Accounts Departments
and that in the Finance Departments of all the
organisations together?
1) 331 2) 231 3) 430 4) 546 5) 210
73. What is the ratio of the total number of employees working
in Organisation P to the total number of employeesworking in Organisation T?
1) 45 : 233 2) 225 : 233 3) 125 : 233
4) 233 : 225 5) 625 : 233
74. What is the total number of employees working in all
departments of all the organisations together?
1) 28910 2) 27690 3) 28901
4) 26960 5) 28190
75. The number of people working in the IT Department of
Organisation Q is approximately what per cent of the
total number of employees working in Organisation Q?
1) 27% 2) 15% 3) 17% 4) 12% 5) 29%
Directions (Q. 76-80): Study the following information
carefully to answer that follow.
A bank has five different types of accounts, viz Savings
Account, Recurring Account, NRI Account, Current Account
and Senior Citizenship Account. The total number of account
holders is 2050. 24% of the total accounts are Savings
Accounts. One-fifth of the total number of accounts is Current
Account. 16% of the total accounts are NRI Accounts.
Remaining accounts are either Senior Citizenship Accounts
or Recurring Accounts. The number of Recurring Accounts
is 182 more than the number of Senior Citizenship Accounts.
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
5/14
K
KUNDAN
76. What is the ratio of the total number of Current Accounts
to the total number of Senior Citizenship and Recurring
Accounts together?
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 3 : 4
4) 7 : 6 5) None of these
77. If 20% of Current Accounts are non-operative, what is
the number of Current Accounts which are operative?1) 382 2) 164 3) 328 4) 428 5) 82
78. The number of NRI accounts is approximately what per
cent of the total number of Savings Accounts and Current
Accounts together?
1) 63% 2) 26% 3) 46%
4) 56% 5) 36%
79. What is the total number of Senior Citizenship, NRI and
Current Accounts together?
1) 1027 2) 1157 3) 1057
4) 957 5) 1257
80. What is the difference between the total number of Senior
Citizenship and Savings Accounts together and the
number of Recurring Accounts?1) 310 2) 410 3) 210
4) 390 5) 610
Test-III: General Awareness
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
81. Which of the following is the currency of Malaysia?
1) Dollar 2) Ngultrum 3) Ringgit
4) Baht 5) None of these
82. What is the full form of the term CDR?
1) Consortium for Debt Restructuring
2) Corporate Debt Refinancing3) Consortium for Debt Refinancing
4) Corporate Debt Restructuring
5) None of these
83. Who among the following has been honoured with the
prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadhbhavna Award
2013 for his contribution towards promotion of communal
harmony and peace?
1) Hariprasad Chaurasia 2) Amjad Ali Khan
3) Shivkumar Sharma 4) Ustad Zakir Hussain
5) None of these
84. Raghuram Govinda Rajan is holding which of the
following positions at present?
1) Economic Advisor to the Prime Minister2) Financial Services Secretary
3) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
4) Economic Affairs Secretary
5) None of these
85. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT associated
with the game of football?
1) Confederations Cup 2) Santosh Trophy
3) Ranji Trophy 4) Durand Cup
5) DCM Trophy
86. Which of the following is the name of a skill development
programme being implemented in the state of Jammu and
Kashmir at present?
1) Hunar 2) Himayat 3) Kaushal
4) Aagaz 5) None of these
87. Which of the following is an example of intangible assets?
1) Furniture 2) Machinery 3) Inventory
4) Trademarks 5) None of these88. Which of the following terms is associated with the game
of tennis?
1) Birdie 2) Double fault 3) Reti opening
4) Checkmate 5) None of these
89. Which of the following states is the largest Tasar Silk
producing state of the country?
1) Karnataka 2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Jharkhand 4) West Bengal
5) None of these
90. Knot is the unit of measurement of which of the
following?
1) Speed of a spacecraft 2) Speed of a ship
3) Resistance 4) Sound level5) None of these
91. Which of the following taxes is levied on the import and
export of goods?
1) Customs duty 2) Excise duty
3) Value Added Tax 4) Octroi
5) None of these
92. Which of the following rates/ratios is NOT correctly
matched as per the latest statistics?
1) Repo rate 7.25 per cent
2) Reverse repo rate 6.25 per cent
3) Cash Reserve Ratio 4 per cent
4) Bank rate 8.25 per cent
5) None of the above93. What is bad debt?
1) A debt that is not collectible and therefore worthless
to the creditor
2) A debt given to an individual or firm with criminal
background
3) A loan taken on high rate of interest
4) A loan given for agriculture and allied activities
5) None of these
94. Angstrom is the unit of
1) length 2) speed
3) density 4) electric current
5) None of these
95. Expand the term RCEP.
1) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
2) Regional Cooperation for Economic Partnership
3) Regional Cooperative Economic Partnership
4) Regional Cooperation on Economic Policies
5) None of these
96. Tshering Tobgay was on a visit to India recently. He is
the present Prime Minister of
1) Myanmar 2) Bhutan 3) South Korea
4) Thailand 5) None of these
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
6/14
K
KUNDAN
97. Identify the person who is a famous sportsman among
the following.
1) Sachin Pilot 2) Jitendra Singh 3) Sushil Kumar
4) Durga Shakti Nagpal 5) None of these
98. India has planned to double bilateral trade with which of
the following countries to USD 10 bn in next three years?
Since the free trade agreement become operational in2000, trade has multiplied by as much as eight times
between the two countries.
1) Sri Lanka 2) Thailand 3) Myanmar
4) Singapore 5) None of these
99. Indias ace player Aditya Mehta bagged gold medal in
the World Games in Cali, Colombia recently in
1) Chess 2) Badminton 3) Snooker
4) Squash 5) None of these
100. Indias women archery team beat which of the following
countries to clinch recurve team gold medal in Archery
World Cup in Poland recently? It is their second World
Cup title in a row.
1) China 2) South Korea 3) Australia4) Russia 5) None of these
101. Which of the following is the short form of the
programme launched for the economic empowerment of
persons with profound disabilities in India?
1) MGNREGA 2) SCOPE 3) ASHA
4) ARUNIM 5) None of these
102. Who among the following has been appointed as the
new Chairman and Managing Director of the Central
Bank of India?
1) SS Mundra 2) Rajeev Rishi 3) D Sarkar
4) Archana Bhargava 5) None of these
103. In a blow to the Odisha govts plan for bauxite mining on
the Niyamgiri hills, all the 12 gram sabhas of the regionrejected the proposal recently. The state govt was
planning to allow which of the following companies for
bauxite mining?
1) NALCO 2) BALCO
3) Jindal Aluminium Ltd 4) Vedanta
5) None of these
104. Which of the following is NOT an organised sector in
India?
1) Regional Rural Banks
2) Cooperative Banks
3) Private Banks
4) Chit funds and money lenders
5) None of these
105. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
soft loan?
1) It is a loan given on easy terms and long repayment
period.
2) It is a loan that can be easily availed.
3) It is a loan bearing low rate of interest.
4) It is loan which is interest-free for a certain period
and interest is charged only afterwards.
5) None of these
106. Chief Minister Nabam Tuki launched food security
ordinance in his state on the eve of former PM Rajiv
Gandhis birth anniversary recently. Nagam Tuki is the
present CM of
1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Nagaland
3) Manipur 4) Tripura
5) None of these107. Which of the following types of goods is categorised as
white goods?
1) Cosmetic items
2) Goods imported from Western countries
3) Durable consumer goods
4) Goods that are painted in white colour only
5) None of these
108. Michel Djotodia has been sworn in as the new President
of which of the following countries recently?
1) Sudan 2) Chad 3) Nigeria
4) Central African Republic 5) None of these
109. Which of the following games has/have been excluded
from the upcoming 2014 Glasgow Commonwealth Games?1) Team events in shooting
2) Greco-Roman Wrestling
3) Archery
4) All the above
5) None of these
110. Which of the following stock exchanges in India sacked
its Managing Director and CEO Anjani Sinha recently?
1) NSE 2) BSE 3) NCDEX
4) NSEL 5) None of these
111. Which of the following state govts has decided to
appoint Arogya Mitras in each privately run charitable
hospital to ensure that poor patients get treatment under
the Rajiv Gandhi Jeevandayi Yojana (RGJY) meant toassist patients Below Poverty Line (BPL)?
1) Maharashtra 2) Rajasthan
3) Delhi 4) Himachal Pradesh
5) None of these
112. Indian girls created history by winning countrys first-
ever bronze medal in the Womens Hockey Junior World
Cup. They defeated which of the following countries to
achieve this feat?
1) England 2) Pakistan 3) South Korea
4) Japan 5) None of these
113. As per the data released by the Central Statistical
Organisation (CSO), agriculture sector is estimated to
grow at ____ in 2012-13 at 2004-05 prices.
1) 1.9 per cent 2) 2.9 per cent 3) 3.9 per cent
4) 4.9 per cent 5) None of these
114. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a penalty of
`5,62,555 on which of the following banks recently for
violation of the terms of agreement with the RBI for
opening and maintaining currency chests? Earlier, the
RBI had imposed a penalty of`3 cr on the same bank for
violating know your customer (KYC)/anti-money
laundering norms.
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
7/14
K
KUNDAN
1) Punjab National Bank (PNB)
2) State Bank of India (SBI)
3) HDFC Bank
4) Axis Bank
5) None of these
115. Which of the following plans has been proposed by the
Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation inthe 12th Five Year Plan? It will replace the existing Swarna
Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY).
1) National Urban Livelihoods Mission
2) National Urban Employment Mission
3) Rashtriya Shahari Rozgar Yojana
4) Rajiv Gandhi Shahari Rozgar Yojana
5) None of these
116. The NSDF 50 scheme is associated with which of the
following?
1) To identify 50 athletes in various disciplines for
customised training to improve Indias Olympic
performance
2) To identify 50 MSMEs and provide them financialassistance to boost the manufacturing sector in the
country
3) To select 50 meritorious students from across the
country and provide them scholarships for higher
education
4) To identify 50 sites to be developed as manufacturing
hubs
5) None of these
117. Name the trap shooter who has been recommended for
the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2013. He
is the first Indian to win two back-to-back World Cup
gold medals.
1) Ronjan Sodhi 2) Rajkumari Rathore3) Vijay Kumar 4) Gagan Narang
5) None of these
118. The term Death Cross is associated with which of the
following?
1) Astronomy 2) Defence 3) Christianity
4) Stock Exchange 5) None of these
119. The Global Footprint Network, an international think
tank, observed 20th Aug as the World Overshoot Day.
What does it mean?
1) The population of the world crossed the 7-bn mark.
2) The world population used as much resources as the
earth can regenerate this year.
3) The population of the world is expected to start
decreasing after this day.
4) Our planet has regenerated as much natural resources
as we need for the whole year.
5) None of these
120. Who among the following has written the book My
Journey: Transforming Dreams into Actions?
1) Sachin Kundalkar 2) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam
3) Bipin Chandra 4) Sachin Garg
5) None of these
Test-IV: English Language
Directions (Q. 121-130): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each,
five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each
case.
Every banking company has to (121)its balance sheet
and profit-and-loss account annually at the end of the
calendar year or at the end of twelve months or on a date
(122)by the Central Government. The accounts have to be
audited by auditors (123) qualified to be auditors of
companies. Three (124)of the balance sheet, profit-and-loss
account and the auditors report have to be (125)as returns
to the Reserve Bank and to the Registrar of Companies.
Banking companies have also to furnish other returns like
return on maintenance of cash reserve, maintenance of liquid
assets etc. The Reserve Bank is (126)to inspect or conduct(127)of banking companies, their books and accounts. The
Board of Financial Supervision set (128)by the Reserve Bank
by (129)regulations framed under the RBI Act supervises
the (130)of banking companies.
121. 1) frame 2) prepare 3) look into
4) supervise 5) subscribe
122. 1) declared 2) promulgated 3) assumed
4) notified 5) upheld
123. 1) really 2) actually 3) duly
4) wholly 5) fully
124. 1) copies 2) statement 3) reports
4) notice 5) formats
125. 1) packed 2) asked 3) called for 4) submitted 5) forwarded
126. 1) powerful 2) mighty 3) inspector
4) incompetent 5) authorised
127. 1) scrutiny 2) search 3) functioning
4) supervise 5) checking
128. 1) out 2) off 3) in
4) forth 5) up
129. 1) compulsory 2) statutory 3) legal
4) formal 5) actual
130. 1) system 2) affairs 3) ideas
4) structure 5) role
Directions (Q. 131-135): Which of the phrases (1), (2),
(3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace theword/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No
correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
131. Customers of the bank who have lost a demand draft or
travellers cheque are required to give an indemnity
before the issuance of a fresh instrument in spiteofthe
lost one.
1) by dint of 2) in lieu of
3) for the sake of 4) instead of
5) No correction required
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
8/14
K
KUNDAN
132. The question whether the bank is resolved of itsliability
under a guarantee issued by it when the main contract is
suspended by a statute was considered by the Bombay
High Court a few years ago.
1) is abreast of its 2) is absolved of its
3) are refrain from their 4) are free of its
5) No correction required133. If the premium is not paid regularly, the policy lapsing
and revivingthe policy is complicated.
1) lapses and revival 2) lapsed and revival
3) lapsation and revival 4) lapses and reviving
5) No correction required
134. When money deposited by a customer is not repayable
on demand and is payable on the expiry of a specified
periodfrom the date of deposit, such a deposit is called
a Fixed Deposit.
1) end of a specific limit
2) finish of a specific period
3) pre determined month
4) expiry of the specified date5) No correction required
135. Those caught with inappropriate registration plates will
not longer be let outwith a meagre fine of `100.
1) will no longer be let off
2) will no long be let up
3) should no long be let down
4) must no longer be let on
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 136-140): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions given below.
(A) However, if scoundrels wear the cloak of patriotism,then that is nothing but hypocrisy which anyway
is not patriotism.
(B) Let us evaluate the statement.
(C) All these people were actually patriots and not
opportunists.
(D) Samuel Johnson said, Patriotism is the last refuge
of the scoundrel.
(E) Facts prove otherwise.
(F) If Samuel Johnsons statement is to be taken as the
literal truth, then George Washington, Churchill,
Lincoln, Mandela and Lee Kuan Yew have all been
scoundrels.
136. Which of the following should be the FIRSTsentence
after rearrangement?
1) F 2) D 3) A
4) E 5) C
137. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) A
138. Which of the following should be the THIRDsentence
after rearrangement?
1) F 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D
139. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) F
140. Which of the following should be the SECONDsentence
after rearrangement?
1) C 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) D
Directions (Q. 141-145): Each question below has twoblanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
141. The food security ordinance ________ recently is
expected to come up for ________ during this session.
1) brought, rehearsal 2) drafted, clarification
3) placed, explanation 4) promulgated, ratification
5) voted, poor
142. A big _________ for the UPA regime will be to push the
IndiaBangladesh land swap deal ________ a
constitutional amendment.
1) jolt, for 2) challenge, through
3) achievement, in 4) reward, with5) role, about
143. A tourist paradise, Udaipur is fast ________ as one of
the best ________ for education in country.
1) growing, sites 2) developing, careers
3) spreading, states 4) evolving, places
5) emerging, destinations
144. Had India not been partitioned, Pran would have been
the ________ of millions, having begun his leading-
man career _________ Noor Jehan in Lahore.
1) mindblowing, for 2) footprints, against
3) heartthrob, opposite 4) fingertips, with
5) eyewash, along with
145. The Italy has PM________ for end to racist insults________ the first black minister.
1) called, against 2) demanded, onto
3) requested, of 4) asked, for
5) wanted, on
Directions (Q. 146-150): Read each sentence to find
out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the
answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
146. 1) If we had Prajakta / 2) with us we would / 3) have
finished the job / 4) in just three hours. / 5) No error
147. 1) They were still talking / 2) about what they should / 3)
do when they heard the / 4) people shouting for help. / 5)
No error
148. 1) The practice of surrogacy will now become / 2) socially
more acceptable and popular in couples / 3) who are
unable to have children in / 4) a natural way because of
medical complications. / 5) No error
149. 1) But after doing what / 2) he did, he had better / 3) not
shown his face / 4) here, said the culprits neighbour. / 5)
No error
150. 1) The practice of bribe / 2) has become an integral part
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
9/14
K
KUNDAN
/3) of our lives, / 4) almost an accepted phenomenon. / 5)
No error
Directions (Q. 151-160): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
The Food Security Bill (FSB), 2013 promulgated recentlyaims to eradicatehunger from the country, but the means
adopted need serious reconsideration. FSB, under the
Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), aims to provide
doorstep delivery of subsidised food to nearly 75 per cent of
the rural and 50 per cent of the urban population. It also
seeks to empower women in households. The thrustof the
criticism against the FSB has been on issues like procurement,
storage, transportation, distribution, identification of
beneficiaries and pricing of foodgrains covered under the
scheme.
The FSB is motivated by two significant facts. First,
disturbing statistics: according to the National Family Health
Survey 2005-06, 43.5 per cent of children under the age offive are underweight, 33 per cent of women in the age group
of 15-49 have a body mass index below normal, and 78.9 per
cent of children in the age group of 6-35 months are anaemic.
Second, the influential Global Hunger Index (GHI) developed
by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI),
which has successfully galvanisedpolicymakers across the
world. The IFPRI has computed a GHI of 22.9 for India in
2012, with countries like Libya, Iran, Mexico, Brazil, Sri Lanka,
Pakistan and many others recording much better performance.
Unfortunately, the term global hunger index is a
misnomeras it does not, in its construction, take into account
the hungry. Actually, the term hunger itself is very
confusing and means different things to differentorganisations and policymakers. First and foremost, it evokes
images of the extreme discomfort associated with lack of food.
On the other hand, the United Nations Development
Programme defines it as a condition in which people lack the
basic food intake to provide them with the energy and
nutrients for fully productive lives.
The GHI takes into account, in equal weights,
undernourishment, child underweight and child mortality. The
indicator, undernourishment, is based on the share of the
population with insufficient (relative to a norm) calorie intake.
Child underweight is defined in terms of wasting and stunted
growth and child mortality in terms of death rates, both
reflecting an unhealthy environment. It is much too simplistic
to assume, without evidence, that either being underweight
or mortality is due to undernutrition (signifying deficiencies
in energy, protein, essential vitamins and minerals). Child
stunting and wasting, and mortality, are equally, if not more
likely, to be due to infections and illnesses due to insanitary
conditions that result in inadequate absorption of nutrients.
These in turn may be linked to inadequate maternal health or
childcare practices and inadequate access to health services,
safe water and toilet facilities. Thus, supply of food may be a
necessary but not sufficient condition for the improvement
of a part of the hunger index.
151. What is/are the basis of criticism against the Food
Security Bill? Give your answer in the context of the
given passage.
1) As per data released by the Central Govt, only 33%
of the population in rural areas and 27% populationin urban areas are BPL, but the Central Govt is going
to cover about 65% of the entire population of the
country.
2) This Bill will provide one more golden opportunity to
corrupt politicians of the ruling party to loot govt
treasury in the name of FSB.
3) The procurement, storage, transportation,
distribution and pricing of the food grains is a major
problem.
4) This bill is nothing but a play with the sentiments of
poor people of the country.
5) All the above
152. Which of the following statements is not true in thecontext of the given passage?
1) The percentage of anaemic children in the age group
of 6-35 months is about 79% as per National Family
Health Survey 2005-06.
2) According to the survey report, as mentioned in the
given passage, about one-third women in the age
group of 15-49 years have body mass index below
normal.
3) The Global Hunger Index for India in 2012 was 22.9,
which is not good.
4) The International Food Policy Research Institute,
which develops Global Hunger Index, is
headquartered in Geneva.5) All the above are true
153. Find the corr ect statement about the rece ntly
promulgated Food Security Bill.
(A) The Bill aims to woo voters in the upcoming General
Election 2014.
(B) It aims to provide delivery of subsidised food to
nearly three-fourths of the population in rural areas
and half of the total population in urban areas.
(C) It seeks women empowerment in households.
1) Only (A) and (C) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (B) 4) Only (A)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
154. Why does the author consider the term global hunger
index as a misnomer?
1) Because it does not cover the entire world population.
2) Because it does not take into account the hungry.
3) Because it takes into account only those population
who are not covered under poverty alleviation
programme.
4) Because it does not define the term poverty and
poor clearly.
5) None of these
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
10/14
K
KUNDAN
155. Which of the following is not taken into account while
preparing Global Hunger Index?
1) Calorie intake 2) Child mortality rate
3) Sanitary condition 4) Primary education
5) Availability of medical facilities
Directions (Q. 156-158): Choose the word/group of
words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ groupof words printed in bold as used in the passage.
156. Misnomer
1) abbreviation 2) identification 3) inappropriate
4) importance 5) mistake157. Evokes
1) suggests 2) exhibits 3) proves4) unfolds 5) claims
158. Thrust
1) drive 2) crash 3) oppose4) foil 5) emphasis
Directions (Q. 159-160): Choose the word/group of
words which is most opposite in meaning of the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.159. Eradicate
1) perpetuate 2) eliminate 3) segregate
4) distribute 5) remove160. Galvanised
1) activated 2) polarised 3) made sluggish4) brought together 5) compelled
Test-V: Computer Knowledge
161. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing
Unit?
1) Printer 2) Keyboard 3) Mouse
4) Arithmetic and Logic Unit 5) None of these162. CAD stands for
1) Computer aided design
2) Computer algorithm for design
3) Computer application in design
4) All the above
5) None of these
163. Which of the following stores the current date and time
in your computer?
1) RTC (Real Time clock) 2) Time zone
3) GMT 4) All
5) None of these
164. Computer system can be broadly classified in terms of
four component dimensions. They are
1) Hardware, Operating System, Application programs,
User
2) Hardware, Operating System, Application programs,
Computer
3) Hardware, Operating System, Application programs,
Host
4) Hardware, Operating System, Application programs,
Terminal
5) None of these
165. The hardware device that acts as both a switching and
connecting unit is called
1) RS-232 C Port 2) Concentrator 3) Multiplexer
4) Communication processor 5) None of these
166. The OSI model is divided into ________ processes
called layers.
1) five 2) six 3) seven4) eight 5) None of these
167. What type of error does a memory parity error create?
1) A fatal exception error
2) An NMI error
3) A corrupt Windows operating system file
4) A GPF error
5) A GPA error
168. Which is not a part of the Oracle database block?
1) Header 2) Row directory 3) Data
4) Freelists 5) None of these
169. The product of two binary numbers (1011) and (1001) is
1) 1100011 2) 1010100 3) 1011001
4) 100110 5) None of these170. The ability to easily add additional users means that a
network is
1) scalable 2) dedicate 3) decent
4) secure 5) None of these
171. For selecting or highlighting, which of the following is
generally used?
1) Icon 2) Keyboard 3) Mouse
4) Floppy Disk 5) None of these
172. Which type of memory is closely related to processor?
1) Main Memory 2) Secondary Memory
3) Disk Memory 4) Tape Memory
5) None of these
173. To access a mainframe or a supercomputer, users oftenuse a
1) terminal 2) node 3) desktop
4) handheld 5) None of these
174. The most common input devices are the ________ and
the ________.
1) microphone, printer 2) scanner, monitor
3) digital camera, speakers 4) keyboard, mouse
5) None of these
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
11/14
K
KUNDAN
175. The different styles of lettering in a word processing
program:
1) font 2) calligraphy
3) writing 4) manuscript
5) None of these
176. The human-readable version of a program is called
________ .1) source code 2) program code 3) human code
4) system code 5) None of these
177. What are two examples of freeware?
1) WinZip and Linux
2) Shareware and file sharing
3) Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar
4) Instant messaging and the Google toolbar
5) Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel
178. What is e-commerce?
1) Buying and selling of international goods
2) Buying and selling of products and services over the
Internet
3) Buying and selling of products and services not foundin stores
4) Buying and selling of products having to do with
computers
5) Buying and selling of electronic goods
179. Website is a
1) Collection of two or more webpages
2) Collection of applications
3) Set of Instruction rules
4) Collection of programme
5) None of these
180. Which of the following types of tables constraints will
prevent the entry of duplicate rows?
1) Primary key 2) Unique 3) Null4) Foreign key 5) None of these
181. When you work with large worksheets you need to
1) Size the worksheet to fit on the specific number of
pages
2) Add and remove page breaks
3) Specify only certain print areas
4) All of the above
5) None of these
182. You can use the horizontal and vertical scale bars to
1) split a worksheet into two panes
2) view different rows and columns
3) edit the contents of a cell
4) view different worksheets
5) None of these
183. .tif extension is used for
1) Tagged Image File Format
2) Transferred Image File
3) Tagged Edit format
4) Transferred Immediate File
5) None of these
184. Software to support any external application in our
system is called
1) plug-off 2) plug-in 3) Adobe Flash
4) add-on 5) None of these
185. In a computer system, ________ device is functionally
opposite of a keyboard.
1) joystick 2) mouse 3) trackball
4) printer 5) scanner
186. The silicon chips used in computers are made from1) copper 2) germanium 3) ordinary sand
4) gallium-arsenide 5) None of these
187. The first electronic computer was made in the year
1) 1946 2) 1955 3) 1964 4) 1967 5) 1969
188. The record produced in an audit trail is known as
1) job stream 2) job file 3) journal tape
4) journal stream 5) job tape
189. A computer file contains several records. What does
each record contain?
1) Fields 2) Words 3) Data
4) Programs 5) Bytes
190. The advantage of using pre-written software packages
is to1) eliminate program writing
2) eliminate program testing
3) save time and cost
4) All the above
5) None of these
191. Which of the following types of virus is present in
Microsoft applications?
1) File infector virus 2) Boot sector virus
3) Macro virus 4) Micro virus
5) E-mail virus
192. What does the acronym DSS stand for?
1) Direct Support System
2) Digital Support System3) Decision Service System
4) Decision Support System
5) Data Service System
193.________ are words that a programming language sets
aside for its own use.
1) Control words 2) Reserved words
3) Control structures 4) Reserved keys
5) None of these
194. You must instal a(n) ________ on a network if you want
to share a broadband Internet connection.
1) router 2) modem 3) node
4) cable 5) None of these
195. Every Web page is stored as a (an)
1) Hypertext markup language document
2) Web document
3) Hypertext message language document
4) Hyperlink document
5) Internet explorer document
196. ________ is the number of time a computer will repeat a
single character when its key is held down.
1) Typematic rate 2) Recycle rate 3) Holding rate
4) Baud rate 5) Typewriter rate
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
12/14
K
KUNDAN
197. ________ software is used to make basic modifications
to digital images such as removing red-eye and modifying
contrast and sharpness.
1) Image-editing 2) Digital audio 3) Presentation
4) Digital video 5) None of these
198. Circuit boards can be mounted on a ________
framework.1) chip 2) bar code 3) switch circuit
4) card cage 5) data cage
199. CorelDraw is an example of a
1) groupware application 2) bit publishing package
3) paint program 4) graphics suite
5) None of these
200. A collection of graphics programs and supporting data
files is called a
1) groupware application 2) freehand package3) graphics suite 4) shared program collection
5) None of these
Answers1.2; All questions are answers (A) + No answer
is correct (E) = A + E = E = No question is
correct. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
But II follows.
2. 4; No river is a field (E) + Some fields are
grasses (I) = E + I = O* = Some grasses are not
rivers. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Conclusion II does not follow from the second
statement.
3. 1; Some rows are lines (I) + All lines arestraight (A) = I + A = I = Some rows are straight.
Hence, conclusion I follows. But conclusion II
does not follow from the second statement.
4.5; All caps are round (A) + All round are
toys (A) = A + A = A = All caps are toys. Hence,
conclusion I follows.
Again, All round are toys conversion Some toys are round. Hence, conclusion II also
follows.
5.2; Some vehicles are black (I) + Some black
are cars (I) = I + I = No conclusion. Hence,
conclusion I does not follow. But the possibility
in II exists from first and second statement.
Hence, conclusion II follows.
6. 1; Given statement:
Hence, conclusion I follows, but conclusion II
does not follow.
7. 2; Given statements:H > X L ... (i)K < X ... (ii)
Combining (i) and (ii), we have
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, H > X > K
So, H > K. Hence, conclusion II follows.
8. 5; Given statements: A = B C ... (i)
A > D ... (ii)Combining (i) and (ii), we have
B > D. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, D < C. Hence, conclusion II follows.
9. 4; Given statement:
We cant compare Q and R.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, P > J. Hence, conclusion II also does
not follow.
10 . 1; Given statements:
F > H. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, we cant compare E and H. Hence,
conclusion II does not follow.
(11-16):
11. 2 12. 4 13. 4 14. 4 15. 3
16. 5
17.3; D#Q, L@R and M%F
18.3; I3, E6 and A7.
19. 1
20. 5; Third to the right of fifteenth from the
right end means (15 3 =) 12th from the right
ie A.
21.2; H44
Similarly, 6L4
So, PF4
22. 2;
D E P T H W O R
7 $ % # 6 8 4 5
So, WORTH 845#6
23.1;
DE = CE + DC = 25m and CB = AE = 15m
Now, AD = 22 )AE()DE(
= 22 )15()25( = 225625 = 850
= m345
24.1;
25.1;
26 .5; DUPLICATE
Second letter UThird letter PSeventh letter AEighth letter THence, there is no such word that can be
formed.
27. 4; NAME, AMEN, MEAN, MANE.
(28-33):
28. 3 29. 1 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2
33. 4
(34-38):
write in paper la sa ka ... (i)read and write ka na pa ... (ii)
pen and paper la na ta ... (iii)From (i) and (ii). write ka ... (iv)From (i) and (iii). pape r la ... (v)From (i), (iv) and (v). in sa . .. (vi)From (ii) and (iii). and na ... (vii)From (ii), (iv) and (vii). read pa ... (viii)From (iii), (v) and (vii). pen ta . .. (ix)34. 3 35. 2 36. 1 37. 3 38. 2
39. 3; Others are synonyms.
40. 5; Others are synonyms.41. 2;
(?)3= ( 7 10 ) + ( 5 + 14 )2+ 28
= 7 + 10 702 + 5 + 14 + 702 + 28 = 64
? = 3 64 = 4
42. 4; ? 2.56 = 64% of 409600 1.6
=6.1100
640646.1
100
64064
= 256
? = 10056.2
256
43. 3; 38.4% of 1450 + 78.2% of 240 ? 2
= 20% of 77.4
or, ?2=100
4.7720
100
2402.78
100
14504.28
= 556.8 + 187.68 15.48
= 744.48 15.48 = 729
? = 729 = 27
44. 4; (2.89)4 (4913 1000)3 (0.17 10)3
= (1.7)? 3
or, (1.7)8 (1.7)3 3 (1.7)3 = (1.7)? 3
or, (1.7)8 (1.7)9 (1.7)3 = (1.7)? 3
or, (1.7)8 9 + 3= (1.7)? 3
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
13/14
8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams
14/14
K
KUNDAN
or, 221x = 3757 121
or, x =221
1213757 = `2057
Hence, Bs share = 3757 2057 = `1700
63. 1; Perimeter of base = 21 + 20 + 13 = 54m
Height = 30m
Area of base = )cs)(bs)(as(s
= )1327)(2027)(2127(27
= 147627 = 126m2
Volume of prism = area of base height= 126 30 = 3780 m3
64. 4; Reqd ratio = waterofQuantity
milkofQuantity
114
511
73
47
32
33114
54
73
43
32
32
31:14124:56
15
55
10
28
5
915
20
10
12
5
6
65.1; Speed of boat in still water = 10 mph
Let the speed of steam be x mph.
Then speed of boat downstream
= (10 + x) mph
Speed of boat upstream = (10 x) mph
x10
36
60
90
x10
36
or,
x10
1
x10
14
6
1
or,
2x100
x2
46
1
or, 100 x2 = 48x
or, x2+48x 100 = 0
x = 2 mph66. 1; Number of employees interested in
Athletics =100
2065000 = 13000
Number of employees interested in Baseball
=100
5.1465000= 9425
Reqd % = 1009425
13000 = 137.93 138%
67. 2; Reqd difference
= )}5.2125.14(30{100
65000
= 650)2930(100
65000
68. 5; Reqd ratio = 29:5145
25
5.14
5.2
69. 3; Number of employees interested in
Hockey
= 7800100
1265000
Number of employees interested in Foot bal l,
Athletics and Baseball together =
)5.142021(100
65000
= 650 55.5 = 36075
Reqd % = %2262.21100
36075
7800
70. 1; Number of employees interested in
Gymnastics = 1625100
5.265000
Number of employees interested in Hockey
= 7800100
1265000
Reqd % = %21%83.201007800
1625
71.1; Reqd % %5.448.41004933
221
72. 2; Difference = 5
1{1542 1382} + (1545
1384) + (1550 1275) + (1570 1300) +
(1580 1290)}
=5
1{160 + 161 + 275 + 270 + 290}
=5
1 1156 = 231.2 231
73. 4; Reqd ratio = 225:233225
233
5625
5825
74. 5; Total number of employees in all the
departments of all the organisations together
= 4933 + 4751 + 6631 + 7787 + 3867 + 221
= 28190
75. 3; Reqd % = %1783.161005703
960
(76-80):
Number of Savings Accounts
= 492100
205024
Number of Current Accounts = 2050 5
1
= 410
Number of NRI Accounts =100
205016= 328
Number of Senior Citi zenship and RecurringAccounts = 820
Number of Recurring Accounts = No. of Senior
Citizenship Accounts + 182
Senior Citizenship + Recurring Accounts
= 820
or Senior Citizenship + Senior Citizenship +
182 = 820
or, 2 Senior Citizenship = 820 182 = 638
Senior Citizenship =2
638 = 319
Recurring Account = 319 + 182 = 501
76. 2; Reqd ratio =820
410= 1 : 2
77. 3; Number of non-operative accounts
=100
20410= 82
Number of accounts which are operative
= 410 82 = 328
78. 5; Reqd % = %3636.36100902
328
79. 3; Total number of Senior Citizenship, NRI
and Current Accounts = 328 + 319 + 410
= 1057
80. 1; Difference = 319 + 492 501
= 811 501 = 310
81. 3 82. 4 83. 2 84. 3 85. 3
86. 2 87. 2 88. 2 89. 3 90. 2
91. 1 92. 4 93. 1 94. 1 95. 1
96. 2 97. 3 98. 1 99. 3 100. 2
101. 4 102. 2 103. 4 104. 4 105. 3
106. 1 107. 3 108. 4 109. 4 110. 4
111. 1 112. 1 113. 1 114. 2 115. 1116. 1 117. 1 118. 4 119. 2 120. 2
121. 2 122. 4 123. 3 124. 1 125. 4
126. 5 127. 1 128. 5 129. 2 130. 2
131. 2 132. 2 133. 4 134. 5 135. 1
(136-140): DBFECA
136. 2 137. 5 138. 1 139. 4 140. 3
141. 4 142. 2 143. 5 144. 3 145. 1
146. 1; Replace had Prajakta with had had
Prajakta
147. 5
148. 2; Replace in with among
149. 3; Replace shown with show because
had better is followed by the infinitive without
to.
150.1; Replace bribe with bribery151. 3 152. 4 153. 2 154. 2 155. 4
156. 3 157. 1 158. 5 159. 1 160. 3
161. 4 162. 1 163. 1 164. 1 165. 3
166. 3 167. 2 168. 4 169. 1 170. 1
171. 3 172. 1 173. 1 174. 4 175. 1
176. 1 177. 4 178. 2 179. 1 180. 2
181. 4 182. 2 183. 1 184. 2 185. 4
186. 3 187. 1 188. 3 189. 1 190. 4
191. 3 192. 4 193. 2 194. 1 195. 1
196. 1 197. 1 198. 4 199. 4 200. 3