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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-3 (PCB ) [ 1 ]

XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-3 (PCB) - 27.03.2020

01. A body, thrown upwards with some velocity

reaches the maximum height of 50 m. Another

body with double the mass thrown up with double

the initial velocity will reach a maximum

height of

(1) 100 m (2) 200 m

(3) 300 m (4) 400 m

02. Given that, 2y Asin ct x

, where y and

x are measured in meter. which of the following

statements is true ?

(1) The unit of is same as that of x and A.

(2) The unit of (c×t) is same as that of y.

(3) The unit of (ct–x)is same as that of

(4) All the Above.

03. If n denotes a positive integer, h the plank’s

constant, q the charge and B the magnetic field,

then quantity nh

2 qB

has the dimension of :–

(1) Area (2) Length

(3) Speed (4) Acceleration

04. If F = ax + bt2 + cxt where F is force, x is

distance and t is time. Then what is dimension

of 2

2

ax c

bt?

(1)2 –1ML T

(2)

–3MLT

(3)2 –2ML T

(4)3 –2ML T

05. A particle starts with velocity V0 at time t = 0

and is decelerated at a rate proportional to the

square root of its speed at time t with constant

of proportionality . The total time for which it

will move before coming to rest is :–

(1) oV (2)

32Vo

(3)

32

o2V

(4)

o2 V

06. A particle is dropped from rest and another

particle is thrown downward simultaneously with

initial speed u, then :–

(1) Time after which their separation becomes

h, is h

.u

(2) Their relative velocity is always o.

(3) Their relative acceleration is contant and is

equal to g.

(4) All of these

07. If the time of flight of a bullet over a horizental

range R is T seconds, the inclination of the

direction of projection to the Horizontal is :–

(1)

2–1 gT

sinR (2)

2–1 gT

tan2R

(3)

2–1 2gT

cos2R (4)

–1

2

Rcot

gT

08. Which of the following statement(s) is are

correct?

(1) If the resultant of three forces is zero, then

the vectors may be of equal magnitude.

(2) If the resultant of four non-zero force is zero,

then the vectors may or may not be coplanar.

(3) If the resultant of three non-zero vectors, is

zero, then the vectors must be coplanar.

(4) All of these.

09. A boy is running over a circular track with

uniform speed of 20 m/s. Find the average

velocity for the movement of boy from A to B

(in m/s) :–

(1)10

(2)40

10 m

B

A

(3) 10

(4) None of these

10. A particle moves in the x–y plane with velocity

V = k1 i + k2 x j , where i and j are the unit

vector of the x and y axes, and k1 and k2 are

constants. At the initial moment of time the

particle was located at the point x = y = 0, then

the equation of the particle’s trajectory y (x) is :–

(1)21

2

ky x

2k (2) 22

1

ky x

k

(3)21

2

2ky x

k (4)

22

1

2ky x

k



11. If the retardation produced by air reistances to

projectile is one-tenth of acceleration due to

gravity, the time to reach maximum height

approximately :–

(1) Increases by 9% (2) Decreases by 9%

(3) Increases by 11% (4) Decreases by 11%

12. A body travelling with uniform acceleration

crosses two point A and B with velocities 20 ms–1

and 30 ms–1 respectively. The speed of the body

at the mid point of A and B is nearest to :–

(1) 25.5 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1

(3) 24 ms–1 (4) –110 6 ms

13. A swimmer crosses a flowing stream of width d

to and fro in time t1. The time taken to cover

the same distance up and down the stream is

t2. Then the time the swimmer would take to

swim a distance 2d in still water is :–

(1)

21

2

t

t(2)

22

1

t

t(3) 1 2t t (4) 1 2t t

14. A body of mass m projected horizontally with a

velocity v from the top of a tower of height h and

it reaches the ground at a distance of xfrom the

foot of the tower. If a second body of mass

2m is projected horizontally from the top of a

tower of height 2h, it reaches the ground at a

distance 2x from the foot of the tower. The

horizontal velocity of the second body is

(1) v (2) 2 v (3) 2v (4)v

2

15. A body rolls down a stair case of 5 steps. Each

step has height 0.1 m and width 0.1 m. with what

velocity will the body reach the bottom ?

(1) 5 2 m/s (2) 1 2 m /s

(3) 2 2 m s (4) 5/ 2 m/s

16. A particle A is projected from the ground with an

initial velocity of 9.8 ms–1 at an angle of 60° with

the vertical. From what height should another

particle B be projected horizontally with velocity

5 ms–1 so that both the particles collide in ground

at point C if both are projected simultaneously.

(Take g = 9.8 ms–2).

(1) 10 m (2) 15 m

(3) 9.8 m (4) 19.6 m

17. A ball is thrown from a point at different angles

with same speed u and has same range is both

cases. If h1 and h2 are the heights attained in

the two cases, then (h1 + h2) will be

(1)

2u

g(2)

22u

g(3)

2u

2g(4)

2u

4g

18. An important milestone in the evolution of the

universe just after the Big Bang is the Planck

time tp, the value of which depends on three

fundamental constants-speed of lights in

vaccum C, Gravitational constant G and Planck’s

constant h. Then, tp

(1) GhC2 (2)5C

Gh

(3) 5

Gh

C(4)

12

5

Gh

C

19. A train is moving slowly on straight track with a

constant speed of 3 ms–1. A passenger in that train

starts walking at a steady speed of 3 ms–1 to the

back of the train in the opposite direction of the

motion of the train. So to an observer standing on

the platform directly in front of the passenger, the

velocity of the passenger appears to be :–

(1) 4 ms–1

(2) 2 ms–1

(3) 2 ms–1 in the positive direction of the train

(4) Zero

20. Acceleration(a) – displacement(S) graph of a

particle moving in a straight line is shown in

adjacent figure. The initial velocity of the particle

is zero. The V–S graph of the particle would be :–

S

a

(1)

S

V

(2)

S

V

(3)

S

V

(4)

S

V



21. The Potential energy U of a particle varies with

distance x from a fixed origin as 2

A xU

x B

where A and B are dimensional formula for AB

is :–

(1)1 7/2 –2M L T

(2)1 11/2 –2M L T

(3)

1 5/2 2M L T (4)

1 9/2 2M L T

22. A very large number of balls are thrown vertically

upwards in quick succession in such a way that

the next ball is thrown when the previous one is

at the maximum height. If the maximum height

is 20 m, then the number of balls thrown per

minute is (g = 10ms–2) :–

(1) 120 (2) 60

(3) 30 (4) 15

23. A train is running with uniform velocity is east

direction. A car is running on a road parallel to the

track with uniform speed. After some time, the

road becomes perpendicular to railway track. The

car driver notices that initial speed of train with

respect to itself was 7 m/s and later on it becomes

13 m/s. What can be the true Speed of the driver ?

(1) 12 m/s (2) 5 m/s

(3) 13 m/s (4) Both 1 and 2

24. Two boats were going downstream with different

velocities when one overtook the other a plastic

ball was dropped from one of the boats. Some time

later both boats turned back simultaneously &

went at the same speeds as before (relative to the

water) towards the spot where the ball had been

dropped. Which boat will reach the ball first ?

(1) The boat which has greater velocity (relative

to water).

(2) The boat which has lower velocity (relative

to water)

(3) Both will reach the ball simultanously.

(4) Cannot be decided unless we know the actual

values of the velocities and the time after

which they turned around.

25. When the angle of projection is 75°, a ball falls

10 m short of the target. When the angle of

projection is 45°, it falls 10 m ahead of the target.

Both are projected from the same point with the

same speed in the same direction, the distance

of the target from the point of projection is :–

(1) 15 m (2) 30 m

(3) 45 m (4) 10 m

26. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He

takes 3 steps forward and 1 step backward

followed again by 3 steps forward and 1step

backward and so on. Each step is one metre long

and takes one seconds. There is a pit on the

road 11 m away from the starting point. The

drunkard will fall into the pit after :–

(1) 21 s (2) 29 s (3) 19 s (4) 31 s

27. An object moves at a constant speed along a

circular path in a horizontal X–Y plane, with the

centre at the origin. When the object is at

x = –2 m, its velocity is –1–4j ms . What is the

object’s acceleration when it is y = 2 m ?

(1) –2–8 j ms (2) –2–8i ms

(3) –2–4j ms (4) –24j ms

28. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 40° with the

horizontal and its range is R1. Another projectile

is thrown at an angle 40° with the vertical and

its range is R2. What is the relation between

R1 and R2 ?

(1) 1 2R R (2) 1 2R 2R

(3)2

1

RR

2 (4)

21

4RR

5

29. A car travels due to east on a level road for

30 km. It then turns due north at an intersection

and travels 40 km before stopping. The resultant

displacement of the car is :–

(1) 50 km, 53° north of east

(2) 50 km, 53° east of north

(3) 100 km, 37° north of east

(4) 100 km, 37° east of North.

30. A particle starts from rest and travel a distance

4x with uniform acceleration, then moves

uniformly over a further distance 2xunder

uniform retardation. Assuming entire motion to

be rectilinear motion, the ratio of average speed

over the journey to the maximum speed on its

way is :–

(1)4

5(2)

3

2(3)

1

2(4)

1

5

31. Which one of the following motions on a smooth

plane surface does not involve force ?

(1) Accelerated motion in a straight line.

(2) Retarded motion in a straight line.

(3) Motion with constant momentum along a

straight line.

(4) Motion along a straight line with varying

velocity.



32. A 0.2 kg object at rest is subjected to a force

0.3i – 0.4j N. What is the velocity after 6 s?

(1) 9i –12j (2) 8i –16 j

(3) 12i – 9j (4) 16i – 8 j

33. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a

horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right

angles to each other. The first part of mass 1kg

moves with a speed of 12 m s–1 and the second

part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 m s–1 speed. If

the third part flies off with 4 m s–1 speed, then

its mass is

(1) 7 kg (2) 17 kg

(3) 3 kg (4) 5 kg

34. Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and

3 N acting along different directions on a body

(1) can keep the body in equilibrium if 2 N and

3 N act at right angle.


2 N act at right angle.

(3) cannot keep the body in equilibrium.


3 N act at an acute angle.

35. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually

raised about the other end. As the angle of

inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the

box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank

in 4.0 s.

mg

The coefficients of static and kinetic friction

between the box and the plank will be,

respectively

(1) 0.5 and 0.6 (2) 0.4 and 0.3

(3) 0.6 and 0.6 (4) 0.6 and 0.5

36. A car of mass 500 kg takes a sharp turn at road

of radius 50 m with a speed of 36 km h–1. The

centrifugal force acting on it is

(1) 1296 N (2) 1000 N

(3) 6000 N (4) 500 N

37. Two blocks of masses 2.9 kg and 1.9 kg are

suspended from a rigid support S by two

inextensible wires each of length 1 m (figure).

The upper wire has negligible mass and the lower

wire has a uniform mass of 0.2 kg/m. The whole

system of blocks, wires blocks, wires and support

have an upward acceleration of 0.2 m/s2. The

tension at the midpoint of the upper wire is

2.9 kg

1.9 kg

1 m

1 m

S

(1) 20 N (2) 30 N

(3) 40 N (4) 50 N

38. Two masses M1 = 5 kg and M2 = 10 kg are

connected at the ends of an inextensible string

passing over a frictionless pulley as shown.

When the masses are released, then the

acceleration of the masses will be

M1

M2

(1) g (2) g/2

(3) g/3 (4) g/4

39. Three masses M1, M2 and M3 are lying on a

frictionless table. The masses are connected by

massless threads as shown. The mass M3 is

pulled by a constant force F as shown. The

tension in the thread between masses M2 and

M3 is

F

M1 M2 M3

(1)1 2

1 2 3

M MF

M M M

(2)

2 3

1 2 3

M MF

M M M

(3)1 3

1 2 3

M MF

M M M

(4)

1 2

1 2 3

M MF

M M M



40. A body of mass 8 kg is suspended through two

light spring X and Y connected in series as shown

in figure. The readings in X and Y respectively

are

8 kg

Y

X

(1) 8 kg, zero (2) zero, 8 kg

(3) 6 kg, 2 kg (4) 8 kg, 8 kg

41. If Ki and Kf are the initial and final values of

kinetic energy of a body respectively, then the

work done by the net force on the body is equal to

(1)f i

f i

K K

K – K (2) f iK K

(3)f iK K

2

(4) f iK – K

42. A particle is moved from a position

1r 3i 2j – 6k m

to a position

2r 14i 13j 9k

m under the action of a force

F 4i j 3k N.

The work done is equal to

(1) 32 J (2) 64 J (3) 96 J (4) 100 J

43. A gun fires a small bullet with kinetic energy K.

Then kinetic energy of the gun while recoiling is

(1) K (2) More than K

(3) Less than K (4) K

44. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are acted upon

by a constant force F for a time t. They start from

rest and acquire kinetic energies E1 and E2

respectively. Then 1

2

E

E is

(1)1

2

m

m (2)2

1

m

m(3) 1 (4)

1 2

1 2

m m

m m

45. When a spring is stretched by 10 cm, the

potential energy stored is E. When the spring is

stretched by 10 cm more, the potential energy

stored in the spring becomes

(1) 2 E (2) 4 E (3) 6 E (4) 10 E

46. If two persons A and B take 2 seconds and

4 seconds respectively to lift an object to the

same height h, then the ratio of their powers is

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 3

47. Two identical mass M moving with velocity

u1 and u2 collide perfectly inelastically. The loss

in energy is

(1) 22 1

Mu u

2 (2)

2

1 2

Mu u

3

(3) 21 2

Mu u

4 (4)

2

2 1

Mu u

6

48. A body of mass m1 collides elastically with

another body of mass m2 at rest. If the velocity

of m1 after collision becomes 2/3 times its initial

velocity, the ratio of their masses is

(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 5 : 2 (4) 2 : 5

49. A brick of mass m, tied to a rope, is being whirled

in a vertical circle, with a uniform speed. The

tension in the rope is

(1) the same throughout.

(2) largest when the brick is at the highest point

of the circular path and smallest when it is

at the lowest point.

(3) largest when the rope is horizontal and

smallest when it is vertical.

(4) largest when the brick is at the lowest point

and smallest when it is at the highest point.

50. Then velocity of a body moving in a vertical circle

of radius r is 7gr at the lowest point of the

circle. What is the ratio of maximum and

minimum tension ?

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 7 :1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

51. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg

respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat.

The length of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs

100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg

man and sits with him. If the boat is in still

water the centre of mass of the system shifts by

(1) 3.0 m (2) 2.3 m (3) zero (4) 0.75 m

52. A force F 5i 2 j 5k acts on a particle whose

position vector is r i 2j k. What is the torque

about the origin ?

(1) 8i 10 j 8k (2) 8i 10 j 12k

(3) 10i 10 j k (4) 8i 10 j 12k



53. (A) Centre of gravity (C.G.) of a body is the point

at which the weight of the body acts.

(B) Centre of mass coincides with the centre of

gravity if the earth is assumed to have

infinitely large radius.

(C) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity

due to any body at an external point, the

entire mass of the body can be considered to

be concentrated at its C.G.

(D) The radius of gyration of any body rotating

about an axis is the length of the

perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the

body to the axis.

Which one of the following pairs of statements

is correct ?

(1) (D) and (A) (2) (A) and (B)

(3) (B) and (C) (4) (C) and (D)

54. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rotates

about an axis passing through its centre making

600 rpm. Its kinetic energy of rotation is

(1)2 22MR

5 (2)

22MR

5

(3) 2 280 MR (4) 280 MR

55. The side of an equilateral triangle is l. Three

point masses, each of magnitude m, are placed

at the three vertices of the triangle. Moment of

inertia of this system about one side of the

triangle as axis is given by

(1)23

ml4

(2)24

ml3

(3)23

ml2

(4)22

ml3

56. A rod of length L is composed of a uniform length

1L

2 of wood whose mass in mw and a uniform

length 1

L2

of brass whose mass is mb. The

moment of inertia I of the rod about an axis

perpendicular to the rod and through its centre

is equal to

(1) 2

w b

Lm m

12 (2)

2

w b

Lm m

6

(3) 2

w b

Lm m

3 (4)

2

w b

Lm m

2

57. The moment of inertia of a circular disc of radius

2 m and mass 1 kg about an axis passing through

the centre of mass but perpendicular to the plane

of the disc is 2 kg m2. Its moment of inertia about

an axis parallel to this axis but passing through

the edge of the disc is ........................ (See the

given figure).

X1X

1

X

(1) 8 kg m2 (2) 4 kg m2

(3) 10 kg m2 (4) 6 kg m2

58. A solid sphere of mass m rolls down an inclined

plane without slipping, starting from rest at the

top of an inclined plane. The linear speed of the

sphere at the bottom of the inclined plane is v.

The kinetic energy of the sphere at the bottom is

(1)21

mv2

(2)25

mv3

(3)22

mv5

(4)27

mv10

59. A body rolls without slipping. The radius of

gyration of the body about an axis passing

through its centre of mass is k. If radius of the

body be R, then the fraction of total energy

associated with its rotational energy will be

(1) 2 2k R (2)2

2

k

R

(3) 2

2 2

k

k R (4) 2

2 2

R

k R

60. If a solid sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 0.1 m

rolls without slipping at a uniform velocity of

1 m/s along a straight line on a horizontal floor,

the kinetic energy is

(1)7

J5

(2)2

J5

(3)7

J10

(4) 1 J

61. One litre of CO2 is passed through red hot coke.

The volume becomes 1.4 litres at same

temperature and pressure. The composition of

products is ?

(1) 0.8 L of CO2 and 0.6 L of CO




62. Liquid benzene (C6H6) burns in oxygen according

to 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(g). How

many litres of O2 at STP are needed to complete

the combustion of 39 gm of liquid benzene?

(1) 74 L (2) 11.2 L (3) 22.4 L (4)84 L



63. Number of Fe atoms in 100 gm Haemoglobin if it

contains 0.33% fe(Atomic Mass of fe = 56)

(1) 0.035 × 1023 (2) 35

(3) 3.5 × 1023 (4) 7 × 108

64. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen

and oxygen, Its elemental analysis gave

C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The emprical formula

of the compound would be

(1) CH4O (2) CH3O

(3) CH2O (4) CHO

65. 25.3 gm of Na2CO3 is dissolved in enough water

to make 250 ml of solution. If sodium carbonates

dissociates completely, molar concentration of

sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ion 2

3CO are

respective ly (Molar mass of Na2CO3= 106 gm/mol–1).

(1) 0.955 M and 1.910 M

(2) 1.910 M and 0.955 M

(3) 1.90 M and 1.910 M

(4) 0.477 M and 0.477 M

66. Change in volume when 100 ml PH3 decomposed

to solid phosphorous and H2 gas

(1) Increase in 50 ml (2) Decrease in 50 ml

(3) Increase in 150 ml (4) Decrease in 200 ml

67. A certain metal when irradiated with light

( = 3.2 × 1016 Hz) emits photoelectrons with

twice kinetic energy as did photoelectrons when

the same is irradiated by light ( = 2 × 1016 Hz).

Calculate ‘0’ of electron.

(1) 1.2 × 1014 Hz (2) 8 × 1015 Hz

(3) 1.2 × 1016 Hz (4) 4 × 1012 Hz

68. Which shell would be the first to have ‘g’

subshell?

(1) L (2) M

(3) N (4) O

69. Which of the following transition will emit

maximum energy in hydrogen atom?

(1) 4f 2s

(2) 4d 2p

(3) 4p 2s

(4) All have same energy

70. Correct order of energy difference between

adjacent energy levels in H-atom.

(1) E2 – E1 > E3 – E2 > E4 – E3

(2) E2 – E1 > E4 – E3 > E3 – E2

(3) E4 – E3 > E3 – E2 > E2 – E1

(4) E3 – E2 > E4 – E3 > E2 – E1

71. The time taken by the electron in one complete

revolution in the nth orbit of Bohr in hydrogen

atom is

(1) 2

1T

n (2) 3T n (3)

hT

2

(4)

nT

h

72. Electronic configuration of gadolinium

(Atomic no. 64) is

(1) [Xe] 4f35d56s2 (2) [Xe] 4f65d26s2

(3) [Xe] 4f85d96s2 (4) [Xe] 4f75d16s2

73. The electronic configuration of an element is1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3. What is the atomic numberof element, which is just below the aboveelement in the periodic table

(1) 36 (2) 49

(3) 33 (4) 34

74. Which of the following set of atomic numberrepresents only representative elements?

(1) 55, 12, 48, 53 (2) 13, 23, 54, 83

(3) 3, 33, 53, 87 (4) 22, 33, 55, 66

75. Find the formula of Halide of a metal whosesuccessive Ionization enthalpies are x, 2x, 5x,

100x KJ/mol respectively.

(1) MX (2) MX2 (3) MX3 (4)M2X

76. Correct order of least negative to most negativeelectron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?

(1) Ca < Al < C < O < F (2) Al < Ca < O < C < F

(3) Al < O < C < Ca < F (4) C < F < O < Al < Ca

77. Electronic configuration of inner transitionelement is

(1) ns1

(2) ns2 np5 nd10

(3) ns0–2 (n – 1)d1 – 10

(4) ns2(n – 1)d0 – 1 (n – 2)f1 – 14

78. The 1st, 2nd and 3rd ionisation energy of Al are578, 1817 and 2745 KJ/mol respectively.Calculate the energy required to convert all theatoms of Al to Al+3 present in 270 mg ofAl vapours.

(1) 5140 KJ (2) 51.40 KJ

(3) 2745 KJ (4) 514 KJ

79. The low density of ice compared to water is due to

(1) Dipole induced dipole interactions

(2) Induced dipole induced dipole interactions

(3) Hydrogen bonding interactions

(4) Dipole-dipole interaction

80. d – pbonds present in

(1) 2

3CO (2) 3

4PO (3)3NO (4)

2NO



81. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is Z, orbital

px and py overlap with each other to form which

of the following molecular orbitals?

(1) molecular orbital (2) molecular orbital

(3) molecular orbital (4) No bond will form

82. The molecular orbital shown below can be

described respectively as

+

–

2px

+

+

–

–

* 2px

(1) , * (2) , * (3) *, (4) *, *

83. Number of Nodal planes in * 2px are

(1) zero (2) one (3) two (4) three

84. The table shown below gives the bond

dissociation energy (Ediss) for single covalent

bonds of carbon (C)atoms with element A, B, Z

and D. Which element has the smallest atoms

Bond Ediss (KJ/mol)

C – A 240

C – B 328

C – Z 276

C – D 485

(1) Z (2) D (3) A (4)B

85. Which species does not exhibit paramagnetism?

(1) N2+ (2) O2

– (3) CO (4)NO

86. Dipole moment of

Cl

is 1.1 D hence

dipole moment of given compound will be

Cl

Cl

ClCl

(1) 1.1 D (2) 4.4 D (3) 3.3 D (4)2.56 D

87. In

N

H

hybrid state of ‘N’ atom is

(1) sp2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d2 (4) sp

88. Number of carbon atom present in sp2 hybrid

state of given molecule

CH CH CH3

(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4)2

89. In the given structure of a compound, the

correct various bond moments direction

involving atoms are shown as:

(1) Br N CH2 SiH2 CH2 O CH3




90. O-Nitrophenol is

(1) More volatile than p-Nitrophenol

(2) Less volatile than p-Nitrophenol

(3) Equally volatile as p-Nitrophenol

(4) Non-volatile

91. IUPAC name for the compound

is

(1) 3-methyl-4-ethyl hexane

(2) 3-ethyl-4-methyl hexane

(3) 4-ethyl-3-methyl hexane

(4) Nonane

92. In the structure

CH3 CH

C

NH2

O

CH

OH

CH

COOH

CH2 CN

Number of functional groups present is /are

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4)3

93. :CH2 is an :

(1) Electrophile (2) Nucleophile

(3) Free redical (4) Ambiphiles

94. Correct order of stability of the given

carbocations?

I

CH2

II III

(1) III > I > II (2) I > III > II

(3) III > II > I (4) II > III > I



95. In compound

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7)

2CH CH– CH C CH– C CH

The hybridisation of C(1) to (7) are

(1) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp, sp2, sp, sp

(2) sp, sp, sp2, sp, sp2, sp2, sp2

(3) sp2, sp, sp, sp2, sp, sp, sp

(4) sp2, sp, sp2, sp, sp3, sp, sp

96. Correct order of stability

I CH3 II CH3 CH2

III (CH )3 2CH IV (CH )3 3 C

is

(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV

(3) II > I > III > IV (4) IV > II > III > I

97. 0.64gm of organic compound give 1.2535 gm of

Mg2P2O7. The % of ‘P’ is

(1) 53.86 % (2) 35.86 % (3) 50% (4)60%

98. Which of the following will not give Lassaigne

Test for Nitrogen

(1) NH2–NH2 (2) C6H5–N=N–C6H5

(3) CH3CoNH2 (4) CH3CN

99. Correct order of stability given carbocations is

(1) NO CH CH2 2 2— — (2) NH CH CH2 2 2— —

(3) CH O CH3 2— — (4) OH CH— 2

(5) NH CH2 2— (6) NO CH2 — 2

(7) CH O CH CH3 2 2— — —

(1) 7 > 3 > 2 > 4 > 5 > 1 > 6

(2) 5 > 3 > 4 > 2 > 6 > 1 > 7

(3) 5 > 4 > 3 > 2 > 7 > 1 > 6

(4) 6 > 1 > 7 > 3 > 2 > 5 > 4

100. In which of the following rearranged 3°

carbocation will not be formed:

(1)

CH3

+

(2)

CH CH— 3

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (3)

101.

CH2

H+ (Intermediate) Major

Most stable carbocation is

(1)

CH2

(2)

CH3

(3)

CH2

(4)

CH2

102. Consider the following compounds:

ICH3 C CH

CH3

CH3

IIPh C Ph

Ph

IIICH3

Hyperconjugation occurs in

(1) I and III (2) I only (3) II only (4) III only

103. Solvay’s process is used for the manufacture of

(1) Sodium metal (2) Washing soda

(3) Bleaching powder (4) Quick lime

104. The solubility of sulphates in water decreases

from MgSO4 to BaSO4. It is due to fact that

(1) Ionic nature increases

(2) Size of M+2 ion increases

(3) Lattice energy decreases

(4) Hydration enthalpy of M+2 ion decreases

105. Alkaline earth metals form hydrated cyrstalline

solid such as MgCl2.6H2O and CaCl2.6H2O. This

is due to

(1) Smaller Ionic size

(2) Increased charge on ions

(3) Higher hydration enthalpies

(4) High oxidation potential

106. To what temperature must a neon gas sample

be heated to double its pressure if the initial

volume of gas at 75°C is decreased by 15.0%

(1) 592 K (2) 492 K

(3) 542 K (4) 642 K



107. What % of a sample of Nitrogen must be allowed

to escape if its temperature, pressure and

volume are to be changed from 220°C, 3 atm and

1.65 litre to 110°C, 0.7 atm and 1.00 L

respectively.

(1) 81.8% (2) 71.8% (3) 76.8% (4)86.8%

108. What is the ratio of average molecular kinetic

energy of UF6 to that of H2 both at 300 K

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 349 : 2 (3) 2 : 349 (4)None

109. Distribution of fraction of molecules with

velocity is represented in the figure

X

Velocity

N/N0

velocity corresponding to point ‘X’ is

(1)2RT

M(2)

3RT

M(3)

8RT

M(4)

2RT

M

110. Boyles temperature and inversion temperature

are related as

(1) Ti = Tb (2) 2Ti = Tb

(3) Ti = 2Tb (4) Ti = b

2T

111. Air contains 23% oxygen and 77% Nitrogen by

weight. The % of O2 by volume is

(1) 28.1 (2) 20.2 (3) 21.8 (4)23.0

112. The respective examples of extensive and

intensive properties are

(1) Enthalpy, Entropy

(2) Entropy, Enthalpy

(3) Entropy, Temperature

(4) Temperature, Entropy

113. A system absorbs 10kJ of Heat and does 4kJ of

work. The internal energy of system

(1) Decreases by 6kJ (2) Increases by 6kJ

(3) Decreases by 14kJ (4) Increases by 14kJ

114. S(rhombic) + O2(g) SO2(g) H = –297.5 kJ

S(monoclinic) + O2(g) SO2(g) H = –300 kJ

The above data can predict that

(1) Rhombic sulphur is yellow in colour

(2) Monoclinic sulphur has metallic lusture

(3) Monoclinic sulphur is more stable

(4) H(transition) of S(R) to S(M) is endothermic

process

115. Which compound will absorb the maximum

amount of heat when dissolved in the same

amount of water? (Internal heats of solution at

25°C in kcal/mol. of each solute are given in

brackets)

(1) HCl (H = –17.74)

(2) HNO3 (H = –7.85)

(3) NH4NO3 (H = +16.08)

(4) NaCl (H = 1.02)

116. H2(g) + 1

2O2(g) H2O(l)

H2O(l) H2O(g) ; H = X4

given EH–H = x1

EO = O = x2

EO–H = x3

fH of H2O vapour is

(1)2

1 3 4

xx – x x

2 (2)

2

3 1 4

x2x – x – – x

2

(3)2

1 3 4

xx – 2x – x

2 (4)

2

1 3 4

xx – 2x x

2

117. In a flask colourless N2O4 is in equillibrium with

brown coloured NO2. At equilibrium when the

flask is heated at 100°, the brown colour deepens

and on cooling it becomes less coloured. The

change in enthalpy, H for formation of NO2 is

(1) Negative (2) Positive

(3) Zero (4) Undefined

118. A particular reaction at 27°C for which H>0 and

S>0 is found to be non-spontaneously. The

reaction may proceed spontaneously if.

(1) The temperature is decreased

(2) The temperature is increased

(3) The temperature is kept constant

(4) It is carried in open vessels at 27°C

119. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change

of state (2.0 atm, 3.0L, 95K) (4.0 atm, 5.0L,

245K) with a change in internal energy

U = 30. L-atm. The change in Enthalpy of the

process in L-atm is

(1) 40.0 (2) 42.3 (3) 44.0 (4)56.0

120. A mixture of 2 mole of CO and 1 mole of O2 is

ignited. Correct relationship is :

(1) H = U

(2) H > U

(3) H < U

(4) The relationship depends upon the capacity

of velles



121. Systematics

(1) Only classifies Organism.

(2) Only identifies Organism.

(3) Taken into account Evolutionary relationship

between organisms

(4) Includes identification, Classification and

Evolutionary relations except nomenclature

122. First step of Taxonomy is

(1) Characterisation (2) Identification

(3) Nomenclature (4) Classification

123. Bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes

15 minutes of cup to be filled one fourth. How

much time will it take to fill the cup full

(1) 30 Minute (2) 45 Minute

(3) 60 Minute (4) 17 Minute

124. Photosynthetic protistants are

(1) Slime Moulds and Ciliates

(2) Dinoflagellates and Zooflagellates

(3) Dinoflagellates and Euglenoids

(4) Euglenoids and protozoans

125. Gametangial Copulation acts of Sexual

reproduction occurs in

(1) Oomycetes (2) Ascomycetes

(3) Basidiomy cetes (4) Zygomycetes

126. Gemmae are :–

(1) Green and Multicellular buds

(2) Non-green and unicellular buds.

(3) Green and Unicellular buds

(4) Non green and Multicellular buds.

127. Heterosporus Pteridophyte is

(1) Dryopteris (2) Selaginella

(3) Adiantum (4) Pteris

128. Equisteum is included in

(1) Sphenopsida (2) Psilopsida

(3) Pteropsida (4) Lycopsida

129. What is the Ploidy of Primary Endosperm Nucleus

in Angiosperm

(1) Haploid (2) Diploid

(3) Triploid (4) Polyploid

130. Gymnosperm are also called Softwood

Spermatophyte because they lack

(1) Thick walled Trachieds

(2) Xylem fibres

(3) Cambium

(4) Phloem fibres

131. The primary growth in root is due to :

(1) Zone of Maturation

(2) Zone of cell division

(3) Zone of cell elongation

(4) Meristematic Region

132. Find the Correct Match :–

Column-I Column-II

A. Bulb (i) Potato

B. Rhizome (ii) Jasmine

C. Stolon (iii) Ginger

D. Tuber (iv)Allium

(1) A (i), B (iii), C (ii), D (iv)

(2) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)

(3) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (ii)

(4) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)

133. Single shield-shaped cotyledon of maize seed iscalled

(1) Coleorhiza (2) Coleoptile

(3) Scutellum (4) Epiblast

134. Placenta swollen with many ovules is presentin family

(1) Solanaceae (2) Brassicaceae

(3) Liliaceae (4) Malvaceae

135. Find the correct match w.r.t. plant and its family

(1) Colchicine – Liliaceae

(2) Chilli – Brassicaceae

(3) Mulaithi – Solanaceae

(4) Capsella – Fabaceae

136. Tissue is the group of Cells Which are

(1) Similar in origin, but disimilar in form andfunction.

(2) Similar in origin and form, but dissimilar infunction.

(3) Similar in origin, form and function

(4) Dissimilar in origin, but similar in form andfunction.

137. The Intercalary Meristem are in fact portion of

(1) Lateral Meristem

(2) Secondary Meristem

(3) Apical Meristem

(4) Permanent tissue that becomesmeristematic

138. Stele does not includes

(1) Pericycle (2) Vascular bundles

(3) Pith (4) Endodermis



139. Secondry Medullary rays are produced by

(1) Fusiform Initial

(2) Interfasicular Cambium

(3) Phellogen

(4) Ray Initial

140. In dicot root with tetrarch vascular bundleslateral root rises from the pericycle which lies

(1) Opposite to phloem

(2) Opposite to Protoxylem

(3) In between protoxylem and phloem

(4) Any where

141. Cell originate

(1) From pre-existing cells

(2) From abiotic materials

(3) By bacterial fermentation

(4) By regeneration of old cells

142. Fluid Mosaic Model was proposed by

(1) J. D. Robertson

(2) Danielli and Davson

(3) Gorten and Grindell

(4) Singer and Nicolson

143. Autolysis is associated with

(1) Ribosome (2) Centriole

(3) Lysosome (4) Golgi apparatus

144. Mitochondria are not found in

(1) Mature W.B.C (2) Mature R.B.C

(3) Nerve Cell (4) Sperm

145. Prokaryotes do not contain any other organelleas found in Eukaryotes except

(1) Golgi body (2) Glyoxisome

(3) Ribosome (4) Sphaerosome

146. Recombination Nodules which mediate inchromosome recombination occur during

(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene

(3) Diakinesis (4) Pachytene

147. Crossing over occurs during

(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene

(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene

148. Nuclear Membrane, Nucleoli are distinctly

seen in

(1) Late prophase (2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase (4) Interkinesis

149. The Movement of homologus chromosome

towards opposite poles occur by diassembly of

spindles fibres during

(1) Anaphase (2) Anaphase-I

(3) Anaphase-II (4) Metaphase

150. Minimum number of meiotic divison required

to produce 100 wheat grains are

(1) 400 (2) 200 (3) 125 (4) 25

151. Flat Worms are

(1) Bilaterally Symmetrical

(2) Triploblastic

(3) Acoelomate

(4) All of there

152. Which of the following are triploblastic

Acoelomates with blind sac type of body plan and

where parenchymal cells originating from

mesodermal fill up the cavities of the body.

(1) Cnidaria (2) Platyhelminthes

(3) Annelids (4) Arthropoda

153. Which of the following has an open circulatory

system

(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta

(3) Hirudinaria (4) Octopus

154. Which of the following animal is commonly

known as tusk shell ?

(1) Pila (2) Sepia

(3) Octopus (4) Dentallium

155. The Reptile having four chambered heart is

(1) Neophron (2) Paro

(3) Crocodilus (4) Chelone

156. Which of the following epithelial forms the inner

lining of lung alveoli, blood vessel a and

peritoneum of body cavity

(1) Cuboidal (2) Squamous

(3) Columnar (4) Ciliated Columnar

157. Nissl’s granules are made up of

(1) Ribosome and RNA (2) DNA and protein

(3) Ribosome and DNA (4) RNA, DNA and protein

158. Male cockroach can be distinguish from female

externally by

(1) Anal styles in male, shorter antennae and

wings shorter than abdomen

(2) Anal cerci in female

(3) Anal style and short antennae in male and

wings are longer than the length of abdomen

(4) Anal cerci in male

159. Cockroach is

(1) U ricotelic (2) Ureotelic

(3) Ammonotelic (4) Both (2) and (3)



160. In Cockroach, Malphigian tubules help in

removal of excretory product from

(1) Foregut (2) Haemolymph

(3) Midgut (4) Hindgut

161. Which of the following are basic Amino Acids ?

(1) Glycine and Alanine

(2) Lysine and Arginine

(3) Glutamic Acid and Aspartic Acid

(4) Histidine and Proline

162. The backbone of a Nucleic Acid strand is made of

(1) Base and Phosphate

(2) Sugar and Phosphate

(3) Sugar and Base

(4) Sugar, base and phosphate

163. Glycosidic linkage at place of branching in starch

and glycogen has

(1) –1, 4–linkage (2) –1, 6–linkage

(3) –1, 4– linkage (4) –1, 6–linkage

164. A Competitive Inhibitor of an enzyme

(1) Increase Km without affecting Vmax

(2) Decrease Km without affecting Vmax.

(3) Increase Vmax without affecting Km

(4) Decrease both Vmax and Km.

165. An Organic substance bound lightly to an

enzyme and which is essential for its activity is

called

(1) Holoenzyme (2) Apoenzyme

(3) Isoenzyme (4) Coenzyme

166. Oxyntic cells of the stomach epithelium secrete

(1) HCl, Intrinsic factor and large quantity of

Pepsinogen

(2) Mainly Mucous, some pepsinogen and the

hormone gestrin

(3) Only mucus

(4) Only HCl and Intrinsic factor

167. Carbohydrate, lipid and Protein are

(1) Macronutrient or proximate principle of food

(2) Micronutrient or protective principle of food

(3) Macronutrient or protective principle of food

(4) Protective principles

168. Which of the following is correct sequence of

layers in ailmentary canal starting from

outwards to inwards ?

(1) Serosa, Muscularis Mucosa, Musculari

Externa, lamina propria, Epithelium.

(2) Muscularis Mucosa, Muscularis Externa,

Lamina propria, Epithelium, Serosa.

(3) Serosa, Muscularis Externa, Submucosa,

Muscularis Mucosa, Laminapropria,

Epithelium

(4) Both (2) and (1)

169. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an other

wise normal human, may lead to

(1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting

(3) Indigestion (4) Jaundice

170. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through

Mucosa cells of intestine by the process called

(1) Active transport

(2) Facilitated transport

(3) Simple diffusion

(4) Co-transport mechanism

171. Total lung capacity is

(1) TV + IRV (2) TV + IRV + ERV + RV

(3) IRV + ERV + RV (4) TV + ERV + RV

172. Partial pressure of O2 in the inspired and expired

air is respectively

(1) 158 and 116 mm Hg

(2) 158 and 40 mm Hg

(3) 100 and 96 mm Hg

(4) 40 and 95 mm Hg

173. Oxygen Hb dissociation curve in mammal is

(1) J-Shaped (2) Sigmoid Shaped

(3) T-Shaped (4) L-Shaped

174. Which of the following disorders is related to

cigaratte smoking in which alveolar walls are

damaged

(1) Asthama (2) Emphysema

(3) Atele ctasis (4) Bend’s diseases.

175. Trachea divide at the level of

(1) 5th Thoracic Vertebrae

(2) 2nd Thoracic Vertebrae

(3) 5th Cervical Vertebrae

(4) 4th Cervical Vertebrae

176. Which of the following cells has kidney nucleus

(1) Neutrophits (2) Monocytes

(3) Lymphocyte (4) Eosinophil’s

177. One of the following lies in the wall of right

atrium

(1) Purkinje fibres (2) Bundle of His

(3) SA Node (4) AV Node



178. Second heart Sound is

(1) “Lubb” at the beginning of ventricular Systole

(2) “Lubb” at the end of Atrial Systole

(3) ‘Dup’ at the beginning of ventricular diastole

(4) ‘Dup’ at the beginning of ventricular systole

179. The end T-wave marks

(1) Starts of systole

(2) End of ventricular systole

(3) Ventricular depolarisation

(4) Atrial depolarisation

180. If a person is Suffering with fever heart beat rate

Increases, then the duration of Cardiac Cycle

will be

(1) Remain the same (2) Increase

(3) Decrease (4) Be irregular



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(4)

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(1)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(2)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(4)

XI - Foundation Revision Test - 3rd

PCB - 27.03.20

(4)

(4)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(4)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(4)

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(1)

(4)

(3)

(2)

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(4)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(3)

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(2)

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(3)

(2)

(1)

(3)

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