THE WISDOM ACADEMY NO 7 Question Paper.pdfTHE WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES “YOUR SUCCESS,YOUR...

THE WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES

“YOUR SUCESS,YOUR WAY,TO BUILD A NATION

THE WISDOM ACADEMY www.upscwala.com 3rd floor, Keshav Prasad Building, near Jogeshwari Silk Sarees, Kumthekar Road, Pune-30 Contact no.9158393003

DATE:- 17 FEB 2018 TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

TEST-7(HISTORY+GEOG+POLITY)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST

BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi & English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. .

6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to

fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and.the examination has concluded,

you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question.For each question for which a wrong answer

has been given by the candidate,one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as. penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer,it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given Answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate,there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


“YOUR SUCCESS,YOUR WAY,TO BUILD A NATION”

THE WISDOM ACADEMY www.upscwala.com 3rd floor,Keshav Prasad Building, near Jogeshwari Silk Sarees, Kumthekar Road, Pune-30 Contact no.9158393003

1. Which one of the following States shares boundaries with the maximum number of other States of India ?

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Assam (d) Bihar

2. The States of India having common border with Myanmar are:

(a) Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalaya, Assam (c) Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya (d) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh

3. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in :

(a) Kashmir (b) Nepal (c) Baluchistan (d) Myanmar

4. Which of the following passes and locations is/are wrongly matched?

1. Zojila and Burzil - Jammu & Kashmir 2. Bara Lapcha La and Shipki La - Uttar

Pradesh 3. Thaga La, Niti Pass and Lipu Lekh -

Himachal Pradesh 4. Nathu La and Jelep La – Sikkim

codes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. From north towards South, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given rivers in India?

(a) Shyok - Spiti - Zaskar - Sutlej (b) Shyok - Zaskar - Spiti - Sutlej (c) Zaskar - Shyok - Sutlej - Spiti (d) (d) Zaskar - Sutlej - Shyok – Spiti

6. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones. i) Air pressure decreases when air descends. ii) Air pressure at sea level is lower than at the mountain top. codes a. i only b. ii only

c. Both d. None

7. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches: Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a "U" turn in its course to flow into India. This "U" turn is due to

(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series (b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young

Himalayas (c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary

folded mountain chains (d) Both (a) and (b) above

8. Most of the floods in the lowlands of N. India, the Bihar plateau and Orissa are associated with:

(a) easterly depression (b) orographic rainfall (c) South-West Monsoon (d) Thunderstorm

9. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Teak : Jammu and Kashmir (b) Deodar : Madhya Pradesh (c) Sandalwood : Kerala (d) Sundari : West Bengal

10. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the erratic behaviour of Indian monsoons?

(a) Uniform duration but varying amounts of rain from one year to another, aswell as at different places

(b) Uncertain date of onset and withdrawal, as well as unequal distribution of rain.

(c) Uncertain date of onset and withdrawal as well as varying amounts of rainfall during different years

(d) Uniform duration but varying amounts of rain from place to place




11. Consider the following statements: 1. Gondwana coal is a laminated, bituminous

coal. . 2. Gondwana coal is completely free from

moisture, sulphur and phosphorus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. If a truck has to carry goods from Delhi to Bhopal via Gwalior, by National Highways (NH) following the shortest route, which one of the following groups of National Highways it has to go by

(a) NH 2, NH 11, NH 12 (b) NH 2, NH 3, NH 12 (c) NH 8, NH 3, NH 11 (d) NH 2, NH 25, NH 11

13. On which of the following sets of rivers are Nagarjunasagar, Ukai, Hirakud, and Thein Dam located respectively? (a) Krishna, Mahanadi, Godavari, Tapi (b) Cauvery, Krishna, Narmada, Beas (c) Krishna, Tapi, Mahanadi, Ravi (d) Godavari, Brahmaputra, Narmada, Yamuna

14. Consider the following events: 1. Royal visit of the King Emperor George-V. 2. Partition of Bengal. 3. Shimla deputation. 4. Birth of Muslim League.

Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a) 2 − 4 − 3 − 1 (b) 2 − 3 − 4 − 1 (c) 3 − 2 − 1 − 4 (d) 4 − 2 − 1 – 3

15. ‘Mitra Mela’ was later on renamed as

(a) Anushilan Samiti (b) Abhinava Bharati Samiti (c) Jugantar (d) Nibandhamala

16. Who among the following was not associated with

the foundation of the Indian Association? (a) Surendranath Banerjea (b) Anandmohan Bose (c) A O Hume (d) Surya Sen

17. Consider the following names: 1. Alfred Webb 2. Badruddin Tyabji 3. George Yule 4. Rahamatulla Muhammad Saynai.

Which of the above were the Presidents of Indian National Congress?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

18. To house the families of the Satyagrahis in South Africa and give them a way to sustain themselves, Gandhiji, with the help of his German architect friend, Kalienbach set up a centre which was to become precursor to later Gandhian ashrams that were to play an important role in the Indian National Movement Which one of the following is that centre?

(a) Dublin Farm (b) Natal Farm (c) Tolstoy Farm (d) Indian Farm

19. In the context of Non-Cooperative Movement,

under whose chairmanship was the All India College Students'Conference held at Nagpur in December 1920?

(a) B C Pal (b) C R Das (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Pandit Motilal Nehru

20. Consider the following statements:

1. Prince Shuja gave the East India Company the Exemption from payment of the usual customs duty 4 V2 percent in return for an annual payment of 30 lakhs rupees.

2. Murshid Quli Jafar Khan stipulated that the Company's dastaka could not be used for internal trade.




3. The servants of East India Company sold

the dastake to Indian merchants to enable them to evade the customs duty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Consider the following statements: 1. After Rammohan's death in 1833

Devendranath Tagore became the leader of the Brahmo Samaj.

2. Devendranath tried to polpularise the ideas of Rammohan by founding the Tattivabodini Sabha, which became a platform for the expression of progressive public opinions and religious views.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. With references to Lord Hasting's judical reforms, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Lord Hastings provided that there was to be a Munsif in every Thans.

(b) Munsifs were allowed to try cases up to the value of Rs. 500 (five hundred)

(c) The decisions of the Munsifs were to be confirmed by the judges of the Diwani Adalist.

(d) The Munsifs were to be appointed by the judges of the Diwani Adalat although the power of approval was left with the Provincial Court of Appeal.

23. Which of the following Acts were passed the British Government in 1856?

1. Hindu Widow Remarriage Act. 2. Abolition of Sati (Regulation. XVII) 3. Religious Disabilities Act

4. General Service Enlistment Act

Select the correct answer using the code given below?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Article 20 dealing with Protection in respect of Conviction of offences has three provisions With reference to Article 20 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements

1. No ex-post-facto law 2. No double jeopardy 3. No self-incrimination

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only

25. Assertion (A):Constitutionalism is a concept which

means that Government derives its authority from

a fundamental body of law and is legally limited in

its powers by the same.

Reason (R): It does not have any relation to written or unwritten constitution or the political system of a country.

In the context of the statements above, which of

these is true?

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A. b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A. c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A and R both are incorrect

26. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued 1. against a private individual or body 2. to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force 3. when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory 4. to enforce a contractual obligation 5. against the president of India or the state governors




6. against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity

In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

(a) 1,2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2,5 and 6 only (c) 3, 4 , 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3,4, 5,6only

27. Which of the following of the Constitution can be

amended by a simple majority of the Parliament? 1. Third Schedule 2. Quorum in Parliament. 3. Rules of procedure in Parliament. 4. Privileges of the Parliament, its members

and its committees. 5. Use of English language in Parliament. 6. Number of puisne judges in the Supreme

Court. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

(a) ,2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2,5 and 6 only (c) 2,3, 4 , 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3,4, 5,6only

28. Constituent Assembly performed the following functions:

1. It ratified the India‘s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

2. It adopted the National Flag on July 22, 1947.

3. It adopted the National Anthem on January 24, 1950.

4. It adopted the National Song on January 24, 1950.

5. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.

Which of the above functions were performed by

the Constituent Assembly of India? In the context

of the statements above, which of these is true?

(a)1,2, 3 and 4 only (b)1, 2,4and 5 only (c)2,3, 4 , and 5 only (d)1, 2, 3,4, 5,only

29. With reference emergency provisions, consider

the following statements:

1. Article 356 empowers the President

to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor‘s report).

2. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 only (b)2 only (c)Both 1 and 2 (d)Neither 1 nor 2

30. The Government of India Act,1935 provided for the establishment of

1. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.

2. The federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects.

3. it provided for the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission

4. 4.It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 3,4 only

31. To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice— social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities provided in article 38.Regarding this which of the following in not comes under article 38 (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all

citizens (b) the equitable distribution of material resources

of the community for the common good (c) To promote equal justice and to provide free

legal aid to the poor

(d) equal pay for equal work for men and women




32. Which of the following proved to be the most

short lived of all the British Constitutional experiments in India? (a) Government of India Act, 1919 (b) Indian Council Act, 1909 (c) Pitt's India Act, 1784 (d) Government of India Act, 1935

33. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of The Constitution: (a) by a majority vote (b) by a two-thirds majority (c) by consensus (d) unanimously

34. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning:

1. the State treats all religions equally. 2. freedom of faith and worship is allowed to

all the people. 3. educational institutions, without exception,

are free to impart religious instruction. 4. the State makes no discrimination on the

basis of religion in matters of employment. codes (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV

(d) I, II and IV

35. India is a democratic republic, because: (a) there is independence of judiciary (b) the Head of the State is elected by the

people (c) there is distribution of powers between the

Centre and the States (d) there is Parliamentary supremacy

36. The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to : (a) eliminate inequality in economic and political status (b) eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs (c) eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life (d) eliminate class based society

37. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by: (a) war or external aggression (b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State (c) internal armed rebellion (d) financial crisis

38. An important landmark in the history of women's higher education in Bengal was the foundation of a school in Calcutta in May 1849. Who among the following was its founder?

(a) Hodgson Prett (b) JED Bethune (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (d) Raja Baidyanath Roy

39. Which one of the following was the first English language weekly paper to be published from Bombay?

(a) Bombay Courier (b) Bombay Gazette (c) Bombay Herald (d) Bombay Times

40. The Montagu's Declaration of 20th August 1917

contained: 1. Increasing association of Indians in every

branch of administration. 2. Gradual development of self-governing

institutions. 3. Realisation of responsible government

independent of the British Empire. 4. Progress in this policy to be achieved in

successive stages. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (e)

41. Which of the following were Vedic assemblies?

1. Sabha 2. Vidatha 3. Samiti 4. Parishad




Which of the above is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

42. Which of the following did the Buddha not believe in?

1. The authority of Vedas. 2. Superiority of the Brahmana. 3. The efficacy of sacrifices. 4. The theory of rebirth

Which of the above correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

43. Which one of the following statements is not

correct? (a) There are Jaina temples at Khajuraho (b) There are Jaina caves at Udaygiri in Orissa (c) There was a Jaina stupa at Mathura (d) There are Jaina Monasteries at Vaisali

44. With reference to the rise modern literature in Indian languages, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Dinbandhu Mitra's play Neeldarpan probed into the depth of exploitation and atrocities committed by the Indigo planters.

(b) Bankimchandra's semi-historical novel Durgeshnandini was a landmark in the field of Bengali language, as it not only made Bengali language respectable for the English educated but also gave them a new prose style

(c) Bipin Chandra Pal started the Bengal Gazette through which he ventilated ideas about patriotism, nationalilsm and nation building.

(d) Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar was known as Shivaji of Modern Marathi language

45. Which one of the following is the most important feature of Bhagavatism?

(a) Stress on devotion to a personal God (b) Stress on penance

(c) Stress on rituals (d) Stress on knowledge

46. In Buddhist terminology, the word

“Dharmachakrapravartana” indicates the (a) Belief in the cycle of life and death. (b) Attainment of nirvana by Buddha. (c) first sermon by Buddha (d) the personal religion of the Chakravarti

47. “This site was granted to French East India Company in 1674 by Shaista Khan, a governor under the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. During the Seven Years War (1756 − 63) this town was captured (1757) by the John Company but later (1763) restored to the French. Recaptured by the English in 1778, after the outbreak of the American War of Independence (1776 − 84) it was restored to the French by the Treaty of Paris (1785). Wrested again by the British in 1793, on the outbreak of the revolutionary wars in Europe, it was finally restored to the French in 1815 and remained part of their overseas empire until its transfer to the Indian republic in 1951.” The reference here is to

(a) Pondicherry (b) Karaikkal (c) Chandernagore (d) Mahe

48. The Fundamental individual are:

(a) limited to the State action only (b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons (c) meant to protect persons against the police action (d) All of the above are correct

49. Which one is not correctly matched? (a) Freedom of speech and expression - Include freedom of press (b) Freedom of conscience - Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs (c) Right to Personal liberty - Include right to carry on any trade or business (d) Right to Equality - Include principles of natural justice




50. Which of the following statements is/are not

indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles? I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment. II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order. III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment. IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.

codes (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I, II and III

51. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:

(a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights

(b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities

(c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights (d) giving more power to the executive

52. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of Quo warranto?

1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the

Constitution itself.

2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or

employment of a

servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.

3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument,

in appointing such person to that office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

53. Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:

(a) the President or a Governor

(b) foreign sovereigns only

(c) the President only (d) None

54. Censorship of the press:

(a) is prohibited by the Constitution

(b) has to be judged by the test of reasonableness

(c) is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19 (d) is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution

55. Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called 'fundamental' ?

I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens.

II. They are superior to ordinary law

III. They are fundamental for governing the country.

IV. They are not absolute.

(a) II and IV

(b) I, II and III

(c) I, III and IV (d) III and IV

56. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?

(a) To raise the level of nutrition

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections

(d) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive




57. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States

there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article?

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Punjab

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Orissa

58. When a financial emergency is proclaimed:

(a) repayment of government debts will stop

(b) payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed

(c) salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced

(d) Union Budget will not be presented

59. The value of a vote of a Member of Parliament for

the election of the President is determined by dividing the:

(a) nation's population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members

(b) nation's population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of Paliament

(c) the total value of votes of members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected Members of the two Houses of Parliament

(d) particular State's population as per the latest census by the number of Members of Parliament elected from that State

60. Which one of the following statements is most

appropriate?

(a) The President shall be bound by the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) The President shall be bound by the advice given by the Council of Ministers

(c) The President shall act on the advice of the Prime Minister who shall tender such advice in consultation with his cabinet

(d) The President shall act in accordance with the

advice of the Council of Ministers and he may return such advice for reconsideration

61. An 'office of profit' which disqualifies a person

from being a member of the Union or State Legislature does not include office held under:

(a) the Government of India

(b) a State Government

(c) a local authority

(d) All of the above

62. In a parliamentary democracy the:

(a) Executive controls the Legislature

(b) Executive and Legislature are strictly separate

(c) Judiciary controls both Legislature and Executive

(d) Legislature controls the Executive

63. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of

parliamentary control over the Budget?

(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the Budget

(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated fund

(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President's recommendation

(d) Parliament cannot increase a tax without the President's recommendation

64. Which of the following is the correct sequence of

the grades of officers in the Central Secretariat?

1, Secretary

2. Additional Secretary

3. Joint Secretary

4.Deputy Secretary

5.Under Secretary

6.Director

(1)1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 5




(2)2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6

(3)6, 4, 3, 5, 2, 1

(4)1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3

65. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider

the following statements:

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.

2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the Same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

66. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of

the following is not correct?

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law

(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under

The appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is

required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

67. With reference to the conduct of government

business in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to

(a) suspension of debate at the termination of a day's sitting of the Parliament

(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which

further debate on a motion can be halted

(c) the termination of a parliamentary session

(d) refusal on the part of the government to have

the opposition look at important document.

68. Article 75 includes among its provisions:

1. Prime Minister is to be appointed by the President.

2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible the Lok Sabha.

3. The President may appoint a non-member as Prime Minister who must become a

Member of Parliament before the expiration of six months.

4. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

69. The Constitution allows preventive detention but

stipulates:

(a) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board

Authorizes detention beyond that period

(b) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu before arresting him

(c) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest


70. Who is appointed as an adhoc Judge of the

Supreme Court ?

(a) A retired Judge of Supreme Court

(b) A sitting Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge

(c) An acting Judge of the Supreme Court

(d) A person fully qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court




71. In which of the following cases appeals cannot be

lodged with the Supreme Court ?

(a) Constitutional matters involving a substantial point of law

(b) A sentence in a criminal case given by the lower court and confirmed by the High Court

(c) Criminal case in which High Court has given a death sentence J a criminal found nonguilty by a lower court

(d) Criminal case in which High Court after withdrawing a case from the lower court, has given a death sentence

72. Public interest litigation applies to any case of

public injury arising from

(a) the breach of any public duty

(b) the violation of a constitutional provision

(c) the violation of the law


73. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction

over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

74. While appointing a Governor, the President

generally consults the Chief Minister of the

State. This is :

(a) constitutionally imperative

(b) a matter of convention

(c) because Parliament has legislated to the effect

(d) a duty of the President

75. With respect to Article 371A of the Constitution of

India, the Governor of which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the State?

(a) Assam

(b) Manipur

(c) Nagaland

(d) Andhra Pradesh

76. Regarding the enactment of an ordinary law, the

State Legislative Council:

(a) has to agree to the Bill

(b) may delay it for a maximum period of four months

(c) may disagree to its provisions, in which case a joint sitting is called

(d) has nothing to do

77. A: The position of the legislative Council is inferior

to that of the legislative Assembly.

R1: The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly.

R2: A Bill originating in the Council can be forthwith put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it.

R3: One-sixth of the Council's members are nominated by the Governor.

(a) A and R1, R2 and R3 are correct and R1, R2 and R3 explain A

(b) A, R1 and R3 are correct and R1 and R3 explain A

(c) A, R1, R2and R3 are correct but only R1 and R2 explain A

(d) A and R2 are wrong; R1 and R3 are correct

78. The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the

Centre-State .relationship has not laid down which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?

(a) A politician from the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed to a State run by some other party

(b) The person should not be too closely connected with the politics of the State where he is to be posted

(c) He should have travelled extensively in and out of India

(d) He should be eminent in some walk of life




79. The State Election Commission can be removed

from office:

(a) only by the Governor

(b) in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court

(c) only by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned State

(d) in the same manner as the Vice-President of India

80. Which of the following is correct regarding booth

capturing?

1. It has been defined in the Constitution after the 61st amendment.

2. It includes the seizure of a polling booth to prevent the orderly conduct of elections.

3. It is also committed when any elector is threatened and prevented from going

to the polling station to cast his vote.

4. It has been declared a cognizable offence punishable by imprisonment.

(a) 2, 3, and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

81. The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to

(a) deal with administration of justice at the Panchayat level (b) implement community development project schemes (c) deal with financial matters of the Panchayat

(d) deal with rural industrialization

82. The modern State is a/an

(a) police state

(b) welfare state

(c) laissez faire state (d) aristocratic state

83. During the Sangam age the Mahabharata in Tamil

was composed by (a) Perundevanar (b) Villiputhur Alvar (c) Kamban (d) Kuttan

84. Which one of the following, according to the

Buddha. Would lead to nirvana? (a) To be constantly in the state of a

stithaprajna (b) Pursuit of the ashtangika marga (c) Observance of asceticism and penance (d) Adoration of Stupa

85. Which one of the following was introduced by

Mahavira? (a) Ahimsa (b) Aparigraha (c) Brahmacharya (d) Satya

86. Match List I with List II and select the correct

answer:

List-I (Event) List-II (Place)

1. First Buddhist

Council

2. Second

Buddhist

Council

3. Third Buddhist

Council

4. Fourth Buddhist

Council

1. Vaisali

2. Rajagriha

3. Pataliputra

4. Kashmir

(a) 2,3,1,4 (b) 3,1,4,2 (c) 1,4,3,2 (d) 2,1,3,4

87. “Decay is inherent in all component beings. Work out your own salvation with diligence.” These words are attributed to

(a) Krishna (b) Mahavira (c) the Buddha (d) Sankaracharya




88. Who among the following took interest for the

first time in the Europeon movable metal type-printing?

(a) Mir Fathullah Shirazi (b) Jahangir (c) Muqarrab Khan (d) Bhimji Parekh

89. The mausoleum of Rabia-ul Dauran was built at

(a) Lahore (b) Delhi (c) Aurangabad (d) Gulbarga

90. Which of the following pairs are correct matched

1. Rabeting Shipbuilding 2. Flintlock Gun-making 3. Wootz Textile 4. Filatures Metallurgy (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

91. Which of the following statements about the

Indian Councils Act of 1892 are correct? 1. It raised the number of additional

members to a maximum of 16 for the Supreme Council, 20 for the legislative Council of Bombay, Madras and Bengal and 15 for the North Western Provision and Oudh

2. It conceded the Congress demand of the principle of direct election to the Legislative Councils.

3. It conceded to the members of the Legislative Councils the right of discussing the Budget.

4. It allowed the members of Legislative Councils the right of asking questions matters of public interest.

codes (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

92. The report of the Arundel Committee (1906) dealt

with (a) proposed changes in the Age of Consent

to Marriage bill (b) political reforms

(c) higher education (d) the need to reunite Bengal which had

been partitioned in the previous year

93. Consider the following statements: 1.The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean than that in the Atlantic Ocean. 2.The annual range of temperature is greater in the Northern Hemisphere than that in the Southern Hemisphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

94. Consider the following statements : 1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile. 2 Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast. 3. Greece and Albania form a part of the Iberian Peninsula. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select one: A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 3 only C. 2 and 3, only D. 1 only

95. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides. B. Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel. C. Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river. D. The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooghly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as port.




96. Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is

maximum over the Equator. Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator. A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true

97. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world? A. Temperate Coniferous forests B. Temperate Deciduous forests C. Tropical Monsoon forests D. Tropical Rain forests

98. Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the low tide is higher than usual. Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of on the Full Moon. A. Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A C. A is true, but R is false D. A is fasle, but R is true

99. Consider the following statements : I. Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid

and gas. II. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in a magma. III. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma. IV. The magma solidified between sedimentary rocks in a horizontal position is known as dike. Which of these statements are correct ? A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV C. I and IV D. I, II and IV

100. The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are east or west of the longitude passing through Greenwich : I. Cuba II. Greece III. Iraq IV. Costa Rica V. Japan Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT? A. V, III, II, I, IV B. II, IV, I, III, V C. IV, I, III, II, V D. III, V, IV, I, II

THE WISDOM ACADEMY

FOR CIVIL SERVICES


THE WISDOM ACADEMY www.upscwala.com

3rd floor,Keshav Prasad Building, near Jogesheari Silk Sarees, Kumthekar Road, Pune-30 Contact no.9158393003

THE WISDOM ACADEMY NO 7 Question Paper.pdfTHE WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES “YOUR SUCCESS,YOUR...

Documents

Transcript of THE WISDOM ACADEMY NO 7 Question Paper.pdfTHE WISDOM ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES “YOUR SUCCESS,YOUR...