Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams

8/11/2019 Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams

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PRACTICE SET-2

IBPS RRB (Officers) Exam

Test-I: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each question below are given

three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I

and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even

if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts

and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly

known facts. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

1. Statements: All questions are answers.

No answer is correct.

Conclusions: I. At least some questions are correct.

II. No question is correct.

2. Statements: No river is a field.

Some fields are grasses.

Conclusions: I. No grass is a river.

II. Some grasses are definitely not

fields.

3. Statements: Some rows are lines.

All lines are straight.

Conclusions: I. At least some rows are straight.

II. All straight are lines.

4. Statements: All caps are round.

All round are toys.

Conclusions: I. All caps are toys.

II. At least some toys are round.

5. Statements: Some vehicles are black.

Some black are cars.

Conclusions: I. Some cars are vehicles.

II. All cars being vehicles is a

possibility.

Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, a relationship

between different elements is shown in the statement(s). Thestatements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I is true.

2) if only conclusion II is true.

3) if either conclusion I or II is true.

4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

6. Statement: S R = Q > P OConclusions: I.P < S II.OR

7. Statements: H > X L; K < XConclusions: I.L < K II.H > K

8. Statements: A = B C; A > DConclusions: I.B > D II.D < C

9. Statement: Q P > N = J RConclusions: I.QR II.J = P

10. Statement: J E F = G > HConclusions: I.F > H II.HEDirections (Q. 11-16): Study the following information

and answer the given questions:

Eight persons A, Z, B, Y, C, X, D and E are sitting around

a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the

same order. E sits second to the right of Y. Y is not an immediate

neighbour of either A or C. C sits third to the right of A. X and

Z are immediate neighbours. D is not an immediate neighbour

of E.

11. Who sits second to the right of the one who sits on the

immediate right of D?

1) X 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) None of these

12. How many persons sit between A and X?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three

4) Cant be determined 5) None of these

13. Who sits third to the right of E?

1) Z 2) D 3) X

4) Either Z or X 5) None of these

14. What is the position of Z with respect to B?

1) Immediate right 2) Third to the right

3) Fourth to the left 4) Either 2) or 3)5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based

on the information given above and so form a group.

Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) EA 2) YB 3) XE 4) CD 5) None of these

16. If X is on the immediate right of A then who among the

following sits third to the left of Z?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

Directions (Q. 17-21): Study the following arrangement

carefully and answer the questions given below:

4 D # Q H I 3 L @ R E 6 1 M % F A 7 J P U B 5 8 $ K 9

17. How many such symbols are there in the above

arrangement each of which is immediately preceded andalso immediately followed by a consonant?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three

4) None 5) None of these

18. How many such numbers are there in the given

arrangement each of which is immediate preceded by a

vowel?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None

19. If all the symbols are dropped from the given arrangement

which element will be ninth from the right end?

1) 7 2) A 3) J 4) E 5) None of these


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20. Which element is third to the right of fifteenth from the

right end?

1) E 2) M 3) 7 4) @ 5) None of these

21. 4 is related to H in the same way as L is related to 6.

Following the same pattern, F is related to which of the

following?

1) % 2) P 3) U 4) 1 5) None of these22. In a certain code DEPTH is written as 7$%#6 and

POWDER is written as %487$5. How is WORTH written

in that code?

1) 854%6 2) 845#6 3) 745%#

4) 745#6 5) None of these

23. Avinash walked 15 metres towards north, took a left turn

and walked 15 metres, and again he took a right turn and

walked 10 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

1) m345 2) m1725 3) m3410

4) m3415 5) None of these

24. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word

JUSTIFY, each of which has as many letters between

them in the word as they have between them in the

English alphabet?

1) One 2) None 3) Two

4) Three 5) None of these

25. MP is related to HK in the same way as IL is related

to

1) DG 2) OR 3) NQ

4) DW 5) None of these

26. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English

word with the second, the third, the seventh and the

eighth letter of the word DUPLICATE, which of the

following will be the second letter of that word? If nosuch word can be formed, give X as the answer and if

more than one such word can be formed, give Y as the

answer.

1) A 2) Y 3) P 4) T 5) X

27. How many meaningful English words can be made with

the letters EMNA, using each letter only once in each

word?

1) One 2) Three 3) Five

4) Four 5) More than five

Directions (Q. 28-33): Study the following arrangement

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight friends L, M, N, O, U, V, W and X are sitting in two

parallel rows containing four people in such a way that thereis an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, L,

M, N and O are sitting and all of them are facing north. In row

2, U, V, W and X are sitting and all of them are facing south

but not necessarily in the same order. Both rows are facing

each other.

X sits second to the left of V. L faces the immediate

neighbour of X. Only one person sits between L and N. U

does not face L. M is not an immediate neighbour of L.

28. Who among the following faces W?

1) M 2) N 3) L 4) V 5) None of these

29. Who among the following sits on the immediate right of

the person who faces N?

1) V 2) U 3) X 4) W 5) None of these

30. Who among the following faces M?

1) V 2) X 3) W 4) L 5) None of these

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based

on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) V 2) W 3) M

4) O 5) L

32. Who among the following sits on the immediate left of

O?

1) X 2) N 3) L 4) M 5) None of these

33. Which of the following statements is true about U?

1) U sits at one of the extreme ends of the row.

2) U faces L.

3) U sits on the immediate right of W.

4) U faces N.

5) None of these

Directions (Q. 34-38): Study the following arrangementcarefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language write in paper is coded as la

sa ka, read and write is coded as ka na pa, and pen and

paper is coded as la na ta.

34. What does sa stand for?

1) write 2) paper 3) in

4) and 5) None of these

35. What may be the code for write with pen?

1) ka ta sa 2) ma ka ta 3) ka pa ta

4) la na ta 5) None of these

36. How will read paper be coded?

1) pa la 2) la na 3) ka ta

4) pa tu 5) None of these37. What will be the code for sa na ta?

1) in read write 2) read and in 3) pen and in

4) pen red write 5) None of these

38. What is the code for and?

1) sa 2) na 3) pa

4) ka 5) ta

Directions (39-40): Four of the following five are alike

in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that

does not belong to that group?

39. 1) Veteran 2) Mature 3) Unfamiliar

4) Acquainted 5) Experienced

40. 1) Dispute 2) Conflict 3) Brawl

4) Wrangle 5) Accord

Test-II: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 41-45): What will come in place of

question mark (?) in the following questions?

41. 28(?))145()107( 322

1) 2 2) 4 3) 6

4) 3 5) 6


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42. 64% of 409600 1.6 = ? 2.56

1) 10 2) 256 3) 160 4) 100 5) 64

43. 38.4% of 1450 + 78.2% of 240 ?2= 20% of 77.4

1) 17 2) 19 3) 27 4) 81 5) 23

44. (2.89)4 (4913 1000)3 (0.17 10)3= (1.7)? 3

1) 4 2) 6 3) 2 4) 5 5) 0

45. 3 832.5 + 35% of 6500 ?% of 1250 = 222.8

1) 164.32 2) 184.23 3) 174.32

4) 194.23 5) 144.321

Directions (Q. 46-50): What approximate value should

come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

46. 69% of 1298 + 27% of 729 469 = ?

1) 524 2) 624 3) 725 4) 583 5) 423

47. 9685 125 14 = ? 6

1) 181 2) 201 3) 281 4) 171 5) 168

48. (67.5)2 (43.2)2 (12.9)2= ?

1) 2501 2) 2450 3) 2425

4) 2525 5) 5225

49. 169% of 1798.98 + 6.25% of 1452 349% of 749 = ?

1) 428 2) 602 3) 528 4) 628 5) 728

50. 185.25650of%?13315.3

779 3

1) 35 2) 25 3) 45 4) 55 5) 65

Directions (Q. 51-53): In the following number series,

only one number is wrong. Find out that number.

51. 2 36 150 393 810 1452 2366

1) 810 2) 393 3) 36

4) 2 5) 1452

52. 88 115 145 175 208 243 280

1) 88 2) 175 3) 145

4) 243 5) 280

53. 448 294 180 100 48 19 4

1) 4 2) 180 3) 294

4) 100 5) 19

54. Two trains are moving in opposite directions on parallel

tracks at the speed of 48 kmph and 96 kmph respectively.

The first train passes a telegraph pole in 6 seconds

whereas the second train passes the pole in 12 seconds.

Find the time taken by the train to cross each other

completely.

1) 16 sec 2) 15 sec 3) 10 sec

4) 18 sec 5) None of these55. The cost of carpeting a room 4m wide with a carpet at

`4.50 per m2 is`180. The length of the room is

1) 6m 2) 4m 3) 8m

4) 10m 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-58): In the following questions two

equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the

equations and give answer

1) if x < y 2) if x y3) if x y 4) if x > y5) if x = y or no relationship can be established

56. I. 21

)1681(y4x3 II. 21

)961(y2x3

57. I. 3x2 (6 + 17 )x + 172 = 0

II. 10y2 (15 + 17 ) 173 = 0

58. I. x2 16x + 63 = 0 II.y2 2y 35 = 0

Directions (Q. 59-60): A box contains 9 red, 11 greenand 12 yellow balls. Find out in how many ways can 3 balls be

selected so that

59. All 3 balls are of the same colour.

1) 459 2) 468 3) 469

4) 569 5) None of these

60. All three balls are of different colours.

1) 1178 2) 1188 3) 1172

4) 1168 5) None of these

61. 10 years ago, Sonias mother was 4 times older than her

daughter. After 8 years, the mother will be twice as old as

her daughter. Find the present age of Sonia.

1) 20 years 2) 10 years 3) 19 years

4) 18 years 5) 24 years

62. `3757 is to be divided between A and B such that As

share at the end of 7 years may be equal to Bs share at

the end of 9 years. If rate per cent be 10% per annum

compound interest, Bs share is

1)`1400 2)`2057 3)`1870

4)`1570 5)`1700

63. Find the volume of a triangular prism whose height is

30m and the sides of whose base are 21m, 20m and 13m

respectively.

1) 3780m3 2) 3870m3 3) 5404m3

4) 6804 m3 5) None of these

64. Three pots of size 3 litres, 4 litres and 5 litres containmixture of milk and water in the ratio of 2 : 3, 3 : 7 and

4 : 11 respectively. The contents of all the three pots are

poured into a single vessel. Find the ratio of milk to

water in the resulting mixture.

1) 14 : 30 2) 15 : 31 3) 31 : 14

4) 14 : 31 5) None of these

65. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles

downstream than to travel the same distance upstream.

If the speed of the boat in still water is 10 mph the speed

of the stream is


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1) 2 mph 2) 4.5 mph 3) 4 mph

4) 5.5 mph 5) 3 mph

Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the information carefully

and answer the questions that follow:

The following pie-chart shows the percentage of

employees of Bank X who are interested in different sports

activities. Total number of employees = 65000

Cricket30%

Gymnastics2.5%

Hockey

Athletics20%

Football21%

Baseball

14.5%

12%

66. The number of employees interested in Athletics is

approximately what per cent of the number of employees

interested in Baseball?

1) 138% 2) 128% 3) 148%

4) 127% 5) None of these

67. What is the difference between the number of employees

interested in Cricket and the total number of employees

interested in Baseball, Hockey and Gymnastics together?

1) 6500 2) 650 3) 6565

4) 6050 5) 1300

68. What is the ratio of employees interested in Gymnastics

to the number of employees interested in Baseball?1) 5 : 39 2) 29 : 5 3) 25 : 29 4) 14 : 29 5) 5 : 29

69. The number of employees interested in Hockey is

approximately what per cent of the employees interested

in Football, Atheletics and Baseball together?

1) 32% 2) 42% 3) 22% 4) 52% 5) 18%

70. The number of employees interested in Gymnastics is

what percentage of the number of employees interested

in Hockey? (Calculate approximate percentage)

1) 21% 2) 31% 3) %3

216

4) %3

133 5) 50%

Directions (Q. 71-75): Study the following table carefully

and answer the questions given below:

The table shows the number of people working in

various departments of various organisations.

DepartmentOrganisation

P Q R S T

Production 1050 1015 976 888 1004

IT 1017 960 786 1025 963

Accounts 1382 1384 1275 1300 1290

Legal 786 745 801 800 735

Finance 1542 1545 1550 1570 1580

Marketing 48 54 36 30 53

71. The total number of employees working in the Marketing

Departments is approximately what per cent of the total

number of employees working in the Production

Departments of all the organisations together?

1) 4.5% 2) 7% 3) 8.5% 4) 10% 5) 12%

72. What is the approximate difference between the average

number of people working in the Accounts Departments

and that in the Finance Departments of all the

organisations together?

1) 331 2) 231 3) 430 4) 546 5) 210

73. What is the ratio of the total number of employees working

in Organisation P to the total number of employeesworking in Organisation T?

1) 45 : 233 2) 225 : 233 3) 125 : 233

4) 233 : 225 5) 625 : 233

74. What is the total number of employees working in all

departments of all the organisations together?

1) 28910 2) 27690 3) 28901

4) 26960 5) 28190

75. The number of people working in the IT Department of

Organisation Q is approximately what per cent of the

total number of employees working in Organisation Q?

1) 27% 2) 15% 3) 17% 4) 12% 5) 29%

Directions (Q. 76-80): Study the following information

carefully to answer that follow.

A bank has five different types of accounts, viz Savings

Account, Recurring Account, NRI Account, Current Account

and Senior Citizenship Account. The total number of account

holders is 2050. 24% of the total accounts are Savings

Accounts. One-fifth of the total number of accounts is Current

Account. 16% of the total accounts are NRI Accounts.

Remaining accounts are either Senior Citizenship Accounts

or Recurring Accounts. The number of Recurring Accounts

is 182 more than the number of Senior Citizenship Accounts.


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76. What is the ratio of the total number of Current Accounts

to the total number of Senior Citizenship and Recurring

Accounts together?

1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 3 : 4

4) 7 : 6 5) None of these

77. If 20% of Current Accounts are non-operative, what is

the number of Current Accounts which are operative?1) 382 2) 164 3) 328 4) 428 5) 82

78. The number of NRI accounts is approximately what per

cent of the total number of Savings Accounts and Current

Accounts together?

1) 63% 2) 26% 3) 46%

4) 56% 5) 36%

79. What is the total number of Senior Citizenship, NRI and

Current Accounts together?

1) 1027 2) 1157 3) 1057

4) 957 5) 1257

80. What is the difference between the total number of Senior

Citizenship and Savings Accounts together and the

number of Recurring Accounts?1) 310 2) 410 3) 210

4) 390 5) 610

Test-III: General Awareness

(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)

81. Which of the following is the currency of Malaysia?

1) Dollar 2) Ngultrum 3) Ringgit

4) Baht 5) None of these

82. What is the full form of the term CDR?

1) Consortium for Debt Restructuring

2) Corporate Debt Refinancing3) Consortium for Debt Refinancing

4) Corporate Debt Restructuring

5) None of these

83. Who among the following has been honoured with the

prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadhbhavna Award

2013 for his contribution towards promotion of communal

harmony and peace?

1) Hariprasad Chaurasia 2) Amjad Ali Khan

3) Shivkumar Sharma 4) Ustad Zakir Hussain

5) None of these

84. Raghuram Govinda Rajan is holding which of the

following positions at present?

1) Economic Advisor to the Prime Minister2) Financial Services Secretary

3) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India

4) Economic Affairs Secretary

5) None of these

85. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT associated

with the game of football?

1) Confederations Cup 2) Santosh Trophy

3) Ranji Trophy 4) Durand Cup

5) DCM Trophy

86. Which of the following is the name of a skill development

programme being implemented in the state of Jammu and

Kashmir at present?

1) Hunar 2) Himayat 3) Kaushal

4) Aagaz 5) None of these

87. Which of the following is an example of intangible assets?

1) Furniture 2) Machinery 3) Inventory

4) Trademarks 5) None of these88. Which of the following terms is associated with the game

of tennis?

1) Birdie 2) Double fault 3) Reti opening

4) Checkmate 5) None of these

89. Which of the following states is the largest Tasar Silk

producing state of the country?

1) Karnataka 2) Madhya Pradesh

3) Jharkhand 4) West Bengal

5) None of these

90. Knot is the unit of measurement of which of the

following?

1) Speed of a spacecraft 2) Speed of a ship

3) Resistance 4) Sound level5) None of these

91. Which of the following taxes is levied on the import and

export of goods?

1) Customs duty 2) Excise duty

3) Value Added Tax 4) Octroi

5) None of these

92. Which of the following rates/ratios is NOT correctly

matched as per the latest statistics?

1) Repo rate 7.25 per cent

2) Reverse repo rate 6.25 per cent

3) Cash Reserve Ratio 4 per cent

4) Bank rate 8.25 per cent

5) None of the above93. What is bad debt?

1) A debt that is not collectible and therefore worthless

to the creditor

2) A debt given to an individual or firm with criminal

background

3) A loan taken on high rate of interest

4) A loan given for agriculture and allied activities

5) None of these

94. Angstrom is the unit of

1) length 2) speed

3) density 4) electric current

5) None of these

95. Expand the term RCEP.

1) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership

2) Regional Cooperation for Economic Partnership

3) Regional Cooperative Economic Partnership

4) Regional Cooperation on Economic Policies

5) None of these

96. Tshering Tobgay was on a visit to India recently. He is

the present Prime Minister of

1) Myanmar 2) Bhutan 3) South Korea

4) Thailand 5) None of these


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97. Identify the person who is a famous sportsman among

the following.

1) Sachin Pilot 2) Jitendra Singh 3) Sushil Kumar

4) Durga Shakti Nagpal 5) None of these

98. India has planned to double bilateral trade with which of

the following countries to USD 10 bn in next three years?

Since the free trade agreement become operational in2000, trade has multiplied by as much as eight times

between the two countries.

1) Sri Lanka 2) Thailand 3) Myanmar

4) Singapore 5) None of these

99. Indias ace player Aditya Mehta bagged gold medal in

the World Games in Cali, Colombia recently in

1) Chess 2) Badminton 3) Snooker

4) Squash 5) None of these

100. Indias women archery team beat which of the following

countries to clinch recurve team gold medal in Archery

World Cup in Poland recently? It is their second World

Cup title in a row.

1) China 2) South Korea 3) Australia4) Russia 5) None of these

101. Which of the following is the short form of the

programme launched for the economic empowerment of

persons with profound disabilities in India?

1) MGNREGA 2) SCOPE 3) ASHA

4) ARUNIM 5) None of these

102. Who among the following has been appointed as the

new Chairman and Managing Director of the Central

Bank of India?

1) SS Mundra 2) Rajeev Rishi 3) D Sarkar

4) Archana Bhargava 5) None of these

103. In a blow to the Odisha govts plan for bauxite mining on

the Niyamgiri hills, all the 12 gram sabhas of the regionrejected the proposal recently. The state govt was

planning to allow which of the following companies for

bauxite mining?

1) NALCO 2) BALCO

3) Jindal Aluminium Ltd 4) Vedanta

5) None of these

104. Which of the following is NOT an organised sector in

India?

1) Regional Rural Banks

2) Cooperative Banks

3) Private Banks

4) Chit funds and money lenders

5) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is/are correct about

soft loan?

1) It is a loan given on easy terms and long repayment

period.

2) It is a loan that can be easily availed.

3) It is a loan bearing low rate of interest.

4) It is loan which is interest-free for a certain period

and interest is charged only afterwards.

5) None of these

106. Chief Minister Nabam Tuki launched food security

ordinance in his state on the eve of former PM Rajiv

Gandhis birth anniversary recently. Nagam Tuki is the

present CM of

1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Nagaland

3) Manipur 4) Tripura

5) None of these107. Which of the following types of goods is categorised as

white goods?

1) Cosmetic items

2) Goods imported from Western countries

3) Durable consumer goods

4) Goods that are painted in white colour only

5) None of these

108. Michel Djotodia has been sworn in as the new President

of which of the following countries recently?

1) Sudan 2) Chad 3) Nigeria

4) Central African Republic 5) None of these

109. Which of the following games has/have been excluded

from the upcoming 2014 Glasgow Commonwealth Games?1) Team events in shooting

2) Greco-Roman Wrestling

3) Archery

4) All the above

5) None of these

110. Which of the following stock exchanges in India sacked

its Managing Director and CEO Anjani Sinha recently?

1) NSE 2) BSE 3) NCDEX

4) NSEL 5) None of these

111. Which of the following state govts has decided to

appoint Arogya Mitras in each privately run charitable

hospital to ensure that poor patients get treatment under

the Rajiv Gandhi Jeevandayi Yojana (RGJY) meant toassist patients Below Poverty Line (BPL)?

1) Maharashtra 2) Rajasthan

3) Delhi 4) Himachal Pradesh

5) None of these

112. Indian girls created history by winning countrys first-

ever bronze medal in the Womens Hockey Junior World

Cup. They defeated which of the following countries to

achieve this feat?

1) England 2) Pakistan 3) South Korea

4) Japan 5) None of these

113. As per the data released by the Central Statistical

Organisation (CSO), agriculture sector is estimated to

grow at ____ in 2012-13 at 2004-05 prices.

1) 1.9 per cent 2) 2.9 per cent 3) 3.9 per cent

4) 4.9 per cent 5) None of these

114. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a penalty of

`5,62,555 on which of the following banks recently for

violation of the terms of agreement with the RBI for

opening and maintaining currency chests? Earlier, the

RBI had imposed a penalty of`3 cr on the same bank for

violating know your customer (KYC)/anti-money

laundering norms.


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1) Punjab National Bank (PNB)

2) State Bank of India (SBI)

3) HDFC Bank

4) Axis Bank

5) None of these

115. Which of the following plans has been proposed by the

Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation inthe 12th Five Year Plan? It will replace the existing Swarna

Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY).

1) National Urban Livelihoods Mission

2) National Urban Employment Mission

3) Rashtriya Shahari Rozgar Yojana

4) Rajiv Gandhi Shahari Rozgar Yojana

5) None of these

116. The NSDF 50 scheme is associated with which of the

following?

1) To identify 50 athletes in various disciplines for

customised training to improve Indias Olympic

performance

2) To identify 50 MSMEs and provide them financialassistance to boost the manufacturing sector in the

country

3) To select 50 meritorious students from across the

country and provide them scholarships for higher

education

4) To identify 50 sites to be developed as manufacturing

hubs

5) None of these

117. Name the trap shooter who has been recommended for

the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2013. He

is the first Indian to win two back-to-back World Cup

gold medals.

1) Ronjan Sodhi 2) Rajkumari Rathore3) Vijay Kumar 4) Gagan Narang

5) None of these

118. The term Death Cross is associated with which of the

following?

1) Astronomy 2) Defence 3) Christianity

4) Stock Exchange 5) None of these

119. The Global Footprint Network, an international think

tank, observed 20th Aug as the World Overshoot Day.

What does it mean?

1) The population of the world crossed the 7-bn mark.

2) The world population used as much resources as the

earth can regenerate this year.

3) The population of the world is expected to start

decreasing after this day.

4) Our planet has regenerated as much natural resources

as we need for the whole year.

5) None of these

120. Who among the following has written the book My

Journey: Transforming Dreams into Actions?

1) Sachin Kundalkar 2) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam

3) Bipin Chandra 4) Sachin Garg

5) None of these

Test-IV: English Language

Directions (Q. 121-130): In the following passage there

are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These

numbers are printed below the passage and against each,

five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank

appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each

case.

Every banking company has to (121)its balance sheet

and profit-and-loss account annually at the end of the

calendar year or at the end of twelve months or on a date

(122)by the Central Government. The accounts have to be

audited by auditors (123) qualified to be auditors of

companies. Three (124)of the balance sheet, profit-and-loss

account and the auditors report have to be (125)as returns

to the Reserve Bank and to the Registrar of Companies.

Banking companies have also to furnish other returns like

return on maintenance of cash reserve, maintenance of liquid

assets etc. The Reserve Bank is (126)to inspect or conduct(127)of banking companies, their books and accounts. The

Board of Financial Supervision set (128)by the Reserve Bank

by (129)regulations framed under the RBI Act supervises

the (130)of banking companies.

121. 1) frame 2) prepare 3) look into

4) supervise 5) subscribe

122. 1) declared 2) promulgated 3) assumed

4) notified 5) upheld

123. 1) really 2) actually 3) duly

4) wholly 5) fully

124. 1) copies 2) statement 3) reports

4) notice 5) formats

125. 1) packed 2) asked 3) called for 4) submitted 5) forwarded

126. 1) powerful 2) mighty 3) inspector

4) incompetent 5) authorised

127. 1) scrutiny 2) search 3) functioning

4) supervise 5) checking

128. 1) out 2) off 3) in

4) forth 5) up

129. 1) compulsory 2) statutory 3) legal

4) formal 5) actual

130. 1) system 2) affairs 3) ideas

4) structure 5) role

Directions (Q. 131-135): Which of the phrases (1), (2),

(3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace theword/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it

correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No

correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.

131. Customers of the bank who have lost a demand draft or

travellers cheque are required to give an indemnity

before the issuance of a fresh instrument in spiteofthe

lost one.

1) by dint of 2) in lieu of

3) for the sake of 4) instead of

5) No correction required


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132. The question whether the bank is resolved of itsliability

under a guarantee issued by it when the main contract is

suspended by a statute was considered by the Bombay

High Court a few years ago.

1) is abreast of its 2) is absolved of its

3) are refrain from their 4) are free of its

5) No correction required133. If the premium is not paid regularly, the policy lapsing

and revivingthe policy is complicated.

1) lapses and revival 2) lapsed and revival

3) lapsation and revival 4) lapses and reviving


134. When money deposited by a customer is not repayable

on demand and is payable on the expiry of a specified

periodfrom the date of deposit, such a deposit is called

a Fixed Deposit.

1) end of a specific limit

2) finish of a specific period

3) pre determined month

4) expiry of the specified date5) No correction required

135. Those caught with inappropriate registration plates will

not longer be let outwith a meagre fine of `100.

1) will no longer be let off

2) will no long be let up

3) should no long be let down

4) must no longer be let on


Directions (Q. 136-140): Rearrange the following six

sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence

to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the

questions given below.

(A) However, if scoundrels wear the cloak of patriotism,then that is nothing but hypocrisy which anyway

is not patriotism.

(B) Let us evaluate the statement.

(C) All these people were actually patriots and not

opportunists.

(D) Samuel Johnson said, Patriotism is the last refuge

of the scoundrel.

(E) Facts prove otherwise.

(F) If Samuel Johnsons statement is to be taken as the

literal truth, then George Washington, Churchill,

Lincoln, Mandela and Lee Kuan Yew have all been

scoundrels.

136. Which of the following should be the FIRSTsentence

after rearrangement?

1) F 2) D 3) A

4) E 5) C

137. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)

sentence after rearrangement?

1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) A

138. Which of the following should be the THIRDsentence


1) F 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D

139. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence


1) A 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) F

140. Which of the following should be the SECONDsentence


1) C 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) D

Directions (Q. 141-145): Each question below has twoblanks, each blank indicating that something has been

omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best

fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

141. The food security ordinance ________ recently is

expected to come up for ________ during this session.

1) brought, rehearsal 2) drafted, clarification

3) placed, explanation 4) promulgated, ratification

5) voted, poor

142. A big _________ for the UPA regime will be to push the

IndiaBangladesh land swap deal ________ a

constitutional amendment.

1) jolt, for 2) challenge, through

3) achievement, in 4) reward, with5) role, about

143. A tourist paradise, Udaipur is fast ________ as one of

the best ________ for education in country.

1) growing, sites 2) developing, careers

3) spreading, states 4) evolving, places

5) emerging, destinations

144. Had India not been partitioned, Pran would have been

the ________ of millions, having begun his leading-

man career _________ Noor Jehan in Lahore.

1) mindblowing, for 2) footprints, against

3) heartthrob, opposite 4) fingertips, with

5) eyewash, along with

145. The Italy has PM________ for end to racist insults________ the first black minister.

1) called, against 2) demanded, onto

3) requested, of 4) asked, for

5) wanted, on

Directions (Q. 146-150): Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in

it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The

number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the

answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

146. 1) If we had Prajakta / 2) with us we would / 3) have

finished the job / 4) in just three hours. / 5) No error

147. 1) They were still talking / 2) about what they should / 3)

do when they heard the / 4) people shouting for help. / 5)

No error

148. 1) The practice of surrogacy will now become / 2) socially

more acceptable and popular in couples / 3) who are

unable to have children in / 4) a natural way because of

medical complications. / 5) No error

149. 1) But after doing what / 2) he did, he had better / 3) not

shown his face / 4) here, said the culprits neighbour. / 5)

No error

150. 1) The practice of bribe / 2) has become an integral part


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/3) of our lives, / 4) almost an accepted phenomenon. / 5)

No error

Directions (Q. 151-160): Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain

words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate

them while answering some of the questions.

The Food Security Bill (FSB), 2013 promulgated recentlyaims to eradicatehunger from the country, but the means

adopted need serious reconsideration. FSB, under the

Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), aims to provide

doorstep delivery of subsidised food to nearly 75 per cent of

the rural and 50 per cent of the urban population. It also

seeks to empower women in households. The thrustof the

criticism against the FSB has been on issues like procurement,

storage, transportation, distribution, identification of

beneficiaries and pricing of foodgrains covered under the

scheme.

The FSB is motivated by two significant facts. First,

disturbing statistics: according to the National Family Health

Survey 2005-06, 43.5 per cent of children under the age offive are underweight, 33 per cent of women in the age group

of 15-49 have a body mass index below normal, and 78.9 per

cent of children in the age group of 6-35 months are anaemic.

Second, the influential Global Hunger Index (GHI) developed

by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI),

which has successfully galvanisedpolicymakers across the

world. The IFPRI has computed a GHI of 22.9 for India in

2012, with countries like Libya, Iran, Mexico, Brazil, Sri Lanka,

Pakistan and many others recording much better performance.

Unfortunately, the term global hunger index is a

misnomeras it does not, in its construction, take into account

the hungry. Actually, the term hunger itself is very

confusing and means different things to differentorganisations and policymakers. First and foremost, it evokes

images of the extreme discomfort associated with lack of food.

On the other hand, the United Nations Development

Programme defines it as a condition in which people lack the

basic food intake to provide them with the energy and

nutrients for fully productive lives.

The GHI takes into account, in equal weights,

undernourishment, child underweight and child mortality. The

indicator, undernourishment, is based on the share of the

population with insufficient (relative to a norm) calorie intake.

Child underweight is defined in terms of wasting and stunted

growth and child mortality in terms of death rates, both

reflecting an unhealthy environment. It is much too simplistic

to assume, without evidence, that either being underweight

or mortality is due to undernutrition (signifying deficiencies

in energy, protein, essential vitamins and minerals). Child

stunting and wasting, and mortality, are equally, if not more

likely, to be due to infections and illnesses due to insanitary

conditions that result in inadequate absorption of nutrients.

These in turn may be linked to inadequate maternal health or

childcare practices and inadequate access to health services,

safe water and toilet facilities. Thus, supply of food may be a

necessary but not sufficient condition for the improvement

of a part of the hunger index.

151. What is/are the basis of criticism against the Food

Security Bill? Give your answer in the context of the

given passage.

1) As per data released by the Central Govt, only 33%

of the population in rural areas and 27% populationin urban areas are BPL, but the Central Govt is going

to cover about 65% of the entire population of the

country.

2) This Bill will provide one more golden opportunity to

corrupt politicians of the ruling party to loot govt

treasury in the name of FSB.

3) The procurement, storage, transportation,

distribution and pricing of the food grains is a major

problem.

4) This bill is nothing but a play with the sentiments of

poor people of the country.

5) All the above

152. Which of the following statements is not true in thecontext of the given passage?

1) The percentage of anaemic children in the age group

of 6-35 months is about 79% as per National Family

Health Survey 2005-06.

2) According to the survey report, as mentioned in the

given passage, about one-third women in the age

group of 15-49 years have body mass index below

normal.

3) The Global Hunger Index for India in 2012 was 22.9,

which is not good.

4) The International Food Policy Research Institute,

which develops Global Hunger Index, is

headquartered in Geneva.5) All the above are true

153. Find the corr ect statement about the rece ntly

promulgated Food Security Bill.

(A) The Bill aims to woo voters in the upcoming General

Election 2014.

(B) It aims to provide delivery of subsidised food to

nearly three-fourths of the population in rural areas

and half of the total population in urban areas.

(C) It seeks women empowerment in households.

1) Only (A) and (C) 2) Only (B) and (C)

3) Only (A) and (B) 4) Only (A)

5) All (A), (B) and (C)

154. Why does the author consider the term global hunger

index as a misnomer?

1) Because it does not cover the entire world population.

2) Because it does not take into account the hungry.

3) Because it takes into account only those population

who are not covered under poverty alleviation

programme.

4) Because it does not define the term poverty and

poor clearly.

5) None of these


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155. Which of the following is not taken into account while

preparing Global Hunger Index?

1) Calorie intake 2) Child mortality rate

3) Sanitary condition 4) Primary education

5) Availability of medical facilities

Directions (Q. 156-158): Choose the word/group of

words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ groupof words printed in bold as used in the passage.

156. Misnomer

1) abbreviation 2) identification 3) inappropriate

4) importance 5) mistake157. Evokes

1) suggests 2) exhibits 3) proves4) unfolds 5) claims

158. Thrust

1) drive 2) crash 3) oppose4) foil 5) emphasis

Directions (Q. 159-160): Choose the word/group of

words which is most opposite in meaning of the word/group

of words printed in bold as used in the passage.159. Eradicate

1) perpetuate 2) eliminate 3) segregate

4) distribute 5) remove160. Galvanised

1) activated 2) polarised 3) made sluggish4) brought together 5) compelled

Test-V: Computer Knowledge

161. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing

Unit?

1) Printer 2) Keyboard 3) Mouse

4) Arithmetic and Logic Unit 5) None of these162. CAD stands for

1) Computer aided design

2) Computer algorithm for design

3) Computer application in design

4) All the above

5) None of these

163. Which of the following stores the current date and time

in your computer?

1) RTC (Real Time clock) 2) Time zone

3) GMT 4) All

5) None of these

164. Computer system can be broadly classified in terms of

four component dimensions. They are

1) Hardware, Operating System, Application programs,

User


Computer


Host


Terminal

5) None of these

165. The hardware device that acts as both a switching and

connecting unit is called

1) RS-232 C Port 2) Concentrator 3) Multiplexer

4) Communication processor 5) None of these

166. The OSI model is divided into ________ processes

called layers.

1) five 2) six 3) seven4) eight 5) None of these

167. What type of error does a memory parity error create?

1) A fatal exception error

2) An NMI error

3) A corrupt Windows operating system file

4) A GPF error

5) A GPA error

168. Which is not a part of the Oracle database block?

1) Header 2) Row directory 3) Data

4) Freelists 5) None of these

169. The product of two binary numbers (1011) and (1001) is

1) 1100011 2) 1010100 3) 1011001

4) 100110 5) None of these170. The ability to easily add additional users means that a

network is

1) scalable 2) dedicate 3) decent

4) secure 5) None of these

171. For selecting or highlighting, which of the following is

generally used?

1) Icon 2) Keyboard 3) Mouse

4) Floppy Disk 5) None of these

172. Which type of memory is closely related to processor?

1) Main Memory 2) Secondary Memory

3) Disk Memory 4) Tape Memory

5) None of these

173. To access a mainframe or a supercomputer, users oftenuse a

1) terminal 2) node 3) desktop

4) handheld 5) None of these

174. The most common input devices are the ________ and

the ________.

1) microphone, printer 2) scanner, monitor

3) digital camera, speakers 4) keyboard, mouse

5) None of these


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175. The different styles of lettering in a word processing

program:

1) font 2) calligraphy

3) writing 4) manuscript

5) None of these

176. The human-readable version of a program is called

________ .1) source code 2) program code 3) human code

4) system code 5) None of these

177. What are two examples of freeware?

1) WinZip and Linux

2) Shareware and file sharing

3) Microsoft Word and the Google toolbar

4) Instant messaging and the Google toolbar

5) Microsoft Power Point and Microsoft Excel

178. What is e-commerce?

1) Buying and selling of international goods

2) Buying and selling of products and services over the

Internet

3) Buying and selling of products and services not foundin stores

4) Buying and selling of products having to do with

computers

5) Buying and selling of electronic goods

179. Website is a

1) Collection of two or more webpages

2) Collection of applications

3) Set of Instruction rules

4) Collection of programme

5) None of these

180. Which of the following types of tables constraints will

prevent the entry of duplicate rows?

1) Primary key 2) Unique 3) Null4) Foreign key 5) None of these

181. When you work with large worksheets you need to

1) Size the worksheet to fit on the specific number of

pages

2) Add and remove page breaks

3) Specify only certain print areas

4) All of the above

5) None of these

182. You can use the horizontal and vertical scale bars to

1) split a worksheet into two panes

2) view different rows and columns

3) edit the contents of a cell

4) view different worksheets

5) None of these

183. .tif extension is used for

1) Tagged Image File Format

2) Transferred Image File

3) Tagged Edit format

4) Transferred Immediate File

5) None of these

184. Software to support any external application in our

system is called

1) plug-off 2) plug-in 3) Adobe Flash

4) add-on 5) None of these

185. In a computer system, ________ device is functionally

opposite of a keyboard.

1) joystick 2) mouse 3) trackball

4) printer 5) scanner

186. The silicon chips used in computers are made from1) copper 2) germanium 3) ordinary sand

4) gallium-arsenide 5) None of these

187. The first electronic computer was made in the year

1) 1946 2) 1955 3) 1964 4) 1967 5) 1969

188. The record produced in an audit trail is known as

1) job stream 2) job file 3) journal tape

4) journal stream 5) job tape

189. A computer file contains several records. What does

each record contain?

1) Fields 2) Words 3) Data

4) Programs 5) Bytes

190. The advantage of using pre-written software packages

is to1) eliminate program writing

2) eliminate program testing

3) save time and cost

4) All the above

5) None of these

191. Which of the following types of virus is present in

Microsoft applications?

1) File infector virus 2) Boot sector virus

3) Macro virus 4) Micro virus

5) E-mail virus

192. What does the acronym DSS stand for?

1) Direct Support System

2) Digital Support System3) Decision Service System

4) Decision Support System

5) Data Service System

193.________ are words that a programming language sets

aside for its own use.

1) Control words 2) Reserved words

3) Control structures 4) Reserved keys

5) None of these

194. You must instal a(n) ________ on a network if you want

to share a broadband Internet connection.

1) router 2) modem 3) node

4) cable 5) None of these

195. Every Web page is stored as a (an)

1) Hypertext markup language document

2) Web document

3) Hypertext message language document

4) Hyperlink document

5) Internet explorer document

196. ________ is the number of time a computer will repeat a

single character when its key is held down.

1) Typematic rate 2) Recycle rate 3) Holding rate

4) Baud rate 5) Typewriter rate


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197. ________ software is used to make basic modifications

to digital images such as removing red-eye and modifying

contrast and sharpness.

1) Image-editing 2) Digital audio 3) Presentation

4) Digital video 5) None of these

198. Circuit boards can be mounted on a ________

framework.1) chip 2) bar code 3) switch circuit

4) card cage 5) data cage

199. CorelDraw is an example of a

1) groupware application 2) bit publishing package

3) paint program 4) graphics suite

5) None of these

200. A collection of graphics programs and supporting data

files is called a

1) groupware application 2) freehand package3) graphics suite 4) shared program collection

5) None of these

Answers1.2; All questions are answers (A) + No answer

is correct (E) = A + E = E = No question is

correct. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.

But II follows.

2. 4; No river is a field (E) + Some fields are

grasses (I) = E + I = O* = Some grasses are not

rivers. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.

Conclusion II does not follow from the second

statement.

3. 1; Some rows are lines (I) + All lines arestraight (A) = I + A = I = Some rows are straight.

Hence, conclusion I follows. But conclusion II

does not follow from the second statement.

4.5; All caps are round (A) + All round are

toys (A) = A + A = A = All caps are toys. Hence,

conclusion I follows.

Again, All round are toys conversion Some toys are round. Hence, conclusion II also

follows.

5.2; Some vehicles are black (I) + Some black

are cars (I) = I + I = No conclusion. Hence,

conclusion I does not follow. But the possibility

in II exists from first and second statement.

Hence, conclusion II follows.

6. 1; Given statement:

Hence, conclusion I follows, but conclusion II

does not follow.

7. 2; Given statements:H > X L ... (i)K < X ... (ii)

Combining (i) and (ii), we have

Hence, conclusion I does not follow.

Again, H > X > K

So, H > K. Hence, conclusion II follows.

8. 5; Given statements: A = B C ... (i)

A > D ... (ii)Combining (i) and (ii), we have

B > D. Hence, conclusion I follows.

Again, D < C. Hence, conclusion II follows.

9. 4; Given statement:

We cant compare Q and R.

Hence, conclusion I does not follow.

Again, P > J. Hence, conclusion II also does

not follow.

10 . 1; Given statements:

F > H. Hence, conclusion I follows.

Again, we cant compare E and H. Hence,

conclusion II does not follow.

(11-16):

11. 2 12. 4 13. 4 14. 4 15. 3

16. 5

17.3; D#Q, L@R and M%F

18.3; I3, E6 and A7.

19. 1

20. 5; Third to the right of fifteenth from the

right end means (15 3 =) 12th from the right

ie A.

21.2; H44

Similarly, 6L4

So, PF4

22. 2;

D E P T H W O R

7 $ % # 6 8 4 5

So, WORTH 845#6

23.1;

DE = CE + DC = 25m and CB = AE = 15m

Now, AD = 22 )AE()DE(

= 22 )15()25( = 225625 = 850

= m345

24.1;

25.1;

26 .5; DUPLICATE

Second letter UThird letter PSeventh letter AEighth letter THence, there is no such word that can be

formed.

27. 4; NAME, AMEN, MEAN, MANE.

(28-33):

28. 3 29. 1 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2

33. 4

(34-38):

write in paper la sa ka ... (i)read and write ka na pa ... (ii)

pen and paper la na ta ... (iii)From (i) and (ii). write ka ... (iv)From (i) and (iii). pape r la ... (v)From (i), (iv) and (v). in sa . .. (vi)From (ii) and (iii). and na ... (vii)From (ii), (iv) and (vii). read pa ... (viii)From (iii), (v) and (vii). pen ta . .. (ix)34. 3 35. 2 36. 1 37. 3 38. 2

39. 3; Others are synonyms.

40. 5; Others are synonyms.41. 2;

(?)3= ( 7 10 ) + ( 5 + 14 )2+ 28

= 7 + 10 702 + 5 + 14 + 702 + 28 = 64

? = 3 64 = 4

42. 4; ? 2.56 = 64% of 409600 1.6

=6.1100

640646.1

100

64064

= 256

? = 10056.2

256

43. 3; 38.4% of 1450 + 78.2% of 240 ? 2

= 20% of 77.4

or, ?2=100

4.7720

100

2402.78

100

14504.28

= 556.8 + 187.68 15.48

= 744.48 15.48 = 729

? = 729 = 27

44. 4; (2.89)4 (4913 1000)3 (0.17 10)3

= (1.7)? 3

or, (1.7)8 (1.7)3 3 (1.7)3 = (1.7)? 3

or, (1.7)8 (1.7)9 (1.7)3 = (1.7)? 3

or, (1.7)8 9 + 3= (1.7)? 3


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or, 221x = 3757 121

or, x =221

1213757 = `2057

Hence, Bs share = 3757 2057 = `1700

63. 1; Perimeter of base = 21 + 20 + 13 = 54m

Height = 30m

Area of base = )cs)(bs)(as(s

= )1327)(2027)(2127(27

= 147627 = 126m2

Volume of prism = area of base height= 126 30 = 3780 m3

64. 4; Reqd ratio = waterofQuantity

milkofQuantity

114

511

73

47

32

33114

54

73

43

32

32

31:14124:56

15

55

10

28

5

915

20

10

12

5

6

65.1; Speed of boat in still water = 10 mph

Let the speed of steam be x mph.

Then speed of boat downstream

= (10 + x) mph

Speed of boat upstream = (10 x) mph

x10

36

60

90

x10

36

or,

x10

1

x10

14

6

1

or,

2x100

x2

46

1

or, 100 x2 = 48x

or, x2+48x 100 = 0

x = 2 mph66. 1; Number of employees interested in

Athletics =100

2065000 = 13000

Number of employees interested in Baseball

=100

5.1465000= 9425

Reqd % = 1009425

13000 = 137.93 138%

67. 2; Reqd difference

= )}5.2125.14(30{100

65000

= 650)2930(100

65000

68. 5; Reqd ratio = 29:5145

25

5.14

5.2

69. 3; Number of employees interested in

Hockey

= 7800100

1265000

Number of employees interested in Foot bal l,

Athletics and Baseball together =

)5.142021(100

65000

= 650 55.5 = 36075

Reqd % = %2262.21100

36075

7800

70. 1; Number of employees interested in

Gymnastics = 1625100

5.265000

Number of employees interested in Hockey

= 7800100

1265000

Reqd % = %21%83.201007800

1625

71.1; Reqd % %5.448.41004933

221

72. 2; Difference = 5

1{1542 1382} + (1545

1384) + (1550 1275) + (1570 1300) +

(1580 1290)}

=5

1{160 + 161 + 275 + 270 + 290}

=5

1 1156 = 231.2 231

73. 4; Reqd ratio = 225:233225

233

5625

5825

74. 5; Total number of employees in all the

departments of all the organisations together

= 4933 + 4751 + 6631 + 7787 + 3867 + 221

= 28190

75. 3; Reqd % = %1783.161005703

960

(76-80):

Number of Savings Accounts

= 492100

205024

Number of Current Accounts = 2050 5

1

= 410

Number of NRI Accounts =100

205016= 328

Number of Senior Citi zenship and RecurringAccounts = 820

Number of Recurring Accounts = No. of Senior

Citizenship Accounts + 182

Senior Citizenship + Recurring Accounts

= 820

or Senior Citizenship + Senior Citizenship +

182 = 820

or, 2 Senior Citizenship = 820 182 = 638

Senior Citizenship =2

638 = 319

Recurring Account = 319 + 182 = 501

76. 2; Reqd ratio =820

410= 1 : 2

77. 3; Number of non-operative accounts

=100

20410= 82

Number of accounts which are operative

= 410 82 = 328

78. 5; Reqd % = %3636.36100902

328

79. 3; Total number of Senior Citizenship, NRI

and Current Accounts = 328 + 319 + 410

= 1057

80. 1; Difference = 319 + 492 501

= 811 501 = 310

81. 3 82. 4 83. 2 84. 3 85. 3

86. 2 87. 2 88. 2 89. 3 90. 2

91. 1 92. 4 93. 1 94. 1 95. 1

96. 2 97. 3 98. 1 99. 3 100. 2

101. 4 102. 2 103. 4 104. 4 105. 3

106. 1 107. 3 108. 4 109. 4 110. 4

111. 1 112. 1 113. 1 114. 2 115. 1116. 1 117. 1 118. 4 119. 2 120. 2

121. 2 122. 4 123. 3 124. 1 125. 4

126. 5 127. 1 128. 5 129. 2 130. 2

131. 2 132. 2 133. 4 134. 5 135. 1

(136-140): DBFECA

136. 2 137. 5 138. 1 139. 4 140. 3

141. 4 142. 2 143. 5 144. 3 145. 1

146. 1; Replace had Prajakta with had had

Prajakta

147. 5

148. 2; Replace in with among

149. 3; Replace shown with show because

had better is followed by the infinitive without

to.

150.1; Replace bribe with bribery151. 3 152. 4 153. 2 154. 2 155. 4

156. 3 157. 1 158. 5 159. 1 160. 3

161. 4 162. 1 163. 1 164. 1 165. 3

166. 3 167. 2 168. 4 169. 1 170. 1

171. 3 172. 1 173. 1 174. 4 175. 1

176. 1 177. 4 178. 2 179. 1 180. 2

181. 4 182. 2 183. 1 184. 2 185. 4

186. 3 187. 1 188. 3 189. 1 190. 4

191. 3 192. 4 193. 2 194. 1 195. 1

196. 1 197. 1 198. 4 199. 4 200. 3

Practice Sets-2. RRB Officers Exams

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