CS/IS 190 Homework #5Instructions: Answer all questions and put the answers on the excel spreadsheet which is available on my web page. Note that some questions have multiple correct answers. Print out the answer sheet or email it to me before the due deadline. Be sure to put your name on the answer sheet.

Chapter 15Wireless Networking

1. Which standard is the common wireless networking standard?A. IEEE 802.4B. IEEE 802.11C. IEEE 802.16D. IEEE 802.3

2. Which term represents the condition of whether a wireless device is connected?A. ModeB. Signal strengthC. Link stateD. Access

3. Which term represents a measurement of how well a wireless device is connecting to other devices?A. ModeB. Signal strengthC. Link stateD. Access

4. Which wireless network mode operates by allowing two or more PCs to communicate directly without cabling or any other intermediary hardware?A. Wireless BB. Ad hocC. FilteredD. Extended

5. What type of unit is formed by two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode?A. Basic Service Set (BSS)B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)D. Extended Service Set (ESS)

6. What type of unit is formed by a single WAP servicing a given area?A. Basic Service Set (BSS)B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)D. Extended Service Set (ESS)

7. What type of unit is formed by a single wireless access point servicing a given area that has been extended by adding more access points?A. Basic Service Set (BSS)B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)D. Extended Service Set (ESS)

8. Which term defines the most basic infrastructure mode network – a BSS of one WAP and one or more wireless nodes?A. Basic Service Set (BSS)B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)D. Extended Service Set (ESS)

9. What is used as the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID) for a Basic Service Set (BSS)?A. The MAC address of the WAPB. A user-supplied nameC. A randomly generated valueD. The name of the manufacturer

10. What do wireless nodes in an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) use in place of the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID value in each frame?A. The MAC address of the WAPB. A user-supplied nameC. A randomly generated valueD. The name of the manufacturer

11. Which term did Wi-Fi people create to use as another level of naming to describe a standard name applied to the BSS or IBSS to help the connection happen?A. Link stateB. Service Set Identifier (SSID)C. SupplicantD. Mode

12. Which spread-spectrum broadcasting method sends data out on different frequencies at the same time?A. BSSB. DSSSC. FHSSD. OFDM

13. Which term describes a portion of the available spectrum available for Wi-Fi network communication?A. ChannelB. FrequencyC. FrameD. Interframe space

14. How many channels were defined by the 802.11 standard?A. 8B. 16C. 14D. 32

15. Which of the channels defined by the 802.11 standard may be used by a WAP using the 2.4-GHz band in the United States?A. 1 through 11B. 2 through 32C. 8 through 24D. 16 through 32

16. __________ broadcasts data in small, discrete chunks over the different frequencies available within a certain frequency range.A. Transmit beamformingB. Channel bondingC. CSMA/CDD. Spread-spectrum

17. Which 802.11 collision avoidance method is currently implemented?A. CSMA/CAB. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)C. Beamforming D. CSMA/CD

18. What happens when frames are transmitted on the network from two different devices at the same time, corrupting each other’s signals?A. A channeling error occurs.B. Transmit beamforming occurs.C. A collision occurs.D. Interframe space expands.

19. Which term describes the predetermined silence period that is added to the length of a packet to determine the waiting period for a network device after it has detected traffic on the media?A. Interframe gapB. PCFC. Wait timeD. Link state

20. Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps, a range of up to about 300 feet, operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency, and is backward-compatible with an earlier, popular Wi-Fi standard?A. 802.11gB. 802.11nC. 802.11bD. 802.11a

21. Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 100 Mbps (or higher), a range of up to about 300 feet, and operates in the 2.4-GHz and 5.0-GHz frequencies?A. 802.11gB. 802.11nC. 802.11bD. 802.11a

22. Which term describes a method that enables an administrator to limit access to a network based on the physical addresses of wireless NICs?A. 802.1XB. MAC address filteringC. WEPD. WPA

23. Which standard includes secure authentication using a RADIUS server and password encryption using EAP?A. IEEE 802.1XB. MAC address filteringC. WEPD. WPA

24. Which data encryption standard is the weakest of the wireless encryption standards?A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)C. MAC address filteringD. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)

25. Which encryption standard uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), a 128-bit block cipher that is much tougher to crack than the 128-bit TKIP wrapper?A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)C. MAC address filteringD. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)

26. Which statement describes a weakness in WEP that allows it to be easily cracked?A. The size of the encryption keyB. The use of 802.1XC. The use of AESD. The use of a 256-bit block cipher

27. Which key sizes does WEP use?A. 64 bits and 128 bitsB. 40 bits and 104 bitsC. 64 bits and 256 bitsD. 128 bits and 256 bits

28. Which technology enables WAPs to receive their power from the same Ethernet cables that transfer their data?A. VLAN poolingB. Power over Ethernet (PoE)C. Mobile device management (MDM)D. Near-Field communication (NFC)

29. Which term describes a graphical representation of the radio frequency (RF) sources on a site?A. Unbounded mediaB. Beamforming C. Heat mapD. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)

30. What is the gain of the typical WAP antenna?A. 2 dBB. 10 dBC. 11 dBD. 54 dB

31. Which settings should be modified when there are overlapping Wi-Fi signals?A. MAC address and NIC addressB. Channel and frequencyC. Beacon and Interframe gapD. Signal and link state

32. Which wireless bridge can talk to more than one other bridge at a time and can connect multiple network segments?A. DipoleB. Point-to-multipointC. OmnidirectionalD. Point-to-point

33. Which wireless bridge can only communicate with a single other bridge and are used to connect two wireless network segments?A. DipoleB. Point-to-multipointC. OmnidirectionalD. Point-to-point

34. One of the big challenges to larger enterprise networks are the large number of clients that might be on a single __________ at any given moment.A. MAC addressB. routerC. SSIDD. NIC

35. A(n) __________ access point is simply an unauthorized access point (AP).A. hotB. blindC. rogueD. channeled

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Chapter 16

Virtualization and Cloud Computing

1. Which term describes the creation of a complete environment in which a guest operating system can function as though it were installed on its own computer?A. EmulationB. VirtualizationC. TranslationD. Polyinstantiation

2. Which term is another name for a virtual machine?A. HostB. EmulatorC. GuestD. Environment

3. Which technology creates a simulation of a world or environment that appears to be real, even though the person wearing the required headgear and gloves is located in a room that does not resemble the simulated space?A. Virtual realityB. HypervisorC. Virtual machineD. Sandbox

4. Which operating system, when added as a virtual machine, requires a separate, licensed copy?A. Microsoft WindowsB. FreeDOSC. Ubuntu LinuxD. OpenBSD

5. Which folder in the user’s Documents folder does VMware create and use upon installation?A. VMwareB. InstallationC. Virtual MachinesD. VM

6. VMware Workstation replaces CTRL-ALT-DELETE with __________ by default.A. CTRL-ALT-INSERT B. CTRL-ALT-FNC. CTRL-ALT-ESCD. ALT-F4

7. A virtual machine that is shut down is no more than a(n) __________ or folder sitting on a hard drive.A. imageB. fileC. processD. snapshot

8. Which term refers to the most common limiting factor in a host’s ability to run virtual machine?A. Hard disk spaceB. CPUC. Network bandwidthD. RAM

9. Which advantage of virtualization provides substantial reduction in dollars spent and electricity used?A. Hardware consolidationB. System recoveryC. Power savingsD. System duplication

10. Which term refers to a technology that is great for doing risky (or even not-so-risky) maintenance with a safety net?A. Bare metal hypervisorB. SnapshotC. Cloud computingD. Cluster

11. Which program is an example of bare-metal virtualization software?A. VMware ESXi B. VMware WorkstationC. Ubuntu LinuxD. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

12. Which type of hypervisor relies on an underlying operating system?A. Type-1B. Type-2C. Type-3D. Type-4

13. Which tool is an example of a Type 1 hypervisor?A. Infrastructure as a Service B. ISOC. iSCSID. VMware ESXi

14. Which hypervisor serves as the foundation for massive cloud offerings by Amazon, IBM, and RackSpace?A. Hyper-V B. Citrix XenServer C. ESXiD. VMware

15. Which statement best describes the importance of virtualization?A. It increases security as the scale of an operation decreases.B. It increases flexibility as the scale of an operation decreases.C. It increases flexibility as the scale of an operation increases.D. It increases security as the scale of an operation increases.

16. Which hypervisor comes with Microsoft Server and Windows 8?A. Citrix XenServerB. ESXiC. Hyper-VD. KVM

17. Which hypervisor is considered to be the industry leader?A. Citrix XenServerB. Hyper-VC. ESXiD. KVM

18. Which tool is used to create, configure, and maintain virtual machines on the host from the comfort of a client computer running the tool?A. KVMB. ESXC. vSphere ClientD. iSCSI

19. Which hypervisor is closely integrated with Linux’s kernel?A. Citrix XenServerB. ESXiC. Hyper-VD. KVM

20. Jumbo frames are usually __________ bytes long—though technically, anything over 1500 counts—and they reduce the total number of frames moving through the network.A. 1000B. 5000C. 7000D. 9000

21. Which technology refers to an infrastructure that can be utilized to support a SAN?A. Cloud servicesB. Virtual switchC. UDPD. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

22. An advantage of consolidating storage using a storage area network (SAN) is that it __________.A. improves securityB. avoids performance costs of a file implementation systemC. reduces the cycles needed to access the dataD. reduces the data segment block size

23. Which technology allows multiple VMs to have access to the Internet?A. HypervisorB. Virtual PBXC. Virtual switchD. Virtual Machine Manager

24. Which term refers to a software connection that passes traffic from the real NIC to a virtual one?A. BridgeB. NATC. RouteD. Switch

25. Software defined networking (SDN) allows a __________ controller to determine how network components will move traffic through the network A. master B. slaveC. primaryD. secondary

26. Which cloud service model is used by Amazon Web Services (AWS)?A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)B. Software as a Service (SaaS)C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)D. Software defined networking (SDN)

27. Virtual servers and virtual network components can be created in the cloud using Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) providers, often at rates measured in __________ per hour.A. secondsB. cyclesC. penniesD. dollars

28. Which cloud service is a set of tools and services designed to make coding and deploying applications delivered over the web quick and efficient?A. Network as a ServiceB. Virtualization as a ServiceC. Software as a ServiceD. Platform as a Service

29. Which vendor was one of the earliest PaaS providers?A. AmazonB. VMwareC. MicrosoftD. Heroku

30. Community clouds are run by __________.A. a city or state for citizens’ useB. the military for citizens’ useC. a group of organizations with similar goals or needsD. Internet service providers (ISPs) for military use

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Chapter 17

Building a Real-World Network

1. When designing and building a network, which requirements define the network’s needs?A. List of requirementsB. Equipment limitationsC. Environment limitationsD. Compatibility requirements

2. When designing and building a network, which requirements help in determining how to organize the network?A. List of requirementsB. Equipment limitationsC. Compatibility requirementsD. Device types/requirements

3. When designing and building a network, which requirements help in determining how to connect to the Internet?A. SecurityB. Wired/wireless considerationsC. Compatibility requirementsD. Equipment limitations

4. By going __________ for some or all server resources, you can reduce your power usage and increase uptime.A. localB. logicalC. physicalD. virtual

5. How do many small networks avoid using a full-blown file server?A. Small networks format their hard drives using a large block size.B. Small networks avoid large data sets.C. Small networks take advantage of network attached storage (NAS).D. Small networks eliminate distributed processing.

6. What type of conversion process occurs with power converters?A. Volts to ampsB. AC to DCC. Sine waves to cosine wavesD. Amps to watts

7. Which device is an example of a peripheral device?A. Server rackB. Cable boxC. WAPD. Printer

8. Which device is an example of a serious enterprise WAP?A. Adobe Creative CloudB. A Cisco Aironet deviceC. VyattaD. A Cisco 2600 device

9. Before plugging in RJ 45 cables, what should you determine to save a lot of time and effort once the system installation starts?A. Internal IP addressing schemeB. Company Web site ISPC. Call center phone numbersD. Security product for the workstations

10. Which company is leading the cutting edge of the unified communication (UC) field?A. OracleB. AdobeC. MicrosoftD. Cisco

11. Which TCP/IP ports does the Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) use for VoIP systems?A. 2427 and 2727B. 5004 and 5005C. 5030 and 5031D. 5060 and 5061

12. Which TCP/IP ports does the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) use for VoIP systems?A. 2427 and 2727B. 5004 and 5005C. 5030 and 5031D. 5060 and 5061

13. Unified communication leans heavily on ___________ for transmission.A. UDP and TCPB. SIP and RTPC. STP and RIPD. RIP and OSPF

14. Which TCP/IP port does H.323 use for unified communication?A. 1720B. 2427C. 5004D. 5061

15. Which TCP/IP ports does MGCP use?A. 1720 and 1721B. 2427 and 2727C. 5004 and 5005D. 5060 and 5061

16. What bandwidth does ISDN offer?A. 128 KbpsB. 128 GB C. 1024 KbpsD. 10 GB

17. When talking about QoS for medianets, an administrator needs to develop the concept of __________.A. industrial control systems (ICS)B. differentiated Services (DiffServ)C. distributed control systems (DCS)D. human machine interfaces (HMI)

18. Which value of the ECN field is the default, indicating “not QoS aware”?A. 00B. 01C. 10D. 11

19. Which value of the ECN field indicates “QoS aware, congestion encountered”?A. 00B. 01C. 10D. 11

20. Which value of the ECN field indicates “QoS aware, no congestion”?A. 00B. 10C. 11D. 20

21. Within the Differentiated Services (DiffServ) architecture, how many classes of service (CoS) are there?A. TwoB. FourC. SixD. Eight

22. In most QoS setups using differentiated services code point (DSCP) there are only __________ levels of priority.A. twoB. fourC. sixD. eight

23. In the early days of automation, you might have a single person, known as a(n) __________, monitoring a machine that produced something.A. leaderB. technicianC. operatorD. server

24. Which industrial control system (ICS) device monitors characteristics like temperature?A. ActuatorB. SensorC. Controller D. Interface

25. Which industrial control system (ICS) device knows enough to manage a process?A. ActuatorB. SensorC. ControllerD. Interface

26. In a modern DCS each of the local controllers connects (eventually) to a centralized controller—what CompTIA calls the __________—where global changes can be made managed.A. ICS loaderB. ICS interfaceC. ICS workstationD. ICS server

27. Which industrial control system (ICS) device makes changes that modify a characteristic such as temperature?A. ActuatorB. SensorC. ControllerD. Interface

28. A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system is a subset of the __________.A. industrial control system (ICS)B. distributed control system (DCS)C. remote terminal unit (RTU) D. programmable logic controller (PLC)

29. ICS/DCS/SCADA and other networks are traditionally good candidates for network __________.A. segmentationB. consolidationC. interferenceD. expansion

30. Which term refers to the physical separation of your network from every other network?A. Secure WebB. IsolationC. Black holeD. Air gap

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Chapter 18

Managing Risk

1. Which document is arguably the most famous of all security policies as this is one document that pretty much everyone who works for any organization is required to read, and in many cases sign, before they can start work?A. Material safeties data sheet (MSDS)B. Forensics reportC. Acceptable use policyD. Exit plan

2. Which written document defines how an organization will protect its IT infrastructure?A. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)B. Service level agreement (SLA)C. Statement of work (SOW)D. Security policy

3. Network policies are really __________ that define who can access the network, how it can be accessed and what resources of the network can be accessed.A. service level agreements (SLAs)B. network access policiesC. statements of work (SOW) D. multi-source agreements (MSAs)

4. What type of patch adds new functionality to a system?A. driver updatesB. feature changes/updatesC. security vulnerability patchD. OS updates

5. Educating users to recognize social-engineering tactics assists in __________.A. forensics managementB. disaster managementC. change managementD. risk management

6. The secret to dealing with failures is to avoid a __________.A. vulnerability testB. single point of failureC. fail openD. fail close

7. Who is responsible for the process of determining critical assets?A. Senior managementB. End usersC. IT managersD. Vendors and suppliers

8. Which document defines the commitment parties perform for each other and a time frame for the commitment?A. Statement of work (SOW)B. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)C. Service level agreement (SLA)D. Multi-source agreement (MSA)

9. Which document defines the services and products the vendor agrees to supply and the time frames in which to supply them?A. Statement of work (SOW)B. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)C. Multi-source agreement (MSA)D. Service level agreement (SLA)

10. Which tool is a port scanner?A. NessusB. NmapC. OpenVASD. Aircrack-ng

11. Which individual will examine an infrastructure to find existing vulnerabilities and, instead of hurting the infrastructure, report findings so that an administrator can further harden the network?A. Forensic analystB. Black hat hackerC. White hat hackerD. First responder

12. Which two tools dominate the vulnerability testing arena?A. Nmap and Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)B. Kali Linux and Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)C. Nessus and OpenVASD. Aircrack-ng and Metasploit

13. What is another name for penetration testing?A. PentestB. Vulnerability testingC. HackingD. War-chalking

14. An incident is an event in which the integrity of a(n) __________ is compromised.A. service level agreement (SLA)B. IT infrastructureC. forensic reportD. vulnerability scan

15. Which tool is an open-source tool for penetration testing pretty much every aspect of wireless networks?A. Aircrack-ngB. ArmitageC. Kali LinuxD. OpenVAS

16. Which team develops, tests, manages, and executes the incident response plan?A. Incident response teamB. Disaster recovery teamC. Business continuity teamD. Change management team

17. Which team is responsible for re-establishing operations at the primary business site?A. Incident response teamB. Disaster recovery teamC. Business continuity teamD. Computer forensics team

18. If an incident is so vast that the incident response team cannot stop, contain, or remediate it, __________ comes into play.A. disaster recoveryB. contingency planningC. security preparednessD. succession planning

19. Most backups have some amount of lost data based on when the last backup took place, except for __________ backups which are really just redundant servers.A. logicalB. physicalC. warm siteD. real-time

20. Disaster recovery starts with a plan and includes __________.A. full replication of all dataB. real-time patch managementC. change managementD. data backups

21. Which secondary location is a complete duplicate of the primary site?A. ColdB. HotC. LocalD. Physical

22. Which secondary location lacks proper data and networking links?A. DistantB. LocalC. HotD. Warm

23. Which secondary location will generally take more than a few days to bring online?A. HotB. ColdC. WarmD. Local

24. A first responder’s main way to secure an area is __________.A. setting off the fire alarm to evacuate the buildingB. turning off all computer equipmentC. contacting local police for crowd controlD. being physically present at the scene

25. Who is often a first responder or a supporter of first responders to a security incident and should follow good forensic practices?A. TechnicianB. End user at the affected workstationC. Human resources managerD. Chief executive officer

26. What is another name for electronic discovery?A. Legal holdB. E-discoveryC. Chain of custodyD. Snapshot

27. Which safety issue is considered to be a data safety issue?A. An improperly grounded circuitB. Cable “kludge”C. A fail open issueD. A technician lifting equipment

28. Which safety issue is considered to be a physical safety issue?A. A fail close issueB. A power surgeC. An improperly grounded circuitD. A technician lifting equipment

29. The placement of a rack should optimize the __________ in a server area.A. accessibilityB. airflow C. voltage levelD. security

30. What approximate humidity level is considered to be ideal for a server room?A. 25% humidityB. 40% humidityC. 50% humidityD. 70% humidity

31. What temperature is considered to be ideal for a server room?A. 62 degrees FahrenheitB. 68 degrees FahrenheitC. 70 degrees FahrenheitD. 72 degrees Fahrenheit

32. Which guideline applies to racks and network components?A. Material Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)B. Material safeties data sheet (MSDS)C. Memorandum of understanding (MOA)D. Statement of work (SOW)

33. Which term refers to doors that default to open in case of emergency?A. Success openB. Success closeC. Fail openD. Fail close

34. Which term refers to a safety mechanism in which doors lock in case of emergency?A. Success openB. Success closeC. Fail openD. Fail closed

35. __________ need to cover building layout, fire escape plans, and the locations of emergency exits.A. Fail opensB. Forensics reportsC. Exit plansD. Material safeties data sheets (MSDSs)

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