Windows Sever 2008 Network Infrastructure Configuration 70-642

1. Question 1 5 out of 5 points

2. The most widely used IP addressing scheme is __ _____.

3.

4. Selected Answer: IPv4

5. Correct Answer: IPv4

6.


8. The most recent and largest address space IP addressing scheme is

______.

9.

10. Selected Answer: IPv6

11. Correct Answer: IPv6

12.


14. To distribute IP addresses automatically, a network administrator would

configure the ______ service.

15.

16. Selected Answer: DHCP

17. Correct Answer: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

18.


20. The first attempt at breaking up IP address space used _ _ to provide

address ranges of differing sizes.

21.

22. Selected Answer: classful addressing

23. Correct Answer: classful addressing

24.


26. Prior to the introduction of the Domain Name System, computers used __

__ to map human-readable named to IP addresses.

27.

28. Selected Answer: HOSTS files

29. Correct Answer: HOSTS files

30.


32. A(n) _¬___ is used to separate the host address portion of an IP

address from the network address.

33.

34. Selected Answer: Subnet Mask

35. Correct Answer: subnet mask

36.


38. The subnet mask within the TCP/IP configuration is used to distinguish

the ____ from the host address.

39.

40. Selected Answer: network

41. Correct Answer: network address

42.


44. In dotted-decimal notation, each IPv4 address is broken up into four

____.

45.

46. Selected Answer: bytes

47. Correct Answer: octets

48.


50. Server computers and other systems that need to be accessed reliably by

network clients should be configured with a(n) ____.

51.

52. Selected Answer: static IP address

53. Correct Answer: static IP address

54.


56. The method of breaking up IP address space into address ranges of

flexible size is called ___.

57.

58. Selected Answer: subnetting

59. Correct Answer: Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)

60.


62. What must each host on a TCP/IP network be configured with in order to

communicate with other hosts?

63.

64. Selected Answer: IP address

65. Correct Answer: IP address

66.


68. What is the process of transmitting TCP/IP traffic from one IP subnet

to another?

69.

70. Selected Answer: Routing

71. Correct Answer: Routing

72.


74. An IP network that is formatted such as 192.168.1.0/24 is referred to

as what type of notation?

75.

76. Selected Answer: CIDR notation

77. Correct Answer: CIDR notation

78.


80. What is the default network protocol of the Internet and most modern

corporate networks?

81.

82. Selected Answer: TCP/IP

83. Correct Answer: TCP/IP

84.


86. What was used by TCP/IP networks to perform name resolution prior to

the introduction of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

87.


89. Correct Answer: HOSTS files

90.


92. What is the process of dividing a large TCP/IP address space into

multiple smaller networks called?

93.

94. Selected Answer: Subnetting

95. Correct Answer: Subnetting

96.


98. What technology is used by private network ranges that has extended the

useful life of IPv4 addressing and slowed the adoption rate of IPv6?

99.

100. Selected Answer: NAT

101. Correct Answer: NAT

102.


104. Which TCP/IP configuration item allows client computers to communicate

with other computers that are located on remote networks?

105.

106. Selected Answer: Default gateway

107. Correct Answer: Default gateway

108.


110. On a TCP/IP network that uses the Domain Name System (DNS) for name

resolution, what unique configuration item must each TCP/IP host possess?

111.

112. Selected Answer: Fully qualified domain name

113. Correct Answer: Fully qualified domain name

114.


116. In what format are IPv4 IP addresses most commonly written?

117.

118. Selected Answer: Dotted-decimal

119. Correct Answer: Dotted-decimal

120.


122. The ability to use the installation process to fix problems with an

existing Windows Server system is called ___ _______.

123.

124. Selected Answer: repair mode

125. Correct Answer: repair mode

126.


128. Installation of just the necessary components for a particular server

role, without the GUI and other software features, is called ____ ______.

129.

130. Selected Answer: server core

131. Correct Answer: server core

132.


134. The ____ ______ screen appears by default when the Windows Server 2008

operating system is first installed.

135.

136. Selected Answer: initial configuration tasks

137. Correct Answer: Initial Configuration Tasks

138.


140. A(n) ___ _____ offers the best performance of any multi-disk

configuration option within the Disk Management MMC, but does so at the expense of

fault tolerance.

141.

142. Selected Answer: spanned volume

143. Correct Answer: striped volume

144.


146. The feature that allows users on different computers to access the

Internet through a single connection is called___ _______.

147.

148. Selected Answer: internet connection sharing (ICS)

149. Correct Answer: Internet Connection Sharing

150.


152. The ___ _______ provides a single point of administration to configure

networking and firewall configuration tasks on a Windows Server 2008 computer.

153.

154. Selected Answer: Network and Sharing Center

155. Correct Answer: Network and Sharing Center

156.


158. The setting describing the network environment, such as home or public

network, is called the ____ ______.

159.

160. Selected Answer: Network location

161. Correct Answer: network location

162.


164. Unsolicited inbound traffic can be blocked through the use of the ____

___.

165.

166. Selected Answer: firewall

167. Correct Answer: Windows firewall

168.


170. The network location setting controls the behavior of ___ _______.

171.

172. Selected Answer: network discovery

173. Correct Answer: network discovery

174.


176. Once a disk is converted from a basic disk to a(n) __ _____, it can

only be accessed only by operating systems that support dynamic disks: Windows 2000

Professional, Windows XP Professional, Windows Vista Business, Enterprise or

Ultimate, Windows 2000 Server, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008.

177.

178. Selected Answer: dynamic disk

179. Correct Answer: dynamic disk

180.


182. What type of license key allows you to host an activation service

locally within your own network?

183.

184. Selected Answer: Key Management System (KMS)

185. Correct Answer: Key Management System (KMS)

186.


188. What type of volume uses 50% of available drive space to provide fault

tolerance for the volume?

189.

190. Selected Answer: RAID-5

191. Correct Answer: RAID-1

192.


194. Which disk formatting option will cause a disk to appear as a folder

within an existing volume?

195.

196. Selected Answer: Mount point

197. Correct Answer: Mount point

198.


200. Which Windows Server 2008 feature installs and configured wireless

connections and wireless LAN profiles?

201.

202. Selected Answer: Wireless Networking

203. Correct Answer: Wireless Networking

204.


206. What was the primary means of name resolution on Windows networks prior

to the introduction of Windows 2000 and Active Directory?

207.


209. Correct Answer: NetBIOS

210.


212. Which feature is used to perform backups and restores of Windows

volumes?

213.

214. Selected Answer: Windows Server Backup

215. Correct Answer: Windows Server Backup

216.


218. Which networking service is used to automatically associate NetBIOS

names with IP addresses?

219.

220. Selected Answer: WINS

221. Correct Answer: WINS

222.


224. Which disk partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or

disks that are used in Itanium computers?

225.

226. Selected Answer: GUID Partition Table (GPT)

227. Correct Answer: GUID Partition Table (GPT)

228.


230. What is used to manage the licensing process for volume licenses of

Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008?

231.

232. Selected Answer: Volume Activation

233. Correct Answer: Volume Activation

234.


236. Which volume contains the operating system files on a Windows computer?

237.

238. Selected Answer: Boot volume

239. Correct Answer: Boot volume

240.

241.


243. Match the term in Column 1 to its description in Column 2.

244.

245. Question Correct Match Selected Match

246. This DHCP message type is sent by a DHCP client when it no longer requires the

use of an IP address that it has leased from a DHCP server. E. DHCPRELEASE

E. DHCPRELEASE

247. You can configure one of these to ensure that a DHCP client always receives the

same IP address from a particular DHCP server. H. reservation H.

reservation

248. This is used to ensure that a particular address or block of addresses within a

scope is not assigned to DHCP clients by a DHCP server. F. exclusion range

F. exclusion range

249. You must do this to any DHCP server that needs to function within an Active

Directory domain. A. authorize A. authorize

250. A DHCP client will send this message type if it determines that an IP address

offered by a DHCP server is already in use. D. DHCPDECLINE D.

DHCPDECLINE

251. This is performed by a DHCP server when corruption is detected within the DHCP

database. B. automatic restore B. automatic restore

252. The DHCP database is based on this database technology G. Joint Engine

Technology (JET) G. Joint Engine Technology (JET)

253. Authorizing DHCP servers in Active Directory is designed to prevent against

these. I. rogue DHCP server

254. I. rogue DHCP server

255.

256. These provide DHCP parameters to DHCP clients based on vendor or user type.

C. class options C. class options

257. This defaults to 87.5% of the total DHCP lease. J. T2 J. T2

258.

259.


261. Which of the following DHCP message types is sent first in the process

of obtaining an address lease?

262.

263. Selected Answer: DHCPDISCOVER

264. Correct Answer: DHCPDISCOVER

265.


267. At which layer of the OSI model does DHCP operate?

268.

269. Selected Answer: Application layer

270. Correct Answer: Application layer

271.


273. What protocol is used by the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?

274.

275. Selected Answer: User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

276. Correct Answer: User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

277.


279. A DHCP client first attempts to reacquire its lease at half the lease

time, which is known as:

280.

281. Selected Answer: T1

282. Correct Answer: T1

283.


285. The _______ is composed of the remaining addresses within a DHCP scope

once all exclusion ranges have been applied.

286.

287. Selected Answer: available address pool

288. Correct Answer: available address pool

289.


291. The following is a lightweight version of FTP that uses the UDP

protocol, which is used by the BOOTP protocol to transmit network configuration

information

292.

293. Selected Answer: TFTP

294. Correct Answer: TFTP

295.


297. The following process will populate DHCP client lease information from

the registry to the DHCP database:

298.

299. Selected Answer: Reconciliation

300. Correct Answer: Reconciliation

301.


303. The following is an administrative grouping of scopes that is used to

support multiple logical subnets on a single network segment:

304.

305. Selected Answer: superscope

306. Correct Answer: superscope

307.


309. This indicates the location of the last information that was

successfully written from transaction logs to a database file, such as a DHCP

database.

310.

311. Selected Answer: Checkpoint file

312. Correct Answer: Checkpoint file

313.


315. The following is a hexadecimal address that is uniquely associated with

a specific Network Interface Card (NIC):

316.

317. Selected Answer: MAC

318. Correct Answer: MAC

319.


321. A(n) _ _ will transfer all records within a zone from a primary server

to a secondary server.

322.

323. Selected Answer: full zon transfer (AXFR)

324. Correct Answer: full zone transfer (AXFR)

325.


327. A(n) _ _ creates an alias for an existing A record.

328.

329. Selected Answer: CNAME record

330. Correct Answer: CNAME Record

331.


333. A(n) _ _ is used by e-mail systems such as Microsoft Exchange to locate

mail servers in different networks.

334.

335. Selected Answer: Mail Exchanger (MX) record

336. Correct Answer: Mail Exchanger (MX) record

337.


339. The _ _ allows IPv6 hosts to map host names to IP addresses.

340.

341. Selected Answer: ip6.arpa domain

342. Correct Answer: ip6.arpa domain

343.


345. contoso.com is an example of a(n) _ _ within the .com top-level domain.

346.

347. Selected Answer: second-level domain

348. Correct Answer: second-level domain

349.


351. The _ _ application scope will replicate DNS data to all DNS servers

within a domain.

352.

353. Selected Answer: DomainDNSZones

354. Correct Answer: DomainDNSZones

355.


357. A(n) _ _ stores DNS data in a text file on the server hard drive,

rather than as part of Active Directory.

358.

359. Selected Answer: file-backed zone

360. Correct Answer: file-backed zone

361.


363. Each DNS record has a(n) _ _ that indicates the maximum time that a

record will be cached by a DNS server before it is discarded.

364.

365. Selected Answer: (TTL) Time To Live

366. Correct Answer: Time to Live (TTL)

367.


369. A DNS server is considered _ _ for each zone that it hosts.

370.

371. Selected Answer: authoritative

372. Correct Answer: authoritative

373.


375. A DNS domain name like .uk or .it is an example of a(n) _ _ domain.

376.

377. Selected Answer: country code

378. Correct Answer: country code

379.


381. This DNS configuration item will forward DNS queries to different

servers based on the domain name of the query.

382.

383. Selected Answer: Conditional forwarder

384. Correct Answer: Conditional forwarder

385.


387. This type of zone takes human-readable FQDNs and translates them into

IP addresses.

388.

389. Selected Answer: Forward lookup zone

390. Correct Answer: Forward lookup zone

391.


393. This zone is used in combination with IP addresses to resolve queries

for IPv4 IP addresses:

394.

395. Selected Answer: in.addr-arpa

396. Correct Answer: in.addr-arpa

397.


399. The IPv6 DNS host record is referred to as a(n):

400.

401. Selected Answer: AAAA record

402. Correct Answer: AAAA record

403.


405. A DNS server that hosts a primary or secondary zone containing a

particular record can issue the following response to a query for that record:

406.

407. Selected Answer: Authoritative answer

408. Correct Answer: Authoritative answer

409.


411. You can secure an Active Directory-integrated DNS server, zone, or

record by applying the following to it:

412.

413. Selected Answer: Discretionary Access Control List

414. Correct Answer: Discretionary Access Control List

415.


417. This zone type contains only SOA, name server, and glue records for the

relevant zone.

418.

419. Selected Answer: Stub zone

420. Correct Answer: Stub zone

421.


423. Data from a primary zone is transmitted to secondary zones using the

following:

424.

425. Selected Answer: Zone transfer

426. Correct Answer: Zone transfer

427.


429. These contain the names and IP addresses of the DNS servers

authoritative for the root zone.

430.

431. Selected Answer: Root Hints

432. Correct Answer: Root Hints

433.


435. The following feature is available only on Active Directory-integrated

DNS zones:

436.

437. Selected Answer: Secure dynamic updates

438. Correct Answer: Secure dynamic updates

439.

440.

441.

442.


444. The IP address 255.255.255.255 represents ___________ in the IP Routing

table.

445.

446. Selected Answer: Limited broadcast address

447. Correct Answer: Limited broadcast address

448.


450. To allow users to specify a call-back number when they connect to a

remote access server via modem, you will enable the following setting:

451.

452. Selected Answer: Set by Caller

453. Correct Answer: Set by Caller

454.


456. Routing Information Protocol v2 (RIPv2) is an example of a:

457.

458. Selected Answer: Routing protocol

459. Correct Answer: Routing protocol

460.


462. Windows Server 2008 can provide remote access services through a

Virtual Private Network (VPN) or through:

463.

464. Selected Answer: Dial-Up Networking (DUN)

465. Correct Answer: Dial-Up Networking (DUN)

466.


468. When a workstation ends a session with an 802.1X-secured network port,

it sends the following to inform the network access server to set the port back to

an Unauthorized status:

469.

470. Selected Answer: EAP-Logoff

471. Correct Answer: EAP-Logoff

472.


474. If an IP Routing Table contains two routes to the same destination

network, the route with the lowest __________ will be selected first.

475.

476. Selected Answer: Metric

477. Correct Answer: Metric

478.


480. Network information at the Network Layer of the OSI model is organized

into:

481.

482. Selected Answer: Packets

483. Correct Answer: Packets

484.


486. In an 802.1X infrastructure, an NPS or RADIUS server performs the role

of the:

487.

488. Selected Answer: Authenticator

489. Correct Answer: Authorization Server (AS)

490.


492. The following RRAS service allows multiple computers on an internal

network to share a single public IP address to access the Internet:

493.

494. Selected Answer: Network Address Translation (NAT)

495. Correct Answer: Network Address Translation (NAT)

496.


498. The following route is used by a computer s default gateway to send

traffic to remote networks:

499.

500. Selected Answer: Default route

501. Correct Answer: Default route

502.

503. Question 1 40 out of 50 points Match the following definitions with the

appropriate term.

504.

505. Question Correct Match Selected Match

506. This type of router is well-suited for a small organization with low levels of

network traffic utilization. I. software-based router

507. I. software-based router

508.

509. Network data at the Data Link Layer is organized into these.

510. B. frames

511. B. frames

512.

513. This is used as the Windows Server 2008 implementation of a RADIUS server.

514. F. Network Policy Server (NPS)

515. F. Network Policy Server (NPS)

516.

517. This routing protocol was supported in Windows Server 2003 but is no longer

available with the Routing and Remote Access server role in Windows Server 2008.

518.

519. G. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

520. G. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

521.

522. This address corresponds to the 127.0.0.1 address used for TCP/IP diagnostics

and troubleshooting.

523. D. loopback address

524. D. loopback address

525.

526.

527.


529. The DFS Replication engine uses a form of replication called _ _.

530.

531. Selected Answer: multiple master replication

532. Correct Answer: multiple master replication

533.


535. In the Distributed File System, the actual shared folders referred to

by the virtual folders in the namespace are known as _ _.

536.

537. Selected Answer: targets

538. Correct Answer: targets

539.


541. DFS Replication relies on a protocol called _ _ for file replication.

542.

543. Selected Answer: remote differential compression (RDC)

544. Correct Answer: Remote Differential Compression (RDC)

545.


547. A DFS replication topology in which every server replicates with every

other server is called a(n) _ Topology.

548.

549. Selected Answer: full mesh

550. Correct Answer: full mesh

551.


553. The basic file-sharing capabilities of a Windows server are provided by

the _ _ service.

554.

555. Selected Answer: server

556. Correct Answer: Server

557.


559. To keep a DFS folder s multiple targets synchronized, you must create

a(n) _ _.

560.

561. Selected Answer: replication group

562. Correct Answer: replication group

563.


565. The __ __ allows you to simplify the view of file shares located across

multiple servers as they appear to your user base.

566.

567. Selected Answer: distributed file service (DFS)

568. Correct Answer: Distributed File Service (DFS)

569.


571. A(n) __ __ appears to the operating system as though it is a physically

separate disk and can host an operating system

572.

573. Selected Answer: primary partition

574. Correct Answer: primary partition

575.


577. A(n) __ __ enables you to limit DFS replication traffic to specific

pairs of members.

578.

579. Selected Answer: hub/spoke topology

580. Correct Answer: hub/spoke topology

581.


583. A DFS __ __ enables you to create a single directory tree that contains

references to shared folders located on multiple separate file servers.

584.

585. Selected Answer: namespace

586. Correct Answer: namespace

587.


589. An alternative to the multimaster replication model used in DFS is:

590.

591. Selected Answer: Single master replication

592. Correct Answer: Single master replication

593.


595. A server in a replication group is referred to as a:

596.

597. Selected Answer: Member

598. Correct Answer: Member

599.


601. This refers to the ability of DFS clients to revert back to folder

targets that have been unavailable due to server or network outages.

602.

603. Selected Answer: Client failback

604. Correct Answer: Client failback

605.


607. A disk partition that can hold data but not an operating system is

called a(n):

608.

609. Selected Answer: Extended partition

610. Correct Answer: Extended partition

611.


613. This DFS component is responsible for maintaining a list of DFS shared

folders and responding to user requests for those folders.

614.

615. Selected Answer: Namespace server

616. Correct Answer: Namespace server

617.


619. A DFS __________ contains a virtual representation of the shared

folders on all DFS target servers.

620.

621. Selected Answer: Namespace

622. Correct Answer: Namespace

623.


625. The Distributed File System uses the following replication model to

keep servers in a replication group up to date:

626.

627. Selected Answer: Multiple Master Replication

628. Correct Answer: Multiple Master Replication

629.


631. In this topology, every member of a DFS replication group replicates

with every other member, for full replication connectivity.

632.

633. Selected Answer: Full mesh replication

634. Correct Answer: Full mesh replication

635.


637. The following service is required on a Windows Server 2008 server in

order to enable file sharing:

638.

639. Selected Answer: Server Service

640. Correct Answer: Server Service

641.


643. To enable replication for a DFS folder with multiple folder targets,

you must create the following:

644.

645. Selected Answer: Replication group

646. Correct Answer: Replication group

647.


649. A(n) __ is the software interface through which a computer communicates

with a print device.

650.

651. Selected Answer: printer

652. Correct Answer: printer

653.


655. When you connect a single print server to multiple print devices, you

create what is called a(n) __.

656.

657. Selected Answer: printer pool

658. Correct Answer: printer pool

659.


661. By default, all printers assign the Allow Print permission to the __

special identity, which enables all users to access the printer and manage their own

documents.

662.

663. Selected Answer: everyone

664. Correct Answer: Everyone

665.


667. Users with the __ permission can go beyond just manipulating queued

documents; they can reconfigure the printer itself.

668.

669. Selected Answer: manage

670. Correct Answer: Manage Printers

671.


673. The ____ is the default print format used by the Windows 2000, Windows

XP, and Windows Server 2003 operating systems.

674.

675. Selected Answer: EMF interim

676. Correct Answer: Enhanced Metafile Format (EMF)

677.


679. A(n) ____ is a device driver that converts the print jobs generated by

applications into an appropriate string of commands for a specific print device.

680.

681. Selected Answer: printer driver

682. Correct Answer: printer driver

683.


685. The ____ allows clients to print documents using HTTP traffic over an

intranet or the World Wide Web.

686.

687. Selected Answer: Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)

688. Correct Answer: Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)

689.


691. Users with the ____ permission to a printer have the ability to pause,

resume, restart, and cancel their own documents, but not documents created by any

other user.

692.

693. Selected Answer: print

694. Correct Answer: Print

695.


697. A(n) ____ print architecture consists of one print device connected to

one computer.

698.

699. Selected Answer: locally-attached print device

700. Correct Answer: locally attached print device

701.


703. ____ such as Printer Not Ready are a useful way for administrators to

determine what printers need attention throughout a Windows Server 2008 network.

704.

705. Selected Answer: Default Filters

706. Correct Answer: Custom filters

707.


709. Which printer permission allows users to pause, resume, restart and

cancel all users' documents, and to control job settings for all documents?

710.

711. Selected Answer: Manage Documents

712. Correct Answer: Manage Documents

713.


715. What document format is a new, platform-independent format included

with Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008?

716.

717. Selected Answer: XML Paper Specification (XPS)

718. Correct Answer: XML Paper Specification (XPS)

719.


721. What kind of device receives print jobs from clients and sends them to

either locally-attached or network-attached printer devices?

722.

723. Selected Answer: Print server

724. Correct Answer: Print server

725.


727. What kind of print device is connected to a TCP/IP network, either

directly or through another computer?

728.

729. Selected Answer: Network-attached print device

730. Correct Answer: Print server

731.


733. What can you create to connect a single print server to multiple print

devices?

734.

735. Selected Answer: Printer pool

736. Correct Answer: Printer pool

737.


739. What permission allows a user to share a printer, delete a printer, and

change a printer's properties?

740.

741. Selected Answer: Manage Printers

742. Correct Answer: Manage Printers

743.


745. What kind of printer is directly attached to a single computer,

regardless of the interface it uses to connect?

746.

747. Selected Answer: Network-attached printer

748. Correct Answer: Local printer

749.


751. What protocol allows users to print documents through an IIS server?

752.

753. Selected Answer: IPP

754. Correct Answer: IPP

755.


757. What describes the actual hardware that produces hard copy documents on

paper or other print media?

758.

759. Selected Answer: Print device

760. Correct Answer: Print device

761.


763. What permission allows users to pause, manage and cancel only those

printer documents that they have created?

764.

765. Selected Answer: Print

766. Correct Answer: Print

767.

768.


770. This feature will automatically check for software updates that are

published on a WSUS server.

771.

772. Selected Answer: Automatic Updates

773. Correct Answer: Automatic Updates

774.


776. This view of the Windows Event Viewer allows you to configure a Windows

Server 2008 computer to act as a repository for Event Viewer entries from one or

more remote computers.

777.

778. Selected Answer: Forwarded Events

779. Correct Answer: Forwarded Events

780.


782. The following user group can view both real-time and historical data

within the Performance Monitor console, but cannot create or modify Data Collector

Sets:

783.

784. Selected Answer: Performance Monitor Users

785. Correct Answer: Performance Monitor Users

786.


788. In order to collect events from remote computers that match the

criteria of one or more event filters that you define, you will create one or more

of the following:

789.

790. Selected Answer: Subscription

791. Correct Answer: Subscription

792.


794. What protocol does the Windows Event Viewer use to configure event

forwarding?

795.

796. Selected Answer: WS-Management

797. Correct Answer: WS-Management

798.


800. This is a new Event Log in Windows Server 2008, used to capture

information regarding operating system and application installations and un-

installations.

801.

802. Selected Answer: Setup Log

803. Correct Answer: Setup Log

804.


806. The following service allows you to configure a single server as a

repository of Event Viewer information for multiple computers:

807.

808. Selected Answer: Windows Event Collector Service

809. Correct Answer: Windows Event Collector Service

810.


812. The following allows you to display only those packets matching a

particular set of criterion among a larger set of packets that have been captured by

Network Monitor:

813.

814. Selected Answer: Display Filter

815. Correct Answer: Display Filter

816.


818. The following user group can view both real-time and historical data

within the Performance Monitor console, and can also create and modify Data

Collector Sets:

819.

820. Selected Answer: Performance Log Users

821. Correct Answer: Performance Log Users

822.


824. The following is a server-side component within WSUS that retrieves the

latest critical updates from the Windows Update Web site:

825.

826. Selected Answer: Content Synchronization Service

827. Correct Answer: Content Synchronization Service

828.


830. The __ __ was configured in Windows 2000, Windows Server 2003, and

Windows XP IPSec policies to ensure that the computer responds to requests for

secure communication.

831.

832. Selected Answer: default response rule

833. Correct Answer: default response rule

834.


836. A(n) __ __ attack is one in which a malicious user masquerades as the

legitimate sender or recipient of network traffic.

837.

838. Selected Answer: identity spoofing

839. Correct Answer: identity spoofing

840.


842. The strongest form of NT LAN Manager authentication is __ __.

843.

844. Selected Answer: NTVMv2

845. Correct Answer: NTLMv2 authentication

846.


848. IPSec __ __ is used to provide end-to-end security, in which both hosts

support IPSec using the same authentication protocols.

849.

850. Selected Answer: policy

851. Correct Answer: transport mode

852.


854. A(n) __ __ connection security rule allows you to restrict inbound and

outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria, such as membership in a

particular Active Directory domain.

855.

856. Selected Answer: Isolation

857. Correct Answer: Isolation

858.


860. Microsoft Network Monitor is an example of a real-world __ __.

861.

862. Selected Answer: packet sniffing

863. Correct Answer: packet sniffer

864.


866. The Windows Firewall with Advanced Security MMC snap-in allows you to

integrate IPSec into the Windows Firewall by configuring one or more __ __.

867.

868. Selected Answer: features

869. Correct Answer: Connection Security Rules

870.


872. The default __ __ for IPSec connections in an Active Directory

environment is the Kerberos v5 protocol.

873.

874. Selected Answer: authentication method

875. Correct Answer: authentication method

876.


878. Each Windows Firewall exception can be configured with a specific __ __

to control which computers the local computer will accept connections from.

879.

880. Selected Answer: range of IP addresses

881. Correct Answer: scope

882.


884. A(n) __ __ must occur before secure traffic can be sent, in order to

determine the type of traffic to be secured and how it will be secured

885.

886. Selected Answer: negotiation

887. Correct Answer: quick mode negotiation

888.


890. This is used to provide gateway-to-gateway protection for site-to-site

communications that cross the Internet (or other public networks).

891.

892. Selected Answer: Tunnel mode

893. Correct Answer: Tunnel mode

894.


896. Windows Server 2003 supports the following feature, which is used to

determine new keying material through a new Diffie-Hellman exchange on a regular

basis:

897.

898. Selected Answer: Dynamic rekeying

899. Correct Answer: Dynamic rekeying

900.


902. The following protocol provides confidentiality (in addition to

authentication, integrity, and anti-replay) for the IP payload:

903.

904. Selected Answer: Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

905. Correct Answer: Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

906.


908. This suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of

cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts

at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or

receiving data.

909.

910. Selected Answer: IPSec

911. Correct Answer: IPSec

912.


914. The following is a value contained in a received IKE message that is

used to help identify the corresponding main mode SA:

915.

916. Selected Answer: Cookie

917. Correct Answer: Cookie

918.


920. This Connection Security Rule allows you to specify one or more

computers that do not need to be authenticated in order to pass traffic.

921.

922. Selected Answer: Authentication exemption

923. Correct Answer: Authentication exemption

924.


926. You can configure the Windows Firewall to allow one or more inbound

connections based on any of the following that you configure:

927.

928. Selected Answer: Exception

929. Correct Answer: Exception

930.


932. An IP Filter in which traffic that is defined in one direction will

also be defined in the opposite direction is said to be:

933.

934. Selected Answer: Mirrored

935. Correct Answer: Mirrored

936.


938. The following NTLM Authentication type is disabled by default in

Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 servers; it should not be used in a

production environment as it is weak and can be easily hacked by malicious users:

939.

940. Selected Answer: LM authentication

941. Correct Answer: LM authentication

942.


944. This is a mathematical value that is used to provide an integrity check

for a TCP or UDP packet.

945.

946. Selected Answer: Checksum

947. Correct Answer: Checksum

948.

949.


951. A(n) _ _ is a CA that integrates with Active Directory and allows for

auto-enrollment of user and computer certificates through the use of Group Policy

and certificate templates.

952.

953. Selected Answer: enterprise CA

954. Correct Answer: enterprise CA

955.


957. The top-level CA in any PKI hierarchy is the _ _.

958.

959. Selected Answer: root CA

960. Correct Answer: root CA

961.


963. One alternative to using public key cryptography is by using a(n) _ _.

964.

965. Selected Answer: certificate authority

966. Correct Answer: shared secret key

967.


969. Each PKI certificate consists of a public key that is widely known, and

a(n) _ _ that is known only to the user or computer who holds the certificate.

970.

971. Selected Answer: private key

972. Correct Answer: private key

973.


975. Users can request certificates via the web using the _ _ service.

976.

977. Selected Answer: online responder

978. Correct Answer: Certification Authority Web Enrollment

979.


981. A __ __ obtains PKI health certificates from client computers when the

IPSec NAP enforcement method is used.

982.

983. Selected Answer: internet protocol security (IPSe) enforcement

984. Correct Answer: Health Registration Authority (HRA)

985.


987. The __ __ method is the only NAP enforcement agent that can be deployed

in the absence of an Active Directory domain.

988.

989. Selected Answer: DHCP

990. Correct Answer: DHCP enforcement

991.


993. __ __ provide continuous monitoring of system compliance on all NAP

clients.

994.

995. Selected Answer: System Health Agents (SHAs)

996. Correct Answer: System Health Agents (SHAs)

997.


999. The __ __ distributes Statement of Health information to the

appropriate System Health Validators.

1000.

1001. Selected Answer: NAP agent

1002. Correct Answer: NAP administration server

1003.


1005. Each System Health Agent provides a __ __ regarding its health status.

1006.

1007. Selected Answer: System Statement of Health (SSCH)

1008. Correct Answer: Statement of Health (SOH)

1009.


1011. Each server that functions as a CA must be configured with a(n):

1012.

1013. Selected Answer: Revocation configuration

1014. Correct Answer: Revocation configuration

1015.


1017. An organization can have one or more of these to distribute the load of

issuing certificates in a geographically dispersed organization:

1018.

1019. Selected Answer: Intermediate CA

1020. Correct Answer: Intermediate CA

1021.


1023. In order to authenticate using a smart card that has been configured

for their use, a user must have the following installed at their workstation:

1024.

1025. Selected Answer: smart card reader

1026. Correct Answer: smart card reader

1027.


1029. Which component of Active Directory Certificate Services uses the

Online Certificate Status Protocol to respond to client requests?

1030.

1031. Selected Answer: Online Responder

1032. Correct Answer: Online Responder

1033.


1035. The IPSec NAP Enforcement method relies on this type of PKI certificate

to perform its enforcements:

1036.

1037. Selected Answer: health certificate

1038. Correct Answer: health certificate

1039.


1041. A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is

referred to as a(n):

1042.

1043. Selected Answer: enforcement point

1044. Correct Answer: enforcement point

1045.


1047. The Network Device Enrollment Service (NDES) uses the following

protocol to enroll network devices for PKI certificates:

1048.

1049. Selected Answer: Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

1050. Correct Answer: Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

1051.


1053. Statements of Health from each SHA are combined to create a:

1054.

1055. Selected Answer: System Statement of Health Response

1056. Correct Answer: System Statement of Health

1057.


1059. The following NAP component transmits information between the NAP

Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents:

1060.

1061. Selected Answer: NAP Agent

1062. Correct Answer: NAP Agent

1063.


1065. This provides a detailed explanation of how a particular Certification

Authority manages certificates and keys

1066.

1067. Selected Answer: Certificate Practice Statement

1068. Correct Answer: Certificate Practice Statement

1069.


1071. This type of backup will completely reformat the target drive that

hosts the backup files.

1072.

1073. Selected Answer: Scheduled backup

1074. Correct Answer: Scheduled backup

1075.


1077. This type of disk quota allows the user to access storage space beyond

the allotted amount and simply sends an email notification when the quota has been

exceeded.

1078.

1079. Selected Answer: soft quota

1080. Correct Answer: soft quota

1081.


1083. This type of restore can be used to recover an entire server after it

has experienced a hardware failure or other disaster recovery scenario.

1084.

1085. Selected Answer: bare-metal restore

1086. Correct Answer: bare-metal restore

1087.


1089. This backup type will retain the Application log files on the local

server after the backup is completed.

1090.

1091. Selected Answer: Copy backup

1092. Correct Answer: Copy backup

1093.


1095. This quota type prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond

what has been defined within the quota.

1096.

1097. Selected Answer: hard quota

1098. Correct Answer: hard quota

1099.


1101. This is the only type of quota available on servers that do not have

the File Server Resource Manager role service installed.

1102.

1103. Selected Answer: NTFS quota

1104. Correct Answer: NTFS quota

1105.


1107. All Windows disk quotas are based on the following to determine the

amount of space being used by a particular user.

1108.

1109. Selected Answer: file ownership

1110. Correct Answer: file ownership

1111.


1113. This backup type will update the server s backup history and will clear

the Application Log files on the server.

1114.

1115. Selected Answer: VSS full backup

1116. Correct Answer: VSS full backup

1117.


1119. This collection of disk quota settings can be used to create numerous

quota assignments all containing consistent configuration settings.

1120.

1121. Selected Answer: quota template

1122. Correct Answer: quota template

1123.


1125. This backup technology was introduced by Windows Server 2008 and relies

on the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).

1126.

1127. Selected Answer: Windows Server Backup

1128. Correct Answer: Windows Server Backup

1129.

1130.

1131. Administrators can specify these to dictate the percentage of available disk

space at which actions associated with disk quotas will take effect.

1132.

1133. F. threshold

1134.

1135. F. threshold

1136.

1137. This is a new command-line and task-based scripting technology that is included

with Windows Server 2008.

1138.

1139. I. Windows Powershell

1140.

1141. I. Windows Powershell

1142.

1143. This is a limit that is placed on the disk space a user is permitted to consume

in a particular volume or folder.

1144.

1145. A. disk quota

1146. disk quota

1147. This controls what types of traffic will be recorded by Network Monitor when

you press F10.

1148. D.

1149. Capture Filter

1150.

1151. D.

1152. Capture Filter

1153.

1154.

1155. This right must be granted to Performance Log Users to allow them to create and

manage Data Collector Sets.

1156.

1157. H.

1158. Log on as a batch user

1159.

1160. H.

1161. Log on as a batch user

1162.

1163.

1164. This custom view in the Event Viewer collects Critical, Error, and Warning

events from all logs on a particular server.

1165.

1166. A. Administrative Events

1167.

1168. A. Administrative Events

1169.

1170. This capture mode enables Network Monitor to listen to all traffic that is

being passed on a particular network segment.

1171.

1172. J. promiscuous mode J. promiscuous mode

1173. This service is used by WSUS to optimize network traffic while downloading

updates.

1174.

1175. C.

1176. Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)

1177.

1178. C.

1179. Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)

1180.

1181.

1182. This type of forwarded event is initiated by the server acting as the event

repository.

1183.

1184. E.

1185. collector initiated

1186.

1187. E.

1188. collector initiated

1189.

1190.

1191. This is the command-line method of launching the Performance Monitor MMC snap-

in.

1192.

1193. I.

1194. perfmon

1195. I.

1196. perfmon

1197. This log provides a view of events related to software that has been installed

on a Windows server computer.

1198.

1199. B.

1200. Application Log

1201.

1202. B.

1203. Application Log

1204.

1205.

1206. This is collected to provide a real-time view into the behavior and performance

of a server and its applications.

1207.

1208. G.

1209. event trace data

1210.

1211. G.

1212. event trace data

1213.

1214. This allows you to organize a set of performance counters, event traces, and

system configuration data into a single reusable configuration item. F.

1215. Data Collector Set

1216.

1217. F.

1218. Data Collector Set

Windows Sever 2008 Network Infrastructure Configuration 70-642

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