biochem.zsmu.zp.ua · Web viewC. 1 sphingosine, 1 fatty acid, 1 sugar D. 2 sphingosines, 2 fatty...

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Name the metabolic pathway which is in need for vitamins B<sub>1</sub>, B<sub>2</sub>, B<sub>3</sub>, B<sub>5</sub> supplement at the same time: A. Krebs Cycle B. Pentose Phosphate Cycle C. Urea Cycle D. Glycogenesis E. Glycolysis Propose the main food product to promote the intake of vitamin C: A. Butter B. Beef C. Milk D. Parsley E. Black currant Name the blood plasma index whose low value will prove the deficiency of vitamin K in patient: A. Urea B. Prothrombin C. Immunoglobulin G D. C-reactive protein E. Albumins A 10-year-old girl often experiences acute respiratory infections with multiple hemorrages in the places of clothes friction. Hypovitaminosis of what vitamin is in this girl organism? A. B<sub>6</sub> B. С C. B<sub>2</sub> D. A E. B<sub>1</sub> A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be administered? A. Nicotinic acid B. Cyanocobalamin C. Pyridoxine hydrochloride D. Retinol acetate E. Ascorbic acid A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be administered? A. Nicotinic acid B. Retinol acetate C. Cyanocobalamin D. Pyridoxine hydrochloride E. Ascorbic acid

Transcript of biochem.zsmu.zp.ua · Web viewC. 1 sphingosine, 1 fatty acid, 1 sugar D. 2 sphingosines, 2 fatty...

Name the metabolic pathway which is in need for vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5 supplement at the same time:

A. Krebs Cycle

B. Pentose Phosphate Cycle

C. Urea Cycle

D. Glycogenesis

E. Glycolysis

Propose the main food product to promote the intake of vitamin C:

A. Butter

B. Beef

C. Milk

D. Parsley

E. Black currant

Name the blood plasma index whose low value will prove the deficiency of vitamin K in patient:

A. Urea

B. Prothrombin

C. Immunoglobulin G

D. C-reactive protein

E. Albumins

A 10-year-old girl often experiences acute respiratory infections with multiple hemorrages in the places of clothes friction. Hypovitaminosis of what vitamin is in this girl organism?

A. B6

B. С

C. B2

D. A

E. B1

A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be administered?

A. Nicotinic acid

B. Cyanocobalamin

C. Pyridoxine hydrochloride

D. Retinol acetate

E. Ascorbic acid

A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be administered?

A. Nicotinic acid

B. Retinol acetate

C. Cyanocobalamin

D. Pyridoxine hydrochloride

E. Ascorbic acid

Choose the name of phase for vitamin K use in the formation of clotting factors:

A. Reparation

B. Transcription

C. Replication

D. Post-transcription

E. Post-translation

A patient suffers from vision impairment – hemeralopia (night blindness). What vitamin preparation should be administered the patient in order to restore his vision?

A. Retinol acetate

B. Tocopherol acetate

C. Pyridoxine

D. Thiamine chloride

E. Vicasol

Choose the vitamin, whose antivitamin is named as Dicoumarol:

A. Vitamin K

B. Vitamin B6

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin A

E. Vitamin C

A patient with hypochromic anemia has splitting hair and loss of hair, increased nail bottling and taste alteration. What is the mechanism of the development of these symptoms?

A. Decreased production of parathyrin

B. Deficiency of iron-containing enzymes

C. Decreased production of thyroid hormones

D. Deficiency of vitamin A

E. Deficiency of vitamin B12

Choose the vitamin, whose deficiency leads to osteomalacia at adults:

A. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin PP

D. Vitamin E

E. Vitamin C

A patient who was previously ill with mastectomy as a result of breast cancer was prescribed radiation therapy. What vitamin preparation has marked radioprotective action caused by antioxidant activity?

A. Ergocalciferol

B. Riboflavin

C. Thiamine chloride

D. Tocopherol acetate

E. Folic acid

After the disease a 16-year-old boy is presenting with decreased function of protein synthesis in the liver as a result of vitamin K deficiency. This may cause disorder of:

A. Osmotic blood pressure

B. Anticoagulant production

C. Erythropoietin production

D. Blood coagulation

E. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Choose the vitamin which is important in non-oxidative decarboxylation, transamination and transsulfuration reactions from the following list:

A. Riboflavin

B. Pyridoxine

C. Pantothenic acid

D. Thiamine

E. Folic acid

Name the vitamin whose level in the blood is depended on the secretion rate of parathyroid hormone:

A. Ascorbic acid

B. Thiamine

C. Naphtoquinone

D. Calcitriol

E. Tocopherol

Point out vitamin which is the most indispensable during mitosis:

A. Ascorbinic acid

B. Pantotenic acid

C. Folic acid

D. Aspartic acid

E. Thiamine

Find out the Enzyme name whose activity is depended on the presence of vitamin B2:

A. Malate dehydrogenase

B. Citrate synthase

C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

D. Succinate dehydrogenase

E. Pyruvate carboxylase

Choose the vitamin, which is a powerful natural antioxidant:

A. Tocopherol

B. Riboflavin

C. Retinal

D. Ergocalciferol

E. Pyridoxine

Find out the fat-soluble vitamin whose function is hormone-similar one:

A. Vitamin PP

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin C

E. Vitamin E

The avitaminosis of ascorbic acid is named as:

A. Scurvy

B. Cushing`s syndrome

C. Addison`s disease

D. Kwashiorkor

E. Hemolytic anemia

Choose the vitamin, whose molecule structure is unsaturated cyclic alcohol (one hydroxide-group only):

A. Vitamin D2

B. Vitamin H

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin F

E. Vitamin B5

Choose the most active form of vitamin D3:

A. 24,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

B. Calcidiol

C. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol

D. 25-Hydroxyergocalciferol

E. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

What reaction is in need of vitamin K?

A. Oxidation

B. Hydroxylation

C. Alpha-decarboxylation

D. Methylation

E. Gamma-carboxylation

Examination of a man who hadn’t been consuming fats but had been getting enough carbohydrates and proteins for a long time revealed dermatitis, poor wound healing, vision impairment. What is the probable cause of metabolic disorder?

A. Low caloric value of diet

B. Lack of palmitic acid

C. Lack of linoleic acid, vitamins A, D, E, K.

D. Lack of vitamins PP, H

E. Lack of oleic acid

Choose the correct definition of vitamin:

A. Food factors that cannot be synthesized in human organism

B. Essential biologic amines

C. Organic compounds, containing amino group

D. Essential food proteins

E. Essential energy sources

Point out the vitamin, whose deficiency leads to pellagra:

A. Vitamin C

B. Vitamin B2

C. Vitamin P

D. Vitamin B3

E. Vitamin A

Choose the vitamin that contains the isoalloxazine fragment in its structure:

A. Naphtoquinone

B. Ubiquinone

C. Riboflavin

D. Thiamine

E. Pyridoxine

Concentration of pyruvate is increased in the patient's blood, the most of which is excreted with urine. What avitaminosis has the patient?

A. Avitaminosis B3

B. Avitaminosis B9

C. Avitaminosis E

D. Avitaminosis B2

E. Avitaminosis B1

Vitamin A group contains substance whose function is associated mainly with stimulation of proliferation and differentiation processes in tissues. Name it:

A. Retinal

B. Retinoic acid

C. Nicotine amide

D. Pantothenic acid

E. Nicotinic acid

Which vitamin is related to cofactor in glycine metabolism?

A. Thiamine

B. Folic acid

C. Pantothenic acid

D. Cobalamin

E. Tocopherol

Choose the vitamin, whose precursor is named as β-carotene:

A. Vitamin P

B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin A

Hydroxylation of endogenous subrates and xenobiotics requires a donor of protons. Which of the following vitamins can play this role?

A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin P

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin E

E. Vitamin A

Examination of a patient with frequent hemorrhages from internals and mucous membranes revealed proline and lysine being a part of collagen fibers. What vitamin absence caused disturbance of their hydroxylation?

A. Vitamin K

B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin A

E. Thiamine

On the ground of clinical presentations a patient was prescribed pyridoxal phosphate. This medication is recommended for correction of the following processes:

A. Desammation of purine nucleootides

B. Protein synthesis

C. Transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids

D. Synthesis of purine and perimidin bases

E. Oxidative decarboxylation of ketonic acids

Point out the vitamin, which is soluble in lipids:

A. Vitamin B1

B. Vitamin H

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin C

E. Vitamin PP

The structural analogue of vitamin B2 is administered (acriсhine) in a case of enterobiasis. The disorder of which enzyme synthesis is caused by this medicine in microorganisms?

A. Peptidases

B. Cytochrome oxidases

C. NAD-dependent dehydrogenases

D. Aminotransferases

E. FAD-dependent dehydrogenases

There is disturbed process of Ca2+ absorption through intestinal wall after the removal of gall bladder in patient:

A. C

B. B12

C. D3

D. K

E. PP

A woman who has been keeping to a clean-rice diet for a long time was diagnosed with polyneuritis (beriberi). What vitamin deficit results in development of this disease?

A. Folic acid

B. Riboflavin

C. Thiamine

D. Pyridoxine

E. Ascorbic acid

A 9-month-old infant is fed with artifical formulas with unbalanced vitamin B6 concentration. The infant presents with pellagral dermatitis, convulsions, anaemia. Convulsions development might be caused by the disturbed formation of:

A. GABA

B. DOPA

C. Histamine

D. Serotonin

E. Dopamine

During examination of an 11-month-old infant a pediatrician revealed osteoectasia of the lower extremities and delayed mineralization of cranial bones. Such pathology is usually provoked by the deficit of the following vitamin:

A. Thiamin

B. Pantothenic acid

C. Riboflavin

D. Bioflavonoids

E. Cholecalciferol

There is an inhibited coagulation in the patients with bile ducts obstruction, bleeding due to the low level of absorption of vitamin. What vitamin is in deficiency?

A. D

B. Carotene

C. K

D. A

E. E

Choose the vitamin, whose oxidation results in blue fluorescing product under UV-light:

A. Ascorbic acid

B. Rutin

C. Folic acid

D. Pyridoxine

E. Thiamine

The glycolysis duration is in need for one vitamin, only. Name it:

A. Thiamine

B. Nicotinic acid

C. Riboflavin

D. Ascorbic acid

E. Pyridoxal phosphate

A 6 y.o child was administered vicasol to prevent postoperative bleeding. Vicasol is a synthetic analogue of vitamin K. Name post-translation changes of blood coagulation factors that will be activated by vicasol:

A. Glycosylation

B. Polymerization

C. Partial proteolysis

D. Phosphorylation of serine radicals

E. Carboxylation of glutamic acid residues

Most participants of Magellan expedition to America died from avitaminosis. This disease declared itself by general weakness, subcutaneous hemmorhages, falling of teeth, gingival hemmorhages. What is the name of this avitaminosis?

A. Scurvy

B. Biermer's anemia

C. Rachitis

D. Polyneuritis (beriberi)

E. Pellagra

Choose the correct statement about vitamin K:

A. It is present in increased amount in cows and breast milk

B. It is helpful in preventing thrombosis

C. It is synthesized by intestinal bacteria

D. It is derived to coenzyme of &alpha-decarboxylases

E. It increases a coagulation time in infants with hemorrhagic diseases

Pyruvate concentration in the patient's urine has increased 10 times from normal amount. What vitamin deficiency can be the reason of this change:

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin B6

D. Vitamin B1

E. Vitamin E

A 2-year-old child has got intestinal dysbacteriosis, which results in hemorrhagic syndrome. What is the most likely cause of hemorrhage of the child?

A. Hypocalcemia

B. Vitamin K insufficiency

C. Activation of tissue thromboplastin

D. Fibrinogen deficiency

E. PP hypovitaminosis

After the disease a 16-year-old boy is presenting with decreased function of protein synthesis in the liver as a result of vitamin K deficiency. This may cause disorder of:

A. Blood coagulation

B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

C. Erythropoietin production

D. Anticoagulant production

E. Osmotic blood pressure

Find out the vitamin whose deficiency is associated with damaged transamination of amino acids:

A. Thiamine

B. Folic acid

C. Pyridoxine

D. Rutin

E. Ascorbic acid

Different functional groups may be found in the structure of L-amino acid residues of proteins. Identify the group that is able to form ester bond:

A. –SH

B. –NH[sub]2[/sub]

C. –CH[sub]3[/sub]

D. –OH

E. –CONH[sub]2[/sub]

The mixture of proteins can be separated by salting-out. Specify the reagent formula that is used for this purpose:

A. C[sub]6[/sub]H[sub]6[/sub]

B. HNO[sub]3[/sub]

C. H[sub]3[/sub]PO[sub]4[/sub]

D. C[sub]2[/sub]H[sub]5[/sub]OH

E. NaCl

Histones are related to basic proteins. That is because there is high content of basic amino acid residues in their structure. Point out these amino acids:

A. Аlanine, Glycine

B. Arginine, Lysine

C. Tryptophan, Tyrosine

D. Asparagine, Glutamine

E. Leucine, Valine

Point out the type of bond allowing the formation of alpha-helix structure:

A. Disulfide bond between two cysteine radicals

B. Hydrogen bonds between peptide fragments

C. Hydrogen bonds between side-chain radicals

D. Electrostatic interaction

E. Ester bond between side chain radicals

Proteins are obligatory components of human diet. Specify the function of proteins in this case:

A. Transport

B. Structural

C. Catalytic

D. Nutritive

E. Regulatory

Protonation and deprotonation at neutral pH occurs for one amino acid from following list. Point out it:

A. Histidine

B. Aspartic acid

C. Glycine

D. Alanine

E. Tryptophan

The proteins are able to carry out the regulatory function. Find out those protein:

A. Insulin

B. Immunoglobulin G

C. Aminopeptidase

D. Collagen

E. Hemoglobin

How many polypeptide chains (the least number) may be represented in quaternary structure of protein molecule?

A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

E. Five

The yellow color sediment appearance after the addition of strong nitric acid to albumin solution is due to the presence of aromatic acid residues in protein composition. Choose those one:

A. L-alanine

B. L-tyrosine

C. L-methionine

D. L-serine

E. L-proline

Alpha- helix and Beta -pleated sheet are examples of:

A. Primary structure

B. Quaternary structure

C. Tertiary structure

D. All positions are wrong

E. Secondary structure

What class of proteins Albumins and Globulins are related to?

A. Metalloproteins

B. Glycoproteins

C. Simple proteins

D. Chromoproteins

E. Lipoproteins

The solubility of proteins in saline solutions is determined by their native structure. Point out the protein, which will swell only in saline solution:

A. Immunoglobulin

B. Pepsin

C. Myoglobin

D. Elastin

E. Albumin

All proteins are divided into simple and conjugated ones. Find out the simple proteins among these ones:

A. Albumin of egg

B. Globulin of egg

C. Protamine

D. Histone

E. All the proteins presented

All are aromatic amino acids EXCEPT:

A. All the positions are correct

B. Lysine

C. Tyrosine

D. Phenylalanine

E. Tryptophan

Protein properties may be changed under the influence of some factors. Find out them:

A. The temperature of the environment

B. Strong acidic medium

C. Strong alkaline medium

D. Organic solvent

E. All the factors that are present

Polypeptide chains of collagen include specific amino acids. Name one of them:

A. Formyl-methyonine

B. Hydroxyproline

C. Ornithine

D. Beta-alanine

E. Cysteine

What physical-chemical property is observed for fibrous protein only?

A. Elasticity

B. Amphoteric properties

C. Solubility in water

D. Solubility in lipids

E. Denaturation and renaturation

Half saturation test using salting-out is done for:

A. Fibrin

B. Globulin

C. Haemoglobin

D. Prothrombin

E. Albumin

There are many important protein functions in the human organism. Point out that of them, which isn't peculiar for proteins – to be :

A. Antibody

B. Catalyst

C. Transfer of substances

D. Solvent

E. Structural component of a cell

The polypeptide chain gets the globular structure after the formation of various bonds between the radicals of amino acid residues. Specify the strongest bond in the globular structure:

A. Hydrogen bond

B. Sodium hydroxide

C. Hydrophobic interaction

D. Disulfide bond

E. Donor-acceptor bond

F. Electrostatic interaction

The isoelectric point (I.P.) of a protein depends upon the amino acids composition of the protein. Choose the amino acid which high content in protein molecule decreases its I.P. value:

A. Aspartic acid

B. Аlanine

C. Leucine

D. Histidine

E. Tryptophan

The tertiary structure of protein is formed mainly due to disulfide bonds between side radicals of one amino acid, only. Point out it:

A. Lys

B. His

C. Met

D. Asp

E. Cys

Which of the following bonds are intact during denaturation of proteins:

A. Ionic bonds

B. All positions are correct

C. Peptide bonds

D. Hydrogen bonds

E. Hydrophobic bonds

Ninhydrin is a reagent to prove the presence of alpha-amino group in the structure of amino acid due to change of its color (violet color is observed). Choose the amino acid whose solution changes the color of this reagent in other way – it becomes yellow:

A. L-methionine

B. L-serine

C. L-tyrosine

D. L-proline

E. L-alanine

Biuret test is mainly done for:

A. Any of the proposed

B. Polysaccharides

C. Lipids

D. Dipeptides

E. Proteins

What type of amino acids mainly is represented as residues in proteins of human body?

A. D-alpha-imino acids

B. L-alpha-amino acids

C. D-beta-amino acids

D. L-beta-amino acids

E. D-alpha-amino acids

Choose the factor that causes the sedimentation of protein in solution without denaturation:

A. Toluene

B. Nitric acid

C. Sodium hydroxide

D. Sulfuric acid

E. Ammonia sulfate

The content of these amino acids in the composition of acidic protein Pepsin is too big in comparison with the content of other amino acids in it. Name them:

A. Aspartic acid and Glutamic acid

B. Alanine and Glycine

C. Lysine and Arginine

D. Tyrosine and Tryptophan

E. Valine and Leucine

Primary structure of proteins is formed due to one type of bonds. Point out it:

A. Metal bond

B. Hydrogen bond

C. Ester bond

D. Peptide bond

E. Disulfide bond

The isoelectric point of simple protein equals 7.2. Propose the pH of buffer solution used for the electrophoresis method to separate this protein from the mixture with a condition to leave it on the start line of carrier:

A. pH=7.0

B. pH=7.4

C. pH=7.6

D. pH=7.2

E. pH=5.0

What amino acid high content presence in the composition of polypeptide chain does not allow the formation of alpha-helical structure as secondary level of organization?

A. Threonine

B. Proline

C. Glycine

D. Serine

E. Alanine

The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. Point out shape of these proteins:

A. Globular

B. All the proposed

C. Stretch of beads

D. Fibrous

E. Planar

The molecule of simple protein insulin contains two polypeptide chains. Specify the level of protein organization, at which the insulin is able to act as hormone:

A. A conformation after limited proteolysis

B. Secondary

C. Quaternary

D. Primary

E. Tertiary

Which method is appropriate for the determination of total protein content in the blood serum:

A. Salting out

B. Electrophoresis

C. Dialysis

D. Fole’s test

E. Biuretic method

There is the use of electrophoresis for separation of proteins of blood plasma to prove diagnosis of diseased persons. Name the property of proteins that is the basis for the principle of electrophoresis method:

A. The high viscosity of the solution

B. The net charge of the molecule

C. The big mass of the molecule

D. Optical activity

E. The ability of swelling

Toxic affection of liver results in dysfunction of protein synthesis. It is usually accompanied by the following kind of dysproteinemia:

A. Absolute hyperproteinemia

B. Relative hyperproteinemia

C. Absolute hypoproteinemia

D. Paraproteinemia

E. Relative hypoproteinemia

The diseased person with diagnosis acute kidney insufficiency is in urological department of hospital. Choose the method for cleaning of this person`s blood from low-molecular compounds which can cause toxic effect in the organism:

A. Electrophoresis

B. Salting-out

C. Hydrolysis

D. Dialysis

E. Affine chromotography

Point out a possible cause of hypoproteinemia:

A. Paraproteinemia

B. Affected liver cells

C. Overeating

D. Multiple myeloma

E. Decreased permeability of the capillary wall

Flavoproteins are usually catalysts in a cell due to the presence of special vitamin fragment in their structure. Name this vitamin:

A. Nicotin amide

B. Folic acid

C. Riboflavin

D. Ascorbic acid

E. Pantothenic acid

Name the location of deoxyribonucleoproteins in eukaryotic cell, but not in the nucleus:

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Mitochondria

C. Lisosome

D. Microsome

E. Cytoplasma

Albumins of blood plasma are negative charged under the condition of electrophoresis method duration. What electrode type will you choose for albumins directed movement in the electric field?

A. Silk electrode

B. Carbon electrode

C. Catode

D. Anode

E. Calomel electrode

Name the class of proteins used for the formation of ribosome subunits:

A. Phosphoproteins

B. Glycoproteins

C. Lipoproteins

D. Flavoproteins

E. Ribonucleoproteins

Triacylglycerols (TG) are synthesized in the liver but are stored in adipose tissue. Name the class of proteins promoted the transport of TG from the liver to adipocytes:

A. Metalloproteins

B. Phosphoproteins

C. Lipoproteins

D. Glycoproteins

E. Chromoproteins

Choose the conjugated protein in possession of following characteristics: quaternary structure - 4 polypeptide chains; non-protein part – 4 hemes; function – oxygen transport in the blood:

A. Ceruloplasmin

B. Low Density Lipoprotein

C. Immunoglobulin

D. Albumin

E. Hemoglobin

It is in need to use the heme with iron ion for the active centers of cytochrome C oxidase (the key enzyme of tissue respiration). Name the class of this conjugated protein:

A. Glycoproteins

B. Lipoproteins

C. Chromoproteins

D. Nucleoproteins

E. Flavoproteins

The enzyme preparation cytochrome C is used for the improvement of tissue respiration in newborns at asphyxia state. Name the class of this conjugated protein:

A. Chromoproteins

B. Flavoproteins

C. Nucleoproteins

D. Lipoproteins

E. Glycoproteins

Proteoglycans are conjugated proteins containing different polypeptide chains of core protein and glucose aminoglycan moiety. Choose the class of conjugated protein that is related to proteoglycan:

A. Phosphoprotein

B. Nucleoprotein

C. Chromoprotein

D. Glycoprotein

E. Lipoprotein

The electrophoresis method is used for the separation of blood plasma proteins. Name the parameter of the protein molecule that is in need to determine the pH of buffer solution for separation of proteins in electrophoresis method:

A. The mass of the molecule

B. The solubility in lipids

C. The diameter of the molecule

D. The solubility in the water

E. Isoelectric point

What compound serves as non-protein part of glycoproteins:

A. Phospholipid

B. Galactose

C. Ferric ion

D. Copper ion

E. Heme

The phosphorylation (the attraction of phosphate group to the substrate) of polypeptide chain is often used for stimulation of biological activity of a protein. Name the class of conjugated protein formed due to phosphorylation:

A. Nucleoproteins

B. Glycoproteins

C. Phosphoproteins

D. Lipoproteins

E. Chromoproteins

Ultracentrifugation is in need in biochemical investigations for:

A. The determination of primary structure of proteins

B. The separation of low-molecular compounds

C. The study of three-dimensional structure of the molecule

D. The receiving of subcellular fractions of a cell

E. The investigation of chemical composition of organic compound

All the proteins are divided into simple and conjugated ones. Find out the conjugated protein among these ones:

A. Histone

B. Egg albumin

C. Protamine

D. Egg globulin

E. Myoglobin

Complex proteins do various functions. Find out the function of hemoglobin in erythrocytes:

A. Protection against viruses

B. Transport function

C. Regulatory function

D. Nutrition function

E. Catalytic function

Which group of proteins being phosphoproteins posses an activity but being dephosphorylated has lost the activity:

A. Carriers through membrane

B. Hormones

C. Enzymes

D. Transfer of lipids

E. Transfer of vitamins

Which method is better suited to separate a mixture of compounds into its individual components and detects small amounts (microgram or even picogram) of material:

A. Salting out

B. Dialysis

C. Ultracentrifugation

D. Spectrophotometry

E. Paper chromatography

Ceruloplasmin (the protein of blood plasma) contains copper ion and therefore has blue color. Name the class of this protein:

A. Glycoproteins

B. Chromoproteins

C. Nucleoprotein

D. Phosphoproteins

E. Lipoproteins

Choose, please, the blood serum index used for estimation of hyperproteinemia state:

A. The total activity of all the enzymes

B. The content of albumins

C. The amino acid concentration

D. The content of acute phase proteins

E. The total content of proteins

The conjugated protein necessarily contains special component as a non-protein part. Choose the substance that can't carry out this function:

A. Salt of Hg[sup]2+

B. AMP

C. Thiamine pyrophosphate

D. ATP

E. Glucose

The conjugated protein necessarily contains special component as a non-protein part. Choose the substance that can't carry out this function:

A. Phosphate anion

B. Heme

C. Monosaccharide

D. HNO3

E. Fe[sup]2+

Point out a possible cause of hyperproteinemia

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Increased permeability of the capillary wall

C. Infection (disturbed the macrophage system)

D. Nephritic syndrome

E. Affected gastrointestinal tract

The hormone receptors are related to the class of conjugated proteins. Name it:

A. Chromoproteins

B. Glycoproteins

C. Flavoproteins

D. Lipoproteins

E. Nucleoproteins

The catalytic site of active center of enzyme is used for:

A. Binding with the substrate

B. Removal of a product of the reaction

C. Binding with activator

D. Conversion of a substrate in the reaction

E. Binding with inhibitor

Oxidoreductase can contain prosthetic group with vitamin B2. Name it:

A. Retinal

B. Ascorbic acid

C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)

D. Pyridoxal phosphate

E. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)

In case of enterobiasis acrihine - the structural analogue of vitamin B2 - is administered. The synthesis disorder of which enzymes does this medicine cause in microorganisms?

A. Aminotransferases

B. FAD-dependent dehydrogenases

C. Peptidases

D. Cytochromeoxidases

E. NAD-dependet dehydrogenases

The enzyme hexokinase can catalyze the conversion of glucose or fructose in tissues. Find out the type of this enzyme specificity:

A. Relative group

B. Absolute

C. Absolute group

D. Absolute relative

E. Stereochemical

One of the important properties of enzymes is their specificity of action. Check up a type of specificity for salivary amylase:

A. Absolute relative

B. Absolute group

C. Absolute

D. Relative group

E. Stereochemical

Some terms are used for the description of non-protein part of an enzyme. Point out the term for non-protein part that easily dissociates from polypeptide chain:

A. Apoenzyme

B. Metal ions

C. Cofactor

D. Prosthetic group

E. Coenzyme

LDH1 and LDH2 levels are raised in the following organ damage:

A. Brain, bones, liver

B. Liver, brain, kidney

C. Heart, RBC

D. Brain, heart, liver

E. Heart, kidney, liver

The oxidation of a substrate may be catalyzed by enzyme - flavoprotein that contains FAD as prosthetic group. Name, please, the vitamin used for this non-protein part of enzyme formation:

A. Ascorbic acid

B. Nicotinamide

C. Biotin

D. Riboflavin

E. Adenosine triphosphate

Coenzyme forms are correctly matched to vitamins except one. Point out it:

A. Niacin – NAD+ + NADP+

B. Pantothenic acid – CoASH

C. Vitamin B1 - ATP

D. Vitamin B2 – FMN + FAD

E. Biotin – carboxylated biotin

There are different cofactors in the structure of conjugated enzymes but only one is used for transfer of amine group from amino acid to keto acid. Name it:

A. Carboxybiotin

B. Thiamine pyrophosphate

C. Pyridoxal phosphate

D. NAD+

E. FAD

Some terms are used for the description enzyme components. Point out the term of a protein part of conjugated enzyme:

A. Metal ions

B. Cofactor

C. Apoenzyme

D. Prosthetic group

E. Coenzyme

Which of the following is the reaction that is catalyzed by lyase:

A. Oxidation

B. Oxidative decarboxylation

C. Acetylation

D. Dehydration

E. Hydrolysis

ATP molecules may be used for Transferases and Ligases function. Point out the signs of ATP use for Ligases class:

A. ATP is used for hydrolysis of a substrate bond

B. ATP is used for a substrate decarboxylation.

C. ATP is used for the new bond formation during the interaction of two substrates

D. ATP is used for a substrate dephosphorylation

E. ATP is used for a substrate phosphorylation

Only one factor can influence on the charge of amino acid radicals in the enzyme active centre. Name it:

A. pH medium

B. The presence of a competitive inhibitor

C. Temperature

D. The surplus of a reaction product

E. Pressure

Researchers isolated five isozymes of Lactate dehydrogenase from human blood serum and studied their properties. What property of these isozymes indicates that they are genetic forms of the same enzyme?

A. The same electrophoretic mobility

B. The same net charge of the molecule

C. The same tissue localization

D. They have the same molecular weight

E. They catalyze the same reaction

Enzymes mediating transfer of a structural fragment from one molecule to another are:

A. Ligases

B. Oxidases

C. Lyases

D. Transferases

E. Peptidases

Point out the factor that can cause the damage of enzyme function in a cell:

A. The surplus of protons in a cell

B. The presence of a product of enzymatic reaction

C. pH medium about 7.2

D. Temperature 37oC

E. The presence of activator of enzyme

Chymotrypsin is the proteolytic enzyme catalyzing the cleavage of peptide bonds in any protein molecule. Name the class of this enzyme:

A. Isomerase

B. Oxidoreductase

C. Hydrolase

D. Lyase

E. Ligase

The relative group specificity may be found for enzymes catalyzing the digestion of proteins in the gastrointestinal tract. Find out their trivial name:

A. Transaminase

B. Protein kinase

C. Urease

D. Protein phosphatase

E. Peptidase

The change of the temperature of environment from 0oC to 38oC can cause this effect on enzyme molecule:

A. A denaturation of enzymes occurs

B. Enzyme action specificity varies

C. The enzyme molecular charge changes

D. The substrate molecular charge changes

E. The probability of enzyme-substrate complex formation is increased

F.

In clinical practice tuberculosis is treated with izoniazid preparation – that is an anti-vitamin able to penetrate into the tuberculosis bacillus. Tuberculostatic effect is induced by the interference with replication processes and oxidation-reduction reactions due to the buildup of pseudo-coenzyme:

A. CoQ

B. TDP

C. NAD

D. FAD

E. FMN

A qualitative composition of product molecule is completely identical to substrate one, but the structure is different. Name the enzyme class:

A. Hydrolase

B. Isomerase

C. Lyase

D. Ligase

E. Oxidoreductase

Name, please, the principle base used for the classification of enzymes:

A. Chemical structure of enzyme

B. Type of chemical reaction catalyzed by enzyme

C. Type of energy conversion

D. Chemical structure of non-protein part of the enzyme

E. Chemical structure of products for enzymatic reaction

Name the vitamins whose derivatives are used for the formation of oxidoreductase structure:

A. H, D

B. C, P

C. B6, B9

D. B2, B3

E. A, E

There are some factors influencing human enzyme activity. Point out one of them resulting in complete loss of enzymatic activity:

A. Vitamin H

B. Sodium chloride solution

C. P =101325 Pa

D. Сarbon dioxide

E. T = 100o C

There are some characteristic sites in the enzyme structure. Choose the most important site for enzyme function:

A. Apoenzyme

B. Active centre

C. Allosteric centre

D. Cofactor

E. A site containing Asp and Glu

Enzymes are the catalysts of protein nature. Name the property of enzymes which is not represented at the inorganic catalysts:

A. Big half-life

B. Ability to lowering the energy to activate the reaction

C. Inert to chemical substrates

D. Ability to the denaturation

E. Wide specificity

Which bond is cleaved by Alpha amylase in oral cavity?

A. Beta 1-6 glycosidic

B. Beta 1-4 glycosidic

C. Ester bond in any ester structure

D. Alpha 1-4 glycosidic

E. Alpha 1-6 glycosidic

The pancreatic amylase is in need to cleave the alpha-1.4-glycosidic bonds in the structure of polysaccharides using the water as the substrate. Specify the class of this enzyme:

A. Lyase

B. Isomerase

C. Hydrolase

D. Ligase

E. Oxido reductase

Conjugated enzymes contain cofactors in their structure. Point out the location of vitamin derivative cofactor in the structure of enzyme:

A. Allosteric centre

B. Near the metal-ion-cofactor in the structure

C. Hydrophobic fragment of structure

D. Hydrophilic fragment of structure

E. Active centre

The active centre of simple enzyme is composed from:

A. Linear fragment of polypeptide chain

B. The cofactor and prosthetic group

C. The terminal amino acid residues

D. One polypeptide chain completely

E. Some amino acid residues of polypeptide chain placed in the same spatial fragment

“All biological catalysts are not proteins” This statement is justified by this notion:

A. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions

B. Metal ions are involved in attachment to enzymes

C. RNAs can act as ribozymes

D. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis-Menten hypothesis

E. Enzyme activity may be controlled by hormones

Covalent catalysis as mechanism of enzyme catalysis was studied in experimental works with one proteolytic enzyme. Find out it:

A. Aldolase

B. Decarboxylase

C. Chymotrypsin

D. Pepsin

E. Glucoisomerase

Competitive inhibitor always interacts with enzyme active centre. Find out the explanation of this phenomenon:

A. Inhibitor is similar to the product's structure

B. Inhibitor causes the denaturation of active centre

C. Inhibitor is similar to a substrate structure

D. Inhibitor forms a covalent type of bonds with amino acid residues of active centre

E. Inhibitor is an exact copy of a substrate structure

The regulation of the enzymatic activity is carried out by different ways. Point out the way that is used more often in the regulation of key enzymes:

A. The change of pH medium

B. Competitive inhibition

C. Activation by Ca2+

D. Limited proteolysis

E. Allosteric regulation

Choose the name of scientists whose experiments are recognized as the basis in understanding of “induced fit” theory for mechanism of enzymatic reaction:

A. Fisher E.

B. Koshland D.

C. Haldane R.

D. Menten M.

E. Michaelis L.

Disopropyl phosphofluoride (DFP) reacts with serine proteases irreversibly and therefore is:

A. Affinity label

B. Allosteric inhibitor

C. Non-competitive inhibitor

D. Competitive inhibitor

E. A stimulator

Succinate dehydrogenase catalyses the dehydrogenation of succinate. Malonic acid HOOC-CH2-COOH is used to interrupt the action of this enzyme. Choose the inhibition type:

A. Limited proteolysis

B. Allosteric

C. Dephosphorylation

D. Competitive

E. Non-competitive

Choose the method that is more often used for the determination of inhibitor type:

A. Michaelis-Menten graphical method

B. Nuclear magnetic resonance method

C. Eadie-Hofstee graphical method

D. Lineweaver-Burk graphical method

E. Briggs-Haldane graphical method

Covalent modification of inactive form of enzyme may be catalyzed by special enzyme in a cell. Name it:

A. Hydroxylase

B. Protein kinase

C. Esterase

D. Ligase

E. Oxygenase

Cholesterol synthesis is regulated by feed-back mechanism. Name the allosteric inhibitor of key enzyme for this synthesis:

A. Glucose

B. NADPH

C. ADP

D. Cholesterol

E. ATP

Glycogen phosphorylase b is transformed to the active form a by the action of special kinase with the use of ATP as donor of phosphate group. Find out, please, the type of enzyme activation:

A. Competitive inhibition

B. Activation by Ca2+

C. Limited proteolysis

D. The change of pH medium

E. Covalent modification

The affinity of enzyme molecule to a substrate may be estimated using the value of:

A. pH of the environment

B. The temperature

C. Vmax for reaction duration

D. Km for the enzyme

E. The initial velocity of the reaction

The common feature of an enzyme-cascade system regulation is:

A. Suicide inhibition

B. Feed back inhibition

C. Amplification

D. Competitive inhibition

E. Counter-regulation

Point out the activator used for the determination of amylase activity:

A. H3PO4

B. Ca2+

C. NaCl

D. CuSO4

E. ATP

Salivary amylase activity may be decreased by:

A. The change of pH from 6,8 to the value 5,5

B. All the changes described may be in need

C. The increase of temperature from 38oC to 65oC

D. The decrease of temperature from 38o C to 25oC

E. The addition of copper sulfate

Choose the factor that changes the cytoplasmic enzyme conformation mainly:

A. Environmental temperature value about 25o C

B. Allosteric inhibitor

C. Suicide inhibitor

D. Environmental pH value about 7.4

E. Water

A majority of key enzymes contain the allosteric centre. Specify a role of this centre:

A. It blocks the active centre

B. It promotes the dissociation of a coenzyme

C. It changes the structure of the substrate

D. It attaches the substrate

E. It attaches the regulatory factor

E. Fisher`s theory explains the mechanism of enzyme action with the fixed type of specificity, only. Name it:

A. Stereochemical

B. Absolute

C. Relative group

D. Absolute relative

E. Absolute group

Name, please, the factors that must be in constant levels during the investigation of enzyme concentration influence the velocity of enzymatic reaction:

A. Activator concentration

B. Substrate concentration

C. All the factors proposed must be in constant levels

D. The temperature

E. pH of the environment

Point out the type of bonds that are formed between Ser, Tyr and Cys residues in active centre of the enzyme and the molecule of substrate containing functional group: --COOH:

A. Ester and hydrogen bonds

B. Disulfide bond and hydrophobic interaction

C. Disulfide and ester bonds

D. Hydrophobic interactions, only

E. Ester bond and hydrophobic interaction

Suicide type of inhibition is considered when:

A. There is the intermediate metabolite formation from the inhibitor which tightly binds to the active centre of enzyme to block it

B. The product of reaction is the allosteric inhibitor for enzyme

C. The inhibitor structure is similar to substrate one

D. The end-product of reaction binds to the structure of the substrate to give non-soluble complex

E. The end-product of reaction is not removed from the environment

Name, please, the equation for V-[S] dependence for the moment of complete saturation of all the active centers of enzyme molecules:

A. V=Vmax •[S]/Km+[S]

B. V=Vmax / Km + [S]

C. V=Vmax

D. V=k• [S]

E. V= k•Vmax

Find out, please, the factor used to change the charge of functional groups both in the active centre of enzyme and in the substrate molecule:

A. The addition of activator to the environment

B. The pH of environment

C. The addition of competitive inhibitor to the environment

D. The temperature of environment

E. All the factors proposed may be in need

Name, please, the inhibitor for salivary amylase:

A. Hydrogen peroxide

B. Copper sulfate

C. Potassium cyanide

D. Sodium chloride

E. Alanine

Point out the probable way of proenzyme transformation to the active enzyme:

A. Inhibitor action

B. Decarboxylation

C. Vitamin non-protein part dissociation from enzyme

D. Dehydration

E. Limited proteolysis

The common enzymatic reaction may be represented so: E + S <-> ES <-> ES <-> EP <-> E + P. Try to name using this equation all the factors that can influence the rate of this reaction:

A. The concentration of a substrate, enzyme and product, only

B. The concentration of enzyme, only

C. The concentration of a substrate, enzyme, product and stability of ES-complex

D. The concentration of enzyme-substrate complex, only

E. The concentration of a substrate, only

Heme synthesis starts from glycine and succinyl-SCoA interaction with delta-aminolevulinate synthetase help. It is inhibited by the terminal metabolic product - heme. Name the inhibition type:

A. Uncompetitive Inhibition

B. Limited proteolysis

C. Non-competitive Inhibition

D. Feedback Inhibition

E. Competitive Inhibition

Sulfonamides are used as drugs to protect our organism from some foreign bacteria. Enzyme in bacterial cell producing folic acid from para-aminobenzoate is inhibited by this group of drugs. Choose the type of inhibition for sulfonamides:

A. Noncompetitive

B. Uncompetitive

C. Suicide

D. Allosteric

E. Competitive

The formation of ES complex is due to various types of bonds between E and S. Specify the type of bond, which is usually formed between charged functional groups in this case:

A. Hydrophobic interaction

B. Hydrogen bond

C. Peptide bond

D. Donor-acceptor bond

E. Electrostatic interaction

The cytoplasm fraction of tissue homogenate has been obtained for some enzyme activity determination. Point out the enzyme whose activity may be determined in this fraction:

A. Pepsin

B. Glucokinase

C. Urease

D. Maltase

E. Trypsin

Find out the parameter that is changed in the incubation phase of experimental test tube for the determination of choline esterase activity in the blood plasma:

A. The acetylcholine concentration

B. All the positions are right

C. The choline concentration

D. The acetic acid content

E. The pH

Twelve hours after an accute attack of retrosternal pain a patient presented a jump of aspartate aminotransferase activity in blood serum. What pathology is this deviation typical for?

A. Diabetes insipidus

B. Myocardium infarction

C. Diabetes mellitus

D. Collagenosis

E. Viral hepatitis

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is multiple enzyme system because it contains:

A. Two enzymes and five coenzymes

B. Three enzymes and three coenzymes

C. Five enzymes and five coenzymes

D. Three enzymes and five coenzymes

E. Two enzymes and one coenzyme

Total activity of enzyme depends on the:

A. pH medium

B. Enzyme concentration

C. Temperature medium

D. All the factors described

E. Substrate concentration

A patient is diagnosed with cardiac infarction. Blood test for cardio-specific enzymes activity was performed. Which of enzymes has three isoforms?

A. Creatine kinase

B. Alanine transaminase

C. Aspartate transaminase

D. Pyruvate kinase

E. Lactate dehydrogenase

During metabolic process active forms of the oxygen including superoxide anion radical are formed in the human body. With help of what enzyme is this anion inactivated?

A. Peroxidase

B. Catalase

C. Glutathione peroxidase

D. Superoxide dismutase

E. Glutathione reductase

Find out the pathological state associated with the decrease of choline esterase activity in the blood serum of patient

A. Gout

B. Acute pancreatitis

C. Myeloma

D. Influenza

E. Viral hepatitis

Profuse foam appeared when dentist put hydrogen peroxide on the mucous of the oral cavity. What enzyme caused such activity?

A. Glucose-6-phosphatdehydrogenase

B. Acetyltransferase

C. Methemoglobinreductase

D. Cholinesterase

E. Catalase

Find out the activator used for amylase activity determination in the urine of patient:

A. Pyruvate

B. Starch

C. Copper sulfate

D. Ammonia sulfate

E. Sodium chloride

Marked increase of activity of МВ-forms of CPK (creatine phosphokinase) and LDH-1 were revealed on the examination of the patient's blood. What is the most likely pathology?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Hepatitis

C. Miocardial infarction

D. Rheumatism

E. Cholecystitis

Patient’s amylase activity in the urine excesses the normal values in ten times as much. Point out the possible diagnosis:

A. Angina

B. Viral hepatitis

C. Influenza

D. Diabetes mellitus

E. Sharp pancreatitis

LDH1 and LDH2 levels are raised in the following organ damage

A. Brain, heart, liver

B. Heart, RBC, kidney

C. Heart, kidney, liver

D. Brain, bones, liver

E. Liver, brain, kidney

6 hours after the myocardial infarction a patient was found to have elevated level of lactate dehydrogenase in blood. What isozyme should be expected in this case?

A. LDH1

B. LDH5

C. LDH3

D. LDH4

E. LDH2

Point out the signs of multiple enzyme systems (MS):

A. All that is described is right

B. The MS enzymes form several different metabolic products at once

C. The MS enzymes are united by their intracellular localization

D. The MS enzymes form a single structural-functional complex

Find out the parameters that are in need to calculate specific activity of enzyme:

A. The pH value of the environment and turnover number

B. The volume of the test sample and total activity

C. The product concentration in the test sample and total activity

D. Turnover number and total activity

E. The protein content in the test sample and total activity

A patient presents high activity of LDH1, LDH2, aspartate aminotransferase, creatine phosphokinase. In what organ (organs) is the development of a pathological process the most probable?

A. In the heart muscle (initial stage of myocardium infarction)

B. In connective tissue

C. In kidneys and adrenals

D. In skeletal muscles (dystrophy, atrophy)

E. In liver and kidneys

Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) isozymes catalyze the transformation of pyruvate to lactic acid in different types of tissues. Point out the structural distinctive peculiarity of each LDH isozyme:

A. Different active center structure

B. Different by the quantity of subunits

C. Different by the type of coenzyme in native molecule

D. Different level of structural organization in native molecule

E. Different by the combination of subunits, forming a native molecule

The activity of choline esterase in the blood serum of patient equals 95 micromole/sec• L. Propose, please, the way for the transformation of this value into units [mmole/Lmin]:

A. Multiple this result into 1000 times, only

B. Divide this result into 1000 times, and multiple on 60

C. Divide this result into 60, only

D. Divide this result into 1000, only

E. Multiple this result into 60 times, only

Krebs Cycle is an amphiobolic way. Choose the explanation of this sentence:

A. The process forms NADH

B. One mole of ATP is formed in one cycle

C. The process forms CO[sub]2[/sub] and H[sub]2[/sub]O

D. Metabolites of Krebs Cycle may be used in anabolic pathways

E. The process is in mitochondrion

The accumulation of NADH in the matrix of mitochondria is the signal to inhibit:

A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. Fumarase

C. Citrate lyase

D. Malate dehydrogenase

E. Cis-Aconitase

Name, please, the enzyme from Krebs cycle catalyzing the substrate phosphorylation:

A. Fumarase

B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

C. Citrate synthase

D. Succinyl-CoA thiokinase

E. Malate dehydrogenase

Name, please, the initial substrates for Krebs cycle (first reaction):

A. Lactate and acetyl-CoA

B. Oxaloacetate, only

C. Pyruvate and oxaloacetate

D. Citric acid, only

E. Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate

The increase of one substrate concentration occurs the mitochondrial matrix during the inhibition of Citrate synthetase in the Krebs Cycle. Find out this substrate:

A. Malate

B. Acetyl ~ SCoA

C. Alpha-Ketoglutarate

D. Glucose

E. Fumarate

Name, please, the process that is related to the second phase of catabolic pathways in humans:

A. Gluconeogenesis

B. Glycolysis

C. Krebs cycle

D. Ammonia utilization in Urea cycle

E. Proteolysis

Propose the correct continuation of the phrase: “Citric Acid Cycle is…”:

A. The main producer of reduced forms of coenzymes

B. Anabolic process

C. Placed in cytoplasm of a cell

D. Tissue respiration phase III

E. The main producer of energy for erythrocytes

How many moles of high energy bond containing compound are produced due to substrate phosphorylation in one round of Citric Acid Cycle:

A. One

B. Four

C. Two

D. Three

E. Twelve

Krebs cycle does not occur in:

A. Liver

B. RBC

C. All the positions are right

D. Heart

E. Skeletal Muscle

Vitamin B[sub]1[/sub] (coenzyme TPP) is necessary for only one dehydrogenase function in Krebs Cycle. Point out it:

A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. Lactate dehydrogenase

C. Malate dehydrogenase

D. Succinate dehydrogenase

E. Alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Exogenous substances may be involved in catabolic pathways to be used as energy sources for humans EXCEPT:

A. Vitamins

B. Amino acids

C. Alcohol

D. Fatty acids

E. Monosaccharides

The rate limited step for Citric Acid Cycle duration is the reaction catalyzed by:

A. Malate dehydrogenase

B. Citrate synthase

C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

D. Alpa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

E. Cis-Aconitase

Find out the competitive inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase:

A. Malic Acid

B. Magnesium ion

C. Citric Acid

D. Fumaric acid

E. Malonic acid

All these metabolic pathways or processes take place inside the mitochondria except:

A. Fatty acid beta-oxidation

B. Krebs cycle

C. Glycolysis

D. Urea cycle

E. Oxidative phosphorylation

Name, please, the key metabolite, that may be formed in catabolic pathway both for glucose and palmitic acid in aerobic condition, only:

A. Pyruvate

B. Acetyl-CoA

C. Lactate

D. Oxaloacetate

E. Malate

Find out, please, the enzyme whose activity is inhibited mainly under the accumulation of ATP in the matrix of mitochondria:

A. Citrate synthase

B. Aconitase

C. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

D. Fumarase

E. Malate dehydrogenase

Energy production is due to catabolic pathways only. Name those one:

A. Glycogenesis

B. Citric Acid Cycle

C. Gluconeogenesis

D. Fatty Acid Elongation

E. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt

Choose, please, the transformation of intermediate metabolites of Krebs cycle required the function of multienzyme complex:

A. Alpha-ketoglutarate--> succinyl-CoA

B. Fumarate--> malate

C. Isocitrate --> alpha-ketoglutarate

D. Malate --> oxaloacetate

E. Citrate-->cis-aconitate

Oxidative decarboxylation reactions occur two times in Citric Acid Cycle, but the mechanism of these reactions is not the same. Choose the conversion that may be named as oxidative decarboxylation and catalyzed by multienzyme system:

A. Alpa-ketoglutarate is converted to Succinyl-CoA

B. Succinate is converted to Fumarate

C. Isocitrate is converted to Alpa-ketoglutarate

D. Citrate is converted to Cis-Aconitate

E. Malate is converted to Oxaloacetate

Name, please, the class of organic compound usually used as energy source for anabolic pathways in humans:

A. Nucleoside triphosphates

B. Nucleosides

C. Alcohols

D. Carboxylic acids

E. Monosaccharides

Name, please, the conversion of Krebs cycle regulated by inhibitor malonic acid

A. Succinyl-CoA-->succinate

B. Succinate-->fumarate

C. Malate--> oxaloacetate

D. Isocitrate--> alpha-ketoglutarate

E. Fumarate--> malate

Name, please, the organic compound formed in Krebs cycle due to substrate phosphorylation:

A. GTP

B. ATP

C. GDP

D. Isocitrate

E. Citrate

Two reactions of Krebs Cycle are named as oxidative decarboxylation. Point out the enzyme for this type of reaction:

A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. cis-Aconitate hydratase

C. Succinate dehydrogenase

D. Succinyl~SCoA synthase

E. Citrate synthase

Magnesium and Manganese ions are in need for the function of one enzyme from this register, only. Point out it:

A. Aconitase

B. Fumarase

C. Succinate dehydrogenase

D. Malate dehydrogenase

E. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Krebs cycle is regulated by the ATP/ADP ratio in aerobic cell. Point out the value of this ratio that causes the stimulation of Krebs Cycle duration:

A. _3

B. _1

C. _2.5

D. _5

E. _0.5

Name the regulatory enzyme from Citric Acid Cycle whose activity is stimulated by allosteric activator ADP at condition of its accumulation in the matrix of mitochondria:

A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. Cis-Aconitase

C. Alpa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

D. Citrate synthase

E. Succinate dehydrogenase

Isocitrate was used as an oxidized substrate in the experiment with isolated mitochondria. Specify the substance that can inhibit the isocitrate oxidative decarboxylation:

A. ATP

B. Glucose

C. ADP

D. Citrate

E. cAMP

How many stages are considered in catabolic pathway for glucose up to the terminal products (carbon dioxide and water):

A. One

B. Two

C. Five

D. Four

E. Three

Nucleoside triphosphate is formed in Krebs Cycle. Point out its abbreviation:

A. GTP

B. CTP

C. ATP

D. UTP

E. TTP

Fluroacetate inhibits:

A. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

B. Malate dehydrogenase

C. Succinate dehydrogenase

D. Cis-Aconitase

E. Citrate synthetase

Amphybolic process must include intermediate metabolites which are involved in both anabolic and catabolic pathways of a cell. Choose those one:

A. All the proposed

B. Citric Acid Cycle

C. Glycolysis

D. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt

E. Malate-aspartate shuttle system

Only one dehydrogenase of Krebs Cycle has the non-protein part FAD. Name it:

A. Malate dehydrogenase

B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

D. Alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

E. Succinate dehydrogenase

Name substances which are really terminal products for catabolic pathways and for human organism:

A. Bilirubin and Urea

B. ATP and Carbon dioxide

C. Carbon dioxide and Water

D. Uric acid and Urea

E. Amino acids and Keto acids

Name, please, the enzyme system promoting the ADP/ATP maintenance both in the matrix of mitochondria and in cytoplasma of the cell:

A. ATP synthetase

B. ATP/ADP translocase

C. Cytochrome oxidase

D. NADH-dehydrogenase

E. Succinate dehydrogenase

Name, please, the inhibitor for complex IV of respiratory chain:

A. Potassium chloride

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Oxygen

D. Hydrogen peroxide

E. Carbon dioxide

Choose, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of pyruvate involved in oxidative decarboxylation at the accumulation of 2,4-dinitrophenol in the cell:

A. Zero

B. Three

C. Five

D. Two

E. Four

Choose, please, the number of complexes in the long respiratory chain:

A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. Five

E. One

Find out, please, the inhibitor for the complex III of electron transport chain in the inner membrane of mitochondria:

A. Barbituric acid

B. Antimycin A

C. Rotenone

D. ATP

E. NADH

The tissue respiration is inhibited after coal gas poisoning. Point the electron transport chain enzyme whose activity abruptly reduces in these conditions:

A. Cytochrome c

B. NADH-dehydrogenase

C. Cytochrome b1

D. Succinate dehydrogenase

E. Cytochrome c oxidase

Find out the property of uncoupler that helps it to penetrate across the inner membrane of mitochondria:

A. High affinity to molecular oxygen

B. High solubility in water

C. High solubility in lipids

D. Very small shape of uncoupler molecule

E. All the properties proposed

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase involved in beta-oxidation of any Fatty Acid, has the prosthetic group FAD and is placed in the inner membrane of mitochondria of cells where this process is in duration. How many moles of ATP may be synthesized due to oxidative phosphorylation per 1 mole of acyl-CoA involved in Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase reaction?

A. Four

B. Three

C. One

D. Two

E. Five

Name, please, the substrate for Cytochrome oxidase (reduced form):

A. Succinyl-CoA

B. Cytochrome C

C. Water molecule

D. Isocitrate

E. Molecular oxygen

Which of the following inhibit complex IV of respiratory chain?

A. Antipyrine

B. Amobarbital

C. Cyanide

D. Rotenone

E. Secobarbitone

Find out the enzyme of electron transport chain that is transmembrane protein and may be considered as a pump for protons from the matrix to the intra membrane space:

A. Cytochrome C

B. Succinate dehydrogenase

C. CoQ

D. Cytochrome C oxidase

E. Cytochrome b, only

Name the component of electron transport chain that is not related to proteins but is also acceptor of protons and electrons:

A. CoQ

B. Cytochrome P[sub]450[/sub]

C. Cytochrome b

D. Cytochrome c

E. Cytochrome c oxidase

The antibiotic oligomycin has been recently used in tuberculosis treatment. Point out the process in tuberculosis bacillus that is inhibited by this drug:

A. Translation

B. Anaerobic glycolysis

C. Phagocytosis

D. The active transport of substances across membranes

E. Oxidative phosphorylation

The isocitrate is converted into alpha-ketoglutarate in the Krebs cycle. Choose the substance that can low the P/O ratio for this reaction:

A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. NAD+

C. Antimycin A

D. ADP

E. Citrate

The electrochemical potential formation occurs on the inner membrane of mitochondria during the active work of the electron transport chain. Point the substance that can reduce the electrochemical potential value:

A. Glucose

B. 2,4-dinitrophenol

C. Malonic acid

D. Succinate

E. Citric acid

Name, please, the inhibitor for complex IV of electron transport chain:

A. Potassium chloride

B. Oxygen

C. Hydrogen peroxide

D. Carbon dioxide

E. Hydrogen sulfide

Find out, please, the name of the third stage of tissue respiration:

A. Oxidative phosphorylation

B. Aerobic glycolysis

C. The active transport of substances across membranes

D. Electron transport chain function

E. Translation

Name the terminal complex of respiratory chain:

A. Cytochrome C

B. NADH-dehydrogenase and Fe-S-proteins

C. Cytochrome c oxidase

D. Succinate dehydrogenase

E. Cytochrome b, Fe-S-proteins and cytochrome C1

Name, please the coefficient that can show the quantity of ATP molecules formed per one mole of oxidized organic compound due to oxidative phosphorylation:

A. P/O ratio

B. The electrochemical potential

C. Protons gradient

D. ADP/ATP ratio

E. Respiratory control

Carbon monoxide is discussed as the suppressor of tissue respiration in muscular tissue because of its ability to be linked to:

A. All the positions are right

B. Hemoglobin

C. Cytochrome C oxidase

D. Myoglobin

Point out the location of the processes which take part in tissue respiration the most intensively:

A. Golgi complex

B. Mitochondria

C. Cytoplasm

D. EPR

E. Lysosome

Name, please, the name of enzyme catalyzing the coupling of proton gradient use with the synthesis of ATP in mitochondria:

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

B. Monoaminooxidase

C. ATP synthetase

D. Lipase

E. ATP/ADP-translocase

Choose, please, the value for ATP/ADP ratio at the moment when the tissue respiration has been just inhibited in the cell:

A. ATP/ADP=0.5

B. ATP/ADP>1,5

C. ATP/ADP=0

D. ATP/ADP=0.1

E. ATP/ADP=0.8

Choose, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of isocitrate involved in oxidative decarboxylation at the accumulation of rotenone in the cell:

A. 3

B. Zero

C. P/O<2

D. P/O<3

E. 2

Protons gradient in the inner membrane of mitochondria may be increased under condition of incorporation of high doses of one vitamin in the body. Find out it:

A. Retinoic acid

B. Folic acid

C. Cobalamin

D. Pantothenic acid

E. Ascorbic acid

Choose the enzyme of Krebs cycle that is considered as the part of Complex II of electron transport chain:

A. Cytochrome oxidase

B. CoQ

C. NaDH-dehydrogenase

D. Succinate dehydrogenase

E. Cytochrome b, only

Name, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of pyruvate involved in oxidative decarboxylation if 1 mole of NADH is formed in this reaction:

A. Four

B. Three

C. Five

D. Two

E. Zero

Antimycin A is discussed in scientific literature as the antibiotic whose pharmacological effects are based on its ability to inhibit complex III of electron transport chain of the inner membrane of mitochondria. Choose the value for P/O ratio of succinate oxidation in Krebs Cycle at the presence of antimycin A in mitochondria:

A. _2

B. _0

C. Less then 3

D. Less then 2

E. _3

Cytochromes are:

A. Iron-porphyrin proteins

B. Peroxidases

C. Pyridine nucleotides

D. Hemoglobin derivatives

E. Metal containing flavoproteins

Catalase activity is very important for cells where the accumulation of one toxic compound may be. Name, please, this compound:

A. Hydrogen peroxide

B. Nitric acid

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Carbon dioxide

E. Potassium cyanide

Name, please, the acceptor of electrons from NADH-dehydrogenase in the electron transport chain:

A. Fe-S-proteins

B. Cytochrome oxidase

C. CoQ

D. Cytochrome c

E. Cytochrome b

Choose, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of pyruvate involved in oxidative decarboxylation at the presence of phenobarbital in high levels in the cell:

A. Zero

B. Two

C. Three

D. Five

E. Four

Name, please, the energy effect per one Krebs cycle due to oxidative phosphorylation:

A. 9 ATP

B. 11 ATP

C. 12 ATP

D. _1 GTP

E. 8 ATP

The complex I of electron transport chain may be inhibited by barbituric acid. Find out, please, the composition of this complex:

A. NAD and Fe-S-proteins

B. FMN and Fe-S-proteins

C. Succinate dehydrogenase and Fe-S-proteins

D. NADH-dehydrogenase and Fe-S-proteins

E. FAD and Fe-S-proteins

Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation may be:

A. High levels of free fatty acids

B. High levels of serum bilirubin

C. All the proposed

D. High levels of thyroid hormones

E. Thermogenins

Rotenone (the inhibitor of the first complex of the electron transport chain) changes the P/O ratio for substrates that are oxidized in Krebs Cycle. Choose the value of P/O at the presence of this inhibitor per 1 mole of malate that is oxidized:

A. Zero

B. <4

C. <2

D. <3

E. <1

Name, please, the factor that can block tissue respiration completely:

A. Phenobarbital

B. Malonic acid

C. Valinomycin

D. Potassium cyanide

E. Oligomycin

What type of tissue is specialized to carry out the oxidation uncoupled from phosphorylation?:

A. Brown adipose tissue

B. Skeletal muscular tissue

C. White adipose tissue

D. Erythrocytes of blood

E. Myocardium tissue

ATP/ADP ratio equals 0.5 in the matrix of suspended mitochondria. What enzyme systems must be stimulated in the matrix and inner membrane to increase this value up to 1?:

A. Citric Acid Cycle enzymes

B. ATP-synthetase

C. Electron transport Chain enzymes

D. ATP/ADP-translocase

E. All the proposed

Complete hydrolysis of 1 mole of phosphatidylcholine would yield the components: glycerol, fatty acid, phosphate and choline in which of the following respective molar ratios?

A. 1 : 2 : 1 : 1

B. 2 : 1 : 1 : 1

C. 1 : 1 : 2 : 1

D. 1 : 2 : 2 : 1

E. 1 : 2 : 1 : 2

Choose the correct continuation for the sentense: “The great majority of triacylglycerols absorbed in the intestines appears in the blood in a form of:

A. VLDL

B. Chylomicrons

C. HDL

D. Triacylglycerols-albumin complex

E. LDL

Choose the separation method for lipoproteins of the blood plasm:

A. Photocolorimetry method

B. Radioimmunal Assay

C. Extraction

D. Salting-out

E. Electrophoresis

Which of the following is a dietary essential?

A. Glycine

B. Cholesterol

C. Linoleic acid

D. Galactose

E. Glycerol

Which is a lipotropic factor:

A. Alanine

B. Choline

C. Glycerol

D. Insulin

E. Carnitine

Ganglioside is composed of all except:

A. Sialic acid

B. Galactose

C. Ceramide

D. Phosphate

E. Fatty acid

Free fatty acids are transported in circulation via:

A. Globulins

B. Triacylglycerols

C. HDL

D. Chylomicrons

E. Albumins

Point out the terminal product of triacylglycerols lipolysis in adipose tissue:

A. Bile acids

B. 2-Monoacylglycerol

C. Diacylglycerol

D. Mineral acids

E. Glycerol

The lipid which is accumulated in fatty liver is:

A. Lipoprotein

B. Cholesterol

C. Triacylglyceride

D. Palmitic acid

E. Sphingomyelin

Which one of the following properties is not characteristic of LDL?

A. LDL contains more cholesteryl esters than triacylglycerols

B. LDL have specific high affinity receptors in most cells

C. LDL are more dense than chylomicrons

D. LDL is smaller than both VLDL and chylomicrones

E. The major protein component of LDL is apoB-48

Choose the organs or tissues where lipogenesis proceeds most intensively:

A. Brain, pancreas gland

B. Kidneys, adrenal gland

C. Myocardium

D. Liver, Mammary gland

E. Skeletal Muscle

This enzyme is present in lysosomes and specifically cleaves the bond between phosphate and glycerol of phospholipids. Point out the enzyme described above:

A. Phospholipase D

B. Phospholipase B

C. Phospholipase C

D. Phospholipase A2

E. Phospholipase A1

Which of the following statements is correct for situation when mobilization of fat from adipose tissue occurs:

A. The increase of fatty acids content in blood is observed

B. Hormone-sensitive triacylglycerol lipase is dephosphorylated

C. The activity of triacylglycerol lipase is decreased

D. cAMP level is decreased in adipocytes

E. The decrease of fatty acids content in blood is observed

Which of the following descriptions is not correct for hormone-sensitive triacylglycerol lipase:

A. It is synthesized in adipocytes

B. It is activated by phosphorylation

C. It is activated under effect of epinephrine

D. It is activated under effect of glucagon

E. It is activated under effect of insulin

Endogenous triglyceride carrier in plasma is mainly:

A. Chylomicron

B. IDL

C. VLDL

D. HDL

E. LDL

Point out the type of lipoproteins transporting great bulk of triacylglycerols by blood from intestine to tissues:

A. VLDL

B. LDL

C. Apoproteins

D. Chylomicrones

E. HDL

Continue properly the proposition: “Lipoprotein lipase located in the vascular endothelium of adipose tissue…:

A. removes fatty acids from triglycerides of very low density lipoproteins (VLDL)”

B. removes fatty acids from triglycerides of high density lipoproteins (VLDL)”

C. is inhibited by heparin”

D. hydrolyzes triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol during lipolysis in the adipocyte”

E. is increased in activity during fasting, when lipid storage is diminished”

Liver synthesizes triacylglycerols which are transported to adipose tissue by:

A. HDL

B. Chylomicrones

C. VLDL

D. LDL

E. Free fatty acids-albumin complex

Which of the following enzymes releases arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids for its transformation into prostaglandins:

A. Phospholipase G

B. Phospholipase A2

C. Phospholipase D

D. Phospholipase C

E. Phospholipase A1

Point out the enzyme used for lysophospholipid formation during lipolysis of glycerophospholipid:

A. Diacylglycerol lipase

B. Phospholipase D

C. Phospholipase A2

D. Monoacylglycerol lipase

E. Triacylglycerol lipase

Alcocholic group is found in

A. Phosphatidylcholine

B. Plasmalogen

C. Galactosylceramide

D. Cephalin

E. Lecithin

Which of the following phosphorylated enzymes are active?

A. Pyruvate kinase

B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

C. Hormone-sensetive triacylglycerol lipase

D. Acetyl CoA carboxylase

E. Glycogen synthase

Lipids are natural organic compounds that are:

A. Soluble in buffer solutions

B. Good soluble in water

C. Insoluble in benzene

D. Soluble in organic solvents

E. Insoluble in organic solvents

In man the serum lipoprotein fraction with the highest free cholesterol content is:

A. Beta-lipoprotein

B. Chylomicrons

C. Alpha-lipoprotein

D. Pre-beta-lipoprotein

E. Prealbumin

Choose the incorrect statement about the glycerol use as a substrate for gluconeogenesis:

A. Glycerol is released from adipocyte being phosphorylated before

B. The liver takes up the glycerol and phosphorylates it

C. Glycerol phosphorylation is supplied with 1 ATP

D. Conversion of glycerol to glycerol-3-phosphate is catalyzed by glycerol kinase.

E. Glycerol is released from adipose stores of triacylglycerol

There are two sources of glycerol 3-phosphate for triacylglycerol synthesis. Adipose tissue is strictly dependent on glucose uptake to produce dihydroxyacetone phosphate for glycerol 3-phosphate formation. But liver can use diverse (glucose independent) way for glycerol 3-phosphate synthesis. Point out the liver specific enzyme for this transformation:

A. Enolase

B. Glycerol kinase

C. Glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

D. Acetyl CoA carboxylase

E. Aldolase

Point out the most atherogenic lipoproteins of the blood plasm:

A. IDL

B. HDL

C. LDL

D. Chylomicrons

E. Alpha-lipoproteins

In electrophoresis which class of lipoproteins will least migrate from start-line:

A. LDL

B. HDL

C. IDL

D. VLDL

E. Chylomicrons

Point out the lipoprotein class transporting cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver:

A. Chylomicrones

B. Cholesterol-albumin complex

C. HDL

D. LDL

E. VLDL

Which of the following is an activator of LCAT (Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase)

A. Apo CII

B. Apo AI

C. Apo B 100

D. Apo E

E. Apo B 48

Certain drugs - caffeine and theophylline - inhibit phosphodiesterase activity catalyzing reaction cAMP-->AMP. How will free fatty acid levels are altered in the blood after the drugs injection:

A. Will be increased simultaneously with galactose

B. Will be not altered

C. Will be decreased

D. Will be increased

E. Will be decreased simultaneously with glucose

Point out the lipoproteins of blood plasma that keep the biggest amount of cholesterol ester:

A. HDL

B. VLDL

C. LDL

D. Chylomicrons

E. IDL

All of the following statements about LDL are true except:

A. It contains apo B-100

B. 25% of its content is utilized in the liver

C. It delivers cholesterol to cells

D. It is a marker for cardiovascular disease

E. It contains only one apoprotein

Which statement is incorrect about phosphatidylcholine (PC)?

A. PC participates in signal transmission via activated phospholipase C.

B. PC may be synthesized from phosphatidylserine or from diacylglycerol and CDP-choline.

C. PC is an important component of the surface shell of plasma lipoproteins.

D. PC can be hydrolyzed by phospholipase A2 into lysolecithin and a fatty acid.

E. PC together with phosphatidylethanolamine and phosphatidylserine are major phospholipid components of cell membranes.

Synthesis of phospholipids is disordered under the liver fat infiltration. Indicate which of the following substances can enhance the process of methylation during phospholipids synthesis?

A. Glycerol

B. Ascorbic acid

C. Glucose

D. Citrate

E. Methionine

Glycerol must be activated prior to the synthesis of triacylglycerols. Point out the enzyme realizing this activation:

A. Glycerol dehydrogenase

B. Glycerol 3-phosphate acyl transferase

C. Glycerol kinase

D. Cytochrome P450

E. Glycerol-CoA synthase

The lipids are transported by lipoproteins in the blood. Specify the lipoproteins that are formed in the small intestine wall after high lipids intake:

A. LDL

B. VLDL

C. HDL

D. IDL

E. Chylomicrons

If choline moiety is replaced by ethanolamine in glycerophospholipid the net product is:

A. Plasmalogen

B. Sphingomyelin

C. Cardiolipin

D. Cerebroside

E. Cephalin

Point out the biological role that is suitable for phospholipid:

A. Component of multiple enzyme system

B. Membrane structural component

C. Substrate for the bile acid formation

D. Precursor for 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol synthesis

E. Substrate for steroidal hormones synthesis

Point out the lipoproteins of the blood plasma containing the highest mass of triacylglycerols:

A. HDL

B. VLDL

C. LDL

D. IDL

E. Chylomicrons

What substance is not component of a lipoprotein:

A. Transferrin

B. Apoprotein

C. Phospholipid

D. Triacylglycerol

E. Cholesterol

The liver requires a mechanism for producing phosphatidylcholine (PC) because it exports significant amounts of PC in the bile and as component of serum lipoproteins. This mechanism includes three methylation steps to produce PC from phosphatidylethanolamine. What is the methyl group donor for methylation:

A. Uridine diphosphate-methionine (UDP-methionine)

B. N-guanosylmethionine (NGM)

C. S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)

D. Cytidine diphosphate-choline (CDP-choline)

E. Homosycteine

Hormone-sensitive triacylglycerol lipase is activated in adipocytes under the emotional stress. Choose the substance, whose concentration is increased in adipose tissue in this state:

A. cAMP

B. cGMP

C. AMP

D. Diacylglycerol

E. Ca2+

Choose the phospholipase acting on phosphatidyl inositol to liberate arachidonic acid, the substrate for the synthesis of prostaglandins:

A. Phospholipase D

B. Phospholipase C

C. Phospholipase A3

D. Phospholipase A2

E. Phospholipase A1

The largest reserve of energy in body is stored as:

A. Blood glucose

B. Muscle protein

C. Liver glycogen

D. Triacylglycerols in adipose tissue

E. Muscle glycogen

Glycerol is converted to glucose in:

A. Heart

B. Skeletal muscle

C. Liver

D. Adipocyte

E. Brain

In diabetes mellitus the factor limiting synthesis of triglycerides in adipose tissue is

A. Acetyl CoA

B. ATP

C. Lecithin

D. Alpha-glycerophosphate

E. ADP

Glycerol as product of lipolysis may be transported to the liver where it is phosphorylated to glycerol 3-phosphate and may enter glycolysis due to glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase to form:

A. 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate

B. 3-Phosphoglycerate

C. Phosphoenolpyruvate

D. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

E. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

Find out the enzyme of tissue lipolysis that is regulated by hormones:

A. Triacylglycerol lipase

B. Diacylglycerol lipase

C. Lipoprotein lipase

D. Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase

E. Monoacylglycerol lipase

Name the condition in the liver cell causing the triacylglycerol synthesis:

A. The accumulation of carbon dioxide

B. The stimulation of protein degradation

C. The decrease of ATP/ADP ratio

D. The ketone bodies accumulation

E. The accumulation of high fatty acids

Vitamin F is recommended in order to prevent the cholesterol deposition inside the blood vessels at atherosclerosis. What lipid is the component of this vitamin?

A. Cardiolipid

B. Stearic acid

C. Linoleic acid

D. Sphingomyelin

E. Cholesterol

What are the constituents of cardiolipin are obtained as the result of its degradation?

A. 2 glycerols, 4 fatty acids, 1 phosphate

B. 3 glycerols, 4 fatty acids, 2 phosphates

C. 1 sphingosine, 1 fatty acid, 1 sugar

D. 2 sphingosines, 2 fatty acids, 1 oligosaccharide

E. 2 glycerols, 2 fatty acids, 1 phosphate

Hormone sensitive triacylglycerol lipase is not activated by one hormone from following list. Point out it.

A. None of above

B. Glucagon

C. Insulin

D. Epinephrine

E. Norepinephrine

Choose the enzyme participating in phosphate elimination from phosphatidic acid:

A. Phosphatidate Phosphatase

B. Phospholipase А1

C. Phospholipase C

D. Phospholipase А2

E. Phospholipase D

Blood plasma of patient with hyperlipoproteinemia type I remains milky even after a long fast due to markedly elevated and persistent chylomicrons. What abnormality is possible in these patients?

A. Deficient lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

B. Defective synthesis of apoB-48

C. Obstruction of the bile duct

D. Deficient lipoprotein lipase

E. Deficient pancreatic lipase

The increased levels of blood plasma free fatty acids is the result of mobilization of triacylglycerols from:

A. Kidney

B. Brain

C. Adipose tissue

D. Intestine

E. Skeletal muscle

Which statement is correct about high density lipoproteins (HDL)?

A. Nascent HDL pick up triacylglycerols from peripheral cells

B. Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase is activated by apoC-II in HDL

C. Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase produces bile acids from cholesterol in HDL

D. HDL transfer cholesteryl esters to liver

E. HDL are synthesized in the adrenal gland

Which statement is a true for the comparison of phospholipids(PL) and triacylglycerols (TAG)?

A. Both TAG and PL are the primary storage form for fats in our bodies.

B. TAG may be saturated or unsaturated, but all fatty acids in PL structure are saturated

C. PL molecules have a distinctly polar 'head' and a distinctly non-polar 'tail,' whilst triglycerides are predominantly non-polar.

D. PL contein a cyclic steroid ring, whilst triglycerides maintain a straight-chain form.

E. Both molecules contain a phosphate group.

Point out, how fatty acids are activated in catabolic process:

A. Are linked to HS-CoA without any energy use

B. Don't change the structure

C. Are converted to acyl-SCoA due to АТP energy

D. Are phosphorylated by ATP

E. Interact with carnitine

Fatty acid oxidation occurs in:

A. Cytosol

B. Golgi apparatus

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Mitochondria

E. Ribosome

Point out the cellular location of saturated HFA synthesis:

A. Nucleus

B. Cytoplasm

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Plasmolemma

E. Mitochondrion

Name the ketone bodies which are excreted in diabetic ketoacidosis:

A. Acetoacetic and alpha-ketoglutaric acids

B. Acetoacetic and beta-hydroxybutiric acids

C. Acetoacetic and pyruvic acids

D. Acetoacetic and pyruvic acids

E. Acetoacetic and oxaloacetic acids

In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are produced in:

A. Pancreas

B. Small intestine

C. Brain

D. Kidneys

E. Liver

A 1 y.o. child with symptoms of muscle affection was admitted to the hospital. Examination revealed carnitine deficiency in muscles. Biochemical base of this pathology is disturbed process of:

A. Transporting of fatty acids to the matrix of mitochondria

B. Substrate phosphorylation

C. Lactic acid utilization

D. Actin and myosin synthesis

E. Regulation of Ca2+ level in mitochondria

The formation of the “active form” of a fatty acid is endergonic process in which the ATP energy is consumed. But there is another necessary participant of the fatty acid activation. Choose it:

A. Acetyl CoA

B. UTP

C. Succinyl CoA

D. CoASH

E. GTP

Find out the main substrates for the use by elongase system during the formation of stearyl CoA from palmitoyl CoA:

A. Glycerol, NADPH, palmitoyl CoA

B. Malonyl CoA, NADPH, palmitoyl CoA

C. Malonyl CoA, NADH, palmitoyl CoA

D. Acetyl CoA, NADH, palmitoyl CoA

E. Acetyl CoA, NADPH, palmitoyl CoA

The important catabolic processes are located in the mitochondrial matrix. Find out the catabolic process that isn’t located in the mitochondrion:

A. Oxaloacetate formation from pyruvate

B. The Krebs cycle

C. Glycolysis

D. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate

E. Beta-oxidation of high fatty acids

Choose the allosteric activator of acetyl-CoA-carboxylase (the key enzyme of HFA synthesis):

A. Oxaloacetate

B. Succinate

C. Fumarate

D. Malate

E. Citrate

An experimental animal has been given excessive amount of carbon labeled glucose for a week. In what compound can the label be found?

A. Methionine

B. Vitamin A

C. Phenylalanine

D. Palmitic acid

E. Arachidonic acid

Point out the terminal product in the last round of β-oxidation of High Fatty Acids with odd number of carbon atoms:

A. Butyryl-SCoA

B. Malonyl-SCoA

C. Acetoacetyl-SCoA

D. Propionyl-SCoA

E. Pyruvate

The most important source of reducing equivalents for fatty acid synthesis in the liver is the process named:

A. Glycolysis

B. The pentose phosphate pathway

C. Glycogenolysis

D. Oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A

E. The citric acid cycle

It is established, that the high fatty acid radical is lengthened in two carbon atoms by palmitate synthetase complex action each cycle. Point out the donor of these two carbon atoms during the synthesis:

A. Acetyl-CoA

B. Stearyl-CoA

C. Lauryl-CoA

D. Palmityl-CoA

E. Malonyl-CoA

What compound production and utilization become more significant during starvation?

A. Uric acid

B. Fatty acids

C. Ketone bodies

D. Glycogen

E. Triacylglycerols

Which of the following substances is immediate precursor of acetoacetate in pathway ketogenesis?

A. Beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl CoA

B. Beta-hydroxybutyryl CoA

C. Acetoacetyl CoA

D. Acetyl CoA

E. Beta-hydroxybutyrate

There is a tissue hypoxia at myocardial ischemia in the patient. Name the process of lipid metabolism, whose rate is reduced in the myocardium at this state:

A. Phospholipid synthesis

B. Cardiolipin synthesis

C. Beta-oxidation of high fatty acids

D. Ketone body synthesis

E. Fat lipolysis

What sentence is reasonable in regard to acetyl CoA:

A. It cannot be formed from protein

B. It serves as a donor of acetyl groups in fatty acid synthesis.

C. It is carboxylated by pyruvate carboxylase to form malonyl CoA

D. It cannot be used to make cholesterol and ketone bodie


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Fatty Acids

Food Chemicals: FATS triesters of glycerol with the fatty acids: hence triglycerides Fat or triglyceride glycerol fatty acids FATTY ACIDS (natural ones.

Food Chemicals: FATS triesters of glycerol with the fatty acids: hence triglycerides Fat or triglyceride glycerol fatty acids FATTY ACIDS (natural ones.

Essential Fatty Acids - Skilling InstituteTwo critical essential fatty acids are linoleic (LA) acids and linolenic (LNA) acids. Linoleic acid contains Omega-3 fatty acids and is considered

Essential Fatty Acids - Skilling InstituteTwo critical essential fatty acids are linoleic (LA) acids and linolenic (LNA) acids. Linoleic acid contains Omega-3 fatty acids and is considered