· Web viewConclusion module control including test-control of the theoretical training, control...

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Conclusion module control including test-control of the theoretical training, control of the practical skills, assessment of the instrumental investigation reports. LIST OF QUESTIONS FOR CONCLUSION CONTROL 1.The contribution of prominent clinicists: T. Yankovskiy, V. Obraztsov, M. Kurlov, M. Gubergrits, M. Stragesko, G. Lang, B. Shklyar to the development of therapeutic school. 2.Basic methods of diagnostics of internal disases. 3.Plan of patient inquiring. Basic structural parts of anamnesis. 4.Sequence of general visual inspection. 5.Types of constitution and their main criteria. 6.Sequence of lymphonodes palpation and characteristics of obtaining findings. 7.Rules of visual inspection of head and neck. 8.Sequence of visual inspection body and extremities. 9.Static visual inspection of the chest, diagnostic importance of basic signs. 10. Dynamic visual inspection of the chest, diagnostic importance of basic signs. 11. Visual inspection of the precardial region, diagnostic importance of basic signs. 12. The main pulse characteristics, the subsequent and rules for their determination. 13. The rules for blood pressure measurement, analysis of obtained results. 14. Palpation of the chest: the subsequent, rules and diagnostic significance. 15. Palpation of the heart region: the subsequent, rules and clinical significance. 16. The consequent of lung percussion, qualities of sounds and diagnostic significance of obtained results. 17. The main tasks of topographic percussion of the lung, its technique and consequent. The topographical parameters of the lung in normal and pathological conditions. 18. Percussion of the heart – relative and absolute cardiac dullness, the borders of the relative cardiac dullness in normal and pathological conditions. 19. Percussion of the heart – displacement of the heart borders accordantly to cardiac and extracardiac reasons. 20. The width of the vascular bundle, technique of its evaluation by percussion and diagnostically significance. 21. Auscultation of the lung - the main respiratory sounds, their quantitative and qualitative changes, conditions for occurs. 22. Auscultation of the lung - additional respiratory sounds,

Transcript of  · Web viewConclusion module control including test-control of the theoretical training, control...

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Conclusion module control including test-control of the theoretical training, control of the practical skills, assessment of the instrumental investigation reports.

LIST OF QUESTIONS FOR CONCLUSION CONTROL1. The contribution of prominent clinicists: T. Yankovskiy, V. Obraztsov, M. Kurlov, M. Gubergrits,

M. Stragesko, G. Lang, B. Shklyar to the development of therapeutic school.2. Basic methods of diagnostics of internal disases.3. Plan of patient inquiring. Basic structural parts of anamnesis. 4. Sequence of general visual inspection. 5. Types of constitution and their main criteria.6. Sequence of lymphonodes palpation and characteristics of obtaining findings.7. Rules of visual inspection of head and neck.8. Sequence of visual inspection body and extremities.9. Static visual inspection of the chest, diagnostic importance of basic signs.10. Dynamic visual inspection of the chest, diagnostic importance of basic signs.11. Visual inspection of the precardial region, diagnostic importance of basic signs.

12. The main pulse characteristics, the subsequent and rules for their determination.13. The rules for blood pressure measurement, analysis of obtained results.14. Palpation of the chest: the subsequent, rules and diagnostic significance.15. Palpation of the heart region: the subsequent, rules and clinical significance.16. The consequent of lung percussion, qualities of sounds and diagnostic significance of obtained

results.17. The main tasks of topographic percussion of the lung, its technique and consequent. The

topographical parameters of the lung in normal and pathological conditions.18. Percussion of the heart – relative and absolute cardiac dullness, the borders of the relative

cardiac dullness in normal and pathological conditions.19. Percussion of the heart – displacement of the heart borders accordantly to cardiac and

extracardiac reasons.20. The width of the vascular bundle, technique of its evaluation by percussion and diagnostically

significance.21. Auscultation of the lung - the main respiratory sounds, their quantitative and qualitative

changes, conditions for occurs. 22. Auscultation of the lung - additional respiratory sounds, conditions for occurs. 23. Rales, their types and mechanisms of formation and diagnostic significance.24. Conditions for crepitation and pleural friction sound formation. Differential signs of adventitious

sounds.25. Determination of vocal fremitus, its diagnostic significance.26. Auscultation of the heart - mechanism of heart sounds formation and their main properties.

Changers of the tones by strength and timbre.27. Auscultation of the heart - the notion of heart sounds reduplication and splitting, the causes of

onset and periodic characteristics.28. Additional heart sounds: "Gallop" and "quails" rhythms.29. The causes of heart murmurs and their classification.30. The main characteristics of cardiac murmurs description (timing, intensity, pitch, quality,

configuration, duration, location and radiation, changers depending from body position and physical load). The notion of functional murmurs and their differences from the organic one.

31. Diastolic cardiac murmurs: the causes for onset and diagnostic significance.32. The rules for ECG interpretation. Determination of heart rate end electrical axis of the heart.33. ECG signs of altered automatic function.34. ECG signs of altered excitability function. The main types of premature heart contraction.35.ECG signs of altered conductivity. Classification36.Clinical and ECG signs of atrial and ventricular flutter and fibrillation. The mechanisms of their onset.

37. Syndrome of focal and lobar consolidation of lung tissue, causes, diagnostic symptoms and signs.

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38. The syndrome of increased airiness of lung tissue: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

39. The syndrome of fluid accumulation in pleural cavity: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

40. The syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

41. The syndrome of bronchial obstruction: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

42. The syndrome of the pain in the heart: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

43. The syndrome of cardiovascular incompetence: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

44. Left ventricular heart failure syndrome: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

45. Right ventricular heart failure syndrome: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

46. Vascular failure syndrome: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

47. The syndrome of arterial hypertension: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis.

48. Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases: clinical presentation and diagnostics.49. Bronchial asthma: classification, chief clinical features and diagnosis.50. Emphysema of the lung: the main factors for development, symptoms and diagnosis.51. Hospital and extrahospital pneumonia: classification, chief clinical features and diagnosis.52. Dry and exudative pleurisies: chief clinical features and diagnosis.53. Cancer of the lung: main clinical forms, clinical features and diagnosis.54. Mitral valve defects: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis.55. Aortic valve defects: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis.56. Coronary heart disease: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis of angina pectoris.57. Coronary heart disease: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis of acute myocardial

infarction.58. Essential hypertension: modern classification, etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis.59. Symptomatic arterial hypertension: etiology, classification, chief clinical features, diagnosis,

objective and instrumental examination data that give opportunity to suspect the secondary character of hypertension.

THE LIST OF PRACTICAL SKILLS1. To conduct inquiring of the patient. To make conclusion according to the obtained anamnestic

data.2. To conduct inquiring of the patient with respiratory organs disease. To define the chief

symptoms.3. To conduct inquiring of the patient with cardiovascular pathology. To define the chief

symptoms.4. To conduct general examination of the patient. To define the chief symptoms.5. To carry out examination of the head and neck. To define the clinical significance of obtained

symptoms.6. To carry out examination of the trunk and extremities. To define the clinical significance of

obtained symptoms.7. To conduct inspection of the chest in patient with respiratory organs disease. To evaluate the

static signs.8. To conduct inspection of the chest in patient with respiratory organs disease. To evaluate the

dynamic signs.9. To carry out inspection of the heart region. To define the clinical significance of obtained

symptoms.

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10. To perform palpation of the chest, to define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.

11. To carry out palpation of the lymphatic nodes, to evaluate obtained results.12. To conduct examination of the pulse. To define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.13. To carry out palpation of the heart region. To define the clinical significance of obtained

symptoms.14. To conduct blood pressure measurement on upper extremities, to analyze obtained results.15. To conduct blood pressure measurement on low extremities, to analyze obtained results.16. To carry out comparative percussion of the lung. To define the clinical significance of obtained

symptoms.17. To carry out topographic of the lung. To define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.18. To determine the respiratory excursion of the lower border of the lung. To define the clinical

significance of obtained symptoms.19. To determine the borders of the relative cardiac dullness by percussion. To make the clinical

evaluation.20. To determine the borders of the absolute cardiac dullness by percussion. To make the clinical

evaluation.21. To evaluate the width of the vascular bundle, to assess the obtained results.22. To conduct auscultation of the lung – to determine the main respiratory sounds their

quantitative and qualitative characteristics, clinical evaluation of obtained results. 23. To conduct auscultation of the lung – to determine the additional respiratory sounds, to define

the clinical significance of obtained data.24. To carry out bronchophonia, to make clinical evaluation of obtained results. 25. To conduct auscultation of arteries, to define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.26. To conduct auscultation of the heart – to determine the main characteristics of the heart sounds

with clinical evaluation of obtained results. 27. To conduct auscultation of the heart – to determine the presence of cardiac murmurs with

clinical evaluation of obtained results. 28. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with altered conductivity.29. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with altered excitability function. To differentiate

the types of premature heart contractions.30. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with altered automaticy function. 31. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with combinative arrhythmias.32. To analyze results of US examination at the patient with heart valve defects.33. To carry out examination of the patient with mitral valve disease. To define the major symptoms

and syndromes.34. To conduct examination of the patient with aortic valve disease. To identify the major

symptoms and syndromes.35. To carry out examination of the patient with arterial hypertension. To define the major

symptoms and syndromes.36. To make inquiring of the patient with coronary heart disease (stable angina pectoris), to detail

the complain pain in the heart, to define the functional class of the patient.37. To conduct general inspection and objective examination of the patient with acute myocardial

infarction. To identify the major symptoms and syndromes.38. To evaluate the ECG of the patient with acute myocardial infarction. To define the character and

localization of myocardial damage.39. To carry out examination of the patient with heart failure. To define the major symptoms,

syndromes and functional class of the patient.40. To carry out inquiring of the patient with obstructive lung disease. To define the major

symptoms, syndromes, with taking into consideration spirography results determine the stage of the disease.

41. To conduct palpation, percussion of the chest and auscultation of the lung in the patient with obstructive lung disease. To define the major symptoms and syndromes.

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42. To conduct inquiring and objective examination of the patient with pneumonia. To identify the major symptoms and syndromes.

43. To carry out inquiring and objective examination of the patient with pleurisies. To identify the character of pleurisies and chief symptoms and syndromes.

Tests:1.What are the respiratory symptoms?A. Chest pain, cough, dyspnea, wheezes, haemoptysis.B. Pain in the heart region, palpitation, intermissions, oedemaC. Headache, dizziness, dysphagia, nausea, vomiting.D. Pain in the right subcostal region, bitter taste, brown urine, skin itching, jaundice.E. Back pain, dysuria, ishuria, eyes oedema, weakness.2.What feature does pleural pain have?A. Be caused by physical extensionB. Radiate to the right handC. Appears and increases due to cough and deep breathingD. Radiate to the left hand and scapulaE. Duration under 15 minutes.3. If patient has laryngitis his cough is characterized withA. harsh and hoarse soundB. absent of sputumC. it is permanentD. it is loudE. all mentioned above.4. Chronic expectorating copious sputum is observed at patient withA. Acute bronchitisB. AsthmaC. AtelectasisD. EmphysemaE. Bronchiectasis5. Which type of dyspnea is observed at the patients with obstructive syndrome?A. ExpiratoryB. InspiratoryC. MixedD. ChangingE. All mentioned above.6. Which of the following characteristics is not typical of pleuritic chest pain?A. Increases with deep breathingB. Increases with coughingC. Radiates to the jawD. Is located laterallyE. Diminishes with splinting of the affected side7. Inspiratory dyspnea is – A. Difficult breathing during exhalationB. Difficult breathing during inhalationC. Difficult breathing during exhalation and inhalationD. Difficult breathing during hyperventilationE. Northing from above8. Whistle and noise breathing with feeling breathlessness is named …A. Dyspnea

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B. Respiratory noiseC. Musical breathingD WheezingE. All mentioned above9. Lung bleeding is a pathological condition when the blood expectorates from airways. What quantity of the blood is characterized lung bleeding?A. 15 - 20 mlB. 30–40 mlC. 240 - 250 mlD. All mentioned aboveE. Northing from above10. Mixed dyspnea is – A. Difficult breathing during exhalationB. Difficult breathing during inhalationC. Difficult breathing during exhalation and inhalationD. Difficult breathing during hyperventilationE. Northing from above11. What are the respiratory symptoms?A. Abdominal pain, nausea, vomitingB. Heartburning, faint (syncope), palpitationC. Cough with rusty sputum, chest pain, dyspneaD. Swelling abdomen, constipation, melenaE. Oedema, dysuria, haematuria12. What are the cough causes?A. Irritation of the larynx receptorsB. Irritation of the trachea and bronchus receptors C. Irritation of the pleural receptors D. All mentioned aboveE. Northing from above13. If patient has clear, thick sputum it is namedA. MucoidB. PurulentC. CopiousD. FetidE. Hemoptysis14. What is an objective dyspnea?A. Disorders of the respiratory rateB. Disorders of the respiratory depthC. Disorders of the respiratory rhythmD. Disorders of the respiratory rate, depth, rhythmE. Northing from above15. Which types of dyspnea do you know?A. MixedB. ExpiratoryC. InspiratoryD. All mentioned aboveE. Northing from above16. Sputum production that contains pus is described by what term?A. PurulentB. Fetid

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C. CopiousD. ColoredE. None of the above17. Which type of pulmonary problem usually causes a breathing pattern with a prolonged expiratory time?A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseB. AtelectasisC. Pulmonary edemaD. PneumoniaE. Pleural effusion.18. Expiratory dyspnea is – A. Difficult breathing during exhalationB. Difficult breathing during inhalationC. Difficult breathing during exhalation and inhalationD. Difficult breathing during hyperventilationE. Northing from above19. What quantity of the blood is characterized hemoptysis?A. 20-50 mlB. 60 – 70 mlC. 140 - 250 mlD. All mentioned aboveE. Northing from above20. Amount of cigarettes that patient smokes in a day multiply to number of smoking years and divide to 20 (pack/years) use for calculating …A. Smoking historyB. cigarettes consumptionC. Smoking habitD. Smoking abuseE. All mentioned above.21.If patient’s respiratory rate is 32 per minute he has…a. Tachypneab. Bradypneac. Apnead. Polypneae. Dyspnea22. What types of breathing does healthy man have in a rest? a.Abdominal breathingb.Thoracic breathingc. Mixed breathingd. All mentioned abovee. Northing from above23. Kussmaul ‘s breathing is…a. Disorder of breathing depthb. Disorder of the respiratory ratec. Disorder of the respiratory rhythmd. Disorder of the respiratory typese. Hyperventilation syndrome24.hat is the normal respiratory rite in a rest?a. 12-14 per 1 minuteb. 16-20 per 1 minute

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c. 10-12 per 1 minuted. 20-24 per 1 minutee. 24-28 per 1 minute25. Which of the following condition is associated with asymmetrical diminished vocal fremitus?a. Pneumoniab. Emphysemac. Bronchial asthmad. Chronic bronchitise. Pleural effusion 26. Which of the following condition is associated with increased chest resistance?a. acute bronchitisb. focal pneumoniac. COPDd. mild bronchial asthmae. all mentioned above.27. What kind of posture is observed at the bronchial obstruction?a. Uprightb. Sitting position fixing the shoulder girdlec. Orthopnoead. Sitting posture bending forwarde. Knee-elbow posture28. What shape of the chest can be observed at the patient with chronic tuberculosis?a. Normosthenicb. Asthenicc. Barreld. Paralytice. "Funnel breast"29. What kind of posture is observed at the left dry pleurisy?a. Uprightb. Sitting position fixing the shoulder girdlec. Orthopnoead. On the left sidee. Sitting posture bending forward30. If patient skin has diffuse bluish tint, it is named:a. Diffuse cyanosisb. Diffuse erythemac. Acrocyanosisd. Pathological pallid skine. Northing mentioned above.31. If patient doesn’t have respiratory moving his condition is named:a. Tachypneab. Bradypneac. Apnead. Polypneae. Dyspnea32. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is …a. Disorder of breathing depthb. Disorder of the respiratory ratec. Disorder of the respiratory rhythmd. Disorder of the respiratory types

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e. Hyperventilation syndrome33. What types of breathing does healthy woman have in a rest? a. Abdominal breathingb. Thoracic breathingc. Mixed breathingd. All mentioned abovee. Northing from above34. If patient’s respiratory rate is 10 per minute he has…:a. Tachypneab. Bradypneac. Apnead. Polypneae. Dyspnea35. Which of the following conditions is associated with increased vocal fremitus?a. Pneuomoniab. Emphysemac. Pneumothoraxd. Pleural effusione. Bronchial asthma36. Which of the following condition is associated with painfulness of the pleural points?a. Lobar pneumoniab. Bronchial asthmac. Pleural effusiond. Emphysemae. Chronic bronchitis37. What does the general inspection start with?a. Skin b. Position in bed.c. General conditiond. Edemase. Joints38. What kind of posture is observed at the right pleural effusion?a. Orthopneab. On the right sidec. Sitting position fixing the shoulder girdled. On the left sidee. Sitting posture bending forward39. What shape of the chest can be observed at the patient with emphysema?a. Normosthenicb. Asthenicc. Barreld. Paralytice. "Funnel breast"40. How is the chest shape changed at the left side pneumothorax?a. Enlarged left part of the chestb. Reduced left part of the chestc. Enlarged right part of the chestd. Reduced right part of the cheste. Not changed41. What type of percussion sounds may you hear over health lung?

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a. Tympanicb. Clear lungc. Dulld. Stony dull e. Resonant.42. When may you hear hyper-resonant percussion sounds over the lung?a. Emphysema,b. Pneumothorax,c. Above the level of pleural effusiond. Large cavitye. Everything mentioned above.43. What pathological condition can produce dull percussion sound? a. Pneumoniab. Emphysemac. Large cavityd. Bronchitise. Pneumothorax.44. What percussion sound is heard of emphysema?a. Tympanicb. Impaired c. Dulld. Clear lunge. Resonant.45. What percussion sound is heard of pleural effusion?a. Tympanicb. Impaired c. Dulld. Clear lunge. Resonant.46. What percussion sound is heard of the focal pneumonia near root of lung?a. Tympaniticb. Impaired c. Dulld. Clear lunge. Resonant.47. What is the first line along which the lower border of the right lung is determined?a. Scapularb. Paravertebralc. Parasternald. Medioclaviculare. Axilar anterior 48. What is position of the lower border of the left lung along medioclavicular line?a. 6th interspaceb. 10th interspacec. Not determined. 5th interspacee. 8th interspace49. What are the causes of increase height of the lung apex?a. Pulmonary emphysemab. Inflammatory infiltration of the lungsc. Pleural effusiond. Pleural obliteratione. Everything mentioned above.

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50. What are the causes of upward displacement of the lower border?a. pulmonary emphysemab. pneumosclerosisc. abscessd. obturation atelectasise. everything mentioned above.

51. When may you hear dull percussion sound over lung?a Thickened pleura. b Collapse of lung.c. Consolidation of lung.d. Fluid in pleural cavity.e. Everything mentioned above.52. What percussion sound is heard of the lobular pneumonia?a. Tympanicb. Impaired c. Dulld. Clear lunge. Resonant.53. What percussion sound is heard of acute bronchial asthma?a. Tympaniticb. Impaired c. Dulld. Clear lunge. Resonant.54. What percussion sound is heard of collapse of the lung lobe resulting from obstruction of the bronchus lumen?a. Tympaniticb. Impaired c. Dulld. Stony dull e. Resonant.55. What is determined on topographic percussion of the lung?a. Position of the height of the lung apexb. Lung border mobilityc. Position of the lower borderd. Kronig's fields widthe. All mentioned above56. What lines is topographic percussion done along?a. Scapularb. Paravertebralc. Parasternald. Medioclaviculare. Everything mentioned above.57. What is the first line along which the lower border of the left lung is determined?a. Scapularb. Paravertebralc. Parasternald. Medioclaviculare. Axilar anterior 58. What is position of the lower border of the right lung along medioclavicular line?a. 6th interspaceb. 10th interspace

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c. 7th interspaced. 5th interspacee. Not determine59. What is the normal height of the lung apex?a. 6-8 smb. 3-5 smc. 8-10 smd. 5-7 sme. 1-2 sm60. What are the causes of reduced mobility of the lower border?a. pulmonary emphysemab. inflammatory infiltration of the lungsc. fluid in the pleural cavityd. pleural obliteratione. everything mentioned above.61. Where is bronchial breath sound formed?a. in larynxb. in tracheac. in bronchusd. in alveoli e. in pleural cavity62. Where is vesicular breath sound formed?a. in the larynxb. in the tracheac. in the bronchusd. in the alveoli e. in the pleural cavity63. Which of the following properties is not appropriate to bronchial breath sound?a. Heard over trachea and major bronchib. Loud and roughc. Heard only during inspirationd. Sound like “h” heard during inspiration and expirationE. Formed in the larynx64. Which of the following properties is not appropriate to vesicular breath sound?a. Heard over trachea and major bronchib. Soft soundc. Heard during inspiration and one third of expirationd. Sound like “f” heard during inspiration and expiratione. Formed in the alveoli65. When can the weakened vesicular breath sound be heard?a. 2nd stage of lobar pneumoniab. Acute bronchitisc. Large cavity in the lungd. Emphysemae. Complete atelectasis66. When can not the weakened vesicular breath sound be heard?a. Emphysemab. Focal pneumoniac. Dry pleurisyd. Large cavity in the lunge. Pneumosclerosis

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67. When can the amphoric breath sound be heard?a. Emphysemab. lobar pneumoniac. Dry pleurisyd. Large cavity in the lunge. Pneumosclerosis68. What auscultation phenomenon is heard of the large pleural effusion?a. Absent of the breath soundb. Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalationc. Rough vesicular breath soundd. Bronchial breath sounde. Weakened vesicular breath sound69. What auscultation phenomenon is heard of the bronchial asthma?a. Absent of the breath soundb. Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalationc. Rough vesicular breath soundd. Bronchial breath sounde. Weakened vesicular breath sound70. What breath sound is heard of the focal pneumonia near root of lung?a. Normal vesicular breath soundb. Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalationc. Rough vesicular breath soundd. Bronchial breath sounde. Weakened vesicular breath sound71. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of pneumotorax?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough72. How vesicular breath sound changed is in case of acute bronchitis?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough73. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of the 2nd stage of the lobar pneumonia?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough74. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of emphysema?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough75 When can the stridor be heard?a. Emphysemab. Atelectasisc. Pleural effusion

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d. Obstruction of the trachea and major bronchie. Pneumosclerosis76. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of COPD exacerbation?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough with prorogated exhalation 77. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of the 1nd and 3rd stage of the lobar pneumonia?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough78. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of the dry pleurisy?a. Not changeb. Became weakenedc. Became pathological bronchiald. Became amphorice. Became rough79. When can bronchophony be heard?a. pulmonary emphysemab. lobar infiltration of the lungsc. fluid in the pleural cavityd. pleural obliteratione. Everything mentioned above.80. What auscultation phenomenon is heard of the complete atelectasis of the lower right lung lobe?a. Absent of the breath soundb. Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalationc. Rough vesicular breath soundd. Bronchial breath sounde. Weakened vesicular breath sound81. Which adventitious lung sound is formed in alveoli?a. wheezeb. moist ralesc. pleural frictional rubd. crepitation e. nothing mentioned above82. Where are buzzing dry rales formed?a. in the larynxb. in the trachea and big bronchic. in the small bronchid. in the alveoli e. in the pleural cavity83. Where are moist rales formed?a. In the pleural cavityb. In the alveolic. In the bronchi and lung cavitiesd. In the bronchie. In the lung cavities84. What is the main mechanism of the pleural friction rub forming?a. Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchus

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b. Storing viscous secretion in the bronchusc. Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheetsd. Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adheringe. Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi or lung cavities85. What is the main mechanism of the moist rales forming?a. Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchusb. Storing viscous secretion in the bronchusc. Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheetsd. Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adheringe. Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi86. What adventitious lung sounds can be heard at the bronchial asthma?a. Crepitationb. Pleural friction rubc. Wheezesd. Moist ralese. Nothing from adventitious lung sounds87. What adventitious lung sound can be heard at the dry pleurisy?a. Crepitationb. Pleural friction rubc. Wheezesd. Non-sonorous moist ralese. Nothing from adventitious lung sounds88 The sonorous moist rales are signs of…a. Emphysemab. Bronchitisc. Pleural effusiond. Pneumoniae. Bronchial asthma89. Appearance of the pleural friction rub at the patient with exudative pleurisy is sing of …a. Increasing exudateb. Obturative atelectasis in the lung collapse regionc. Decreasing exudated. Pneumothoraxe. All answers are right depending on clinical situation90. The sonorous medium bubbling rales can be heard at the patient with…?a. Emphysemab. bronchiectasisc. Acute bronchitisd. Pleural effusione. Obturative atelectasis91. Where is wheeze formed?a. in the larynxb. in the tracheac. in the small bronchusd. in the alveoli e. in the pleural cavity92. Which phenomena are the adventitious lung sounds?a. Ralesb. Crepitationc. Pleural friction rubd. All mentioned abovee. Northing mentioned above

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93. Where is pleural friction rub formed?a. in the larynxb. in the trachea and big bronchic. in the small bronchid. in the alveoli e. in the pleural cavity94. What is the main mechanism of the dry rales forming?a. Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchusb. Storing viscous secretion in the bronchusc. Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheetsd. Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adheringe. Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi95. What is the main mechanism of the crepitation forming?a. Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchusb. Storing viscous secretion in the bronchusc. Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheetsd. Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adheringe. Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi or lung cavities96. What adventitious lung sound can be heard at the 1st stage of lobar pneumonia?a. Crepitationb. Pleural friction rubc. Wheezesd. Non-sonorous moist ralese. Nothing from adventitious lung sounds97. What adventitious lung sound can be heard at the pulmonary edema?a. Crepitationb. Pleural friction rubc. Wheezesd. Non-sonorous moist ralese. Nothing from adventitious lung sounds98. The buzzing dry rales are sign of…a. Emphysemab. Bronchitisc. Pleural effusiond. Pneumoniae. Bronchial asthma99. The non-sonorous moist rales are sign of …a. Bronchial asthmab. Fibrinous pleurisyc. Lobar pneumoniad. Exudative pleurisye. All answers are wrong100. The sonorous coarse bubbling rales can be heard at the patient with…a. Emphysemab. Chronic abscessc. Pleural effusiond. Lobar pneumoniae. Compressive atelectasis101. What is a spirometry?a. Measuring airflow and lung volumes during a forced expiratory maneuver from full inspirationb. Measuring inspiratory volumec. Measuring tidal volume

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d. Measuring airflowe. All mentioned above102. Which parameters can be measured with open spirometry?a. FEV1, FVCb. TLC, RAVc. O2 saturationd. O2 consumption e. all mentioned above103. Which types of the ventilation disorders do you know?a. obstructionb. restrictionc. mixedd. all mentioned above e. northing mentioned above104. If patient’s FEV1 is low and FVC is normal, he has…

a. Normal lung functionb. Restrictionc. Obstructiond. mixed disordere. Northing mentioned above

105. If patient’s FVC is low and FEV1 is normal, he has…a. Normal lung functionb. Restrictionc. Obstructiond. mixed disordere. Northing mentioned above106. What is the lower limit of the normal parameters of lung function?a. 100% from predictedb. 90% from predictedc. 85% from predictedd. 80% from predictede. 70% from predicted

107. Ratio FEV1/FVC is used for diagnostics ofa. Severity of lung function disordersb. Types of lung function disordersc. This ratio is obsolete and now is uselessd. Patient’s constitutione. Northing mentioned above

108. What is a peak flowmetry?a. Measuring speed of the airflowb. Measuring expiratory volumec. Measuring inspiratory volumed. Measuring vital capacitye. Measuring minute volume

109. What is pulse oximetry?a. Non-invasive method of estimation O2 saturationb. Measuring blood gas (CO2 and O2) pressurec. Measuring blood O2 concentrationd. Method of measuring pulse and respiratory ratee. Method of measuring pulse and pulmonary blood pressure

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110. What is normal level of the O2 saturation?a. 75-80%b. 80-85%c. 70%d. 90%e. 85-90%

111. What is diagnostic indication for bronchoscopy?a. Suspected lung cancer b. Slowly resolving pneumonia c. Interstitial lung diseased. Pneumonia in the immunosuppressed patientse. All mentioned above

112. What is therapeutic indication for bronchoscopy?a. aspiration of mucus plugs causing lobar collapse b. removal of foreign bodiesc. stopping lung bleedingd. aspiration purulent copious sputum at the debilitated patiente. All mentioned above

113. Which radiologic method of lung examination is routinely used?a. Computed tomographyb. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Bronchography d. X-raye. Nothing from above

114. Which radiologic method of lung examination has the highest level of resolution for distinguishing the smallest lung structures?a. Computed tomographyb. Magnetic resonance imagingc. Bronchography d. X-raye. Nothing from above115 Which method of sputum examination is used for establishing the pathogen of pneumonia?

a. General macro- and microscopicb. Cytologicalc. histologicald. Culturale. Northing from above

116. Which method of sputum examination is used for establishing revealing tuberculosis mycobacterium?a. Microscopic with Gram stainingb. Microscopic with Ziehl-Nielsen stainingc. Microscopic with Romanovskiy-Himza stainingd. Microscopic without staininge. Macroscopic117. Which method of sputum examination may help to establish lung cancer?a. General macroscopicb. Cytologicalc. General microscopicd. Culturale. Northing from above118. How long should be sputum transported to laboratory for bacteriological investigation?

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a. Urgent deliveryb. Under 1 hourc. Under 2 hoursd. Under 24 hourse. Under 24-72 hours

119. Which property could not transudes have?a. Light yellow colorb. Protein 60 g/lc. Negative Rivalt testd. 1-5 leucocytese. 2-3 epitheliocytes

120. Which property could not exudates have?a. Light yellow colorb. Protein 60 g/lc. Negative Rivalt testd. 15-20 leucocytese. 5-7 epitheliocytes121. Syndrome of the focal consolidation of the lung tissue can be if patient has:a. focal pneumonia;b. focal pneumofibrosis;c. focal tuberculosis;d. lung cancer;e. all mentioned above.122. Syndrome of the lobar consolidation of the lung does not reveal at patient with…a. Lobar pneumoniab. Infiltrative tuberculosisc. Pulmonary embolism with infarction-pneumoniad. COPDe. Lung cancer123.At the patient with lobar consolidation at palpation of the chest can be obtaineda. Amplifying vocal fremitus on the affected sideb. Weakened vocal fremitus on the affected sidec. Vocal fremitus does not changed. Vocal fremitus is absente. Amplifying vocal fremitus on the health side124.At the patient with focal consolidation near the root of lung at palpation of the chest can be obtaineda. Amplifying vocal fremitus on the affected sideb. Weakened vocal fremitus on the affected sidec. Vocal fremitus does not changed. Vocal fremitus is absente. Amplifying vocal fremitus on the health side125.Pathological bronchial breathing is heard at patients with:a. focal consolidationb. lobar consolidationc. pleural effusiond. emphysemae. acute bronchitis126.Percussion sound of the lobar consolidation of lung tissue is:a. tympanicb. clear

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c. resonanced. dulle. small dull127.Auscultation signs of the focal consolidation is:a. Vesicular breathing with prorogated exhalation and wheezeb. Absent of the any breath soundc. Diminished vesicular breathing and sonorous bubbling (moist) ralesd. Unchanged vesicular breathinge. Pathological bronchial breathing128.Auscultation signs of the lobar consolidation is:a. Vesicular breathing with prorogated exhalation and wheezeb. Absent of the any breath soundc. Diminished vesicular breathing and sonorous bubbling (moist) ralesd. Unchanged vesicular breathinge. Pathological bronchial breathing129. Obstructive atelectasis can be if patient has:a. Lung cancer;b. Metastasis into pulmonary lymphonodes;c. Foreign body of bronchus;d. Tuberculosis of the pulmonary lymphonodes;e. all mentioned above.130. Compressive atelectasis can be if patient has:a. Pleural tumor (mesotelioma);b. Massive pleural effesion;c. Pneumothorax;d. Deformation of the chest;e. all mentioned above.131. Percussion sound over massive pleural effusion:a. tympanicb. clearc. resonanced. dulle. small dull132. Percussion sound over pneumothorax:a. tympanicb. clearc. resonanced. dulle. small dull133. Auscultation signs of pneumothorax:a. Diminished vesicular breathing and wheezeb. Diminished vesicular breathing and cracklesc. absent of breath soundsd. unchanged breath sounde. Pathological bronchial breathing134. Auscultation signs of massive pleural effusion:a. Diminished vesicular breathing and wheezeb. Diminished vesicular breathing and cracklesc. absent of breath soundsd. unchanged breath sound

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e. Pathological bronchial breathing135. If patient has massive pleural effusion vocal fremitus is:a. Absent on the affected sideb. Increased on the affected sidec. Diminished on the affected sided. Normale. Increased on the health side136. Percussion sound over small pleural effusion:a. tympanicb. clearc. resonanced. dulle. small dull137.If patient has small pleural effusion vocal fremitus is:a. Absent on the affected sideb. Increased on the affected sidec. Diminished on the affected sided. Normale. Increased on the health side138. Which properties does transudate have?a. Light yellow colorb. Protein < 30 g/lc. Negative Rivalt testd. 1-5 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytese. All mentioned above139. Which properties does not exudate have?a. Comparative density < 1,018b. Protein > 30 g/lc. Positive Rivalt testd. 10-25 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytese. Yellow color140. Percussion sound of the focal consolidation of lung tissue is:a. tympanicb. clearc. resonanced. dulle. small dull

141.What disease does patient have only dry cough and never sputum at?а) Acute bronchitis;b) Dry pleurisy;c) Bronchoectasis;d) Cavernous tuberculosis;e) Pneumonia142. Test of Rivalt needs for:a) % contents of lymphocytesb) Determination of fibrin in pleural fluidc) Differentiation transudates from exudatesd) Determination of hemorrhagic character of exudatese) Determination of neutrophiles in pleural fluid

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143.Auscultation data of lobar pneumonia at resolution is:a) Bronchial breath soundsb) Vesicular breath soundsc) Amphoric breath soundsd) Saccadic breath soundse) crackles144.Auscultation signs of the focal pneumonia near root of lung is:a) Wheezeb) Bronchial breath soundsc) sonorous bubbling (moist) ralesd) diminished vesicular breath soundse) Vesicular breath sounds145.Percussion data of high point of lobar pneumonia is:a). small dullnessb) dullnessc) cleard) resonancee) small dullness with tympanic tinge.146. Pneumonia is an inflammatory process that affects:a) Bronchi and never alveoli or pleurab) only alveoli and never bronchic) only pleura and bronchid) alveoli and pleura, can spread from bronchie) only interstitial tissue and pleura147.Which of the following characteristics is not typical of pleuritic chest pain?a) Increases with deep breathingb) Radiates to the jawc) Is located laterallyd) Diminishes with splinting of the affected sidee) Increases with cough148. Which of the following may cause an increase in vocal resonance?a) Emphysemab) asthmac) pneumoniad) atelectasise) dry pleurisy149. Percussion sound over fluid at the patient with massive exudative pleurisy is:a) Dullb) Tympanicc) Resonantd) Small dulle) Clear150. Auscultation data at patient with dry pleurisy:a) Diminished vesicular breathing and cracklesb) Diminished vesicular breathing and moist ralesc) Bronchial breathingd) Rough vesicular breathing and dry ralese) Diminished vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub151. Auscultation data at patient with high point stage of the lobar CAP is:

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a) breathing is absentb) normal vesicular breathingc) bronchial breathingd) diminished vesicular breathinge) rough vesicular breathing152.What types of pneumonias do you know?a) Community-acquired pneumoniab) Hospital pneumoniac) Aspiration pneumoniad) Pneumonia at immunocompromised patientse) All mentioned above153.At the patient with focal pneumonia near the root of lung at palpation of the chest can be obtaineda) Amplifying vocal fremitus on the affected sideb) Weakened vocal fremitus on the affected sidec) Vocal fremitus does not changed) Vocal fremitus is absente) Amplifying vocal fremitus on the health side154. Which syndrome can develop at the patient with central lung cancer?a) emphisema;b) pneumotorax;c) obstructive atelectasis;d) lobar consolidation;e) northing from above.155. Which syndrome can develop at the patient with peripheral lung cancer?a) emphisema;b) pneumotorax;c) obstructive atelectasis;d) lobar consolidation;e) northing from above.156. Auscultation signs of massive exudative pleurisy:a. Diminished vesicular breathing and cracklesb. absent of breath soundsc. unchanged breath soundd. Pathological bronchial breathinge. Diminished vesicular breathing and wheeze

157. Which investigation is obligatory for confirming pneumonia?a. Sputum cultureb. Full blood analysisc. X-ray examinationd. Bronchoscopye. Lung function test158. Which properties does not transudate have?a. Light yellow colorb. Protein = 30 g/lc. Negative Rivalt testd. 1-5 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytese. All mentioned above

159. Which properties does exudate have?a. Comparative density > 1,018

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b. Protein > 30 g/lc. Positive Rivalt testd. 10-25 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytese. All from above

160. Which investigation is the most informative for confirming lung cancer?a. Sputum cultureb. Full blood analysisc. X-ray examinationd. Bronchoscopy with biopsye. Computered tomography

161. What diseases is the bronchial obstruction syndrome developed at?a. Bronchial asthma;b. COPD;c. Acute obstructive bronchitis;d. all mentioned above;e. northing from above.162. What diseases is the syndrome of increased lung airiness developed at?

a. Lobar pneumoniab. Emphysemac. Lung cancerd. Acute bronchitise. Dry pleurisy163. What diseases is the respiratory failure developed at?

a. Lobar pneumoniab. Severe COPDc. Severe exacerbation of the bronchial asthmad. Massive pleural effusione. all mentioned above164. What symptoms characterize the bronchial obstruction syndrome?

a. Wheezing, dry cough, tightness in the chestb. Cough with sputum, chest pain, feverc. Mixed dyspnea, hemoptysis, weaknessd. Dyspnea, chest pain, palpitatione. Dry cough, chest pain, edema165. What symptoms don’t characterize the bronchial obstruction syndrome?a. Wheezingb. coughc. tightness in the chest d. dyspneae. purulent sputum166.What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with bronchial obstruction?a. Amplifyingb. Decreasingc. Absenced. Not changede. Change depends on clinical situation 167. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with emphysema?

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a. Amplifyingb. Decreasingc. Absenced. Not changede. Change depends on clinical situation 168. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with respiratory failure?a. Amplifyingb. Decreasingc. Absenced. Not changede. Change depends on clinical situation 169. What is the main symptom of the respiratory failure?a. cough;b. dyspnea;c. palpitation;d. wheezing;e. chest pain.170. What is the main symptom of the emphysema?a. cough;b. expiratory dyspnea;c. inspiratory dyspnea;d. wheezing;e. mixed dyspnea.171. How is elasticity of the chest changed at the patient with emphysema?a. increasingb. decreasingc. not changedd. absencee. depend on clinical situation172. How is elasticity of the chest changed at the patient with respiratory failure?a. increasingb. decreasingc. not changedd. absencee. depend on clinical situation173. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with bronchial obstruction?a. unchangedb. dullc. small box soundd. tympanice. depend on clinical situation174. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with emphysema?a. unchangedb. dullc. small box soundd. tympanice. depend on clinical situation175. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with respiratory failure?a. unchangedb. dull

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c. small box soundd. tympanice. depend on clinical situation176. What are auscultation findings at the patient with bronchial obstruction?a. Vesicular breathing with prorogated expiration, wheezingb. Diminished vesicular breathing,c. Diminished vesicular breathing and moist ralesd. Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitatione. Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub177. What are auscultation findings at the patient with emphysema?a. Vesicular breathing with prorogated expiration, wheezingb. Diminished vesicular breathing,c. Diminished vesicular breathing and moist ralesd. Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitatione. Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub178. How is spirometry changed at the patient with bronchial obstruction?a. Increased FEV1, decreased FVC, FEV1/FVC> 70%b. Normal FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%c. Decreased FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC <70%d. Increased FVC, increased FEV1, FEV1/FVC > 100%e. Normal FVC, normal FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%179. How is spirometry changed at the patient with emphysema?a. Increased FEV1, decreased FVC, FEV1/FVC> 70%b. Normal FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%c. Decreased FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC <70%d. Increased FVC, increased FEV1, FEV1/FVC > 100%e. Normal FVC, normal FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%180. Which method can help to establish respiratory failure?a. bronchoscopyb. X-rayc. Computer tomographyd. pulsoxymetrye. spirometry

181. Bronchial asthma is a…a. Acute inflammatory disease;b. Acute infective disease;c. Chonic infective disease;d. Chonic iinflammatory disease;e. northing from above.182. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a…

a. chronic inflammatory of trachea and large bronchusb. chronic inflammatory of large and medium bronchusc. chronic inflammatory of medium, small bronchus with involving lung parenchyma and vesselsd. All from abovee. Northing from above183. Which symptoms characterize bronchial asthma?

a. Mixed dyspnea, cough with purulent sputum

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b. Episodic dry cough, tightness of the chest, wheezingc. Chest pain with radiation to jaw, inspiratory dyspnead. Permanent expiratory dyspnea, coughe. Episodic hemoptysis and dyspnea due to physical effort184. Which symptoms characterize COPD?a. Mixed dyspnea, dry cough, chest painb. Episodic dry cough, tightness of the chest, wheezingc. Chest pain with radiation to jaw, inspiratory dyspnead. Permanent expiratory dyspnea, cough, sputum productione. Episodic hemoptysis and dyspnea due to physical effort185. What symptom doesn’t characterize bronchial asthma?

a. Wheezingb. coughc. tightness in the chest d. dyspneae. purulent sputum

186. What symptom doesn’t characterize COPD?

a. Wheezingb. coughc. chest paind. dyspneae. purulent sputum187. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with COPD?

a. Amplifyingb. Decreasingc. Absenced. Not changede. Change depends on clinical situation 188. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with bronchial asthma?a. Amplifyingb. Decreasingc. Absenced. Not changede. Change depends on clinical situation 189. If patient has asthma symptoms 1-2 times in a week, 1 night awaking in a mouth, he has…a. Intermitend asthma;b. Mild persistent asthma;c. Moderate persistent asthma;d. Severe persistent asthma;e. depends on clinical situation 190. If patient has asthma symptoms 1-2 times in a day, 1 night awaking in a week, he has…a. Intermitend asthma;b. Mild persistent asthma;c. Moderate persistent asthma;d. Severe persistent asthma;e. depends on clinical situation 191. If patient has asthma symptoms 1-2 times in a year, night awaking is absent, he has…

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a. Intermitend asthma;b. Mild persistent asthma;c. Moderate persistent asthma;d. Severe persistent asthma;e. depends on clinical situation 192. If patient has asthma symptoms 8-10 times in a day, every night awaking, he has…a. Intermitend asthma;b. Mild persistent asthma;c. Moderate persistent asthma;d. Severe persistent asthma;e. depends on clinical situation 193. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with COPD?a. unchangedb. dullc. small box soundd. tympanice. depend on clinical situation194. How mobility of the lung border is changed at the patient with COPD?a. unchangedb. limitedc. increasedd. became immovablee. depend on clinical situation195. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with mild asthma?a. unchangedb. dullc. small box soundd. tympanice. depend on clinical situation196. What are auscultation findings at the patient with asthma attack?a. Vesicular rough breathing with prorogated expiration, wheezingb. Diminished vesicular breathing,c. Diminished vesicular breathing and moist ralesd. Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitatione. Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub197. What are auscultation findings at the patient with COPD?a. Vesicular rough breathingb. Diminished vesicular breathing with prolongated expiration, wheezingc. Diminished vesicular breathing and moist ralesd. Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitatione. Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub198. How is FEV1 increased after bronchial spasmolytic if patient has reversible obstruction?a. >12% from initialb. >20% from initialc. >25% from initiald. 30% from initiale. 10% from initial199. If patient has permanent expiratory dyspnea during physical effort, FEV1 is 52% from predicted and FEV1/FVC 55% he has…

a. Mild COPD

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b. Moderate COPDc. Severe COPDd. Very severe COPDe. Depend on clinical situation200. If patient has permanent expiratory dyspnea in a rest, FEV1 is 22% from predicted and FEV1/FVC 45% he has…a. Mild COPDb. Moderate COPDc. Severe COPDd. Very severe COPDe. Depend on clinical situation201. What are the cardiovascular symptoms?A. Chest pain, cough, dyspnea, wheezes, haemoptysis.B. Pain in the heart region, palpitation, intermissions, oedemaC. Headache, dizziness, dysphagia, nausea, vomiting.D. Pain in the right subcostal region, bitter taste, brown urine, skin itching, jaundice.E. Back pain, dysuria, ishuria, eyes oedema, weakness.202. What are the cardiovascular symptoms?A. Abdominal pain, nausea, vomitingB. Dyspnea, faint (syncope), palpitation, dry coughC. Cough with rusty sputum, chest pain, dyspneaD. Swelling abdomen, constipation, melenaE. Oedema, dysuria, haematuria203. What feature does the pain at angina pectoris have?A. Be caused by physical extensionB. Duration under 15 minutes C. Constricting, feeling of heavinessD. Radiate to the left hand and scapulaE..All mentioned above204. What feature does not the pain at myocardial infarction have?A. Prolonged, continuous > 20-30 min.B. Severe, tight or burning.C Relief at rest.D. Does not respond to nitrates.E. Radiate to both hands, jaws, neck.205. If patient has heart failure his cough is characterized withA. appearing at lying positionB. a lot of rusty sputumC. it is permanentD. it is loudE. all mentioned above.206. If patient has feeling of solitary beats at various intervals it is namedA. exrtasistoleB. palpitationC. syncopeD. dizzinessE. heart dyspnea207. If patient has feeling of accelerated and intensified heart contractions onto the chest wall it is namedA. exrtasistole

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B. palpitationC. syncopeD. heart dyspneaE. heart pain208. If patient has a lot of foamy pink liquid sputum it means he hasA. Pulmonary edemaB. Pulmonary embolismC. Aortic aneurysm dissectionD. all from aboveE. Northing from above209. Which type of dyspnea is observed at the patients with cardiovascular diseases?A. ExpiratoryB. InspiratoryC. MixedD. ChangingE. All mentioned above.210. What is feature of dyspnea at patient with cardiac asthma attack?A. Appear at nightB. Accompanying with dry coughC. InspiratoryD. Ortopnea position in the bedE. all mentioned above211. Which of the following disorders is not likely to be associated with hemoptysis?A. Mitral stenosisB. Pulmonary embolismC. Pulmonary edemaD. PericarditisE. None of the above212. What characteristics of edema at patient with heart failure?A. Asymmetrical on the part of body which patient lies on.B. Firstly on the face than gradually spreads to body down.C Firstly on the legs than gradually spreads to body up D. Hear the heart regionE. Only on abdomen and hands213. What position does a patient with cardiovascular insufficiency occupy?A. . A forced sitting position with the legs let down. B. The patient prefers to lie on the affected side. C. The patient sits upright or resting the hands on the edge of the table of chair. D. A lying position on the side (lateral recumbent position) with the head thrown back and the bent legs pulled up to the abdomen.E. A forced knee-elbow position.214. What mechanisms are caused by the orthopnoea posture?A. Tissue oxygen demand reduce at rest, decreased myocardial ischemiaB. Re-distribution of blood into the iow extremities, reducing of circulating blood volume, C. Decreasing blood volume, decreasing of venous pressure in the lesser circulation, improvement of gas exchange in the "alveoli-pulmonary capillaries" system, displacement of ascitis fluidD. Pericardial layers presses to one another, reduce their movement that decrease irritation of pain receptors in pericardiumE. Improvement of diastolic cardiac function215. What kind of posture is observed at angina pectopis?A. Upright

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B. On the right side with high head of the bedC. OrthopnoeaD. Sitting posture bending forwardE. Knee-elbow posture216. What kind of posture is observed at acute left ventricular failure?A. UprightB. On the right side with high head of the bedC. OrthopnoeaD. Sitting posture bending forwardE. Knee-elbow posture217. What cardiovascular disease is characterized with constant pale skin color?A. Angina pectorisB. Mitral stenosisC. aortic valve diseasesD Essential hypertensionE. All mentioned above218. Which of the following conditions is least to produce jugular venous distention?A. right heart failureB. Chronic left heart failureC. Chronic hypoxemiaD. Liver failureE. circulation insufficiency219. What kind of cyanosis is usually observed at patient with cardiovascular diseases?A. Central, warmB. peripheral, coldC. peripheral warmD. Local (near heart region), coldE. Diffuse warm220. Which method can we use for establishing edemaA. Visual inspectionB. PalpationC. weighing patient D. measuring leg circumstanceE. All mentioned above.221. The normal pulse rate is:A.70 – 80 in a min.B.50 – 70 in a min.C. 60 – 80 in a min.D. 80 – 100 in a min.E. 50-90 in a min222. Arising condition to cardiac '' humpback'':A. enlargement of the heart chambers in childhoodB. effusion in the pericardium cavityC. the thrust of the heart apex against chest wallD. dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricleE. adhesion of the parietal and visceral layers of the pericardium223. Arising condition of pulsated bulging in the jugular fossae:A. dilation of the ascending part of the aortaB. hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricleC. pulmonary hypertensionD. dilation of the aortic arch

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E. left atrium dilatation224. Arising conditions of pulsation in the II interspace to the right of the sternum edge:A. dilation of the ascending part of the aortaB. hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricleC. pulmonary hypertensionD. dilation of the aortic archE. left atrium dilatation225. Arising conditions of epigastric pulsation that increases in deep inspiration:A. dilation of the ascending part of the aortaB. pulsation of the abdominal aortaC. pulmonary hypertensionD. dilation of the aortic archE. Left ventricle hypertrophy226. A normal apex beat is found:A. in the 5th intercostal space in 1-1,5 cm medially from the left midclavicular lineB. in the 6th intercostal space 0-1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line C. in the 4th intercostal space on the left midclavicular lineD. in the 5th intercostal space in 1-1,5 cm laterally from the left midclavicular line E. in the 6th intercostal space on the left left midclavicular line227. If patient has left ventricle hypertrophy his apex beat sift…A. leftward B. downwardC. upwardD. rightwardE. unchenged228. Apex beat properties is:A. localization, area, height, strenght (or resistence)B. area, heightC. height, strenght D. area, exertion, strengthE. localization, height229. Area of normal apex beat is:A. near 2 cm2

B. near 3 cm2

C. near 1 cm2

D. near 1,5 cm2

E. near 4,5 cm230. The normal right border of the relative cardiac dullness is:A. 4th interspace 1 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternumB. 4th interspace 1,5 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternumC. 4th interspace 2 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternumD. 4th interspace 2,5 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternumE. 4th interspace near the right edge of the sternum231. The normal upper border of the relative cardiac dullness is:A. 3th interspace at the left parasternal lineB.3th interspace at the right parasternal lineC.2th interspace at the left parasternal lineD.2th interspace at the right parasternal lineE. 4th interspace at the left parasternal line232. The normal left border of the relative cardiac dullness is:

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A. 5th interspace 2,5 cm medially of the left midclavicular lineB. 5th interspace 1,5 cm medially of the left midclavicular lineC.5th interspace 2 cm medially of the left midclavicular lineD.5th interspace 3 cm medially of the left midclavicular lineE. 5th interspace on the left midclavicular line233. Right border of the relative heart dullness is displaced to the right in case of: A. Dilation and hyper trophy of the left ventricle B. Dilation of the left atriumC. Atelectasis of the left lungD. Dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricle and/or right atriumE. Pneumothorax of the right lung234. Left border of the relative heart dullness is displaced to the left in case of:A. dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricle B. dilation of the right atriumC. hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricleD. dilation of the right ventricle and right atriumE. dilation of the left atrium235. The normal right borders of the absolute cardiac dullness:A. along the left edge of the sternum in 5th interspaceB. along the left edge of the sternum from 4th to 6th ribC. along the right edge of the sternum from 5th to 6th rib D. along the right edge of the sternum from 3th interspaceE. along the middle of the sternum between 5th rib 236. The normal upper borders of the absolute cardiac dullness:A. lower edge of the 3 th rib along left parasternal lineB. lower edge of the 4th rib along left parasternal lineC. lower edge of the 5th rib along left parasternal lineD. lower edge of the 4th rib along right parasternal lineE. lower edge of the 5 th rib along right parasternal line237. The upper border of the relative heart dullness shift upward in a case of:A. mitral stenosisB. aortic stenosisC. tricuspid regurgitationD. pulmonary stenosisE. pulmonary regurgitation238. Transverse length of the heart in a norm is:A. 8 – 10 cmB. 11 – 13 cmC. 12 – 14 cmD. 6 – 7 cmE.15-17 cm239. The normal width of the vascular bundle is:A. 4 – 6 cmB. 5 – 7 cmC. 6 – 8 cmD. 2–3 cmE. 1,5-2,5 cm240. The normal range of blood pressure is:А. 120 – 149/70-99 mm. HgВ. 90 – 159/60 – 109 mm. Hg

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С. 80 – 129/50 – 99mm.HgD. 100 – 139/60 – 89 mm. HgE. 110-149/40-79 mm Hg241. Where is the mitral valve on the front chest wall projected?a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternumb. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulationd. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulatione. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation242. Where is the pulmonary artery valve on the front chest wall projected?a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternumb. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulationd. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulatione. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation243. Where is listening point for tricuspid valve?a. heart apexb. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternumc. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternumd. Base of the xiphoid process e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum244. Where is listening point for aortic valve?a. heart apexb. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternumc. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternumd. Base of the xiphoid process e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum245. Which auscultation point coincides with heart valve projection on the chest wall?a. 1st auscultation pointb. 2nd auscultation pointc. 3rd auscultation pointd. 4th auscultation pointe. 5th auscultation point246. Which components does the second heart sound consist of?a. Muscular, valvular and vascularb. Muscular and valvularc. Valvular and vasculard. Valvular, vascular and atriale. None of variants247. What produces the third heart sound? a. The ventricular systoleb. The closure of the aortic and pulmonary valvesc. The vibration of the ventricular diastoled. The closure of the bicuspid and tricuspid valvese. The vibration of the ventricular during passive rapid filling248. Which auscultation points are used for the first sound assessment?a. 1st and 2nd auscultation pointsb. 2nd and 3rd auscultation pointsc. 3rd and 4th auscultation pointsd. 1st and 3rd auscultation pointse. 1st and 4th auscultation point249. Which sound follows the long pause?

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a. The 1st heart soundb. The 2st heart soundc. The 3st heart soundd. The 4st heart sounde. Depends on clinical situation250. What can not be assessed by heart auscultation?a. Heart rhythmb.Cardiac indexc. Heart rated.Heart soundse. Heart murmurs251. Where is the tricuspid valve on the front chest wall projected?a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternumb. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulationd. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulatione. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation252. Where is the aortic valve on the front chest wall projected?a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternumb. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulationd. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulatione. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation253. Where is listening point for mitral valve?a. heart apexb. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternumc. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternumd. Base of the xiphoid process e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum254. Where is listening point for pulmonary artery valve?a. heart apexb. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternumc. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternumd. Base of the xiphoid process e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum255. Where is placed Botkin-Erb’s listening point?a. 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternumb. 2nd – 3rd intercostal space to the left of the sternumc. 3rd – 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternumd. 4th – 5th intercostal space to the left of the sternume. 3rd – 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum256. From which components consists the first heart sound?a. Muscular, valvular and vascularb. Valvular, vascular and atrialc. Valvular and vasculard. Muscular, valvular, vascular and atriale. None of variants257. When can the forth heart sound be listened?a. At the beginning of the ventricular systole b. At the end of the ventricular systole c. At the beginning of the ventricular diastole d. At the end of the ventricular diastole

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e. At the beginning of the precordial systole258. Which auscultation points are used for the second sound assessment?a. 1st and 2nd auscultation pointsb. 2nd and 3rd auscultation pointsc. 3rd and 4th auscultation pointsd. 1st and 3rd auscultation pointse. 1st and 4th auscultation point259. Which sound follows the short pause?a. The 1st heart soundb. The 2st heart soundc. The 3st heart soundd. The 4st heart sounde. Depends on clinical situation260. What can be assessed by heart auscultation?a. Heart rhythmb. Heart ratec. Heart soundsd. Heart murmurse. All mentioned above261. Loud first sound in the cardiac apex is auscultated in case of:A. Myocardial infarctionB. MyocarditisC. Myocardial sclerosisD. Synchronic systole of atriums and ventricles in case of full atrioventricular blockadeE. Mitral regurgitation262. Weakening of both heart sounds is auscultated in case of:A. Myocardial infarctionB. MyocarditisC. EmphysemaD. MyocardiosclerosisE. All mentioned cases263. Loud second sound over pulmonary artery is auscultated in case of:A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosisC. Essential hypertensionD. Aortic insufficiencyE. Regurgitation of the pulmonary artery264. Loud both heart sounds are heard in case of:A. Lungs shrinkageB. Posterior mediastinum tumorsC. Forward inclination of bodyD. FeverE. All mentioned reasons265. ‘Quail’ rhythm is:A. The loud ‘flapping’ first soundB. The loud ‘flapping’ first sound, second sound, opening snap of mitral valveC. Opening snap of mitral valveD. The first sound, click and second soundE. Northing from above266. Ground of the second sound accent appearance over the pulmonary artery is:A. High pressure in greater circulationB. High pressure in the pulmonary circulationC. High pressure in cava veins

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D. All above mentioned E. Northing from above267. ‘Gallop’ rhythm can appear in case of:A. Diffuse myocarditisB. Myocardial infarctionC. Dilatational cardiomyopathyD. Heart failureE. All mentioned variants268 Splitting of the first sound appears in case of:A. Asynchronous right and left ventricle contractionB. Right bundle branch blockC. Bisystolia (systole in 2 portions)D. All mentioned variantsE. Northing from above269. Splitting of second sound in pulmonary artery is connected with:A. High pressure in lesser circulationB. Asynchronous aortic and pulmonary artery valve closingC. BreathingD. All mentioned is trueE. No right answer270. Presystolic ‘gallop’ rhythm is auscultated in case of:A. Mitral stenosisB. Tricuspid insufficiencyC. Myocardial infarctionD. Pulmonary insufficiencyE. All above mentioned cases271. Weakening of the first sound in the cardiac apex is auscultated with:A. Stenosis of mitral orificeB. Insufficiency of mitral valveC. Synchronic systole of atriums and ventricles in case of full atrioventricular blockadeD. ExtrasystoleE. Northing from above272. The Loud second sound over aorta is auscultated in case of:A. Insufficiency of aortic valveB. Aortic stenosisC. Essential hypertensionD. Mitral stenosisE. Mitral regurgitation273. The loud first sound over the cardiac apex is auscultated in case of:A. Mitral stenosisB. Ciliary arrhythmiaC. Full atrioventricular blockadeD. All mentioned casesE. No right answer274. The loud second sound over pulmonary artery is auscultated in case of:A. Emphysema of lungsB. Chronic obstructive lung disease C. PneumosclerosisD. All mentioned reasonsE. No right answer275. The loud ‘flapping’ first sound over heart apex is auscultated in case of:A. Mitral stenosisB. Mitral insufficiency

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C. Aortic stenosisD. aortic insufficiencyE. Pulmonary artery stenosis276. Ground of the second sound accent above aorta is:A. High pressure in greater circulationB. High pressure in pulmonary circulationC. High pressure in pulmonary veinsD. All above mentioned E. Northing from above277. The first sound in case of ‘gallop’ rhythm is:A. IntensifiedB. BifurcatedC. Weakened D. All variants are rightE. No right answer278. Splitting of the second sound appears more often over:A. Aorta B. Pulmonary arteryC. ApexD. Near xiphoid processE. All mentioned variants279. Protodiastolic ‘gallop’ rhythm is commonly auscultated in case of:A. Severe heart failureB. Essential hypertensionC. Chronic nephritis with hypertensive syndromeD. Myocardial infractionE. All above mentioned cases280. Embryocardia or pendular rhythm appears in case of:A. High feverB. Paroxysmal tachycardiaC. Heart failureD. Severe cardiomyopathy with prolonged systoleE. All mentioned variants281 What heart diseases listed below can you find organic systolic cardiac murmurs at?A. mitral stenosisB. Aortic stenosisC. Aortic regurgitationD. Pulmonary regurgitationE. Tricuspid stenosis282. The best point for hearing the systolic murmurs at aortic stenosis isA. The heart apexB. The Botkin – Erb pointC. The second intercostal space, to the right from the breastboneD. The second intercostal space, to the left from the breastboneE. On the middle of the breastbone on the level of third rib283. Anaemic functional murmur is more often:A. SystolicB. DiastolicC. ProtodiastolicD. PresystolicE. Systola-diastolic284. Haemodinamical functional murmurs can be auscultated at

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A. ThyrotoxicosisB. Mitral stenosisC. MyocarditisD. CardiosclerosisE. Hypertension disease285. The pericardial friction pub is better heardA. On the heart apexB. on the Botkin-Erb pointC. Above the absolute heart’s dullness zoneD. On heart’s baseE. Near the xiphoid process286. The pericardial friction rub differs from organic murmurs in that it isA. More delicateB. Heard like far away C. Heard near the earD. Always coincide with systoleE. Well radiate to other auscultatic zones287. Which of the following does not characterized the pericardial friction rub?A. Never gives any tactile fillings B. Becomes stronger if patient bends forwardC. Coincidance with systola and diastolaD. Well irradiate to other auscultatic zonesE. Loud288 Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat purr” in the second intercostal space right from the breastbone?A. Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitationB. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosisC. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosisD. Diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitationE. Systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation289. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis irradiatesA. To the heart apex and to Botkin’s pointB. To the left axillary regionC. To the second left intercostal spaceD. To the area of xiphoid processE. To the carotid and subclavical arteries290. Which functional murmur can be heard at mitral stenosis?A. Systolic hydremicB. Systolic hemodynamicC. Systolic muscularD. Kumbs’ murmurE. Graham-Steel murmur291. What heart diseases listed below can you find organic diastolic cardiac murmurs at?A. Stenosis of mitral foramenB. Stenosis of orifice of aortaC. Mitral valve deficiencyD. Stenosis of lung arteries orificeE. Tricuspid valve deficiency292. The best point for hearing the diastolic murmurs at aortic regurgitation isA. The heart apex

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B. The Botkin – Erb pointC. The second intercostal space, to the right from the breastboneD. The second intercostal space, to the left from the breastboneE. On the middle of the breastbone on the level of third rib293. Anaemic murmur is heard betterA. Above the lung arteryB. At Bodkin’s pointC. Above all valve orificesD. On the apex of the heartE. Above the aorta294. How is functional systolic murmur differed from organic one?A. It is not ruled by periods of breathingB. Loud, harsh, prolongedC. Do not change during exercisesD. Do not have irradiative zonesE. Often supported by feeling of systolic “cat purr”295. The pericardial friction rub usually appears atA. UremiaB. HydropericardiumC. CardiomegalyD. Angina pectorisE. Adhesion of pericardium and pleura296. Which of the following is not a differential sign between pericardial friction rub from organic murmur?A. Become stronger during pressing the chestB. Becomes weaker if patient bends forwardC. Heard above zones, projections and places of the best auscultation of heart’s vavlesD. Do not coincidance with cardiac periodsE. Never gives tactile sings297. Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat purr” on the heart apex?A. Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitationB. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosisC. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosisD. Diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitationE. Systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation298. Which cardiac murmur gives tactile filling above absolute cardiac dullness that becomes stronger while bending the body forward?A. Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitationB. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosisC. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosisD. Diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitationE. Systole-diastolic pericardial friction rub.299. Which functional murmur can be heard at aortic regurgitation?A. Systolic hydremicB. Systolic hemodynamicC. Flint’s murmurD. Coombs’ murmurE. Graham-Steel murmur300. What are the reasons for Flint’s murmur in aorta valve deficiencyA. Relative mitral regurgitation

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B. Relative mitral stenosisC. Relative aortic stenosisD. Relative tricuspid regurgitationE. Relative pulmonary stenosis301. Which pathological conditions can be confirmed by 2-dimenshional echocardiography?a. congenital heart disease, b. left ventricular aneurysm c. mural thrombusd. Valve heart diseasese. All mentioned above302 .Normal value of ejection fraction is …a. 60-66%b. 45-50%c. 50-55%d. 66-75%e. 40-45%303. If patient has diastolic dysfunction which echocardiographic parameter can confirm it?a. End systolic volumeb. End diastolic volumec. Stroke volumed. Ejection fractione. Minute volume304. Indications for exercise ECG testing are:a. confirming a suspected diagnosis of IHDb. Assessment of cardiac function and exercise tolerancec. Prognosis following myocardial infarctiond. Evaluation of response to treatmente. All mentioned above

305. Indication for dairy ECG monitoringa. Symptoms could be related with rhythm disordersb. Diseases with high risk of fatal arrhythmias and sudden deathc. Assessing circadian variability of the sinus rhythm at patient with myocardial infarction, heart failure, obstructive sleep apnea syndromed. Revealing of ischemic disorders (ischemic heart disease)e. All mentioned above306. Doppler echocardiography used for revealing …a. flow and gradients across valves and septal defectsb. left ventricular hypertrophyc. ejection fractiond. stroke volumee. northing from above307. Normal value of posterior wall thickness in diastole is …a. 0,8-1,1 smb. 0,6-0,7 smc. 1,3-1,4 smd. 0,4-0,5 sme. 1,5-1,6 sm308.If patient has left ventricular hypertrophy which parameters are changed?a. Posterior wall thicknessb. Ejection fraction

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c. End diastolic volumed. Diameter of the interventricular septume. a and d.309.Contraindication for exercise ECG testing:a. Unstable anginab. Recent Q wave myocardial infarction (<5day)c. Severe aortic stenosisd. Uncontrolled arrhythmia, hypertension, or heart failuree. All mentioned above310.Indication for dairy blood pressure monitoring:a. Diagnostics of the ‘white coat’ hypertension,b. Diagnostics of the border hypertension, c. Diagnostics of the symptomatic hypertensiond. Control of antihypertensive therapy.e. All mentioned above311. How is the first sound changed at the patient with mitral stenosis?A. Amplified;B. Diminished;С. Split;D. not changed;E. Depend on clinical situation.312. How is the second sound changed at the patient with mitral stenosis?A. increased above the aortaB. increased above the pulmonary artery;C. diminished above the aorta;D. diminished above the pulmonary artery;E. not changed.313. What murmur can be heard at the patient with mitral stenosis?A. pansystolicB. presystolic;C. systolic and diastolic;D. murmur is absent;E. short systolic314. What are ECG changes at the patients with mitral stenosis?A. hypertrophy left atriumB. hypertrophy of right atrium;C. hypertrophy of right ventricle;D. hypertrophy of left ventricle;E. all mentioned above.315. What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with mitral stenosis?A. right is shift rightB. left is shift left and downward;C. upper is shift upward;D. upper is shift upward and right is shift right;E. borders of the relative heart dullness are not changed.316. How is the first sound changed at the patient with mitral regurgitation?A. Amplified;B. Diminished;С. Split;D. not changed;E. Depend on clinical situation.

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317. What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with mitral regurgitation?A. right is shift rightB. left is shift left and downward;C. upper is shift upward;D. right answers A, B, and C;E. borders of the relative heart dullness are not changed.318. What murmur at the heart apex can be heard at the patient with mitral regurgitation?A. systolicB. diastolic;C. systolic and diastolic;D. murmur is absent;E. depend on clinical situation319. Which area does the systolic murmur at the patient with mitral regurgitation conduct to?A. neck vesselsB. axillary regionC. interscapular regionD. Botkin-Erb pointE. does not conduct.320. What are the symptoms of decompensated mitral stenosis?A. Dyspnea and fatigue, B. palpitation, C. chest pain, D. heamoptysisE. All mentioned above321What are the main causes of aortic regurgitation?A. Rheumatic fever,B. infective endocarditis, syphilitic aortitisC. connective tissue disorders (rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Marfan syndrome),D. congenital (may be associated with other defects, such as ventricular septal defect),E. all mentioned above

322.What are the symptoms of decompensated aortic stenosis?A. Dyspnea and fatigue, B. Palpitation, C. Chest pain, D. FaintnessE. All mentioned above323.How is color of skin changed at patients with aortic valve diseases?A. Became bluishB. Become reddishC. Become yellowishD. Became paleE. Nothing from above.324. Capillary pulse is a sign of…A. Aortic stenosisB. Mitral stenosisC. Mitral regurgitationD. Pulmonary hypertensionE. Aortic regurgitation325. How is blood pressure changed at patient with aortic stenosis?

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A. Systolic increased, diastolic normalB. Systolic decreased, diastolic normalC. Systolic normal, diastolic increasedD. Systolic normal, diastolic decreasedE. Systolic increased, diastolic decreased326. What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with aortic regurgitation?A. right is shift rightB. left is shift left and downward;C. upper is shift upward;D. right answers A, B, and C;E. borders of the relative heart dullness are not changed.327. How is the first sound changed at the patient with aortic stenosis?A. Amplified;B. Diminished;С. Split;D. not changed;E. Depend on clinical situation.328. How is the second sound changed at the patient with aortic regurgitation?A. increased above the aortaB. increased above the pulmonary artery;C. diminished above the aorta;D. diminished above the pulmonary artery;E. not changed.

329.What murmur at the aorta point can be heard at the patient with aortic stenosis?A. systolicB. diastolic;C. systolic and diastolic;D. murmur is absent;E. depend on clinical situation

330.Which area is the murmur at the patient with aortic regurgitation conducted to?A. neck vesselsB. axillary regionC. interscapular regionD. Botkin-Erb pointE. is not conducted.331.What are the main causes of aortic stenosis?A. Senile calcification is the commonestB. rheumatic fever,C. congenital valve diseasesD. septic endocarditis.E. all mentioned above

332.What are the symptoms of decompensated aortic regurgitation?A. Dyspnea and cough, B. Palpitation, heaviness in the heart region C. Cardiac asthma attack, D. Faintness, dizzinessE. All mentioned above333.Carotid dance’ (carotid pulsation) is a sign of …A. Mitral stenosis

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B. Pulmonary hypertensionC. Aortic regurgitationD. Aortic stenosisE. Mitral regurgitation334.Systolic ‘cat purring’ is a sign of…A. aortic regurgitationB. mitral regurgitationC. arterial hypertensionD. aortic stenosisE. mitral stenosis

335.What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with aortic stenosis?A. right is shift rightB. left is shift left and downward;C. upper is shift upward;D. upper is shift upward and right is shift right;E. left is shift left.

336.How is the first sound changed at the patient with aortic regurgitation?A. Amplified;B. Diminished;С. Split;D. not changed;E. Depend on clinical situation.

337.How is the second sound changed at the patient with aortic stenosis?A. increased above the aortaB. increased above the pulmonary artery;C. diminished above the aorta;D. diminished above the pulmonary artery;E. not changed.

338.What murmur at the aorta point can be heard at the patient with aortic regurgitation?A. systolicB. diastolic;C. systolic and diastolic;D. murmur is absent;E. depend on clinical situation

339.How is the systolic murmur conducted at patient with aortic stenosis?A. along the right edge of breastbone;B. to the Botkin-Erb point;C. to the vessels of neck;D. to the lift axillary area;E. not conducted.

340.What are ECG changes at the patients with aortic stenosis?A. hypertrophy left atriumB. hypertrophy of right atrium;C. hypertrophy of right ventricle;D. hypertrophy of left ventricle;E. all mentioned above.341. Which level of the blood pressure is corresponded to mild hypertension?A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.

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D. ≥ 180/≥ 110 mm Hg.E. ≥155/≥100 mm Hg342. Risk factors of essential hypertension:A. Family history, race (blacks), stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, use of tobacco, sedentary lifestyle.B. Family history, stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, use of tobacco, hepatitis, sedentary lifestyle.C. Family history, stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, cardiac arrhythmia, sedentary lifestyle.D. Stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, use of tobacco, hepatitis, sedentary lifestyle.E. Family history, race (blacks), cardiac arrhythmia, sedentary lifestyle.343. What arterial pressure is corresponded to moderate hypertension?A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.D. ≥ 180/≥ 110 mm Hg.E. ≥155/≥100 mm Hg344. What are the pulse properties at patients with arterial hypertension? A. Hard, intense.B. Hard.C. Frequent.D. Intense, frequent.E. Arrhythmic, slow.345. What is the commonest symptom at patients with essential hypertension?A. Sleep disorders.B. Headache.C. Myalgia.D. Arrhythmia.E. Edemas346. How are the heart borders displaced at patient with the 2nd stage of essential hypertension?A. Shift to the right.B. Shift to the left.C. Shift to the left and up.D. Shift to the right, left and up.E. Not changed.347. During auscultation of patients with prolonged arterial hypertension you can hear:A. Diminished S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.B. Loud S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.C. Increased S1 at the apex, and diminished S2 at the aorta.D. Diminished S1 at the apex and S2 at the aorta.E. Normal heart sounds348. ECG sign of the left ventricular hypertrophy:A. High R at the V3, V4.B. High R at the V1, V2.C. High R at the V5, V6.D. Deep S at the I lead.E. High R at the III lead.349. Which organs are considered target at the patients with arterial hypertension?A. Heart, liver, lungs and brain

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B. Liver, brain, kidney, eyesC. Heart, brain, kidney, eyes, vesselsD. Heart, liver, lungs and kidneyE. Liver, brain, kidney, eyes, heart.350. Criterions of the ІI stage of essential hypertension:A. Episodic elevation of BP with cerebral, cardiac and general symptoms without any other signs except high BP.B. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting without their failure.C. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting with their failure (complicated stage)D. Frequent hypertonic crisis.E. Lack of effect of the medication treatment.351. What blood pressure is corresponded to severe hypertension?A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.D. ≥ 180/|≥ 110 mm Hg.E. >160/>100 mm Hg.352. How is color of skin changed at the patient with arterial hypertension?A. Flush of the face and sclera. B. Flush of the foot.C. Flush of the stomach.D. Flush of the backE. Flush of the hands353. What blood pressure is corresponded to isolated systolic hypertension?A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.D. ≥ 180/|≥ 110 mm Hg.354. How is apex bit changed at patient with prolonged arterial hypertension?A. Heaving displaced to the right, and resistant.B. Heaving, displaced to the left, and not resistant.C. Heaving, displaced to the left, and resistant.D. Not changed, normalE. Displaced to the right and not resistant.355. How are the heart borders displaced at patient with the 1st stage of essential hypertension?A. Shift to the right.B. Shift to the left.C. Shift to the left and up.D. Shift to the right, left and up.E. Not changed.356. During auscultation of patients with hypertonic crisis you can hear:A. Diminished S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.B. Loud S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.C. Increased S1 at the apex, and diminished S2 at the aorta.D. Diminished S1 at the apex and S2 at the aorta.E. Normal heart sounds357. Which investigation is the most informative for establishing arterial hypertension?A. Daily BP monitoring.B. Daily EKG monitoring.C. Coronarography.

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D. EchocardiographyE. Tredmill test.358. Criterions of the ІIІ stage of essential hypertension:A. Episodic elevation of BP with cerebral, cardiac and general symptoms without any other signs except high BP.B. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting without their failure.C. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting with their failure (complicated stage)D. Frequent hypertonic crisis.E. Lack of effect of the medication treatment.359. Which diseases can be accompanied with arterial hypertension?A. Renal diseasesB. Endocrine diseaseC. Coarctation of aorta.D. Nephropathy of pregnancyE. all mentioned above360. EchoCG sign of the left ventricular hypertrophy:A. Widening of the cavity of left ventricular.B. Widening of the cavity of right ventricular.C. Widening of the posterior wall of the left ventricle.D. Widening of the left atrium cavity.E. Low ejection fraction.361. What is usual cause of Coronary artery disease?A. Atherosclerosis.B. Hepatitis.C. Tonsillitis.D. Low serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels.E. Ulcer of stomach.362. What are risk factors of development of Coronary artery disease?A. Hypertension.B. Smoking.C. Family history.D. Obesity.E. All mentioned above.363. Angina pectoris may be:A. Stable.B. Dangerous.C. Strong.D. Delicate.E. Acute.364. Pain can be relieved by nitroglycerine during:A. 1 min.B. 1-5 min.C. 15-20 min.D. 20-30 min.E. 30-50 min.365. What electrocardiography changes may show ischemia?A. Change of T wave.B. Change of P wave.C. Change of Q wave.D. Change of R wave.

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E. Change of S wave.366. Duration of pain at myocardial infarction is…A. 1-3 min.B. 10-20 min.C. More then 30 min.D. Some days.E. During week.367. Where are changes localized at the inferior infarction?A. І, ІІ, AVL.B. ІІ, ІІІ, AVF.C. V1, V2.D. V4.E. V5, V6.368. Duration of the first (acutest stage) of myocardial infarction is…A. Some first hours – 1 day.B. 2 day till 2 weeks.C. Till 2-3 months.D. Till 6 month.E. 30-60 min.369. How long is leukocytosis being increased?A. Till 1-2 day.B. Till 12-24 hours.C. Till 2-3 day.D. Till 5-th day.E. Till 7-th day.370. Duration of the third (subacute stage) of myocardial infarction is…A. Some first hours – 1 day.B. 2 day till 2 weeks.C. Till 2-3 months.D. Till 6 month.E. 30-60 min.371. What are risk factors of the Coronary artery disease developing?A. High serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels.B. Sedentary lifestyle.C. Stress.D. Diabetes mellitus.E. All of enumeration.372. Angina pectoris may be …A. Delicate.B. Dangerous.C. Strong.D. Unstable.E. Acute.373. Which wave is changed in the necrotic zone of myocardial infarction?A. Change T waves.B. Change P.C. Change Q.D. Change R.E. Change S.374. Duration of pain at the angina pectoris:

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A. 1-3 min.B. 5-20 min.C. More then 30 min.D. Some days.E. During week.375. Where are changes localized at the anterior infarction?A. І, ІІ, AVL, V1-V3.B. ІІ, ІІІ, AVF.C. V1, V2.D. V4.E. V5, V6.376. Duration of the second (acute stage) of myocardial infarction is…A. Some first hours – 1 day.B. 2 day till 2 weeks.C. Till 2-3 months.D. Till 6 month.E. 30-60 min.377. How long is leukocytosis being decreased?A. Till 1-2 day.B. Till 12-24 hours.C. Till 2-3 day.D. Till 5-th day.E. Till 7-th day.378. What chemical parameter is the most informative myocardial infarction marker?A. Electrolytes.B. Glucose.C. Creatinine.D. Troponine.E. Cholesterole.379. Duration of the forth (scarring stage) of myocardial infarction is:A. Some first hours – 1 day.B. 2 day till 2 weeks.C. Till 2-3 months.D. Till 6 month.E. 30-60 min.380. Acute coronary syndromes includes unstable angina and: A. Stable angina.B. Myocardial infarction.C. Myocarditis.D. Pericarditis.E. Hypertension attack.381. Heart failure is an ...a) Incompetence of the heart to provide the body’s requirements at blood circulation during restb) Incompetence of the heart to provide the body’s requirements at blood circulation during rest and physical activityc) Incompetence of the heart to provide the body’s requirements at blood circulation during physical activityd) Incompetence of patient to hold stable level of blood pressure and pulse rate.e) Nothing from above

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382. Which symptoms characterize RVF?a) Nocturia, hepatomegaly, nocturnal cough.b) Edema of the lower extremities, hepatomegaly.c) Edema of the lower extremities, nocturnal coughd) Dyspnea, chest pain, dry cough.e) Nothing from above.383. What symptom does not characterize LVF?a) Dyspneab) Orthopneac) Coughd) Nocturiae) Edema of the lower extremities384. What are percussion findings at the patients with LVF?a) The left border of relative heart dullness drifts left b) The right border of relative heart dullness drifts rightc) The right border of relative heart dullness drifts leftd) Nothing from abovee) Depend on clinical situation385 What are auscultation findings at the patients with heart failure?a) Weakened S1 and S2, S3 gallopb) Weakened S1 and systolic murmurc) Depend on disease which lead to heart failured) Accented S2 over aorta, diastolic murmure) Weakened both sounds386. What BP does patient with heart failure have?a) Systolic BP decreased, narrow pulse pressureb) Systolic BP increased, wide pulse pressurec) Systolic BP normal, increased diastolic BPd) Depend on clinical situatione) Nothing from above387. If patient has dyspnea on ordinary activity, he has…a) I functional class of HFb) II functional class of HFc) III functional class of HFd) IV functional class of HFe) Nothing from above 388. If less than ordinary activity causes dyspnea at the patient, he hes…a) I functional class of HFb) II functional class of HFc) III functional class of HFd) IV functional class of HFe) Nothing from above389. Ejection fraction is used to determinate…a) Cause of the LVFb) Severity of the LVFc) Cardiothoracic ratiod) a and be) Nothing from above400. If patient has ejection fraction 44 % he has…

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a) No heart failureb) Mild LVFc) Moderate LVFd) Severe LVFe) Terminal LVF401. Which symptoms characterize LVF?a) Nocturia, hepatomegaly, nocturnal cough.b) Dyspnea, chest pain, dry cough.c) Dyspnea, orthopnea, nocturnal cough.d) Edema of the lower extremities, hepatomegaly.e) All from above.402. What symptom does not characterize RVF?a) Edema of the lower extremitiesb) Hydrotoraxc) Hepatomegalyd) Ascitese) Dry cough Dyspnea, chest pain, dry cough.403. What diseases can lead to heart failure?a) Arterial hypertensionb) Valvular heart diseasec) Myocardial infarctiond) Cardiomyopathiese) All from above404. What are percussion findings at the patients with RVF?a) The left border of relative heart dullness drifts left b) The right border of relative heart dullness drifts rightc) The right border of relative heart dullness drifts leftd) Nothing from abovee) Depend on clinical situation405. What are the lung auscultation findings at the patients with heart failure?a) Vesicular breathing, basal ralesb) Diminished vesicular breathingc) Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitationd) Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rube) Nothing from above406. If patient has heart disease, but ordinary activity does not cause dyspnea, he has…a) I functional class of HFb) II functional class of HFc) III functional class of HFd) IV functional class of HFe) Nothing from above407. If patient has dyspnea at rest and all activity causes discomfort, he has…a) I functional class of HFb) II functional class of HFc) III functional class of HFd) IV functional class of HFe) Nothing from above408. Ecchocardiography: a) May indicate the cause of HF

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b) Can confirm the presence or absence of LV dysfunctionc) Is the less useful than chest X – ray for recognizing HFd) a and be) All from above409. If patient has ejection fraction 37 % he has…a) No heart failureb) Mild LVFc) Moderate LVFd) Severe LVFe) Terminal LVF410. If patient has ejection fraction 23 % he has…a) No heart failureb) Mild LVFc) Moderate LVFd) Severe LVFe) Terminal LVF