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Page 1: !NSPIRO IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES -2016 COMPREHENSIVE … IAS Prelims...!nspiro ias prelims test series -2016 comprehensive test - 3 general studies paper-i time allowed: two hours maximum

!NSPIRO IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2016

!NSPIRO IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES -2016

COMPREHENSIVE TEST - 3

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU

SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED

OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A

COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English.

Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want

to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,

mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for

each item.

4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See

directions in the Answer Sheet.

5. All items carry equal marks.

6. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test

Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to

you with your Admission Certificate.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the

examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.

You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

9. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE

IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that

question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if

one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to

that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no

penalty for that question.

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!NSPIRO IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2016

1. Consider the following Investments and

infrastructure

1. Shops to be given option to remain

open 24x7 across markets.

2. On east and west coasts, new

Greenfield ports will be developed.

3. Underserved airports will be revived.

For regional connectivity centre to partner

with States to revive small airports.

4. 100 per cent FDI in food processing

and marketing of food products produced

and marketed in India.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1 and 4

d) All are correct

2. Which of the following are the views

of the Orientalists, in regard to strengthen

the hold of British rule in India?

1) Intellectual curiosity & romanticizing

of India

2) Wanted gradual change via reason

3) Need of reform imposed from outside

4) Wanted immediate change via force if

necessary

Select the correct answer from the

following

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 2, 3 and 4 only

3. The impact of the British rule on the

Indian economy was disastrous. In this

regard, which of the following were the

factors that resulted in stagnation of

Indian economy in the 19th century?

1. The ever mounting „Home charges‟

2. Foreign trade

3. The denial of high posts to Indians

4. The extravagant civil and military

administration

5. The continuous drain of wealth from

India

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct

c) 1, 4 and 5 are correct

d) All are correct

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Landholders‟ Society marked the

beginning of an organised political

activity and used the method of

constitutional agitation for the redressal of

grievances.

2. The Bengal British India Society

founded in 1843, was with the objective of

stimulating the sense of nationalism

amongst the people and of encouraging

political education.

3. Both did not flourish well and later on

merged into a new one named the British

Indian Association.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 2 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct

5. Which of the following initiatives

were the ones which worked on the idea

of a common political organisation for the

whole India?

1. The East India Association

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!NSPIRO IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2016

Comprehensive Test 3

1

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

2. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

3. The Indian Association of Calcatta

4. The Madras Mahajana Sabha

5. Federation of the Native Press

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct

c) 1, 4 and 5 are correct

d) All are correct

6. Consider the following statements

1. Mass of the body varies according to

longitudinal position

2. Weight of the body varies according to

latitudinal position

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

7. Which of the following statements

about the Tea Party politics of Moderates,

in regard to INC, are correct?

1. They were convinced believers in the

policy of gradualism and

constitutionalism.

2. They did not see any alternative to

British rule in the foreseeable future.

3. They explained Indian Poverty is

largely due to the colonial exploitation of

India‟s economic resource by Britain

4. They felt that the materialistic and

individualistic Western civilisation was

eroding the values of Indian culture.

Select the correct answer from the

following?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 2, 3 and 4 only

8. How do people walking on burning

coal not burn their feet?

1. Coal is low heat capacity and poor

thermal conduction.

2. The texture of human feet can able to

withstand the temperature of burning coal.

Select the correct answer from the

following:

a) Only 1 is correct

b) Only 2 is correct

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

9. Which one of the following is the

most fundamental difference between

Mahayana Buddhism and Hinayana

Buddhism ?

a) Emphasis on ahimsa

b) Casteless society

c) Worship of gods and goddesses

d) Worship of stupa

10. The significance of the Bengal

Regulation of 1793 lies in the fact that

a) It provided for the establishment of

the Supreme court

b) It accommodated the personal laws of

Hindus and Muslims

c) It provided for the appointment of the

Indian Law Commission

d) It restricted the application of English

law to Englishmen only

11. Consider the following statements

1. The energy content of raw rice less than

boiled rice.

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Comprehensive Test 3

2

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

2. Sweat comes out of our irrespective of

the relative Humidity of the environment.

Select the correct answer from the

following:

a) Only 1 is correct

b) Only 2 is correct

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Mohiniattam influenced by

Vaishnavism and had the central concept

of Krishna as the divine dancer and Radha

as his partner.

2. Mohiniattam has elements of both

Kathakali as well as Bharatanatyam.

Select the correct answer from the

following:

a) Only 1 is correct

b) Only 2 is correct

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

13.Consider the following statements in

regard to Kathakali:

1. Vallathol Narayana Menon founded

the kalamandalam and made it his mission

to revive this ancient dance form.

2. In this form, the dancers use their

gestures and expressions to suggest the

scene.

3. It draws its theme from the epics and

puranas, and presents the eternal conflict

between good and evil.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 2 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct

14. Consider the following in regard to

Chhau dance:

1. The basic stances and postures of this

dance resemble those of modern dance

movements.

2. Chhau dance are ceremonially

performed during the annual sun festival

or spring festival at which shiva and

parvati are the presiding deities.

3. This dance style movements shows the

close cultural ties between India, Japan,

Indonesia and Sri Lanka from the ancient

times.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 2 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct

15. Identify which of the following pair

is/are correctly matched?

1. Swastika – peace and well being

2. Shrivatsa – a pure soul

3. Kalasha – victory over sexual desires

4. Darpana – one‟s true self

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All are correct

16. Consider the following statements:

1. Hinayanists laid emphasis on the

concept of Boddhisattva and on the

salvation of all sentient individuals.

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Comprehensive Test 3

3

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

2. Vajrayana evolved from the

interaction of Buddhist thought and

Brahmanical speculations.

3. The philosophy of Buddhism calls for

a life of painful asceticism and self-

mortification.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3 are correct

b) 2 only is correct

c) 3 only is correct

d) 2 and 3 are correct

17. Consider the following:

1. Ankia Nat is a synthesis of classical

Indian theatrical forms and local

traditions.

2. It is generally performed in the

village hall/ a pandal in an open field.

3. It had its root in rural Assam.

4. Bhaona is a theatre form that is a

presentation of the Ankia Nat

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All are correct

18. Consider the following:

1. Bhand Pather is a traditional theatre

form of Kashmir, which combines dance,

acting and music.

2. Laughter is an important part of this

theatre and in Jashin form a clown is a

must in a pather.

3. Jashin is a powerful medium of satire

on social evils.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 2 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct

19. Consider the following:

Ashoka measures adopted for the spread of

Buddism

1. He built a large number of monasteries all

over the empire spent large sums of money in

endowing them.

2. He spread the doctrines of Buddha by

engraving them on rocks,pillars and on the

walls of the caves throughout the vast

empire.

3. He made arrangement to feed the poor and

physically unfit people.He was like a father

to his subjects.His motto was „Service and

sacrifice‟.

4. He take care of women and bring religious

awareness among them.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All are correct

20. Consider the following:

Art and Architecture of Mauryan Empire

1. The stupas were dome like mounds of

brick or stone built in honour of Mahavira

2. Fahien exclaimed about palaces of Maurya

as it was created by God.

3. Dasharatha king built caves for meditation

of the Buddhist monks.

4. Ashoka gave up the use of wood.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

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Comprehensive Test 3

4

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1and 4

d) All are correct

21. PM Jan Aushadhi Yojana features

1.under this scheme Price control of

Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Drugs,

Uniform VAT, and Reduction in Excise duty.

2. To create an awareness drive among the

people about the generic medicines and their

potency in spite of their lower prices.

3. Differential cost of the drugs according to

the economic status of the people. Poor will

be more beneficiaries than rich.

4. subsidy for the poor transfer through direct

cash Transfer.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1 and 4

d) All are correct

22. National Digital Literacy Mission

1. Digital Literacy (Level 1) To make a

person IT literate, so that he/ she can operate

digital devices, like mobile phones, tablets,

etc., send and receive emails and search

Internet for information.

2. Digital Literacy (Level 2) - Besides IT

literacy at a higher level, the citizen would

also be trained to effectively access the

various e-Governance services being offered

to the citizen by the Government and other

agencies.

3. The NLM means not only learning how to

read, write and count but also helping people

understand why they are deprived and

helping them move towards change.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All are correct

23. Which of the following Congress leader

was against having an alliance with Muslim

leaders over a religious issue, Khilafat

question, and sceptical of satyagraha as an

instrument of politics?

a) Balagangadhar Tilak

b) Maulana Azad

c) Motilal Nehru

d) Lala Lajpat Rai

24. Twitter Position of strength campaign in

India to empower women

1. Position of strength campaign has

been launched with partnership of FICCI

Ladies Organisation and Observer

Research Foundation.

2. It seeks to engage more women to find

their voices online and help them to

communicate safely with confidence and

network with other like-minded women.

3.Twitter also launched its Safety Center

in Hindi to ensure education and

engagement of women locally to enable

them to use this platform safely and with

confidence.

Select the correct answer from the

options given below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All are correct

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Comprehensive Test 3

5

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

25. India‟s first River Information System

(RIS) will facilitate

1. Enhancement of inland navigation

safety in ports and rivers.

2. Better use of the inland waterways.

3. Environmental protection.

4. a statutory body under the aegis of

Union Ministry of Shipping is

implementing the RIS in India

Select the correct answer from the

options given below:

a) 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1,2 and 4

d) All are correct

26. Symptoms of Dengue Fever

1. Severe joint and muscle pain

2. Swollen lymph nodes

3. Exhaustion and rash.

Select the correct answer from the

options given below:

a) 2 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) All are correct

27. Climate Change Action Plan (CCP)

1. World Bank would focus on

expanding universal access to early-

warning systems in the case of disasters

to 100 million people by the year 2020.

2. It seeks to help only developing

countries to deliver their targets set in

the national climate plans submitted for

the historic climate agreement reached at

COP21 in Paris in December 2015.

3. it seeks to help developing countries

make major transitions to increase

sources of renewable energy, develop

green transport systems, decrease high-

carbon energy sources and build

sustainable, livable cities for growing

urban populations.

Select the correct answer from the

options given below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All are correct

28. Scientists fear that ballast water

carried by ships is providing a vehicle to

bring in exotic invasive species across the

Indian Coast. What is ballast ?

1. Ballast is a compartment in a ship that

provides it stability as it holds water

which moves in and out of it to balance

the ship.

2. The compartment usually remains

below the water level in order to

counteract the weight above the water

level.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

29. Which state Government has declared

June 22 as „Snake Bird Day‟ in a bid to

protect the endangered species which is also

known as Indian darter.

a) Kerala

b) Goa

c) Assam

d) Odhisa

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Comprehensive Test 3

6

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

30. Jal Kranti Abhiyan activities include

1. Rain water harvesting

2. Recycling of waste water

3. Micro irrigation for using water efficiently

and mass awareness program.

4. A cadre of local water professional Jal

Mitra will be created and they will be given

training to create mass awareness.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All are correct

31. Facts about volcanic eruption

1. Volcanic eruptions by injecting

particulates into the atmosphere may have

slowed down global warming.

2. volcanic aerosol particles have reflected

the incoming solar radiation twice in the

lowest part of the stratosphere.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

32. It is region of transition layer between the

wet weather layer with clouds at lower level

and the dry and cloud-free layer above it.

Select the correct definition:

a) Tropopause

b) startopause

c) Troposphere

d) Stratosphere

33. Features of earthquake early warning

system which installed in Uttarkhand

recently

1. The system is incorporated with sensors

which are capable to detect P (Primary) and

S (Secondary) waves generated during an

earthquake.

2.It is capable to detect the harmless P wave,

which travels faster than the S wave for

advance warning.

3. The system has the earliest detection

among those currently in use worldwide.

4. It‟s indigenous product under make in

India.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 1,2 and 3

d) All are correct

34. Which of the following criteria are used

by UNDP in calculation of Human

Development Index ?

1. In Education Index, mean Years of

Schooling(MYS) are based on the time spent

by a % year old child in school.

2.Income Index is based on PPP(on per

capita GDP)

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

35. Superconductors have no electrical

resistance. Despite this, they are not used in

the transmission of electricity, because

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Comprehensive Test 3

7

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

a) Superconductors are very cheap but not

eco-friendly.

b) Superconductors that work at normal

temperatures are hardly available.

c) Technology for the construction of

Superconductors is very costly.

d) Superconductors show radioactivity when

electricity flows through them.

36. Which of the following could be called

investment expenditure by a firm?

1. Purchase of new machinery

2. Upgrading existing machinery

3. Building a new production plant.

4. Investing surplus profits in shares

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 4 only

c) 1,2 and 3

d) All are correct

37. Consider the following statements

regarding Sahara type of climate:

1. It is found between 15-30˚ latitudes on

either side of the equator on the eastern parts

of continents.

2. The vegetation of this climate has long

roots and waxy thorns and few leaves.

3. Subsiding warm air mass of the

subtropical anticyclones is one of the main

characteristics of this climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All are correct

38. The MRP measures consumption of low-

frequency items are

1. Clothing

2. Footwear

3. Durables

4. Education

5. Institutional health expenditure

Select the included in calculation of poverty

in MRP from the options given below:

a) 1 and 2only

b) 1 ,2 and 3 only

c) 3,4 and 5 only

d) All are correct

39. Which of the following statements

regarding the leader of opposition in the Lok

sabha is/are correct ?

1.Where there are two or more parties in

opposition having the same number of seats

in house, the Speaker, on his discretion,

recognizes any one of the of such parties as

the leader of opposition.

2.The leader of opposition draws the same

salary as a minister with cabinet rank.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

40. Which of the following are considered as

the ones which lowered the prestige of the

office of Governor in India?

1. Frequent removals and transfers of

Governors before the end of their tenure.

2. Reserving Bills for President's

consideration.

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Comprehensive Test 3

8

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

3. Multi-faceted role played by the

governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following are considered to

be the basic functions/roles of mass media

(radio and television), accepted by all, in

general?

1. Entertainment.

2. Dissemination of news promptly of

important national and State happenings.

3. Specific programmes aimed at national

integration, emphasising the basic cultural

unity of the country and the close links in the

socio-economic structure overriding

chauvinistic considerations of caste,

community, region and religion.

4. Communication of the policies of the

Union and the State Governments.

5. Allowing political parties an access to put

across their political philosophies.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

42. Which of the following rights are

considered as fundamental rights in India?

1. Right to form cooperative societies

2. Cultural and Educational Rights

3. Right against Exploitation

4. Right to Property

5. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

43.

1. The preamble is justiciable in nature, can

be enforced in a court of law.

2. The preamble cannot override the specific

provisions of the Constitution

3. It declares the rights and freedoms which

the people of India intended to secure to all

citizens and the basis of type of government

and polity which was to be established.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which are Fundamental Rights exclusive

to the Citizens of India.

1. Article 15

2. Article 16

3. Article 19

4. Article 21

5. Article 30

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

45. Which of the following constitutional

provisions are exceptions to the Right to

Equality under Article-14?

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Comprehensive Test 3

9

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

1. Article 31-C

2. Article 105

3. Article 361

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. The Doctrine of Division of Power, in

our Indian Political System, refers to

a) Separate government at Union and

State level

b) Three separate lists as Union, State

and Concurrent list

c) Separation of legislative, executive

and judicial powers of the government

and vesting it in the three independent

organs of the government.

d) Having two separate houses of

Parliament

47. The surcharges on taxes and duties levied

by the parliament, under Article-271, are

a) Exclusive to the Centre

b) Shared with the state

c) Assigned to the particular

state/states

d) Any of the above

48. Which of the following are the objectives

of National Human Rights Commission?

1. To investigate into the methods,

modes and the quantum of human

rights violations.

2. To strengthen the institutional

arrangements through which human

rights issues could be addressed

3. To enquire into the causes for

violation of human rights.

4. To inquire into any violation of

human rights.

5. To suggest methods for promoting

and protecting human rights including

legislation and administrative changes.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

49. Consider the following subjects listed

under Seventh schedule and identify which

of the following comes under the Union list:

1. Regulation and development of

inter-state rivers and river valleys

2. Cultivation and manufacture of

opium and its export

3. Regulation of mines and mineral

development

4. Price control

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

50. The inferred rights are those rights, which

are not explicitly provided by the

Constitution which is the inferred rights are:

1. Right to health of the workers

2. Right to shelter

3. Right against cruel punishment

4. Right to live with dignity

5. Right to privacy

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Comprehensive Test 3

10

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 2 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

51. Consider the following statements:

1. Offshore trade winds prevail with

practically no rain, in summer.

2. Bright, sunny weather with hot dry

summers and wet, mild winters.

3. Prominence of many local winds near

the coastal region.

Which of the following climatic region

experience the above mentioned

phenomenon?

a) Warm temperate western margin

climate region

b) Cool temperate western margin

climate region

c) Temperate continental climate region

d) Cool temperate eastern margin

climate region

52. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the codes given

below the lists:

List I (Cloud) List II (Characteristics)

A. Cirrus 1. Rain bearing

B. Stratus 2. Sheets of layer

C. Nimbus 3. Fibrous and feathery

appearance

D. Cumulus 4. Raising dome appearance

or cauliflower structure

Codes :

A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 3 1 2 4

53. Evidence of the Earth‟s Sphericity

1. Circum-navigation of the Earth.

2. The mast of a ship is seen before the

hull on curved horizontal.

3. Sun rises and sun sets at different

times for different places.

4. The lunar eclipse.

5. Other planetary bodies are spherical.

Select the correct answer using the

codes given below:

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

54. Features of Mechanically formed

sedimentary rocks :

1. A coarse type of sandstone is known

as Grit.

2. When larger pebbles are firmly

cemented to form a rock it‟s called

conglomerate.

3. When fragments are angular called

breccia.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

55. Consider the following pairs:

Dam/Power Project River

1. Matatilla : Betwa

2. Daudhan : Ken

3. Bansagar : Sone

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

Which of the following pairs correctly

matched above?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All the above

56. Consider the following statements in

regard to a particular state in India and

identify the state from the options given

below:

1. Having Old alluvial and calcareous

soil, alluvial soil, and Mountain soil in the

south to north direction.

2. In agricultural activity, completely

wheat dominant.

3. Having average literacy rate of 75%.

Select the correct answer:

a) Madhya Pradesh

b) Karnataka

c) Rajasthan

d) Punjab

57. Which of the following state/states, in

India have the presence of skeletal soil?

a) Jammu and Kashmir

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

58. Consider the following statements:

1. The place of origin of an earthquake

within the earth crust is known as focus.

2. The point on the earth surface vertically

above the locus is called the epicentre.

3. The shock waves travel in all direction

from the focus.

Which of the following statement are true, in

regard to earthquake in India?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) All the three

59. Consider the following statements:

1. In regions where volcanoes have been

active, waters in the depth are heated from

contact with the hot magma and are called as

geysers.

2. The geysers are common features in

countries like Australia, South Africa, Brazil,

etc.

3. In India, the geyser of 3 places namely

Puga valley, Manikaran and Taptapani are

where the efforts to harness this energy

potential are happening.

4.hot springs any part of the earth where

water sinks deep enough beneath the surface

to be heated by the interior forces.

Select the correct option from the codes

given below:

a) Only 1

b) 1 ,2 and 3

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) All the above

60. The unique significance of Mangrove

forest can be attributed to

1. Adaptation to low oxygen

2. Aerial root system

3. Salt resistive

4. Prevents sea erosion

5. Role in climate change mitigation

Select the correct option from the codes

given below:

a) 2, 4 and 5

b) 1 and 3

c) 1, 2 and 4

d) All the above

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

61. Consider the following statements:

1. Tannin is tree bark extract mostly used for

converting skin into leather.

2. Lignin and Tannin have certain

characteristics similar to phenol.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) Only 1 is correct

b) Only 2 is correct

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

62. Which of the following are the major

factors responsible for biodiversity loss in

India?

1. Habitat fragmentation

2. Agriculture

3. Mining

4. cross-border bio-piracy

5. Illegal extraction and export of valuable

medicinal plants

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

b) 1, 4 and 5

c) 1 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

63. According to India‟s Climate Change

Assessment for 2030, which of the following

were their assessments, on the agricultural

front?

1. Irrigated rice in all the regions are likely

to gain in yields marginally due to warming

as compared to the rainfed crop like Maize

and Sorghum.

2. The Coconut productivity is projected to

rise in the eastern coast and reduce in the

western coastal region.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) Only 1 is correct

b) Only 2 is correct

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

64. Extinction of species and gradual changes

in ecological communities is a natural

phenomenon. However, now it is estimated

that species are disappearing at an alarmingly

higher rate than the evolutionary processes

and this is predicted to rise dramatically. In

this regard, consider the following

statements:

1. These losses are reversible.

2. The loss in biodiversity impoverishes us

all, and weakens the ability of the living

systems

3. These losses help in better adaptation and

mitigation strategy for climate change.

4. It poses a threat to our own well being,

considering our dependence on food crops

and medicines, and other biological

resources.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

65. Which of the following is incorrect in

regard to algae and protozoa?

a) Algae are found either over the surface or

below the surface of soil, whereas protozoa

are found only in the upper layer of the soil.

b) Majority of protozoa feed upon microbial

cell or other particulate matters for their

growth.

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

c) Both algae and protozoa contribute to the

accumulation of organic matter (bio-mass) in

the soil.

d) Algae also contribute in the weathering of

rocks for the soil formation.

66. Consider the following statements:

1. The density of air in the atmosphere

increases upward in the mesosphere, as there

is high absorption of UV rays in this zone.

2. The process of photo-ionisation in the

mesosphere is the one which is responsible

for the phenomenon of Aurora Borealis and

Aurora Australis.

3. The average thickness of ozone layer in

the upper atmosphere generally increases

towards poles.

Choose the correct option in regard to the

above given statements:

a) Only 2

b) 2 and 3

c) Only 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Decomposition rates vary among

ecosystems. The rate of decomposition is

generally governed:

1. The social environment

2. The physical environment

3. The quantity and quality of the organic

material available to decomposers

4. The nature of the microbial community

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

68. Which of the following are the common

traits of invasive species?

1. Fast growth and short lifetime

2. Rapid reproduction

3. Ecological competence

4. Phenotypic plasticity

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. When polyvinyl chloride (PVC) cables

insulation are burned to retrieve copper from

the wires, which of the following highly

toxic components are released?

1. Dioxins

2. Furans

3. Endrin,

4. Dieldrin

5. Mirex

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1, 2 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

70. Biomagnification is the increase in

concentration of certain substance across

trophic levels. Which of the following

substance do bio-magnify naturally?

1. DDT

2. Polychlorinated biphenyl

3. Toxaphene

4. Monomethyl mercury

5. Barium

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1, 2 and 5

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

71. Expansion of water contributes to the

fitness of the environment for life:

1. Prevents deep bodies of water from

freezing solid from the bottom up.

2.Since ice is less dense, it forms on the

surface first. As water freezes it releases heat

to the water below and insulates it.

3. Makes the transitions between seasons less

abrupt. As water freezes, hydrogen bonds

form releasing heat. As ice melts, hydrogen

bonds break absorbing heat.

Choose the correct option in regard to the

above given statements:

a) Only 2

b) 2 and 3

c) Only 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Identify the incorrect pair/s from the

following:

1. Liberalisation - Disinvestment

2. Privatisation - Deregulation of Industrial

sector

3. Globalisation - Outsourcing

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) Only 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) All the above

73. Consider the following statements:

1. Direct taxes consist of taxes on incomes

of individuals as well as profits of business

enterprises.

2. High rates of income tax are an important

reason for tax evasion, whereas moderate

rates can encourage savings and voluntary

disclosure of income.

3. Reforms in the Indirect taxes can facilitate

establishment of common national market for

goods and commodities.

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) Only 2 is correct

b) 1 and 3 are correct

c) 2 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct

74. Identify the incorrect pairs from the

following:

1. TRIMS – apply to the domestic

regulations a country applies to foreign

investors

2. TRIPS – introduced intellectual property

law into the international trading system

3. GATS – to extend the multilateral trading

system to service sector

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) All the above

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) None is incorrect

75. Which of the following constitute the

Central indirect tax, in India?

1. CENVAT

2. Central sales tax

3. Luxury tax

4. Octrai

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

d) All are correct

76. In the recent times, the Government has

been committed to correcting mistaken

decisions of the past, and is therefore

continuing with its policy of keeping fiscal

deficit under 3 percent and reducing general

government debt. In general, which of the

following measures can help in controlling

the government expenditure?

1. Zero based budgeting

2. Privatisation of many services of

Government of India

3. Reducing subsidies on non-merit goods

4. Increasing the interest rate on the small

savings

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

d) All are correct

77. Consider the following statements in

regard to Ways and Means Advances:

1. These are temporary advances (overdrafts)

extended by RBI to the government.

2. They are mutually determined limits, upto

which the government can borrow from the

by RBI.

3. Advances made under WMA will not

come under the FRBM Act provisions, in

relation to total borrowing by the

Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) Only 2 is correct

b) 1 and 3 are correct

c) 1 and 2 are correct

d) All are correct

78. Which of the following measures can

help in reducing the government subsidies

and overall enhancement of the quality of

economy?

1. Nutrient based subsidy

2. Direct cash transfer

3. e-governance

4. Aadhaar enabled service delivery

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

d) All are correct

79. Which of the following expenditures

come under the category of non-planned

expenditure?

1. Subsidy

2. Grants to the states

3. Natural calamities

4. Interest payments

5. Defence

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) 1 and 3 are correct

b) 1, 3 and 5 are correct

c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct

d) All are correct

80. Consider the following statements in

regard to Security Transaction Tax:

1. It is a tax on the stock exchange

transaction including buying and selling of

share.

2. It is both an Advelorem tax and a Direct

tax.

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

3. The burden of this tax will not be equally

shared by buyer and sellers, as the seller have

to pay more percentage.

Select the correct answer from the following

options:

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 2 and 3 are correct

c) 1 and 3 are correct

d) All are correct

81. Which of the following is / are the

characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?

1. High ash content

2. Low sulphur content

3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

82. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and

the people used to be nomadic herders.” The

above statement best describes which of the

following regions?

a. African Savannah

b. Central Asian Steppe

c. North American Prairie

d. Siberian Tundra

83. What are the significances of a practical

approach to sugarcane production known as

„Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative‟?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to

the conventional method of cultivation.

2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very

effectively in this.

3. There is no application of chemical/

inorganic fertilizers at all in this.

4. The scope for intercropping is more in this

compared to the conventional method of

cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1,2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

84. Consider the following statements:

1. The height of rising water varies

appreciably depending upon the position of

sun and moon with respect to the earth

2. Ocean currents assist in maintaining

earth‟s heat balance.

3. Differences in water density affect vertical

mobility of ocean currents.

4. Ocean currents are affected by the

configuration of the ocean.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) all the above

85. The presence of rich minerals like

copper, zinc, silver, etc in DRC is attributed

to

a) Congo river basin

b) Katanga plateau

c) Tanganyika lake

d) North kivu lake

86. With reference to the formation of soil,

which of the following factors are

significant?

1. Basic rocky material

2. Climate

3. Human effect

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

4. Biological effect

5. Time factor,

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

a) 1,2 and 3 only

b) 1,2 and 4 only

c) 1,2,4 and 5 only

d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

87. Consider the following

1. Fishing cat

2. Monitor Lizard

3. Llama

4. Leopard cat

Which of the above is/are naturally found in

India ?

a) 1 and 4 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 4 only

88.

1. Exploration of polymetallic nodules in the

Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) funded

by Department of Ocean Development.

2. Polymetallic nodules are Fe-Mn oxide

deposits, potato shape, porous, black earthy

colour

3. To determine the chemical composition of

nodules the samples need to be dried,

powdered in an agate mortar, digested in

mixture of Hydroflouric, Perchloric and

Nitric acids.

4. In the Indian Ocean, nodules occur in

different basins such as CIOB Wharton

Basin, Crozet Basin, Madgascar Basin,

Somali Basin, South Australian Basin and

Arabian sea.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) all the above

89. Consider the following statements about

Hybridoma Technology

1. By using the technique, Polyclonal

Antibodies are prepared.

2. This technique is very useful treatment of

cancer.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 &2 d) Neither

1&2

90. Consider the following statements:

1. Silicon is used in solar cells and is an

environment friendly element.

2. Alternative Current can be obtained from

solar batteries directly.

3. Water flow in a river is a form of

renewable energy.

Choose the correct option in regard to the

above given statements:

a) Only 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1 and 2

91. Which of the following statements is/are

correct ?

1. The expression „contempt of court‟ has

been defined under ancillary powers of the

Supreme Court by the Indian Constitution in

article 140.

2. A petition in respect to disputes relating to

elections of the members of the Indian

Parliament can be presented before a high

court.

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Comprehensive Test 3

18

Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

92. Which of the following statements are

associated with the National Urban Health

Mission (NUHM) as a sub-mission of

National Health Mission (NHM) ?

1. It would primarily focus on slum dwellers

and other marginalized groups like rickshaw

pullers, street vendors, railway and bus

station coolies, homeless people, street

children, construction site workers.

2. Non-communicable diseases will also be

covered under it.

3. The Programme Implementation Plans

(PIPs) sent by the by the states are apprised

and approved by the Ministry.

4. NUHM would cover all State capitals,

district headquarters and cities/towns with a

population of more than 50000

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) all the above

93. Consider the following statements about

Littoral and Swamp Forests:

1. These forests can survive and grow only in

brackish water.

2. Sundari,agar,bhendi,keora and bhara are

some important species found in these

forests.

Select the correct answer from the options

given below:

a)1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 &2

d) Neither 1&2

94. Which one of the following terms

describes a broad transition between two

different ecosystems comprising mainly plant

communities ?

a) Ecocline

b) Ecological niche

c) Ecotope

d) Ecotone

95. Consider the following statements:

1. The male chromosome is always

responsible for sex determination in every

organic species.

2. Change of even a single base pair in DNA

can be cause of mutation.

3. Sickle cell Anemia is a genetic disorder.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

96. Breastfeeding is most necessary for

newly born babies because :

a) It produces subsequent antitoxins in

babies.

b) It produces cell- mediated immunity(CMI)

in babies

c) It produces natural active immunity in

babies.

d) It produces humoral immune response in

babies.

97. Consider the following:

1. Indochinese tiger

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Comprehensive Test 3

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Trivandrum, Bengaluru.

2. Siberian tiger

3. Royal Bengal tiger

4. Sumatran toger

The white tiger is a rare pigmentation variant

of which of the above tiger subspecies ?

a) 1 and 4 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

98. Consider the following statements about

the Meghalaya plateau:

1. It is rich in mineral resources like coal,iron

ore,sillimanite,limestone and uranium.

2. It receives very high rainfall from the

southwest monsoon.

3. Cherrapunji is devoid of any permanent

vegetation cover.

Which of the statements given above is/are

true ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

99. Which of the following pollutants can be

found in motor vehicle emissions ?

1. Ozone

2. Carbon monoxide

3. Benzene

4. Formalin

5. Carbon dioxide

6. Nitrogen oxide

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

a) 1,2,4,5 and 6 only

b) 2,4,5 and 6 only

c) 1,2,3,5 and 6 only

d) 1,2,3,4,5 and 6

100. The moderate leaders‟ political outlook

was a happy combination of liberalism and

moderation. And hence they worked to

procure for Indian:

1. Freedom from race and creed prejudice

2. Equality before law

3. Extension of civil liberties

4. Extension of representative institutions

Select the correct answer from the following?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4