Post on 28-Jul-2018
Form Number :
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
Important Instructions /
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSEPHASE : MLF,MLG,MLH,MAZA & MAZB
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Papercode and Your Form No.
Correction Paper code Form No. dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT
TEST DATE : 16 - 03 - 2016
Paper Code : 1001CM303315048
TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 02
Hin
di
PHYSICS : Propert ies of matter and Fluid Mechanics ,
Thermal Physics-I(Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer)
Thermal Physics-II (Behavior of Perfect Gases and KTG,
Thermodynamics)
Oscillations (SHM, damped and forced oscillations &
Resonance)
Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect
CHEMISTRY : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Hydrogen
s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)
p–Block Elements (Group - 13 & 14)
p–Block Elements (Group - 15, 16, 17 & 18)
The d and f-block Elements
BIOLOGY : Plant Physiology : (i) Transport in Plants (ii) Mineral Nutrition
(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (iv) Respiration in Plants
(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme
Human Physiology : (i) Digestion and Absorption
(ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and
circulation
(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination
(v) Locomotion and Movement
(vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear
(vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration
ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 16 - 03 - 2016
SYLLABUS – 2
LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLF, MLG, MLH, MAZA & MAZB)
H-1/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. One end of a long metallic wire of length L area
of cross section A and Young’s modulus Y is tied
to the ceiling. The other end is tied to a massless
spring of force constant K. A mass m hangs freely
from the free end of the spring. It is slightly pulled
down and released. Its time period is given by-
(1) m
2K
(2) mYA
2KL
(3) mK
2YA
(4) m(KL YA)
2KYA
2. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant.
The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is:
(1) 1
T(2)
2
T(3)
3
T(4)
4
T3. One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm and two
litres of nitrogen at a pressure of 0.5 atm are
introduced into a vessel of volume 1L. If there is
no change in temperature, the final pressure of the
mixture of gas (in atm) is:
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 2 (4) 4
4. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes one
third in 2 sec. If its amplitude after 6 sec is 1/n times
the original amplitude then the value of n is
(1) 32 (2) 3 2 (3) 3 3 (4) 33
5. A source of sound is travelling at 100
m /sec3
along a road, towards a point A, when the source
is 3 m away from A, a person standing at a point
O on a road at perpendicular position. The distance
of O from A at that time is 4m. If the original
frequency is 640 Hz,then the value of apperent
frequency listen by person is :-
(speed of sound is 340 m/sec) :-
A
4m
0
3m Source
(1) 620 Hz (2) 680 Hz
(3) 720 Hz (4) 840 Hz
1. L A Y K m
(1) m
2K
(2) mYA
2KL
(3) mK
2YA
(4) m(KL YA)
2KYA
2. PT2 = :-
(1) 1
T(2)
2
T(3)
3
T(4)
4
T3. 1 1 0.5
2 1 :(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 2 (4) 4
4. 2 sec 6 sec 1/n n -
(1) 32 (2) 3 2 (3) 3 3 (4) 33
5. 100
m /sec3
A
, 3 m A O 4m 640 Hz :-( , 340 m/sec )
A
4m
0
3m Source
(1) 620 Hz (2) 680 Hz
(3) 720 Hz (4) 840 Hz
H-2/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
6. A drop of water of volume 0.05 cm3 is pressed
between two glass plates, as a consequence of
which it spreads and occupies an area of 40 cm2.
If the surface tension of water is 70 dyne/cm, then
the normal force required to separate out the two
glass plates will be in Newton -
(1) 90 (2) 44.8 (3) 22.4 (4) 448
7. When the temperature of a rod increases from t
to (t + t), its moment of inertia increases from
I to (I + I). If be the coefficient of linear
expansion of the rod, then the value of I
I
is:
(1) 2 t (2) t (3) t
2
(4)
t
8. The amount of heat energy required to raise the
temperature of 1 g of helium from T1K to T
2K is:
(1) a B 2 1
3N k (T T )
2 (2) a B 2 1
3N k (T T )
4
(3) 2
a B
1
3 TN k
4 T
(4) a B 2 1
3N k (T T )
8
9. A particle performs simple harmonic oscillation of
period T and the equation of motion is given by;
x a sin( t / 6)
After the elapse of what fraction of the time period
the velocity of the particle will be equal to half
of its maximum velocity?
(1) T/3 (2) T/12 (3) T/8 (4) T/6
10. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle
displacement is given by : y = a sin 2(bt – cx)
where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle
velocity will be twice the wave velocity if:
(1) 1
ca
(2) c = a (3) b = ac (4) b = 1
ac
11. A hollow sphere has inner volume half the outer
volume. Its 4/5th part is submerged when placed
in water. The density of material is -
(1) 1.4 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 1.5 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 1.6 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 17 × 103 kg/m3
12. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and
16 g of oxygen. The ratio (Cp/ C
v) of the mixture is:
(1) 1.4 (2) 1.54 (3) 1.59 (4) 1.62
6. 0.05 cm3 40 cm2 70 dyne/cm
- :-(1) 90 (2) 44.8
(3) 22.4 (4) 448
7. t (t + t)I (I + I)
I
I
:
(1) 2 t (2) t (3) t
2
(4)
t
8. 1 g T1K T
2K
:
(1) a B 2 1
3N k (T T )
2 (2) a B 2 1
3N k (T T )
4
(3) 2
a B
1
3 TN k
4 T
(4) a B 2 1
3N k (T T )
8
9. T -
x a sin( t / 6)
:-(1) T/3 (2) T/12
(3) T/8 (4) T/6
10. y = a sin 2(bt – cx) a, b c :
(1) 1
ca
(2) c = a (3) b = ac (4) b = 1
ac
11. 4/5th -(1) 1.4 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 1.5 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 1.6 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 17 × 103 kg/m3
12. 16 g 16 g (C
p/ C
v) :
(1) 1.4 (2) 1.54 (3) 1.59 (4) 1.62
H-3/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
13. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) A gas has two specific heats only.
(2) A gas has infinite number of specific heats.
(3) A material will have only one specific heat
always.
(4) None of the above.
14. The equation of SHM of a particle is given
as
2
2
d x2 32x 0
dt
where x is the displacement from the mean position
of rest. The period of its oscillation (in seconds) is
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3)
2 2
(4) 2
15. The length of open organ pipe is L and
fundamental frequency is f. Now it is immersed
into water upto half of its length now the frequency
of organ pipe will be
(1) f (2) 2f (3) f/2 (4) 4f
16. Water is flowing with a velocity of 2m/s in a horizontal
pipe where cross-sectional area is 2 × 10–2 m2 at
pressure 4 × 104 pascal. The pressure at
cross-section of area 0.01 m2 in pascal will be
(1) 32 (2) 3.4
(3) 3.4 × 104 (4) 3.4 × 105
17. A body cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes
and to 42ºC in the next 10 minutes. The
temperature of the surrounding is:
(1) 16°C (2) 26°C (3) 36°C (4) 21°C
18. A solid material is supplied with heat at constant
rate and the temperature of the material changes
as shown below. From the graph, the false
conclusion drawn is:
(1) AB and CD of the graph represent phase changes.
(2) AB represent the change of state from solid
to liquid.
(3) latent heat of fusion is twice the latent heat
of vaporization.
(4) CD represents the change of state from liquid
to vapour.
13. -(1) (2) (3)
(4) 14.
2
2
d x2 32x 0
dt
x () -
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3)
2 2
(4) 2
15. f L :-(1) f (2) 2f
(3) f/2 (4) 4f
16. 2 2 × 10–2m2 4 × 104
0.01 m2 -(1) 32 (2) 3.4
(3) 3.4 × 104 (4) 3.4 × 105
17. 62°C 50°C 10 42ºC 10 :(1) 16°C (2) 26°C (3) 36°C (4) 21°C
18. :
(1) AB CD (phase)
(2) AB
(3)
(4) CD
H-4/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
19. A pendulum clock is in elevator–
(1) Shows correct time always
(2) Shows correct time always when desends with
constant accleration
(3) Shows correct time when descends with
constant speed
(4) Cannot shows correct time when elevator
moves
20. The amplitude of a wave represented by
displacement equation :
y =1
asin t ±
1
bcos t
will be :
(1) a b
ab
(2)
a b
ab
(3) a b
ab
(4)
a b
ab
21. A copper wire (Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2) of length 6 m
& a steel wire ( Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2) of length
4 m each of cross section 10–5 m2 are fastened end
to end & stretched by a tension of 100 N. The
elongation produced in the copper wire is-
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.4 mm
(3) 0.6 mm (4) 0.8 mm
22. A metal rod of length 2 m has cross-sectional areas
2A and A as shown in the following figure. The
two ends are maintained at temperatures 100ºC and
70ºC. The temperature of middle point C is :
2A A
70ºC
A
CB100ºC
1m 1m
(1) 80ºC (2) 85ºC
(3) 90ºC (4) 95ºC
23. The surface temperature of the sun which has
maximum energy emission at 500 nm is 6000 K.
The temperature of a star which has maximum
energy emission at 400 nm will be:
(1) 8500 K (2) 4500 K
(3) 7500 K (4) 6500 K
19. –(1) (2)
(3)
(4)
20.
y =1
asin t ±
1
bcos t
:
(1) a b
ab
(2)
a b
ab
(3) a b
ab
(4)
a b
ab
21. 6 (Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2)
4 (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2),
10–5 m2 100 N -(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.4 mm
(3) 0.6 mm (4) 0.8 mm
22. 2m -2A A 100ºC 70ºC C
2A A
70ºC
A
CB100ºC
1m 1m
(1) 80ºC (2) 85ºC
(3) 90ºC (4) 95ºC
23. 6000 500 nm
400 nm (1) 8500 K (2) 4500 K
(3) 7500 K (4) 6500 K
H-5/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
24. The displacement-time graph of a particle
executing SHM is as.
T4
T2
T 5T4
t3T4
x
(Which of the following statement is wrong)
(1) The force is zero at 3T
t4
(2) The acceleration is maximum at 4T
t4
(3) The potential energy is equal to kinetic energy
at t = T
2
(4) The velocity is maximum at t = 3T
4
25. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The velocity
of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance travelled (in
meters) by the sound during the time in which the
tunning fork complete 32 vibrations is :
(1) 21 (2) 43
(3) 86 (4) 129
26. Water drop whose radius is 0.0015 mm is falling
through the air. If the coefficient of viscosity of air is
1.8 × 10–5 kg/m-s, then assuming buoyancy force as
negligible the terminal velocity of the dorp will be
(1) 2.72 × 10–4 m/s (2) 2.72 × 10–3 m/s
(3) 2.72 × 10–2 m/s (4) 2.72 × 10–1 m/s
27. In the given (V-T) diagram, what is the relation
between pressure P1 and P
2 is :
(1) P2 > P
1(2) P
2 < P
1
(3) P2 = P
1(4) None of these
24. SHM -
T4
T2
T 5T4
t3T4
x
(1)3T
t4
(2)4T
t4
(3) t = T
2
(4) t = 3T
4
25. 256 344 ms–1 32 (1) 21 (2) 43
(3) 86 (4) 129
26. 0.0015 mm 1.8 × 10–5 kg/m-s -(1) 2.72 × 10–4 m/s (2) 2.72 × 10–3 m/s
(3) 2.72 × 10–2 m/s (4) 2.72 × 10–1 m/s
27. (V-T) P1 P
2
:
(1) P2 > P
1 (2) P
2 < P
1
(3) P2 = P
1(d)
Key Filling
H-6/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
28. A body of area 1 cm2 is heated to a temperature
1000 K. The amount of energy radiated by the
body in 1 second is:
(Stefan's constant = 5.67 × 10–8 W m–2K–4)
(1) 5.67 joule (2) 0.567 joule
(3) 56.7 joule (4) 567 joule
29. An engine is moving towards a wall with a
velocity 50 ms-1 emits a note of 1.2 kHz. The speed
of sound in air is 350 ms–1. The frequency of the
note after reflection from the wall as heard by the
driver of the engine is :
(1) 2.4 kHz (2) 0.24 kHz
(3) 1.6 kHz (4) 1.2 kHz30. Two simple harmonic motions are represented
by the equations 1y 0.1sin 100 t3
and
y2 = 0.1 cos100 t. The phase difference of the
velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity
of particle 2 is
(1) –
3
(2)
6
(3)
–
6
(4)
3
31. If a capillary tube is tilted to 45º and 60º from the
vertical then the ratio of length 1 and
2 of liquid
columns in it will be -
(1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
32. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle
PQRSP process. The net work done by the system is:
(1) 20J (2) -20 J
(3) 400J (4) -374 J
33. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first
becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow
and finally turns to white hot. The correct
explanation for the above observation is possible
by using:
(1) Wien’s displacement Law
(2) Kirchhoff’s Law
(3) Newton’s Law of cooling
(4) Stefan’s Law
28. 1 cm2 1000 K1 :( = 5.67 × 10–8 W m–2K–4)
(1) 5.67 (2) 0.567 (3) 56.7 (4) 567
29. 50 1.2 350 :(1) 2.4 kHz (2) 0.24 kHz
(3) 1.6 kHz (4) 1.2 kHz30.
1y 0.1sin 100 t3
y2 = 0.1 cos100 t
2 1 :-
(1) –
3
(2)
6
(3)
–
6
(4)
3
31. 45º 60º
1
2
-
(1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
32. PQRSP :-
(1) 20J (2) -20 J
(3) 400J (4) -374 J
33. (flame)(white hot) (1) (2) (3) (4)
H-7/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
34. A sound absorber attenuates (decreases) the sound level
by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of :
(1) 100 (2) 1000 (3) 10000 (4) 1035. A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic
motion with a time period T. If the length of the
pendulum is increased by 21%, the percentage
increase in the time period of the pendulum of
increased length is
(1) 10% (2) 21% (3) 30% (4) 50%
36. A soap bubble (S.T = 30 dyne/cm) has radius of
1 cm. The work done in doubling its radius would
be -
(1) 96 erg (2) 113.5 erg
(3) 20 erg (4) 2261 erg
37. When a system is taken from state i to state f along
the path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal and
W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. Work
done along the path ibf will be :
(1) 6 cal (2) 16 cal
(3) 66 cal (4) 14 cal
38. Given diagram shows an ideal gas taken from state
1 to 2 through optional paths, A,B,C. Let Q,W and
U represent the heat supplied to, the work done by
gas and the internal energy of the gas, respectively.
Then which of the following conditions is true?
(1) QA
< QB < Q
C
(2) WA>W
B> W
C
(3) U1 – U
2= Q
A–
W
A
(4) QA–W
A< Q
B–W
B< Q
C– W
C
39. Wavelength of the light from a star is 0.4 % more than
the corresponding wavelength on the earth, the
velocity of the star with respect to the earth is:
(1) 1.2 × 106 km/sec (2) 1.2 × 103 km/sec
(3) 1.2 × 104 km/sec (4) 1.2 × 105 km/sec
34. 20 (factor) (1) 100 (2) 1000 (3) 10000 (4) 10
35. T 21% :-(1) 10% (2) 21%
(3) 30% (4) 50%
36. (= 30 dyne/cm) 1 cm. -(1) 96 erg (2) 113.5 erg
(3) 20 erg (4) 2261 erg
37. i f iaf Q = 50 cal W = 20 calibf Q = 36 cal
ibf :-
(1) 6 cal (2) 16 cal
(3) 66 cal (4) 14 cal
38. 1 2 ABC Q,W U:
(1) QA
< QB < Q
C
(2) WA>W
B> W
C
(3) U1
– U2= Q
A–
W
A
(4) QA–W
A< Q
B–W
B< Q
C– W
C
39. 0.4 :(1) 1.2 × 106 km/sec (2) 1.2 × 103 km/sec
(3) 1.2 × 104 km/sec (4) 1.2 × 105 km/sec
H-8/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
40. A particle at the end of a spring executes simple
harmonic motion with a period t1, while the
corresponding period for another spring is t2. If
the period of oscillation with the two springs in
series is T, then
(1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T2 = t12 + t2
2
(3) T–1 = t1–1 + t2
–1 (4) T–2 = t1–2 + t2
–2
41. The height of water in a tank is H. The range of
the liquid emerging out form a hole in the wall
of the tank at a depth 3H
4 from the upper surface
of water, will be :-
(1) H (2) H
2(3)
3H
2(4)
3H
2
42. A bubble is at the bottom of the lake of depth h. As
the bubble comes to sea level, its radius increases
three times. If atmospheric pressure is equal to
metres of water column, then h is equal to:
(1) 26 (2)
(3) 8 (4) 27
43. The mean kinetic energy of one mole of gas per
degree of freedom (on the basis of kinetic theory
of gases) is:
(1) 1
kT2
(2) 3
kT2
(3) 3
RT2
(4) 1
RT2
44. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain
temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be :
(assume both gases to be ideal)
(1) 1420 ms–1 (2) 500 ms–1
(3) 650 ms–1 (4) 330 ms–1
45. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position
(1) Kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy
is maximum
(2) Both kinetic and potential energies are
maximum
(3) Kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy
is minimum
(4) Both kinetic and potential energies are
minimum
40. t1 t2 T :-
(1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T2 = t12 + t2
2
(3) T–1 = t1–1 + t2
–1 (4) T–2 = t1–2 + t2
–2
41. H
3H
4
:-
(1) H (2) H
2(3)
3H
2(4)
3H
2
42. h h :(1) 26 (2)
(3) 8 (4) 27
43. (per degree of freedom) :
(1) 1
kT2
(2) 3
kT2
(3) 3
RT2
(4) 1
RT2
44. (O2)
460 ms–1(He) :( )(1) 1420 ms–1 (2) 500 ms–1
(3) 650 ms–1 (4) 330 ms–1
45. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
H-9/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
46. Which of the following statement regarding H2O
2
is correct :-
(1) It is prepared by electrolysis of dil.H2SO4
(2) The bleaching action of H2O2 is temporary
(3) It can be concentrated by boiling
(4) the speed of decompositon of H2O
2 can be
retarded by using urea.
47. The product obtained when silica reacts with
hydrogen fluoride is
(1) SiF4
(2) H2SiF
6
(3) H2SiF
4(4) H
2SiF
3
48. Which of the following has maximum solubility
in water ?
(1) LiHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) KHCO3
(4) RbHCO3
49. Born Haber cycle may be used to calculate
I. eg
H
II. Mass number
III. Electronegativity
IV. Lattice energy
(1) I (2) I, III (3) II, III (4) I, IV
50. The –bond between Cl–O in ClO4– is formed by
the overlapping of ______ orbitals :-
(1) sp3 – 2p (2) 2p – 3p
(3) 2p – 3d (4) 3p3 – 3d
51. Which of the following statement is not correct :-
(1) Hardness of water effects soap consumption.
(2) Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of
Ca and Mg.
(3) Permanent hardness is due to soluble
sulphates, chlorides of Ca and Mg.
(4) Permanent hardness can be removed by
boiling watter.
52. The reaction of elemental P4 and aqueous NaOH
gives
(1) PH3, NaH
2PO
2(2) PH
3, Na
3PO
4
(3) NaHPO4, Na
3PO
4(4) Na
3P, Na
3PO
4
53. Which of the following is a pseudohalogen
analogues of inter halogen–
(1) HSCN (2) ICN (3) BrF3(4) C
2N
2
54. The correct order of lattice energy of the
following compounds
(1) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al
2O
3
(2) Al2O
3 > MgBr
2 > CaO > NaCl
(3) MgBr2 > Al
2O
3 > CaO > NaCl
(4) Al2O
3 > CaO > MgBr
2 > NaCl
46. H2O
2 :-
(1) H2SO4
(2) H2O2 (3) (4) H2
O2
47.
(1) SiF
4(2) H
2SiF
6
(3) H2SiF
4(4) H
2SiF
3
48.
(1) LiHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) KHCO3 (4) RbHCO3
49.
I. eg
H
II. III. IV. (1) I (2) I, III (3) II, III (4) I, IV
50. ClO4– Cl–O –______
:-(1) sp3 – 2p (2) 2p – 3p
(3) 2p – 3d (4) 3p3 – 3d
51. :-(1)
(2) Ca Mg
(3) Ca Mg
(4) 52. P
4 NaOH
(1) PH3, NaH
2PO
2(2) PH
3, Na
3PO
4
(3) NaHPO4, Na
3PO
4(4) Na
3P, Na
3PO
4
53. –
(1) HSCN (2) ICN (3) BrF3 (4) C2N2
54.
(1) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al
2O
3
(2) Al2O
3 > MgBr
2 > CaO > NaCl
(3) MgBr2 > Al
2O
3 > CaO > NaCl
(4) Al2O
3 > CaO > MgBr
2 > NaCl
H-10/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
55. In the following reaction, the Cl – P – Cl bond
angles:
5 4PCl PCl Cl
(1) All increase
(2) All stay the same
(3) All decrease
(4) Some increase and some decrease
56. Product formed when calcium carbide reacts with
heavy water :-
(1) CaD2(2) Ca
2D
2O
(3) C2D
2(4) CD
2
57. True acidic anhydride is
(1) CO (2) NO
(3) ClO2
(4) N2O
5
58. The correct order of Ka in aqueous solution at 298
K.
(1) H2O > H
2S > H
2Se > H
2Te
(2) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
(3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(4) None of these
59. Correct order of ionic character
(1) AlCl3 > MgCl
2 > NaCl
(2) MgO > NaCl > CaCl2
(3) RbCl > CsCl > NaCl
(4) CsCl > RbCl > NaCl
60. In order that the diagram below correctly depict
the structure of ICl2– , at what position should the
Cl atoms be drawn ?
I1
4
5
2
3
(1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 4
(3) 2, 3 (4) 4, 5
61. The electronic configuration of Curium
(Atomic number 96) is
(1) [Rn]5f3 6d5 7s2 (2) [Rn] 5f76d2 7s1
(3) [Rn] 5f76d1 7s2 (4) [Rn] 5f8 6d6 7s2
62. Sequence of acidic character is
(1) SO2 > CO
2 > CO > N
2O
5
(2) SO2 > N
2O
5 > CO > CO
2
(3) N2O
5 > SO
2 > CO > CO
2
(4) N2O
5 > SO
2 > CO
2 > CO
55. Cl – P – Cl
5 4PCl PCl Cl
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 56.
:-(1) CaD
2(2) Ca
2D
2O
(3) C2D2 (4) CD2
57. (1) CO (2) NO
(3) ClO2
(4) N2O
5
58. 298 K Ka
(1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(2) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
(3) H2O > H
2Te > H
2Se > H
2S
(4) 59.
(1) AlCl3 > MgCl
2 > NaCl
(2) MgO > NaCl > CaCl2
(3) RbCl > CsCl > NaCl
(4) CsCl > RbCl > NaCl
60. Cl ICl2–
I1
4
5
2
3
(1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 4
(3) 2, 3 (4) 4, 5
61. Curium ( 96) (1) [Rn]5f3 6d5 7s2 (2) [Rn] 5f76d2 7s1
(3) [Rn] 5f76d1 7s2 (4) [Rn] 5f8 6d6 7s2
62. (1) SO
2 > CO
2 > CO > N
2O
5
(2) SO2 > N
2O
5 > CO > CO
2
(3) N2O
5 > SO
2 > CO > CO
2
(4) N2O
5 > SO
2 > CO
2 > CO
H-11/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
63. Which produce alkaline solution when dissolved
in water
(i) Borax (ii) Potash alum
(iii)SO2(iv) SO
2(OH)
2
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (i)
64. Which of the following have maximum boiling
point?
(1) Acetone (2) Diethyl ether
(3) Methanol (4) Ethanol
65. Choose the molecules in which hybridisation
occurs in the ground state ?
(i) BCl3
(ii) NH3
(iii) PCl3
(iv) BeF2
The correct answer is -
(1) i, ii, iv (2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii (4) iii, iv
66. Among chalcogens, the correct order of amount
of energy released during electron gain
(electron gain enthalpy) is:
(1) S >O > Se > Te
(2) O < S < Se < Te
(3) Te < Se > S > O
(4) O < Te < Se < S
67. The melting point of Zn is lower as compared to
those of the other elements of 3d series because–
(1) the d–orbitals are completely filled
(2) the d–orbitals are partially filled
(3) d–electrons do not participate in metallic
bonding
(4) (1) and (3) both
68. Which of the following acid is normally handled
in metal apparatus made of Cu because it attacks
on glass–
(1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HNO3 (4) Chromic acid
69. Which overlap results in the formation of strongest
bond:
(1) s–s (2) p–p (axial)
(3) s–p (4) p–p(sidewise)
63.
(i) Borax (ii) Potash alum
(iii)SO2 (iv) SO2(OH)2
(1) (i) (iii) (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) (iii) (4) (i)
64.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
65.
(i) BCl3
(ii) NH3
(iii) PCl3
(iv) BeF2
(1) i, ii, iv (2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii (4) iii, iv
66.
(1) S >O > Se > Te
(2) O < S < Se < Te
(3) Te < Se > S > O
(4) O < Te < Se < S
67. Zn 3d
(1) d–
(2) d–
(3) d–
(4) (1) (3)
68.
–
(1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HNO3 (4) Chromic acid
69.
(1) s–s (2) p–p ()
(3) s–p (4) p–p()
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
H-12/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
70. IE1 IE
2 IE
3 IE
4 P Q
(IE1 + IE
2) (IE
3 + IE
4 )
(P) 2.45 KJ/mol 8.82 KJ/mol
(Q) 2.85 KJ/mol 6.11 KJ/mol
:(1) P2+ Q2+ (2) P4+ Q4+ (3) P4+ Q4+ (4) (1) (3)
71. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO
2 + Na [B(OH)
4] +H
2O
(1) -1, 2 (2) (3) -1, 2 (4) Na
2HPO
4
72. Cr (1) Cr2+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Cr4+ (4) Cr6+
73.
N = N = N
(1) –1, –1, +1 (2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1 (4) +1, –1, +1
74. S8
I. P–P
II. III. S sp3 (1) I, III (2) II, III (3) I, II (4) II
75. (Bracket) (1) S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ ()(2) C < N < F < O (2nd )(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl ()(4) Na+ > Mg2+ >Be2+ >Al3+ ()
76. SO2
:-(1) (2) KMnO
4
(3) H2S
(4)
70. The sum of IE1 and IE
2. IE
3 and IE
4 for elements
P and Q are given below
(IE1 + IE
2) (IE
3 + IE
4 )
(P) 2.45 KJ/mol 8.82 KJ/mol
(Q) 2.85 KJ/mol 6.11 KJ/mol
then according to given information the incorrect
statements is/are :
(1) P2+ is more stable than Q2+
(2) P4+ is more stable than Q4+
(3) P4+ is less stable than Q4+
(4) Both (1) & (3)
71. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO
2 + Na [B(OH)
4] +H
2O
How can this reaction is made to proceed in
forward direction?
(1) Addition of cis1, 2 diol
(2) Addition of Borax
(3) Addition of trans-1, 2 diol
(4) Addition of Na2HPO
4
72. The most stable oxidation state of Cr in aq.
medium is –
(1) Cr2+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Cr4+ (4) Cr6+
73. In the following electron dot structure, correct
calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is
N = N = N
(1) –1, –1, +1 (2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1 (4) +1, –1, +1
74. What is true about S8 molecule ?
I. There is no P–P
bonds present in the molecule
II. There are eight lone pair of electronsIII. Each S atom is sp3 hybridised
(1) I, III (2) II, III (3) I, II (4) only II
75. Which of the following order is correct for the
property mentioned in brackets?
(1) S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ (Ionisation energy)
(2) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy)(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (electronegativity)
(4) Na+ > Mg2+ >Be2+ >Al3+ (Ionic radius)76. SO
2 is a strong reducing agent however it can also
act as an oxidising agent. Which of the followingshows its oxidising nature :-(1) Bleaching action(2) Decolourising of acidified KMnO
4 solution
(3) Reaction with H2S to give sulphur
(4) Tuming acidified dichromate paper green
H-13/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
77. The yellow colour of chromates changes to orange
on acidification due to formation of–
(1) Cr3+ (2) Cr2O
3(3) Cr
2O
72– (4) CrO
4–
78. In 2O , O
2 and 2
2O , the total number of
antibonding electrons respectively are
(1) 7, 6, 8 (2) 1, 0, 2
(3) 6, 6, 6 (4) 8, 6, 8
79. The density of water is greater than that of ice
because of
(1) dipole-dipole interaction
(2) hydrogen bond forming open cage structure
in ice
(3) dipole-induced dipole interaction
(4) covalent bond formation
80. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the
fact that :
(1) Zr & Y have about the same radius
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have almost the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
81. When H2SO
4 react with PCl
5 the obtained product
is/are
(1) SO2Cl
2(2) POCl
3
(3) HCl (4) All of these
82. Group 13 elements show +1 and +3 oxidation
states. Relative stability of +3 oxidation state may
be given as
(1) Tl3+ > In3+ > Ga3+ > Al3+ > B3+
(2) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+
(3) Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+ > B3+
(4) Al3+ > B3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+
83. Compound X is anhydride of sulphuric acid. The
number of – bonds and the number of – bonds
present in X are respectively
(1) 3, 3 (2) 4, 2 (3) 2, 4 (4) 4, 3
84. The hybridization of carbon involved in the
C2–C
3 single bond in the molecule CHC–CH=CH
2 is :
(1) sp3–sp2 (2) sp3–sp3
(3) sp2–sp (4) sp2–sp2
85. Which one of the following orders represents the
correct sequence of increasing basic nature of
given oxides ?
(1) Na2O < K
2O < MgO < Al
2O
3
(2) K2O < Na
2O < Al
2O
3 < MgO
(3) Al2O
3 < MgO < Na
2O < K
2O
(4) MgO < K2O < Al
2O
3 < Na
2O
77. (1) Cr3+ (2) Cr
2O
3(3) Cr
2O
72– (4) CrO
4–
78.2O , O
2 2
2O
(1) 7, 6, 8 (2) 1, 0, 2
(3) 6, 6, 6 (4) 8, 6, 8
79.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 80. (lanthanide)
:(1) Zr Y (2) Zr Nb (3) Zr Hf (4) Zr Zn
81. H2SO
4 PCl
5
(1) SO
2Cl
2(2) POCl
3
(3) HCl (4) 82. 13 +1 +3
+3 (1) Tl3+ > In3+ > Ga3+ > Al3+ > B3+
(2) B3+ > Al3+ > Ga3+ > In3+ > Tl3+
(3) Al3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+ > B3+
(4) Al3+ > B3+ > Ga3+ > Tl3+ > In3+
83. X (anhydride) X
(1) 3, 3 (2) 4, 2 (3) 2, 4 (4) 4, 3
84. CH C–CH=CH2 C
2-C
3
(1) sp3–sp2 (2) sp3–sp3
(3) sp2–sp (4) sp2–sp2
85. (1) Na
2O < K
2O < MgO < Al
2O
3
(2) K2O < Na
2O < Al
2O
3 < MgO
(3) Al2O
3 < MgO < Na
2O < K
2O
(4) MgO < K2O < Al
2O
3 < Na
2O
H-14/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
86. The following compounds have been arranged in
order of their increasing thermal stabilities.
Identify the correct order.
I. K2CO
3II. MgCO
3
III. CaCO3
IV. BeCO3
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I
(3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < III < I
87. Which of the following compounds is not matched
correctly with its structure ?
(1)
N
B
N
B
B
N
H
H
H
H
H
H
– Borazine
(2)H
H
H
H
B
H
H
B – Diborane
(3)Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
AlCl
Al
Cl – Aluminium chloride
(4)Cl
Cl
B — Cl – Boron trichloride
88. The bond angle and % d-character in S-atom in
SF6 are
(1) 120°, 20% (2) 90°, 33%
(3) 105°, 25% (4) 90°, 25%
89. The correct sequence of bond order is:
(1) 2 2 2O O O (2) 2 2 2O O O
(3) 2 2 2O O O (4) 2 2 2O O O
90. The process requiring absorption of energy is :
(1) N N
(2) F F
(3) Cl Cl
(4) H H
86.
I. K2CO
3II. MgCO
3
III. CaCO3
IV. BeCO3
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I
(3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < III < I
87.
(1)
N
B
N
B
B
N
H
H
H
H
H
H
– Borazine
(2)H
H
H
H
B
H
H
B – Diborane
(3)Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
AlCl
Al
Cl –Aluminium chloride
(4)Cl
Cl
B — Cl – Boron trichloride
88. S- d-% SF6
(1) 120°, 20% (2) 90°, 33%
(3) 105°, 25% (4) 90°, 25%
89. :
(1) 2 2 2O O O (2) 2 2 2O O O
(3) 2 2 2O O O (4) 2 2 2O O O
90. (absorption) :
(1) N N
(2) F F
(3) Cl Cl
(4) H H
H-15/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
91. On the basis of following given diagram, select
correct option
A
BC
D
E
F
Synapse comprises –
(1) B, D and E (2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and E (4) C, D and E
92. Find out the correct matching–
(1) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children
causes cretinism
(2) Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which
promotes movement of calcium ion from
blood into bones during calcifications
(3) Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after
puberty
(4) Pancreas – Delta cells of islets of Langerhans
secrete a hormone which stimulates
glycogenolysis in liver.
93. Read the following statements carefully and
choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(A) Digestion of biomacromolecules takes place
in jejunum and ileum of small intestine.
(B) The adrenal medulla contains centres which
control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes
and gastric secretions.
(C) Due to cancer of the thyroid gland or due to
development of nodules of the thyroid glands,
the rate of synthesis and secretion of the
thyroid hormones is increased to abnormal
high levels leading to a condition called
hyperthyroidism which adversely affects the
body physiology.
(D) All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae.
(1) A and B are correct, C, D are incorrect
(2) C is correct, A, B and D are incorrect
(3) A and D are correct, B and C are incorrect
(4) A and B are incorrect, C and D are correct
91.
A
BC
D
E
F
(1) B, D E (2) A, C D
(3) B, C E (4) C, D E
92. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
93. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A B C D
(2) C A, B D
(3) A D , B C
(4) A B , C D
H-16/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
94. In which condition, oxygen dissociation curve of
haemoglobin shift to right of normal curve?
(1) Decrease in pH
(2) Decrease in CO2 concentration
(3) Decrease in acidity
(4) Decrease in temperature
95. Which one of the following statements in regard
to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(1) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
reabsorbing 3HCO .
(2) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate
is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to electrolytes.
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
96. Match the Columns
A Thiamine 1 Pellagra
B Riboflavin 2 Beri-Beri
C Niacine 3 Cheilosis
D Folic acid 4Megaloblastic
anaemia
Vitamin Deficiency Diseases
(1) ABCD/2341 (2) ABCD/2314
(3) ABCD/2134 (4) ABCD/2143
97. In circulatory system, valves are found in
(1) All arteries & vein
(2) Heart & veins
(3) Only in veins
(4) Only in heart
98. Which of these is the primary component of the
phloem sap?
(1) Fructose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Glucose
(4) Sulphuric Acid
99. During fermentation, the immediate fate of the
electrons in NADH is that they are :-
(1) transferred to the electron transport chain.
(2) transferred to an organic molecule.
(3) transferred to O2
(4) used to make CO2
94. (1) pH (2) CO
2
(3) (4)
95.
(1) 3HCO
(2) 99
(3)
(4)
96.
A Fkkbfeu 1 iSysxzk
B jkbcks¶ysfou 2 csjh& csjh
C fu;kflu 3 fpyksfll
D Qksfyd vEy 4esXkkyksCykfLVd
jDrkYirk
foVkfeu viw.kZrk jksx
(1) ABCD/2341 (2) ABCD/2314
(3) ABCD/2134 (4) ABCD/2143
97.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
98.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
99. NADH
(1)
(2)
(3) O2
(4) CO2
H-17/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
100. Chemiosmotic hypothesis excludes
(1) Splitting of water molecules on inner site of
membrane.
(2) Protons & hydrogen that are produced by
splitting of water accumulate within Lumen
of thylakoids.
(3) As electrons moves through photosystem,
electrons are transports across the membrane.
(4) NADP reductase enzyme is located on stroma
side of membrane.
101. How many statement/s is/are incorrect?
(i) Cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract
of nerve fibres called corpus callosum.
(ii) Cerebral cortex is referred to as a white matter
due to its whitish appearance.
(iii) The thalamus contains a number of centres
which control body temperature, urge for
eating and drinking including respiratory and
cardiovascular reflexes.
(iv) Cerebellar aqueduct canal passess through the
mid brain.
(v) The medulla contains centre for gastric secretion.
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
102. Secretion of mineralocorticoids is under control
of–
(1) FSH (2) TSH
(3) ADH (4) ACTH
103. Foramen of Monro provides a passage connecting
(1) Brain and spinal cord
(2) Lateral ventricles with third ventricles in brain
(3) Fourth ventricles with optic ventricle
(4) Middle ear with pharynx
104. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory
reserve volume.
(2) Total lung capacity minus residual volume.
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume.
(4) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve
volume.
100. Chemiosmotic (1) Thylacoid
(2) Protons hydrogen thylakoids Lumen
(3) Electrons photosystem Thylakoid
(4) NADP reductase enzyme
101.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
102. (1) FSH (2) TSH
(3) ADH (4) ACTH
103. (1) (2) (3) IV (4)
104. (1)
(2) (3) (4)
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
H-18/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
105. Which one of the following correctly explains the
function of a specific part of a human nephron?
(1) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for
the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule.
(2) Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major
substances from the glomerular filtrate.
(3) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of
K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries.
(4) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away
from the glomerulus towards renal vein.
106. Which of the following nutrients requires sodium
ions during their absorption
(1) Glucose and Fructose
(2) Fructose and Fatty acids
(3) Glucose and Fat
(4) All of the above
107. Which of the following has lowest action
potential?
(1) S.A. node
(2) Purkinje fibre
(3) Bundle of His
(4) A-V node
108. Which force pushes water into the xylem as
osmosis moves water into the root?
(1) Water stress
(2) Atmospheric pressure
(3) Root pressure
(4) Pulling pressure
109. Flowering in pinapples is promoted by
(1) Auxins (2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin (4) ABA
110. ______ are organic compounds that are tightly
bound to the apoenzyme.
(1) Apoenzyme (2) Coenzymes
(3) Prosthetic group (4) Cofactors
111. Sequence of ear ossicles from fenestra ovalis to
tympanum–
(1) Malleus, Incus and Stapes
(2) Malleus, Stapes and Incus
(3) Stapes, Incus and Malleus
(4) Stapes, Malleus and Incus
112. Which of the following hormones influences the
production of oestrogen at puberty–
(1) FSH and LH (2) ACTH
(3) TSH (4) GH
105. (1)
(2)
(3) K+
(4)
106. (1) (2) (3) (4)
107. (1) (2) (3) (4) (
108. (1) (2) (3) (4)
109. (1) (2) (3) (4) ABA
110. (1) Apoenzyme (2) Coenzymes
(3) Prosthetic group (4) Cofactors
111. (1) (2) (3) (4)
112. (1) FSH LH (2) ACTH
(3) TSH (4) GH
H-19/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
113. Which one of the following is the correct
difference between rod cells and cone cells of our
retina?
Rod cells Cone cells
(1) Visual
activity
Very low Low
(2) Visual
pigment
contained
Iodopsin Rhodopsin
(3) Overall
function
Vision in poor
light
Colour vision
and detailed
vision in
bright light
(4) Distribution More
concentrated in
centre of retina
Evenly
distributed all
over retina
114. Read the following events occured during muscle
contraction, arrange them in correct sequence and
select the correct option given below-
(A) Hydrolysis of ATP and formation of cross bridge
(B) During power stroke, thin filaments moves
towards the centre of A band.
(C) Release of Acetylcholine
(D) Generation of action potential in sarcolemna
(E) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum,
increases sarcoplasmic Ca+2 level
(F) Binding of Ca+2 with troponin and masking
activities removed.
(1) b – a – c – d – e – f (2) c – d – e – f – a – b
(3) c – d – e – f – b – a (4) c – d – e – a – b – f
115. Which one of the following statements is correct
with respect to kidney function regulation?
(1) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH
release is suppressed.
(2) Exposure to cold temperature of body
stimulates release of ADH.
(3) An increase in glomerular blood flow
stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
(4) During summer when body loses lot of water
by evaporation, the release of ADH is
suppressed.
113.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
114.
(A) ATP
(B) A-band
(C)
(D)
(E) Ca+2 Ca+2
(F) Ca+2
(1) b – a – c – d – e – f (2) c – d – e – f – a – b
(3) c – d – e – f – b – a (4) c – d – e – a – b – f
115. (1) ADH
(2) ADH
(3) II
(4) ADH
H-20/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
116. A. PEM are widespread in South and South East
Asia, South Africa and West and Central America.
B.Both disorder Marasmas and K washiorkar can
be found in children, if mother’s milk is not
available.
(1) Only A correct
(2) Only B correct
(3) Both correct
(4) Both wrong
117. Find out A, B and C respectively in given figure–
AB
C
(1) Alveolar wall, Basement substance and Red
blood cell
(2) Basement substance, Alveolar wall and red
blood cell
(3) Red blood cell, Basement substance and
Alveolar wall
(4) Red blood cell, Alveolar wall and Basement
substance
118. What type of facilitated diffusion is represented
in the following diagram?
Carrier protein
Membrane
A
B
(1) Uniport (2) Antiport
(3) Symport (4) Simple diffusion
119. In the synthesis of one mole of glucose by C3 and
C4 plants, the number of moles of ATP used by
C3 and C
4 plants is respectively:
(1) 15 and 30 (2) 10 and 20
(3) 18 and 30 (4) 15 and 20
116. A. PEM
B.
(1) A
(2) B
(3)
(4)
117. A, B C
AB
C
(1)
(2) ,
(3)
(4)
118.
Carrier protein
Membrane
A
B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
119. C3 C
4
ATP
(1) 15 30 (2) 10 20
(3) 18 30 (4) 15 20
H-21/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
120. Figure shows the effect of light on the rate of
photosynthesis based on the figure select the
correct option
I. A - represent condition when light is limiting.
II. D - represents light saturation point.
III. B - represents condition when light is optimum.
(1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) I and III (4) I, II and III
121. The inner layer of eye is retina and it contains three
layers of cells from outside to inside–
(1) Ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor
cells.
(2) Bipolar cells, ganglion cells and photoreceptor
cell.
(3) Photoreceptor cell, bipolar cells and ganglion
cells.
(4) Photoreceptor cell, ganglion cells and bipolar
cells.
122. In the figure given below A, B, C and D are–
A
B
CD
(1) Ilium, Patella, Pubis, Ischium
(2) Patella, Ilium, Pubis, Ischium
(3) Pubis, Ilium, Patella, Ischium
(4) Ischium, Ilium, Pubis, Patella
120.
I. A - II. D - saturation point III. B - (1) I II (2) II III(3) I III (4) I, II III
121. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
122. A, B, C D
A
B
CD
(1) (2) (3) (4)
H-22/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
123. Cornea transplant in human is almost never
rejected. This is because
(1) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(2) It has no blood supply
(3) It is composed of enucleated cells
(4) It is a non-living layer
124. Which of the following is correct matching pair
1 Fibrous Joint p Between atlas and axis
2Cartilagenous
Jointq
Between Mandible and
Maxilla
3 Gliding Joint r Between the carpals
4 Saddle Joint sBetween Pectoral girdle
and humerus
Type of Joints Location
125. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes
is found in
(1) Reptiles and Bird
(2) Birds and Annelids
(3) Amphibians and Reptiles
(4) Insects and Amphibians
126. Read the following statements
(a) Albumin primarily are involved in osmotic
balance.
(b) Globulin help in osmotic balance.
(c) Serum is plasma without clotting factors.
(d) Clotting factors of blood are in active
form.
(e) Graveyard of RBC is spleen.
Correct option is :
(1) a, d (2) b,c, and d
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e
127. Which condition is not required for right shift of
oxygen dissociation curve?
(1) High pO2 at tissue level
(2) High pCO2 at tissue level
(3) High pH at tissue level
(4) High temperature at tissue level
128. Connecting link between respiration (citric acid
cycle) and protein synthesis is
(1) -ketoglutaric acid
(2) Citric acid
(3) Succinic acid
(4) Fumaric acid
123.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
124.
1 rarqe; laf/k p ,Vyl vkSj v{kh; dk e/;
2 mikfLFky laf/k q esafMcy vkSj eSfDlyk ds e/;
3 foliZ.k laf/k+ r dkiZYl ds e/;
4 lSMy laf/k s va'k es[kyk vkSj áwejl ds e/;
laf/k dk izdkj LFkku
125. (1) (2) (3) (4)
126. (a) Albumin
(b) Globulin (c)
(d) (e)
:
(1) a, d (2) b,c, d(3) b, c e (4) a,c e
127. (1) pO2
(2) pCO2
(3) pH
(4) 128.
(1) -(2) (3) (4)
H-23/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
129. Match the following :
A Priestley i Role of light in
photosynthesis
B Jan
ingenhoustz
ii Action spectrum
C Englemann iii Role of air in
photosynthesis
D Van Niel iv Role of suitable
oxidisable compound
Column-I Column-II
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
130. Match the column.
Column-I Column-II
A. Sulphur i. Chlorophyll
B. Zinc ii. Nitrogenase
C. Magnesium iii. Methionine
D. Molybdenum iv. Auxin
(1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
(2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii
(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
131. In the wall of alimentary canal, the muscularis is
formed by
(1) Smooth muscles usually arranged into an
outer circular and inner longitudinal layer
(2) Smooth muscles usually arranged into an
inner circular and outer longitudinal layer
(3) Striated muscles usually arranged into an outer
circular and inner longitudinal layer
(4) Striated muscles usually arranged into an inner
circular and outer longitudinal layer
132. Mark the incorrect statement–
(1) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder
affecting neuromuscular junctions leading to
fatigue, weakness and paralysis of skeletal
muscle.
(2) Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degenration
of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder.
(3) Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles due to low
Na+ in sarcoplasm
(4) Gout inflammation of joints due to
accumulation of uric acid crystal
129. :
A i
B ii
C iii
D iv
-I -II
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
130.
I II
A i
B ii
C iii
D iv
(1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
(2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii
(4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
131. (muscularis) (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
132. (1)
(2)
(3) Na+
(4)
H-24/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
133. Given below is diagrammatic cross section of a
single loop of human cochlea.
Which one of the following options correctly
represents the names of three different parts?
(1) B-Tectorial membrane, C-Perilymph,
D-Secretory cells
(2) C-Endolymph, D-Sensory hair cells, A-Serum
(3) D-Sensory hair cells, A-Endolymph,
B-Tectorial membrane
(4) A-Perilymph, B-Tectorial membrane,
C-Endolymph
134. Mandible bone of lower jaw articulated with
which of the following cranial bone ?
(1) Spnenoid
(2) Temporal bone
(3) Occipital bone
(4) Both Temporal and Occipital
135. Identify the correct match of source of gland and
its secretion -
Source gland
Hormone Function
(1) Anterior pituitary
Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child
birth(2) Posterior
Pituitary
Vasopressin Stimulates reabsorption
of water in the distal tubules in the nephron
(3) Corpus luteum
Estrogen Supports pregnancy
(4) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
133.
(1) B- C- D-
(2) C-D-
A-
(3) D- A- B-
(4) A-B- C-
134.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
135.
1
2
3
4
H-25/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
136. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Complex QRS - ventricular systole
(b) Distance between two P-wave increases in
tachycardia condition.
(c) The end of the T-wave marks the end of
ventricular systole.
(d) Diastolic pressure minus systolic pressure is
said to be pulse pressure.
(1) a,b,c (2) a,c,d
(3) b,d (4) only a
137. Consider the given statements–
(a) Rhodopsin is also called as visual purple.
(b) Fovea is a point of visual acuity.
(c) Human eyes photo pigments is composed of
opsin and retinal.
(d) Vitreous chamber is filled by transparent gel.
How many above statement is/are correct–
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
138. Identify the product marked A and B in the
following pathway
3–Phosphoglyceric acid
(A) Pyruvate
NAD
NADH + H
(B)
CO2
(1) (A) 2-Phosphoglycerate; (B) Acetyl Co-A
(2) (A) PEP; (B) Lactic acid
(3) (A) PEP; (B) Ethyl alcohol
(4) (A) PEP; (B) Acetly Co-A product
136. ECG
?
(a) QRS -
(b) P-wave
(c) T-
(d)
(pulse pressure)
(1) a,b,c (2) a,c,d
(3) b,d (4) a
137.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
138. (A) (B)
3–
(A)
NAD
NADH + H
(B)
CO2
(1) (A) 2-; (B) Co-A
(2) (A) PEP; (B)
(3) (A) PEP; (B)
(4) (A) PEP; (B) Co-A
H-26/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
139. In the given diagram if TP of cell 'B' increases to 18,
what would be the net direction of water movement?
OP = 12TP = 6
E
OP = 20TP = 14
BOP = 15TP = 9
D
OP = 8TP = 2
A
OP = 6TP = 0
C
(1) A to B and B to E (2) E to B and A
(3) B to E and E to A (4) B to E and A
140. Development is considered as the sum of
(1) Cell division and cell elongation
(2) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(3) Growth and differentiation
(4) Morphogenesis
141. Which of the following correctly represent the
different anatomical regions of human stomach
A
B
C
D
E
(1) A-Trachea, B-Cardiac, C-Pyloric,
D-Fundus, E-Duodenum
(2) A-Foodpipe, B-Fundus, C-Cardiac,
D-Pyloric, E-Duodenum
(3) A-Oesophagus, B-Cardiac, C-Fundus,
D-Pyloric, E-Duodenum
(4) A-Oesophagus, B-Pyloric, C-Cardiac,
D-Duodenum, E-Fundus
142. Passage of ova through female reproductive tract
is facilitated mainly by–
(1) Amoeboid movement
(2) Ciliary movement
(3) Muscular movement only
(4) Pseudopodial movement
139. B TP 18 ?
OP = 12TP = 6
E
OP = 20TP = 14
BOP = 15TP = 9
D
OP = 8TP = 2
A
OP = 6TP = 0
C
(1) A B B E (2) E B A(3) B E E A (4) B E A
140. (1) (2) (3) (4)
141.
A
B
C
D
E
(1) A-, B-, C-, D-,
E-
(2) A-, B-, C-, D-,
E-
(3) A-, B-, C-, D-,
E-
(4) A-, B-, C-, D-,E-
142.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
H-27/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
143. People living at sea level have around 5 million
RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas
those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have
around 8 million. This is because at high altitude
(1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and
more oxygen is available.
(2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more
RBCs are needed to absorb the required
amount of O2 to survive.
(3) There is more UV radiation which enhances
RBC production.
(4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more
RBCs are formed.
144. Ultrafiltration occurs when
(1) Hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure.
(2) Osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure.
(3) Capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds
glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
(4) Blood Colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular
pressure remain lesser than glomerular
hydrostatic pressure.
145. A health disorder that results from the deficiency
of thyroxine in adults and characterised (i) a low
metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight and
(iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is
(1) simple goitre (2) myxoderma
(3) cretinism (4) hyperthyroidism
146. Read the following ?
(a) Frog (i) Double circulation
(b) Pigeon (ii) Single circulation
(c) Fish (iii) Incomplete double circulation
(d) Human
(A) c ii (B) d i, b i
(C) a iii, b ii (D) c i
Which of the following is true?
(1) A and C (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) Only B
147. Plants require iron and magnesium for–
(1) Translocation of carbohydrates
(2) Opening and closing of stomata
(3) Synthesis of chlorophyll
(4) Energy transfer during photosynthesis and
respiration
143. 50 5400 80 (1)
(2) O2
O2
(3) UV
(4)
144. (1) (2) (3)
(4)
145. (i) , (ii) (iii) (1) (2) (3) (4)
146. ?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (A) c ii (B) d i, b i
(C) a iii, b ii (D) c i
(1) A C (2) A B(3) B C (4) B
147. (1) (2) (3) (4)
H-28/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
148. Which of the following synthetic product is used
commercially for fruits ripening ?
(1) IBA
(2) NAA
(3) BAP
(4) Ethephon
149. In the above scheme of nitrogen metabolism
number 1 and 2, stand for :
Decaying biomass
NH3 NO2
–
NO3
–
1 2
(1) Nitrogen fixation and nitrification respectively.
(2) Nitrification and ammonification respectively.
(3) Ammonification and nitrogen fixation
respectively.
(4) Ammonification and nitrification respectively.
150. How many oxygen atoms are required to oxidise
one mole of pyruvic acid in mitochondria?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Five (4) Six
151. Read the following statements (A to D)–
(A) Principal organ of digestion and absorption
of nutrients is small intestine
(B) Absorption of water, some minerals and drugs
takes place in large intestine
(C) Absorption of water, simple sugars, small fatty
acids and alcohol takes place in stomach
(D) Certain drugs come in contact with the mucosa
of oral cavity are absorbed into blood capillaries
How many statements are correct–
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) four
152. Mark the feature which is not associated with
white muscle fibres?
(1) Lighter in colour
(2) These muscles have a fast rate of contraction
but for a short period
(3) They depend mainly on glycolysis for energy
production and soon get fatigued
(4) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum compared to red
muscle fibres
148.
(1) (IBA)
(2) (NAA)
(3) (BAP)
(4) (Ethephon)
149. 1 2
:
NH3 NO2
–
NO3
–
1 2
(1) N2
(2)
(3) N2
(4)
150.
O2
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
151. (A D)–
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
152.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
H-29/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
153. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d)
and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal
human adult.
Respiratory
Volumes
a. Residual volume 2500 mL
b. Vital capacity 3500 mL
c. Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL
d. Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
Respiratory Capacities
Which one of the following is the correct matching
of two capacities and volumes?
(1) c. 1200 mL d. 2500 mL(2) d. 3500 mL a. 1200 mL
(3) a. 4500 mL b. 3500 mL(4) b. 2500 mL c. 4500 mL
154. Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism
of urine formation in man
(1) The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml
per minute.
(2) The ultrafiltration is opposed by the colloidal
osmotic pressure of plasma.
(3) Tubular secretion takes place in the PCT.
(4) The counter current system contribute in
diluting the urine.
155. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but
not vice versa.
(2) Neurons regulate endocrine activity but not
vice versa.
(3) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and
nervous system regulates endocrine glands.
(4) Neither hormones control neural activity nor
the neurons control endocrine activity.
156. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) The walls of ventricle are much thinner than
that of Atria.
(2) Heart is Autoregulated and Auto excitable.
(3) Cardiac output = stroke volume Blood pressure.
(4) Heart sound dup is produced by closing of
A-V valve.
153. (a-d)
a. 2500 mL
b. 3500 mL
c.
1200 mL
d. 4500 mL
(1) c. 1200 mL d. 2500 mL(2) d. 3500 mL a. 1200 mL
(3) a. 4500 mL b. 3500 mL(4) b. 2500 mL c. 4500 mL
154.
(1) 125 ml
(2)
(3) PCT
(4)
155. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
156.
(1)
(2)
(3) ×
(4) A-V
H-30/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
157. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for
photosynthesis?
(1) Sunlight
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Water
158. What type of growth is represented in the follow-
ing diagram ?
(1) Arithmetic
(2) Geometric
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
159. Which statement is wrong ?
(1) Anaerobic respiration takes place in the cytoplasm.
(2) All the enzymes which are involved in the
Krebs cycle are present in the matrix.
(3) ATPase enzyme is present in the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
(4) Maximum ATP formation takes place in the
matrix.
160. During translocation of food :-
(1) ATP required during both loading and
unloading.
(2) ATP required only during loading
(3) ATP required only during unloading
(4) ATP release during unloading
157.
(1)
(2)
(3) CO2
(4)
158.
(1)
(2)
(3) (1) (2)
(4)
159. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) ATPase
(4) ATP matrix
160. :-
(1) ATP
(2) ATP
(3) ATP
(4) ATP
H-31/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
161. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
digestion and absorption of fats–
(1) Fats bile salts
Emulsified fat bile salts
fatty acid and glycerol bile pigments
Chylo micron micelle Lymph capllaries
(2) Fats bile pigments Emulsified fat
bile salts fatty acid and glycerol
bile salts micelle Chylo micron
Blood capllaries
(3) Fats bile pigments Emulsified fat
Lipase fatty acid and glycerol
bile pigments micelle Chylo micron
Blood capllaries
(4) Fats bile salts
Emulsified fat Lipase
fatty acid and glycerol bile salts micelle
Chylo micron Lymph capllaries
162. Select the answer with correct matching of the
structure, its location and function.
Structure Location Function(1) Blind spot Near the place
where optic nerve leaves the eye
Rods and cones
are present but inactive here
(2) Eustachian
tube
Anterior part of
internal ear
Equalizes air
pressure on either sides of tympanic
membrane
(3) Cere-bellum
Mid brain Controls respiration and gastric secretion
(4) Hypo-thalamus
Fore brain Controls body temperature, urge
for eating and drinking
161.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
162.
lajpuk fLFkfr dk;Z(1) va/k fcanq ml LFkku ds lehi
tgk¡ n`f"V raf=kdk vka[k ls ckgj vkrh gSA
'kykdk,sa ,oa 'kadq gksrs gS ijarq ;gk¡ ij fuf"Ø; gSA
(2) ;wLVsf'k;u ufydk
var%d.kZ dk vxz Hkkx d.kZZiV f>Yyh ds nksuksa vksj ok;q nkc dks leku cuk;s j[kuk
(3) vuqefLr"d e/; efLr"d 'olu rFkk vkek'k;h L=kkoksa dk fu;a=k.k
(4) gkbiksFkSysel vxz efLr"d 'kjhj rkieku rFkk [kkus ihus dh mRrstuk dk fu;a=k.k
H-32/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
163. Mammalian lungs contain an enormous number
of minute alveoli. This is to allow
(1) More space for increasing the total volume of
inspired air.
(2) More surface area for diffusion of gases.
(3) More spongy texture for keeping lungs in
proper shape.
(4) More nerve supply to keep, the organs working
more efficiently.
164. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline
drip because
(1) Cl– ions are important component of blood plasma.
(2) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body.
(3) Na+ ions are important in transport of
substances across membrane.
(4) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in
stomach for digestion.
165. Hormones involves in carbohydrate metabolism are
(1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and parathomone.
(2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and
glucocorticoids.
(3) Insulin, glucagon, glucocorticoid and calcitonin.
(4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin.
166. Which of the following is correct regarding
cardiac cycle?
(1) Atrial systole and ventricular diastole is
coincide for 0.3 sec.
(2) Atrial distole and ventricular systole coincide
for 0.3 sec.
(3) During joint diastole, all valves of heart is
closed.
(4) Rapid filling of blood in to ventricle is last
phase of joint diastole.
167. The micronutrient used for the synthesis of IAA
is
(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Mn
168. What is not correct about Kreb's cycle?
(1) ATP/GTP is formed
(2) Two decarboxylations steps
(3) Acetyl CoA combines with OAA
(4) First compound has 3 carbons
163.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
164.
(1) Cl– (2) Na+
(3) Na+
(4) Cl– HCl
165.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
166.
(1) 0.3
(2) 0.3
(3)
(4)
167. IAA
(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Mn
168.
(1) ATP/GTP
(2) decarboxylation)
(3) , OAA
(4) 3
H-33/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
169. The inhibitors which react with protein side chain,
can not stop...........
(1) Diffusion
(2) Facilitated Diffusion
(3) Active transport
(4) Symport
170. Law of limiting factor was given by
(1) Liebig
(2) Blackman
(3) Calvin
(4) Arnon
171. Hormone useful in suppressing allergies,
rheumatoid arthritis and tissue inflammation is–
(1) Mineralocorticoid
(2) Glucocorticoid
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Adrenaline
172. When a neuron is stimulated to generate nerve
impulse, the electrical potential on the inside of
the nerve membrane changes
(1) From negative to positive and remains positive
(2) From negative to positive and restore to negative
(3) From positive to negative and remains negative
(4) From positive to negative and back to positive
173. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage
in man?
(1) Nasal cavity pharynx trachea larynx
bronchi bronchioles alveoli
(2) Nasal cavity pharynx larynx trachea
bronchi bronchioles alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity larynx pharynx trachea
bronchi bronchioles alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity larynx bronchi pharynx
trachea bronchioles alveoli
174. Compounds having a role in mechanism of
concentration of the filtrate are :-
(1) KCl and Urea
(2) NaHCO3 and Urea
(3) NaCl and Urea
(4) All of the above
169.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
170.
(1) Liebig
(2) Blackman
(3) Calvin
(4) Arnon
171.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
172.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
173.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
174.
:-
(1) KCl
(2) NaHCO3
(3) NaCl
(4)
H-34/36
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/16-03-2016
1001CM303315048
175. Identify 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively in the given structure
of a section of small intestinal mucosa showing villi
12
3
456
(1) Lacteal, villi, artery, vein
(2) Lacteal, capillaries, artery, vein
(3) Capillaries, lacteal, artery, vein
(4) Lacteal, capillaries, artery, crypt
176. What is the function of platelets and RBC
respectively?
(1) Immunity and O2 transport
(2) Clotting and Hb formation
(3) Clotting and O2 transport
(4) O2 transport & clotting
177. How many ATP are required in biological nitro-
gen fixation of 1 molecule of NH3?
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 12
178. What is the correct sequence of following events ?
(a) Plasmatic growth
(b) Differentiation
(c) Senescence
(1) (a) – (b) – (c)
(2) (b) – (c) – (a)
(3) (c) – (a) – (b)
(4) (c) – (b) – (a)
175.
2, 3, 4 5
12
3
456
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
176. PlateletsRBC ()
(1) O2
(2) Hb
(3) O2
(4) O2
177.
ATP
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 12
178.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) (a) – (b) – (c)
(2) (b) – (c) – (a)
(3) (c) – (a) – (b)
(4) (c) – (b) – (a)
H-35/361001CM303315048
Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLF,G,H,MAZA & B/16-03-2016
179. A living organism growing in a natural
environment, shows which type of curve ?
(1)
Time
Hei
gh
t o
f P
lan
t
(2)
Time
Stationary Phase
Log PhaseHei
ght
of
Pla
nt
(3)
Time
Stationary Phase
Lag PhaseSiz
e w
eig
ht o
f P
lan
t
(4) Both (1) & (3)
180. EMP pathway
(1) Is energy dependent process
(2) Is reducing
(3) Named as Ernst Haeckel, Mayerhalf & J. Parnas
(4) Is pathway of C4
cycle
179.
(1)
Time
Hei
gh
t o
f P
lan
t
(2)
Time
Stationary Phase
Log PhaseHei
ght
of
Pla
nt
(3)
Time
Stationary Phase
Lag PhaseSiz
e w
eig
ht o
f P
lan
t
(4) Both (1) & (3)
180. EMP pathway
(1)
(2) (3) Named as Ernst Haeckel, Mayerhalf & J. Parnas
(4) C4
Your moral duty
is to prove that is
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016