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Module 2. Specyal aspects of hygiene and ecology Text test questions 1. A complex frontal system that occurs when a cold front overtakes a warm front is A. Occluded fronts; B. * Anticyclone; C. Cyclone; D. Cold front; E. Warm front. 2. A process of adaptation to the new climatic condition is named A. * Acclimatization. B. Adaptation. C. Climatic reaction. D. Urbanization. E. Desadaptation. 3. A type of polar climate, called the …… climate, is a treeless climate found almost exclusively in the Northern Hemisphere. A. * Tundra; B. Taiga; C. Plains; D. Coastal; E. Highland. 4. Activated-sludge particles also known as A. Polyelectrolytes; B. * Floc; C. Sand; D. Biological film; E. Gelatinous film. 5. Active mud - a necessary component of technological A. Aero filter; B. * Filter; C. Aero tank; D. Pot; E. Cesspool. 6. “Acute weather” is not risky for A. Heart attacks; B. Strokes; C. Developing complications of the chronic diseases; D. * Goiter; E. Asthma attacks. 7. Advocating liquid sewage sludge digestion is done in a building: A. * Bunk settler B. Horizontal settler

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Module 2. Specyal aspects of hygiene and ecologyText test questions

1. A complex frontal system that occurs when a cold front overtakes a warm front is A. Occluded fronts; B. * Anticyclone; C. Cyclone; D. Cold front;E. Warm front.

2. A process of adaptation to the new climatic condition is named A. * Acclimatization. B. Adaptation. C. Climatic reaction. D. Urbanization. E. Desadaptation.

3. A type of polar climate, called the …… climate, is a treeless climate found almost exclusively in the Northern Hemisphere.

A. * Tundra; B. Taiga; C. Plains; D. Coastal; E. Highland.

4. Activated-sludge particles also known as A. Polyelectrolytes; B. * Floc; C. Sand; D. Biological film; E. Gelatinous film.

5. Active mud - a necessary component of technological A. Aero filter; B. * Filter; C. Aero tank; D. Pot; E. Cesspool.

6. “Acute weather” is not risky for A. Heart attacks; B. Strokes; C. Developing complications of the chronic diseases; D. * Goiter; E. Asthma attacks.

7. Advocating liquid sewage sludge digestion is done in a building: A. * Bunk settler B. Horizontal settler C. Vertical settler D. Biocolagular E. Deteriorated

8. Anaerobic processes of decomposition of organic component A. Aero filter; B. * Filter; C. Pot; D. Secondary decanter; E. Primary settler.

9. Basic descriptions of firmness of acclimatization of man: A. Absence of meteoneurosis; B. Tension of the immune system;

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C. Alteration of genetic system; D. Increase of exchange of matters E. * Ability to live and execute labour activity without the overstrain of the functional

systems of organism 10. Biochemical oxygen consumption – the integral index of content in water some kind of

substances, what exactly: A. Suspended B. Non-organic soluble C. Non-oxidized non-organic D. * Bioresolved organic soluble and colloid E. Flowing on the surface of water

11. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) - is an integral index content in water A. Microbes bodies B. Dissolved inorganic C. Non-acidic inorganic D. * Bio dissolved organic and colloidal E. Floating on the surface of the reservoir

12. Biological film forms on the following structure A. Secondary sedimentation tanks B. Primary settler C. * Filter, aero filter D. Meta tanks E. Aero tank

13. Biological wastewater treatment refers to A. Technological B. * Sanitary C. Planning D. Subsidiary E. Production

14. Body of air that extends over a large area and has nearly uniform temperature and humidity in any horizontal direction is

A. Front; B. Weather; C. * Air masses D. Anticyclone; E. Cyclone.

15. Choose the correct answer A. * Meteotropic reactions may occur to the emergence of meteorological front, at the

time of passage of the front and after the B. Meteotropic reactions can occur at high seismic activity C. Meteotropic reactions may occur during geomagnetic storms D. Meteotropic reactions can occur at high solar activity. E. Meteotropic reactions can occur if the ozone layer

16. Choose the correct answer A. * Up to 70% of patients with hypertension respond for 1-2 days before the passage

of meteorological front B. Up to 50% of patients with hypertension respond to the increased seismic activity C. Up to 80% of patients with hypertension respond to the geomagnetic storms D. Up to 90% of patients with hypertension respond with heightened solar activity. E. Up to 70% of patients with hypertension respond to the ozone layer

17. Choose the correct answer: A. * Meteotropic reactions may occur to the emergence of meteorological front, at the

time of passage of the front and after the B. Meteotropic reactions can occur at high seismic activity

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C. Meteotropic reactions may occur during geomagnetic storms D. Meteotropic reactions can occur at high solar activity. E. Meteotropic reactions can occur if the ozone layer

18. Choose the scheme of recleaning of sity draining waters: A. Mechanical recleaning – disinfection – biological cleaning – utilization of sediment B. Biological cleaning – disinfection C. Decontaminating, utilization of sediment - mechanical recleaning – disinfection D. * Mechanical recleaning - biological cleaning - utilization of sediment–disinfection E. Biological cleaning – utilization of sediment–disinfection

19. Choose the wright option A. * Up to 70%  pations who suffering from hypertonic disease react before the 1-2

days of synoptical front passing B. up to 50%  pations who suffering from hypertonic disease react when the seismic

activity increased C. up to 80%  pations who suffering from hypertonic disease react when there are

geomagnetic storms D. up to 90%  pations who suffering from hypertonic disease react when the sun activity

is elevated E. up to 90%  pations who suffering from hypertonic disease react when distroying of

ozone stratum occurs 20. Choose the right option

A. * Meteotropical reactions can appear before, during and after synoptical front B. Meteotropical reactions can appear when the seismic activity increased C. Meteotropical reactions can appear when there are geomagnetic storms D. Meteotropical reactions can appear when the sun activity is elevated E. Meteotropical reactions can appear when destroying of ozone stratum occurs

21. Clouds usually form when A. Evaporation has warmed the surrounding air B. * Aair temperature reaches the dew point C. Relative humidity is 0% D. Condensation nuclei have been removed from the air E. Rising sea levels

22. Coagulation and flocculation can remove more than ….. percent of suspended solids. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. * 80 E. 100

23. Define the correspondence between meteorogic conditions and increase in the risk of diseases while cooling ...

A. * Infectious diseases, respiratory diseases, kidney disease B. Blood Disorders C. Skin Diseases D. Heart Disease E. Chronic cholecystitis

24. Define the correspondence between meteorogic conditions and increase in the risk of diseases while heating ...

A. Chronic respiratory diseases B. Blood Disorders C. Skin Diseases D. * Heart Disease E. Kidney Diseases

25. Describe the main indicators, which can draw conclusions about the effectiveness of the structures of biological purification of sewage?

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A. * Biochemical oxygen demand BOD B. Residual chlorine C. Suspended matter D. PH E. Dissolved oxygen in water

26. Describe the sceme of purification of urban waste water A. Mechanical cleaning - disinfection - biological treatment - sludge disposal B. Biological treatment - disinfection C. Disposal, waste sludge - mechanical cleaning - disinfection D. * Mechanical treatment - biological treatment - disinfection - sludge disposal E. Biological treatment - sludge disposal - disinfection

27. Determination of threshold concentration of chemical substance by influence on organoleptical properties of water realized in experiment with:

A. High-sensitive laboratory animals B. * Humans-volunteers C. Precisial methods of physico-chemical analysis D. Computational methods based on molecular structure of substance E. Equipment

28. Determine accordance between meteorological conditions and increasing risk of illness when the humidity is low

A. * Chronical diseases of respiratory system B. Blood system diseases C. Skin diseases D. Heart diseases E. Renal diseases

29. Enter some basic parameters, which can draw conclusions about the effectiveness of mechanical wastewater treatment?

A. * Transparency water substance, color and smell B. PH of the water C. Increased water temperature D. The presence of a floating film on the water E. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

30. For one average test of soil it is necessary to get it: A. At the 4 points over the perimeter of rectangle B. * At the 5 points like ''envelope-shape'' C. In the 3 points over the triangle tops D. In the 5 points chosen arbitrarily E. In one spontaneous point

31. For the assessment of effectiveness one separate cleaning building, selection of tests of drained waters is maked:

A. at the entrance of building B. at the exit of building C. in the building D. * at the entrance and at the exit of the building E. in the building and at the exit of building

32. Grit chambers were designed to permit inorganic particles of size not less than A. * 0.2 mm B. 1 mm C. 2 mm D. 5 mm E. 10 mm

33. How called a cold, dry air mass that forms over land? A. A maritime tropical air mass B. * A continental polar air mass

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C. Anticyclone; D. Cyclone; E. Cold front.

34. How called a hot, moist air mass that forms over water A. * A maritime tropical air mass B. A continental polar air mass C. Cyclone; D. Anticyclone; E. Warm front

35. How is the aggregate of physical properties of the ground layer of atmosphere named after relatively short interval of time?

A. Climate B. * Weather C. Cyclone D. Anticyclone E. Climate of the belt

36. How is the area of the promoted pressure named by a diameter a 5000-6000 km with growth of him from periphery to the center?

A. Cyclones. B. * Anticyclones C. Front. D. Geliomagnetic field. E. Climate of the belt.

37. How is the process of adaptation named to the new climatic terms? A. Adaptation B. * Training C. Metheotropic reaction D. Urbanization E. Do not adaptation

38. How many are phases of acclimatization? A. One; B. Two; C. * Three; D. Four; E. Five.

39. How name long and narrow channel-shaped settling tanks on wastewater treatment plant which used to remove inorganic or mineral matter?

A. Sedimentation tank B. * Grit chambers C. Digester D. Sand beds E. Settlement tank.

40. Hygienic effectiveness of measures for sanitary protection of water objects A. The content of wastewater discharged into approved GDS B. State of water body compliance with environmental requirements C. * Compliance with water quality of the groundwater in paragraphs 1 and 2 water use

categories of sanitary rules and norms D. Line parameters of the treatment plant building regulations E. Biocenosis compliance status of groundwater.

41. Hygienic effectiveness of sewage pollution concentrations is measured in A. In the waste water after cleaning B. Water body in the water in the place of descent C. * In the water next to the first paragraph after lowering water use D. Water body in the water above the slope of sewage

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E. Water body in the water below the descent of sewage 42. Hygienic effectiveness of sewage treatment can be tested by water quality being measured at

the water body to create the control of A. * Next to the first paragraph after lowering water use B. Below the first paragraph after lowering water use C. 1 km above the descent of sewage D. 1 mile below the place of descent of sewage E. 2 km below the place of descent of sewage

43. Hygienic effectiveness of the treatment of industrial wastewater is considered sufficient if A. Technical efficiency of treatment facilities for more than 90% B. Technical efficiency of treatment plants more than 98% C. * Concentration of chemicals in controlling water use ranges corresponding MAC D. Technical efficiency of treatment facilities for more than 70% E. Sum of concentrations of individual relationships in waste substances to their

maximum concentration must not exceed 1.5 44. Hygienic significance of nitrate nitrogen in soil

A. * Index of ancient organic pollution B. Fresh organic pollution index C. Direct indicator of fecal contamination of soil D. Score clean soil E. Indirect indicator of soil contamination

45. Hygienic effectiveness of recleaning drained waters is sufficient when: A. Technical effectiveness of water cleaning equipment is more than 90 %; B. Technical effectiveness of water cleaning equipment is more than 98 %; C. * Concentration of chemical substances in control folds suits to limit dose; D. Technical effectiveness of water cleaning equipment is more than 70 %; E. Sum of ratios of concentrations separate substances in the drained waters to its limit

doses must not excel 1,5. 46. Hygienic effectiveness of recleaning drained waters is assessed by the quality of water in the

water object in the control fold: A. * At the first water using point after flowing down place B. Below the first after descent water using center C. 1 km before the place of throwing down the draining waters D. 1 km below the place of throwing down the draining waters E. 2 km below the place of throwing down the draining waters

47. Hygienic effectiveness of recleaning the drained waters is assessed by the concentration of pollution:

A. In the drained water after recleaning B. In the water of water-object in the flowing down place C. * In the water at the first water using point after flowing down place D. In the water at the water using point upper flowing down place E. In the water at the water using point below flowing down place

48. Hygienic effectiveness of recleaning the drained waters which are flowed down behind the city borders can be sufficient, if:

A. Technical effectiveness of water cleaning equipment is more than 90% B. Technical effectiveness of water cleaning equipment is more than 98% C. * Concentration of chemical substances in control folds suits to limit dose D. Concentration of chemical substances in nearest after throwing down place control

fold suits to limit dose E. Sum of ratios of concentrations separate substances in the drained waters to its limit

doses must not excel 1,5 49. What is hygienic meaning of nitrogen nitrates, which content in the ground?

A. * index of old organic pollution B. index of fresh organic pollution

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C. direct index of faecal pollution of ground and index of ground cleanness D. index of ground cleanness E. indirect index of ground pollution

50. What is hygienic meaning of presence the helminthes eggs in the ground? A. Index of old organic pollution B. Index of fresh organic pollution C. * Direct index of fecal pollution of ground D. Index of ground cleanness E. Indirect index of ground pollution

51. In medical classification of weather by Fedorov taken into account: A. * 24-hours change of air temperature, atmospheric pressure, speed of air motion B. Change of electro conductivity of atmosphere; C. Diminishing of maintenance of easy ions and carbon dioxide in air D. Diminishing of maintenance of oxygen and nitrogen in air; E. Ionization of air and humidity of air.

52. In north, cold condition for successful acclimatization of man promotes all but one of the following elements

A. High-calorie diet; B. Increase amount of vitamin of C; C. Rational clothes and habitation; D. The clear mode of labor and rest in the period of arctic night E. * Daily physical exercises

53. In the conditions of hot climate for successful acclimatization of man promotes A. Fatty food; B. * Rational light clothes; C. Decreases amount of protein of animal origin in food; D. Daily physical exercises E. Increases amount of vit B6.

54. In the conditions of hot climate instrumental in successful acclimatization of man A. * Rational mode of nutrition B. Clothes and rational habitation are facilitated C. Decline of amount of albumens of animal origin D. Capital habitation E. Products of animal origin are in the ration of feed

55. In what cases were wastewater discharges into the reservoir is not allowed? A. In a small reservoir where it can dilution of waste water purification and their rather

limited. B. If there are substances highly toxic wastewater. C. In the reservoir, which has a high chemical background pollution created by other

companies D. If sewage can be excluded due to rationalization of production, re-supply or disposal

of substances. E. * In all cases listed

56. Kind of climate prophylaxis A. * Physical hardening;B. Helio prophylaxis; C. Air prophylaxis; D. Bathing in the open-air basins; E. Changing of climate regions.

57. Liquid water can store more heat energy than an equal amount of any other naturally occurring substance because liquid water

A. Covers 71% of Earth’s surface; B. Has its greatest density at 4°C ;C. * Has the higher specific heat ;

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D. Can be changed into a solid or a gas ;E. None of above.

58. Main principal of primary treatment is A. * Physical removed of suspended solids B. Chemical removed of organic and non-organic material C. Biological reduces the organic material D. Only B and C E. All are correct

59. Main principal of secondary treatment is A. Physical removed of suspended solids B. Chemical removed of organic and non-organic material C. * Biological reduces the organic material D. Only A and B E. All are correct

60. Measures of prophylaxis of metheotropic diseases: A. Auto training, psycho prophylaxis; B. * Prophylaxis by the training; C. Healthy way of life; D. Prophylaxis by the vitamins; E. Liquidation of chronic infection in an organism.

61. Mechanical sewage treatment not includes A. Influx (Influent) B. Removal of large objects C. Removal of sand and grit D. Pre-precipitation E. * Post precipitation

62. Mechanical sewage treatment not includes A. Influx (Influent) B. Removal of large objects C. * Stabilization pond or lagoon D. Removal of sand and grit E. Pre-precipitation

63. Medical classification of weather provides after A.O. Ovcharovska prognosis of type of the weather are

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. * 7

64. Meteotropical reactions of organism are: A. Reno disease B. * Hypertonic crisis, exacerbation of ischemic heart disease; C. Botulism; D. Caisson disease; E. High-altitude disease.

65. Microbiological process that converts the chemically complex organic sludge to methane, carbon dioxide, and an inoffensive humus like material called

A. Filtration; B. Coagulation; C. * Digestion; D. Oxidation; E. Nitrification.

66. Negative easy ions of air A. Have oppressive action;

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B. Cause depression; C. Reduce the exchange of matters; D. * Improve the exchange of matters, give restorative an action; E. Promote arterial pressure.

67. On forming of climate influence: A. * Geographical location of region B. Intensity of cyclone activity of air C. Character of laying is surfaces of earth D. Intensity of sun radiation E. Economic activity of man

68. On water pollution of water objects, the organic A. Chromaticity B. * Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BSC) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) C. Thermotolerance Coli forms; D. Turbidity; E. Hardness.

69. Precipitation of drained water and fermentation of sediment are realized in…: A. * Two-storey settler; B. Horizontal settler; C. Vertical settler; D. Biocoagulator; E. Methane tank.

70. Related meteotropic diseases: A. * Cardiovascular B. Sunburn C. Pneumoconiosis D. Alimentary dystrophy E. Tuberculoses.

71. Rermented silt formed in A. In aerotank B. In biological C. In the vertical, horizontal tank D. * In metatank E. In biocoagulator

72. Secondary sedimentation tanks are technologically efficient when active sludge does not exceed ...

A. 10%. B. 20%. C. 30%. D. * 40% E. 50%

73. Setting a threshold concentration of the chemical impact on the organoleptic properties of water carried in the experiment using:

A. Highly sensitive laboratory animals B. * Human volunteers C. Precision physical-chemical analysis D. Calculation methods based on molecular structure of matter E. Equipment

74. Signs of hot dry climate: A. * High temperature of air and surrounding objects; B. High humidity of air; C. High humidity of air; D. In High humidity of air;tensive sun radiation; E. Hurricane winds.

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75. Signs of hot dry climate: A. * High temperature of air and surrounding objects B. High humidity of air C. Low humidity of air D. Intensive sun radiation E. Hurricane winds

76. Signs of north cold climate A. * Low temperatures of air and surrounding surfaces B. High humidity of air C. Low humidity of air D. High hurricane winds E. Electromagnetic indignations of atmosphere

77. Signs of north cold climate: A. * Low temperatures of air and surrounding surfaces B. High humidity of air; C. Low humidity of air; D. High hurricane winds; E. Electromagnetic indignations of atmosphere.

78. Soil with coli-titre = 0,1, no any egg of helminthes, sanitary number = 0,79, can be referred by the degree of pollution to:

A. Clean; B. Very contaminated; C. * Slight contaminated; D. Relatively safe; E. Dangerous.

79. Specify the body's Meteotropic response A. Hafska disease; B. * Hypertensive, crises, exacerbation of coronary disease; C. Botulism ;D. Bends;E. Altitude sickness.

80. Storm-water sewage not contains A. Bacteria B. Trace elements C. * Domestic wastes D. Oil and petrol E. Organic chemicals

81. The climate depends on all next things, exclude A. Geographical latitude B. Season of the year C. Time of the day D. Local relief E. * Ground porosity

82. The climate depends on all next things, exclude A. Geographical latitude B. Season of the year C. Time of the day D. Air pollution E. * Atmosphere pressure

83. The climate depends on all next things, exclude A. Geographical latitude B. Season of the year C. Time of the day D. Weather-climatic conditions

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E. * Atmospheric precipitation 84. The consensus in the scientific community is that altering atmospheric composition by the

addition of carbon dioxide and trace gases will eventually lead to a …… planet with a different distribution of climatic regimes.

A. Wetter B. Drier C. Cooler D. * Warmer E. Smaller

85. The description of the aggregate weather conditions of a place or region is referred to as A. synthesis B. * climate C. cyclogenesis D. weather E. averaging

86. The effectiveness of the estimated aerotank is A. PH, residual chlorine B. * BSC, oxidizability, ammonia nitrogen, nitrite, nitrate C. Suspended solids content, eggs and worms D. Thermotolerance coliform flying impurities E. Clerk

87. The effectiveness of the tanks is estimated A. Biologic oxygen consumption (BCC) B. Oxidizability C. Content thermotolerance koliform D. * Suspended solids content * E. PH

88. The following stages are distinguished meteolabile people: A. Home B. * Light C. Moderate expressed D. Strongly expressed E. Dangerous

89. The main criteria for choosing the place to make a polygon for solid everyday waste products are:

A. * Sufficient area, possibility for organization of sanitary-protective zone, soil and hydrogeologic conditions

B. Technical and economical argumentation, presence of widening perspective C. Possibility to organize sanitary-protective zone D. Disposition according to wind rose, level of ground waters E. Level of ground waters, direction of ground flow moving and speed, possibility to

organize sanitary-protective zone 90. The main indexes of effective drained-waters biocleaners working are:

A. * Biochemical oxygen consumption B. Residual chlorine C. Suspended substances D. pH E. Content of solved oxygen in the water

91. The main indexes of effective drained-waters biocleaners working are: A. * Transparency of water, suspended substances, colour and smell B. Water pH C. Increased temperature of water D. Presence of flowing scum on the water E. Biochemical oxygen consumption

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92. The main reason of weather changing is: A. * movement of air masses B. increased seismic activity C. geomagnetic storms D. increased solar activity E. destroying of ozone layer

93. The most common analyses of wastewater not include the measurements of A. * Smell B. Solids C. Biochemical oxygen demand D. Chemical oxygen demand E. pH

94. The name this climate is often used as a synonym for the dry-summer subtropical climate. A. European B. * Mediterranean C. Hudson Bay D. African E. Canadian

95. The process of adding chemicals such as aluminum sulfate for increasing rate of sedimentation of organic materials is

A. * Coagulation B. Infiltration C. Filtration D. Oxidation E. Nitrification

96. The rate of sedimentation is increased in some industrial waste-treatment stations by incorporating processes which called

A. * Coagulation B. Digestion C. Oxidation D. Nitrification E. Filtration

97. The two most important elements in a climatic description are temperature and …… A. Pressure B. Wind direction C. Altitude D. Wind speed E. * Precipitation

98. The weather after the cold front passes is usually A. Moist and warm; B. * Clear, dry, and invigorating C. Cloudy; D. Rainy; E. None of above.

99. There are next areas for decontaminating fluid waste products in the sewerage cleaning system:

A. Fields of sewage disposal B. * Air tank C. Biothermal cameras D. Fields of ploughing E. Fields of composting

100. There are next areas for decontaminating fluid waste products in the sewerage cleaning system:

A. Fields of sewage disposal

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B. Biothermal cameras C. * Air bio filters D. Fields of ploughing E. Fields of composting

101. To determine the correspondence between weather conditions and increased risk of diseases with low humidity :

A. * Chronic respiratory diseases B. Blood Disorders C. Skin D. Heart disease E. Kidney disease

102. Types of Climate prevention: A. * Training B. Helyo prophylaxis C. Aero prevention D. Swimming in open waters E. Change of climatic districts

103. Types of meteotropic reactions in people: A. * Exacerbation of chronic diseases B. Amnesia; C. Bulimia; D. Allergic rashes on the skin; E. Diarrhea.

104. Waste from health care centers can be disinfect by A. Concealing in landfills for solid waste B. Disinfection in hospitals with subsequent removal of ground for solid waste C. * Burning in special furnaces in hospitals D. Use pits Becker E. All the answers correct

105. Waste products from hospitals need to be decontaminated by means of: A. digging in the polygons for solid everyday waste products B. decontaminating on the hospital territory and then removal to the polygons for solid

everydau waste products C. * burning in the special ovens in hospitals D. using Bakker's pit E. all options are right

106. Wastewater originates mainly from all but one A. Domestic sources B. Industrial sources C. Groundwater sources D. Meteorological sources E. * All are correct

107. Water in the second category of using water centers must have no any smell, which can be found at:

A. Further chlorination B. * Immediately C. During further ozonation D. In one hour after chlorination E. In 2 hours after chlorination

108. Water in the second category of water use should not take the smell, that appears: A. Case of further chlorination B. * Right C. By further ozonation D. 1 hour after chlorination

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E. 2 hours after chlorination 109. What add in wastewater for increasing rate of sedimentation of organic materials

A. hyposulphyte sodium B. * aluminum sulfate C. fluorine D. chloric lime E. chlorine gas

110. What add in wastewater for increasing rate of sedimentation of organic materials A. hyposulphyte sodium B. fluorine C. chloric lime D. chlorine gas E. * ferric chloride

111. What are the facilities for biological cleaning of waste water A. Biological rates B. * Aerotank C. Secondary Sedimentation D. Metantank E. Silt areas

112. What causes the anticyclone weather conditions? A. * Weather stability, high pressure; B. Pressure, unstable weather, cloudiness, precipitation; C. Stability, low blood pressure, D. Instability, sunny, low blood pressure; E. Constant pressure, decreased humidity, abundant rainfall.

113. What climate does not depend on A. Latitude areas B. Seasons C. Day D. Air pollution E. * Atmospheric pressure

114. What climate does not depend on A. Latitude areas B. Seasons C. Day D. Weather conditions E. * Rain

115. What climate does not depend on: A. Latitude areas B. Seasons C. Day D. Relief E. * Soil porosity

116. What climatic district is not in a build classification of climate. A. Cold. B. Moderate. C. Hot. D. Warm. E. * Severe.

117. What is the direction of air movement in the anticyclone? A. * Counterclockwise B. Clockwise C. Top to Bottom D. Bottom-up

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E. Right to left 118. What is the direction of air movement in the cyclone?

A. * Clockwise B. Counterclockwise C. Top to Bottom D. Bottom-up E. Right to left

119. What is the essence of biological sewage treatment? A. Remove insoluble organic impurities B. Desanding C. Remove fat D. Removal of soluble organic substances E. * Mineralization of organic pollutants

120. What is the essence of mechanical wastewater treatment? A. * Removal of insoluble impurities fat B. Improved oxidation C. In the flotation and sorption D. Speeding neutralization and coagulation E. Mineralization of organic pollutants

121. What is the meaning of mechanical cleaning of water? A. * removing of insoluble admixtures of grease B. improving of oxidizing processes C. in the flotation and sorption D. acceleration of neutralization and coagulation E. mineralization of organic pollution

122. What one of the following includes the most common analyses the measurements of wastewater?

A. Temperature B. * Solids C. Chlorides D. Fluoride E. Transparence

123. What one of the following includes the most common analyses the measurements of wastewater?

A. * Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5) B. Temperature C. Smell D. Test E. Color

124. What one of the following includes the most common analyses the measurements of wastewater?

A. Residual chlorine B. Sulphates C. Smell D. Transparence E. * Chemical oxygen demand (COD)

125. What one of the following not includes the most common analyses the measurements of wastewater?

A. Solids B. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5 C. * Residual chlorine D. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) E. pH

126. What one of the following not removes on grit chamber?

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A. Sand B. * Bacteria C. Silt D. Gravel E. Cinders

127. What process is not method of wastewater treatment? A. Removal of large objects B. Primary treatment C. Secondary treatment D. Tertiary treatment E. * Chlorination

128. What processes are available to remove more than 99 percent of the suspended solids and BOD5.

A. primary treatment B. Secondary treatment C. * Tertiary treatment D. Chlorination E. Ozone treatment

129. What weather causes cyclones? A. Constant temperature, lower humidity, precipitation; B. Constant temperature, high humidity, precipitation; C. Stable pressure, high humidity, precipitation; D. * Low pressure, changes in temperature, high humidity, unstable weather; E. Changes in temperature and humidity, stability, weather, high humidity.

130. When cooler air displaces warmer air, we call the moving boundary A. occluded fronts; B. Anticyclone; C. Cyclone D. * Cold front E. Warm front

131. When the throwing down of drained waters in the basins is intolerable? A. When the basin is too small to resolve and recline the drained waters B. When the high toxic substances are present in the drained waters C. When the basin has already polluted by other enterprises D. When it's possible to exclude the throwind down by means of rationalization of

producing processes, repeated water supplying or utilization of valuable substances E. * In all counted cases

132. Where organic materials settle out and are drawn off for disposal? A. * In sedimentation tank B. In grit chamber C. In digester D. In sand beds E. In septic tank

133. Which device is used to determine atmospheric pressure dynamics A. Hygrometer; B. Barometer; C. * Barograph; D. Anemometer; E. Katathermometer.

134. Which device is used to determine the air temperature dynamics A. Katathermometer; B. * Thermograph; C. Barograph; D. Anemometer;

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E. Hygrometer. 135. Which device is used to determined the speed of air

A. Hygrometer; B. Thermograph; C. Barometer; D. * Anemometer; E. Katathermometer.

136. Which forms of wastewater are commonly referred to as infiltration A. From domestic sources B. From industrial sources C. * From groundwater sources D. From meteorological sources E. All are correct

137. Which forms of wastewater are commonly referred to as storm-water drainage? A. From domestic sources B. From industrial sources C. From groundwater sources D. * From meteorological sources E. All are correct

138. Which forms of wastewater are commonly referred to industrial waste? A. From domestic sources B. * From industrial sources C. From groundwater sources D. From meteorological sources E. All are correct

139. Which one from the following criteria is main, that characterizes a climate? A. Humidity of air, B. Atmospheric pressure, C. Average temperature of July; D. Light climate; E. * Average annual temperature of air

140. Which one from the following is major factor which forms a climate? A. Type of earth’s surfaces B. Distance from sea. C. Height above sea-level. D. Prevailing winds. E. * Geographical position

141. Which one of the following diseases belongs to meteotropic? A. * Diseases of cardiovascular system B. Sun burns; C. Pneumoconiosis; D. Nutritional dystrophy; E. Tuberculosis.

142. Which one of the following is a geophysical component of weather? A. Intensity of sun radiation B. * Voltage of atmosphere electric field, atmospheric ionization C. Temperature air and atmospheric pressure, D. Speed and direction of wind; E. Clouds, raining and snowing

143. Which one of the following is heliophysical component of weather? A. * Intensity of sun radiation B. Voltage of atmosphere electric field, C. Atmospheric ionization; D. Temperature air and atmospheric pressure, speed and direction of wind;

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E. Clouds, raining and snowing 144. Which one of the following is NOT a possible consequence of a greenhouse

warming? A. Shifts in the paths of large-scale cyclonic storms; B. * Reduction in secondary pollutants; C. Increase of heat waves and droughts; D. More frequent and intense hurricanes; E. Rising sea levels.

145. Which one of the following is not air mass according to their source region? A. Polar air masses; B. Polar air masses; C. * Frontal air masses; D. Frontal air masses; E. Frontal air masses; maritime air masses.

146. Which one of the following is not effects of cold climate on the body? A. Increased metabolism, B. Increased oxygenation of blood, C. Increased elimination of carbon dioxide ; D. Increased excretion of urine; E. * Diminishes the rate of respiration.

147. Which one of the following is not Effects of hot climate on the body? A. * Increased metabolism; B. Diminishes the rate of respiration; C. Retards elimination of carbon dioxide from the lungs; D. Decreases the amount of urea in the urine; E. Reduction in the oxygenation of blood.

148. Which one of the following is not Effects of hot climate on the body? A. Diminution of metabolism B. * Increased metabolism C. Diminishes the rate of respiration, D. Retards elimination of carbon dioxide from the lungs E. Decreases the amount of urea in the urine

149. Which one of the following is not meteorological component of weather? A. * Atmospheric ionization B. Temperature air C. Atmospheric pressure, D. Speed of wind; E. Direction of wind.

150. Which one of the following is not meteotropic reactions caused by changes of weather appears in meteodepending people

A. Bad feeling, B. Disorders of dreams, C. Decreasing on capacity, D. Fast feeling tired E. * Heart attacks.

151. Which one of the following are synoptic components of weather? A. Intensity of sun radiation B. Voltage of atmosphere electric field, atmospheric ionization; C. Temperature air and atmospheric pressure, D. Speed and direction of wind; E. * Clouds, raining and snowing

152. Which one of the following methods is form of biological treatment of wastewater? A. * Stabilization pond or lagoon; B. Coagulation;

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C. Infiltration; D. Filtration; E. Digestion.

153. Which one of the following type of weather absent in medical classification of weather by I.I.Grygoriev?

A. Weather that needs increased medical control; B. Weather that needs increased medical control ; C. Very favorable weather; D. Favorable weather; E. * Optimal weather.

154. Besides landforms and drainage, which is the third basic element of the natural environment?

A. TemperatureB. WindC. RainfallD. *ClimateE. Weather.

155. Why do we wear woolen clothes in winter?A. *To ward off coldB. To ward off heatC. To remain calmD. To remain drenchedE. To ward off humidity.

156. The sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time is called

A. WeatherB. * ClimateC. AnticycloneD. Cold weatherE. Cyclone.

157.  The state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time is known asA. *weatherB. climateC. heatD. cold

158. Why do coastal areas experience less contrast in temperature conditions?A. *Due to moderating effect of the seasB. Due to land massC. Due to heat conditionsD. Due to none of the above threeE. Due to all of the above three

159. Which of the following climatic controls is the most important?A. *LatitudeB. AltitudeC. Pressure and wind systemD. ContinentalityE. Coriolis force.

160. An apparent force caused by the earth's rotation is calledA. * Coriolis forceB. Centrifugal forceC. Centripetal forceD. Jet streamE. Due to all of the above

161. A temperature that is comfortable for hand washing

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A. about 20 °C; B. about 10 °C; C. * about 45 °C;D. about 80 °C; E. about 100 °C;

162. Ability of fabric fibers to absorb water stream from body surface and air and to keep it at particular conditions named

A. Air permeability; B. Stream permeability; C. * Gygroscopicity; D. Capillarity; E. Porosity of fabric.

163. Acrophase is…: A. * period of time when the maximal level of function is registered B. period of time when the minimal level of function is registered C. the difference between maximal and minimal level of biological rhythm D. minimal value of biological rhythm E. maximal value of biological rhythm

164. Acrophase is…: A. * period of time when the maximal level of function is registered B. mean of physiological function during the one biologycal cycle C. period of time so after it condition of organism is repeating D. period of time when the optimal level of function is registered E. period of time when the unstable function of organism is registered

165. Air permeability characterizes fabric’s ability A. to conduct water stream through fabric pores. B. to absorb water stream from body surface; C. to absorb drops of wet. D. * to conduct air through fabric pores E. to absorb air from body skin.

166. All animal fibers are resistant to A. alkalies (basic substances), B. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH), C. * Sulfuric acid (H2SO 4), D. Chlorine-based bleaches, E. Undiluted liquid hypo chloride bleach.

167. Amount all etiological factors of not infectious nature, which can change a level of health of the population, near 50 % take

A. Genetic factor B. * Way of life C. Pollution of an environment D. Medical etiological factors E. Moderate physical exercise

168. Basic principles of toughening up of man: A. To begin toughening up only in winter B. Tempered only in days off C. Tempered only in days vacations D. Tempering must be morning but at contrasting temperatures E. * Gradualness, systematic character, complexity, individual approach

169. Biorhythm is…: A. * self-induced independent alternation processes of organism conditions and

oscillations of physiological reactions of individual B. alternation processes of organism conditions, which need to be trained C. physiological oscillations of reactions as response to an irritation

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D. psychological reactions of organism as response to the actions of outer factors E. heart working rhythm

170. Biorhythm is…: A. * self-induced independent alternation processes of organism conditions and

oscillations of physiological reactions of individual B. rhythmical repetition of the same symptoms in the same time C. autonomous processes of organism, which are directed at recovery D. inner watch in organism E. biological driver of heart rhythm

171. Capillarity of fabric is a property to A. to conduct water stream through fabric pores. B. to absorb water stream from body surface; C. * to absorb drops of wet D. to conduct air through fabric pores. E. to absorb air from body skin.

172. Choose the option which dependes on synchronization of person's vital activity: A. * Physical shape B. sexual development C. relationship with surrounding people D. education level E. attention level

173. Choose the option which dependes on synchronization of person's vital activity: A. sexual development B. relationship with surrounding people C. education level D. * ability to work level E. attention level

174. Choose the option which dependes on synchronization of person's vital activity: A. * to feel well, person's mood B. sexual development C. relationship with surrounding people D. education level E. attention level

175. Choose the option which is in the sphere of personal hygiene: A. * hygiene of body and oral cavity, physical culture, hardening etc. B. tobacco smoking only after meals C. drinking alcohol only before go to bed D. taking hot bath during the working time E. admiration for playing domino

176. Choose the option which is in the sphere of personal hygiene: A. * Prevention of bad habits, hygiene of sexual life, hygiene of clothes and footwear

etc. B. taking hot bath during the working time C. admiration for playing domino D. tourism and alcoholism E. permanental visiting chess competition

177. Choose the option which is in the sphere of personal hygiene: A. * hygiene of resting and sleeping, hygiene of individual nourishment, hygiene of

mental working etc. B. tobacco smoking only after meals C. taking hot bath during the working time D. tourism and alcoholism E. permanental visiting chess competition

178. Choose the points which is for very high extaversion:

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A. * 22-26 points B. 30-35 points C. 40-45 points D. 17-21 points E. 0-6 points

179. Choose the points which is for very high extaversion: A. * 22-26 points B. 7-11 points C. 12-16 points D. 52-58 points E. 28-34 points

180. Choose the points which is for very high intraversion: A. * 0-6 points B. 22-26 points C. 30-35 points D. 40-45 points E. 17-21 points

181. Choose the right list of rooms in the steam bath-house: A. * Entrance, tambour, vestibule, cloakroom, healing room, changing room, washing

room, steam room, toilet B. the room's list does not metter, the main is comfortable microclimate and high-

quality water C. this list must meet the requirements to a sanitary section D. There must be playing automats, billiards and drugstore among the traditional and

obligatory rooms E. the room's list does not metter, the main is comfort

182. Desynchronose is…: A. * Kind of chronopathology B. process of treatment of chronical diseases C. forerunner of recovering D. improvement of physical shape E. breach of family relationship

183. Desynchronose is…: A. * concomitant of different diseases B. process of treatment of chronical diseases C. improvement of physical shape D. breach of family relationship E. violation of person's characteristics

184. Fabrics with low heat conductivity and moisture resistance and clothes from this fabrics may cause:

A. * Overheating of human organism B. Increase of body-mass index; C. Improvement of dental index D. Overcooling of human organism; E. Improvement of training of human organism.

185. For determination of temperament characteristics is used the next questioner: A. * Rusalov's B. Shmyshec's C. MMPI D. Mini-mult E. Cattel's

186. For determination of temperament characteristics is used the next questioner A. * Aizenka's B. Koniukhov's

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C. Spealberger's D. Shmyshek's E. MMPI

187. For investigation of fabric fibers origin use the followings methods: A. Irradiation by ultraviolet lamps; B. Irradiation by ionization radiation; C. * Processing by acetone D. Constricts of fibers; E. Protracted elimination in neutral washing solution.

188. For investigation of hygienical indexes for clothes textile there are use next methodics

A. * Determination of textile thickness and its solidity and capillarity B. determination of colour scale C. compatibility of colours D. cost of 1 square metre in hryvnia E. cost of 1 kg of textile in euro

189. For production of fabrics not used textile fibres of next origin A. Animal, B. Vegetable, C. Mineral, D. * Metal, E. Synthetic.

190. For research the fabric fibers origin use the followings methods: A. Irradiation by ultraviolet lamps; B. * Boiling with alkaline C. Irradiation by ionization radiation; D. Constricts of fibers; E. Protracted elimination in neutral washing solution

191. For research the fabric fibers origin use the followings methods: A. Irradiation by ultraviolet lamps; B. Irradiation by ionization radiation; C. Constricts of fibers; D. Protracted elimination in neutral washing solution. E. * Xanthoprotein reaction with HNO3

192. General requirements to fabrics which are use for making of clothes: A. To increase a weight and growth of human; B. To diminish mass and grew of people; C. To be fashionable and tender; D. * To have low (for winter clothes) or high (for summer clothes) heat conductivity* E. To change a color depending on the temperature of air.

193. General requirements to fabrics which are use for making of clothes: A. * To have the proper porosity, lightness, low gygroscopicity B. To be fashionable and tender; C. To change a color depending on the temperature of air; D. To change a color in dependence on the temperature of human body. E. To increase a weight and growth of human;

194. Gygroscopicity characterizes ability of fabric fibers to A. to conduct water stream through fabric pores. B. * to absorb water stream from body surface C. to absorb drops of wet. D. to conduct air through fabric pores E. to absorb air from body skin

195. Heat protection properties of fabric are defined by A. its air conduction ability;

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B. its water absorb ability; C. * its heat conduction ability; D. its heat absorb ability; E. its water conduction ability

196. Heat protection properties of fabric depends on A. porosity of fabric, B. thickness of fabric, C. character of fibers’ position. D. * All are correct E. None of above.

197. High level of mental and physical ability is determined by: A. * motivational direction B. good mood C. hereditary disposition D. high level education E. low level of neurotism

198. High level of mental and physical ability is determined by: A. * motivational direction B. high self-appraisal C. low self-appraisal D. physical training E. breeding

199. Hot water may more effectively clean hands, but does not A. increased capability a solvent, B. more effective at removing dirt; C. more effective at removing chemicals, D. * kill micro organisms E. more effective at removing oils.

200. How get artificial fibres ? A. Chemical synthesis from acids; B. * Chemical recycling of cellulose and other materials of natural origin C. Chemical synthesis from oil, coal, gas, and other organic raw materials D. Chemical recycling of silica sand; E. Chemical synthesis from boron carbide

201. How get synthetic fibres ? A. Chemical synthesis from acids; B. Chemical recycling of cellulose and other materials of natural origin; C. * Chemical synthesis from oil, coal, gas, and other organic raw materials. D. Chemical recycling of silica sand; E. Chemical recycling of glass;

202. Hygienic index of teeth is use to assess: A. * Cleanless and intensity of dental plaque B. number of caries teeth C. number of unharmed teeth D. number of fiiled teeth E. condition of oral cavity

203. Hygienic requirements to a soap: A. Must cumulating in an organism B. Not easily to be washed off from a skin C. * Must not cause a toxic or allergic action on human skin; D. Must be bad soluble in water; E. Must be easily soluble in alcohols

204. Hygienic requirements to soap: A. Soap must be sucked in a skin

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B. Must form dense and strong film on a skin C. Must cumulating in an organism; D. * Must not irritate a skin; E. Not easily to be washed off from a skin

205. If clothes are heavy, uncomfortable, dispose and press inner organs, it may cause: A. * Premature fatigue and overstrain B. Increase of body mass; C. Increase of physiometric indexes D. Improvement of training of human organism. E. Improvement of dental index.

206. In conditions of performing a lot of production operations when there is a discomfortable warming climate there is a necessity to provide a maximal absorbtion of water steam from air and body surface. What ability of clothes must be taken into consideration the first?:

A. * hygroscopicity B. steam permeability C. air permeability D. heat conductivity E. convection

207. Main purpose of tempering? A. The prophylaxis of the food poisonings and occupational diseases. B. Protects from venereal illnesses and AIDS C. Promotes adaptation possibilities of organism to influencing of unfavorable factors, D. * reduces a sensitiveness to the respirator and other infectious diseases E. Promotes adaptation possibilities of organism to tuberculosis, cholera and botulisms.

208. Medical clothes are: A. * Clothes for partial defense medical workers from the negative factors of hospital

environment; B. It is clothes for the protracted use by the drivers of ambulance. C. Clothes for distinction of head of department in hospitals; D. Clothes for patients; E. Clothes for operation;

209. Medical clothes are: A. Clothes for improve health; B. Clothes for patients C. Clothes only for surgeons D. Home clothes. E. * Clothes, that protected a medical worker from the negative factors of production

environment of hospital 210. Medical clothes are:

A. Clothes for improve health; B. Clothes for patients C. Clothes only for surgeons D. Home clothes. E. * Clothes, that protected a medical worker from the negative factors of production

environment of hospital 211. Modifying physiological curves include:

A. * plateau-shaped B. circadian C. circular D. traditional E. non-traditional

212. Modifying physiological curves include: A. * inert

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B. circular C. traditional D. non-traditional E. physiological

213. Modifying physiological curves include: A. * two-peacked B. circadian C. circular D. traditional E. physiological

214. Modifying physiological curves include: A. * invert B. circular C. traditional D. non-traditional E. physiological

215. Most hygienic properties have a clothes from fibres of : A. Mineral origin; B. * Natural origin C. Cotton in combination with rubber; D. Linen in mixture with a foam plastic; E. synthetic origin.

216. Most hygienic properties are a clothes from: A. Acetate, B. Acrylic, C. * Cotton, D. Viscous, E. Nylon.

217. Most objective indexes of efficiency of healthy way of life of man: A. * Life-span, morbidity, state of physical development, capacity B. Sharpness of sight and ear C. Beautiful appetite and absence of thirst D. Normal carriage and insignificant surplus mass of body E. Good appetite and sleep

218. Name the basic hygienic means of support of cleanness of human’s skin: A. Snow, ice, icy water; B. Alcohol and tonic; C. Deodorants, shampoos and insecticides; D. * Water, hard and liquid soap, shampoo etc; E. Sun, swimming pool, cream from sun tan and deodorant

219. One of the following is method of research of hygienic properties of fabrics: A. * Determination of thickness and density of fabric B. Determination of colourity C. Determination of transparency D. Determination a price of 1 m2 fabric; E. Determination of general hardness.

220. One of the following is method of research of hygienic properties of fabrics: A. Determination of transparency; B. Determination of color; C. * Determination of porosity and capillarity of fabric and Investigation of fabric fibers

origin D. Determination a price of 1 m2 fabric; E. Determination of amount of СО2.

221. One of the following is method of research of hygienic properties of fabrics:

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A. Determination of amount O2; B. Determination a price of 1 m2 of fabric; C. * Determination a price of 1 m2 of fabric; D. Determination of general hardness; E. Determination of transparency.

222. One of the following is method of research of hygienic properties of fabrics: A. Determination of amount CO2; B. Determination a price of 1 m2 of fabric; C. Determination of general hardness; D. Determination of transparency. E. * Investigation of fabric fibers origin

223. Optimal healthy life includes A. * Moderate physical exercise B. Athletic involvement C. Blood and urine examination at least twice a year. D. X –ray examination at least once a year. E. To weigh body mass at least once a week

224. Optimal healthy life includes A. * Mental peace B. Blood examination at least twice a year. C. Urine examination at least twice a year. D. To weigh body mass at least once a week E. X –ray examination at least once a year.

225. Optimal healthy life not includes A. Moderate physical exercise B. * Athletic involvement C. Sufficient nutrition D. Mental peace E. regulated way of life with proper rest and relaxation

226. Oral hygiene is a health program which not prevent one of the next diseases A. cavities (dental caries), B. gingivitis, C. * silicoses; D. periodontitis, E. bad breath (halitosis),

227. People should always wash their hands: A. After drinking milk B. After smoking C. * After using the toilet D. Before using toilet E. Before handling dogs or other animals

228. People should always wash their hands: A. * Before making or eating food B. After drinking alcohol C. After smoking D. Before handling dogs or other animals E. Before bathing

229. People should always wash their hands: A. * After handling dogs or other animals B. After drinking alcohol C. After smoking D. Before handling dogs or other animals E. Before bathing

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230. Please choose the main psychohygienical principles of optimization of human activity:

A. * Argumentation and differential introducing of psychohygienical correction measures

B. attestation of working places C. principles of organization of physical education D. Determination of mental ability E. Realization of physical hardening

231. Please choose the main psychohygienical principles of optimization of human activity:

A. * realization of hygienical standartisation of person's working activity, retional organization of afterworking activity

B. hygienical assessment of working and learning condition C. attestation of working places D. principles of organization of physical education, realization of physical hardening E. determination of mental ability

232. Please choose the synthetical polyvinyl-chloride textile among the list: A. lavsan B. orden C. capron D. triacetate E. * chlorine

233. Please choose what is the component of a synthetic detergent: A. * Surface active substances, alcylsulfates, alcylsulfonates, alcylarylsulfonates,

additions, which are improve washing properties etc. B. Spirits from sugars, natural greases, emulsifying agent, preservatives and scarifiers C. High quality ethers, natural origin glycerines and colouring agents D. Turpentine in the equal relation with the natural greases and glycerine E. Absolutely the same components as for fluid soap exclude higher fat acid

triglyceryds 234. Professional clothes (robes) are

A. * Clothes for defence worker intended for minimization of influencing of negative working factors

B. Clothes from natural fabric C. Worn next to the skin clothes D. Clothes for saunas and oxygen baths E. Clothes that answers to weather.

235. Professional clothes (robes) are: A. * Special clothes, intended for prevention or diminishing of influence on the worker

of dangerous or harmful working factors; B. Clothes for rest; C. Clothes from natural fabric; D. Clothes for display the body's beauty E. Clothes with “Face” of firm;

236. Professional clothes (robes) are: A. * individual defence, that dressing and body of worker or its part or use during work B. Clothes for rest; C. Clothes from natural fabric; D. Worn next to the skin clothes; E. Clothes for saunas and oxygen baths.

237. Psychogigienical researching studying A. * characteristics of character and temperament B. health condition, age and sexual peculiarities C. feelings of investigated person

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D. mood and level of sexual development E. adequacy of self-appraisal

238. Silk is the only natural filament that commonly reaches a length of more than A. 10 m; B. 25 m C. 100m D. 500 m E. * 1000 m

239. Stream permeability characterizes ability to A. * to conduct water stream through fabric pores. B. to absorb water stream from body surface; C. to absorb drops of wet. D. to conduct air through fabric pores. E. to absorb air from body skin.

240. The main aims of psychohygiene are: A. * lerning of person influence factor's characteristics B. using non-traditional forms of physical education C. using of traditional forms of professional-applied training D. introduction of optimal movemental regime E. realization of timing research

241. The main aims of psychohygiene are: A. * elaboration of aging standarts of person's development, lerning of person influence

factor's characteristics B. using non-traditional forms of physical education C. using of traditional forms of professional-applied training D. introduction of optimal movemental regime E. realization of timing research

242. The main aims of psychohygiene are: A. * Public neuro-psychological health analysis B. psychophysical training C. realization of professional orientation D. using non-traditional forms of physical education E. not correct

243. The main biorythmological principles of rational organization every-day person's activity include:

A. * introduction rational organization of free time methods B. increasing of organism resistance C. increase of positive emotional feeling D. improvement of collective microclimate E. decreasing of physical loading level

244. The main biorythmological principles of rational organization every-day person's activity include:

A. * providing with combination of working activity and the time of physical functions optimum, using movement activity as the synchronisator of biological rhythms

B. increasing of organism resistance C. increase of positive emotional feeling D. improvement of collective microclimate E. decreasing of physical loading level

245. The main purpose of washing hands is A. To cleanse the hands of bacteria B. To cleanse the hands of viruses C. To cleanse the hands of chemicals D. To removing dirt and oils E. * All are correct

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246. The main rules of behavior and safety being in public bath-house: A. * it's prohibited to use mercurial thermometers for measuring air temperature, also

bring washing and others means in glass package, also visite bath-house for persons who has infectious or fungal diseases etc.

B. It's recommended to visit a bath-house in the morning and in the working days C. It will be better to visit the bath-house in the period of maximal alcoholic

intoxication to take a contrast shower D. There is no any risk for bath-house visitor's healtn E. Such rules don't even exist

247. The oldest kind of fabric is A. Plants fabric, B. Chemical fabric, C. Artificial fabric, D. Synthetic fabric, E. * Animal fabric.

248. The oldest kind of fabric materials with high hygienic properties is A. * Natural, B. Chemical, C. Artificial, D. Synthetic, E. Mineral.

249. The principal component of silk is the protein A. Myosin; B. * Fibroin; C. Casein; D. Albumen; E. Keratin.

250. The principal component of wool is the protein A. Myosin; B. Fibroin; C. Casein; D. Albumen; E. * Keratin.

251. The vitamin synthesis function of skin is the synthesis of: A. Vit A B. Vit B C. Vit C D. * Vit D E. Vit E

252. There are the next determinative characteristics of psychical health A. * Absence of psychical diseases, favourable condition of CNS B. unfavourable condition of CNS, outrunning of psychical development according to

age C. absence of expressed accentuation of character D. presence of psychical disorders in relatives E. lowering of professional abilities

253. There are the next determinative characteristics of psychical health: A. * adequate to age neuro-psychical development B. absence of expressed accentuation of character C. lowering of professional abilities D. increase of movement activity E. outrunning of psychical development according to age

254. There are the next requirements to the everyday clothes: A. * To guarantee the optimal underclothes microclimate and warm comfort of person

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B. the clothes does not have to make an influence to forming the underclothes microclimate

C. the main hygienic demand is duration of using and humidity resistance D. hygienic demands is groundless, the main point is satisfaction of clothes user E. if the clothes can satisfy its user, then hygienic demands to the clothes is uncorrect

255. To promote and maintain a state of positive health an individual needs the following prerequisites except

A. Supply of fresh air and sunlight B. Safe and potable water supply C. balanced diet D. * Blood and urine examination at least twice a year. E. healthful shelter

256. To what types of vegetable fibers belongs cotton? A. * Seed fiber B. bast fibers; C. Vascular fibers; D. Grass-stem fibers; E. strips of leaf skins

257. Toothpaste can not use for: A. removal of dental plaque and food from the teeth, B. elimination and/or masking of bad breath (halitosis), C. deliver active ingredients to prevent tooth disease. D. deliver active ingredients to prevent gums (Gingiva) disease. E. * Grows of secondary teeth

258. Unwashed hands can cause most infections, especially A. Caries B. * Gastroenteritis C. Goiter D. Scurvy E. Anaemia

259. Unwashed hands can cause most infections, especially A. Caries B. Anaemia C. * Colds D. Beri-beri E. Pneumoconiosis

260. Vegetable fibers are resistant to A. alkalies (basic substances), B. * organic acids C. strong mineral acids; D. Chlorine-based bleaches; E. Undiluted liquid hypo chloride bleach.

261. Main characteristic of fibers

A. * Air permeability B. Stream permeability C. Gygroscopicity D. Capillarity E. Porosity of fabric

262. Way of life takes amount all etiological factors of not infectious nature, which can change a level of health of the population, near

A. 10 %

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B. 20 % C. 30 % D. * 50 % E. 80 %

263. What advantages of clothes from the fibers of natural origin above clothes from the fibers of chemical origin:

A. * The better air permeability B. Advantages absent; C. Advantage depends on mass of clothes; D. The fibers of chemical origin are more useful to the user; E. Thickness of fibers.

264. What advantages of clothes from the fibers of natural origin above clothes from the fibers of chemical origin:

A. The fibers of chemical origin are more useful to the user; B. Thickness of fibers; C. Colour of fibers; D. * The better stream permeability E. All depends on a fashion of clothes

265. What among the list is the artificial textile: A. lavsan B. nitron C. capron D. * triacetate E. chlorine

266. What are clothes? A. * It is a factor of defence of body from any displays of weather, mechanical and

chemical damages, bites of insects, animals, from a dust and bacterial infection B. It that is constantly utilized C. It is a factor which answers the seasons of year D. It is a factor which answers growth and mass of body of user E. It is a factor which belongs to the use in working hours

267. What are clothes? A. * It is a factor of defence of body from the unfavourable influencing of environment

and providing of thermal comfort B. It that which answers the wish of user and people C. It that is constantly use D. It is a factor which answers the seasons of year E. It is a factor which answers growth and mass of body of user

268. What are clothes? A. It that which answers the wish of user and people B. It is a factor of defence of body from a low or high temperature, streams of industrial

energy and rain. C. * It that is constantly utilized D. It is a factor which belongs to the use in working hours E. It is a factor, that use in home terms

269. What compound dissolved artificial acetate silk and do not dissolve natural fibers? A. Xanthoprotein; B. * Acetone; C. Sodium hydroxide, D. Sulfuric acid; E. Alcohol.

270. What disadvantages have some antibacterial soap? A. They kill pathogenic micro organism; B. * They kill "healthy" bacteria that live symbiotically on the skin's surface

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C. They easily washed off from a skin D. They good soluble in water; E. They have a very high alkalinity level.

271. What disease can be result from the use of sauna baths or other hot baths? A. Ear infection; B. * Heatstroke C. Hypothermia; D. Caries; E. Silicoses.

272. ?What is necessarily for prophylaxis of desynchronosis on a working place: A. * making micropauses B. reduction of negative emptions C. comfortable furniture D. good microclimate on office E. not correcn

273. What is necessarily for prophylaxis of desynchronosis on a working place: A. * hot meals B. improve your mood C. reduction of negative emptions D. comfortable furniture E. good microclimate on office

274. What is necessarily for prophylaxis of desynchronosis on a working place: A. * Organisation of day-sleeping, periods of silence, hot meals B. reduction of negative emptions C. comfortable furniture D. good microclimate on office E. not correct

275. What is need for normal skin functioning: A. * to keep your skin in cleanness B. to use deodorant C. Use only distillate water D. Don't wash the body with water but use only aromatisators and lotions E. To limit body washing but use to wear every day ironed underwear

276. What is need for normal skin functioning: A. * to use a water as a main means for skin washing B. Don't wash the body with water but use only aromatisators and lotions C. Rub your skin with perfume or alcohol D. Use only distillate water E. To limit body washing but use to wear every day ironed underwear

277. What is NOT a bad habit? A. narcomania B. alcoholism C. tobacco smoking D. * melomania E. toxicomania

278. What is NOT a bad habit? A. narcomania B. alcoholism C. tobacco smoking D. * bibliomania E. toxicomania

279. What is the density of fibers? A. It is weight of 1 cm2 of fabric (in grams). B. * It is weight of 1 cm3 of fabric (in grams)

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C. It is an amount of fibres in 1 cm3 D. It is an amount of fibres in 1 cm2 E. It is correlation of diameters of fibres to their weight

280. What is the ecological mean of synthetic detergents?: A. * Synthetic detergents must have a high degree of biological splitting in water basins

(to 80% ), limit – permited concentrating of superficially active substances – 0,5 mg/l for anion and till 0,1 mg/l unionogenic substances

B. Synthetic detergents enrich water basins with oxygen and nitrogen C. Synthetic detergents contribute to effective water aspiration D. Synthetic detergents contribute discolouration and better transparency of water E. Synthetic detergents is useful or indifferent for water

281. What is the porosity of fabric? A. It is correlation of diameters of fibres to their weight; B. It is correlation of diameters of fibres to their size; C. It is content of water in fabric in volume units (in %). D. * It is content of air in fabric in volume units (in %) E. It is weight of 1 cm3 of fabric.

282. What kind of fabrics is the best for inner layers of clothes? A. Synthetic fabrics, B. * Natural fabrics C. Artificial fabrics; D. Mineral fabrics; E. Chemical fabrics

283. What measures are necessary for prophylaxis of caries: A. * fluorining of water, anticaries diets, care of oral cavity B. viewing of oral cavity C. using of herbal extracts D. cleaning of teeth with soda E. gargling teeth with water

284. What tipe of fiber is used to make a linen to relief pain in a patient who has arthritis?: A. * chlorine B. silk C. flax D. cotton E. lavsan

285. Which are the main indexes of expression of principal temperament characteristics: A. * Strength of motivation, speed characteristics of motoric activity B. mood changes, stability of emotional manifestations C. professional direction, self-improving D. mental abilities E. psychophysioilogical adaptation

286. Which are the main indexes of expression of principal temperament characteristics: A. * stability of movement manifestation B. mood changes C. professional direction D. mental abilities E. self-improving

287. Which one of number of factors is not caused body smells A. Chemicals in sweat B. Wastes excreted through the skin C. The actions of bacteria that live on the skin; D. * Bathing E. Feed on dead skin cells and sweat

288. Which one of the following animals not used as sources of hair fibers for textiles?

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A. camels, B. llamas, C. * foxes; D. rabbits, E. Kashmir (or cashmere) goats.

289. Which one of the following are chemical properties of fabric: A. Firmness to the changes of the electrical state of atmosphere B. * Firmness to acids C. Firmness to the sunrays; D. Firmness to the ultraviolet rays E. Firmness to the changes of barometric pressure

290. Which one of the following are chemical properties of fabric: A. Firmness to the ultraviolet rays B. Firmness to the changes of the electrical state of atmosphere C. Firmness to the combined influencing of chemical composition of air D. Stability to the changes of air humidity E. * Firmness to alkali

291. Which one of the following are chemical properties of fabric: A. Firmness to the changes of air temperature; B. Firmness to the changes of barometric pressure; C. Firmness to the combined influencing of chemical composition of air; D. * Firmness to the organic solvents; E. Firmness to the changes of air humidity.

292. Which one of the following are physical properties of fabrics: A. * Thickness and density B. Firmness to UV-rays; C. Firmness to ultrasound D. colority and general hardness; E. Firmness to acids.

293. Which one of the following are physical properties of fabrics: A. Firmness to UV-rays; B. * Porosity and capillarity C. Firmness to acids D. Firmness to ultrasound; E. stability to the changes of barometric pressure

294. Which one of the following are physical properties of fabrics: A. Firmness to UV-rays; B. Firmness to organic solvents. C. Firmness to ultrasound; D. * Porosity and density; E. stability to the changes of humidity.

295. Which one of the following fibers got by chemical recycling of cellulose and other materials of natural origin?

A. Mineral, B. Natural, C. * Artificial, D. Synthetic, E. Biological.

296. Which one of the following fibers got by chemical synthesis from oil, coal, gas, and other organic raw materials?

A. Mineral, B. Natural, C. Artificial, D. * Synthetic,

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E. Biological. 297. Which one of the following is an advantage of synthetic fabrics?

A. Low antimicrobial properties, B. * resistance to rubbing C. big thickness, D. bad elasticity; E. low gygroscopicity.

298. Which one of the following is an advantage of synthetic fabrics? A. big thickness, B. very absorbent, C. resistant to most organic acids D. * elasticity; E. low gygroscopicity.

299. Which one of the following are artificial fibres? A. Silk B. Wool, C. Cotton, D. * Viscous, E. Nylon.

300. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of synthetic fabrics? A. mechanical strength, B. resistance to rubbing, C. antimicrobial properties, D. elasticity; E. * low gygroscopicity

301. Which one of the following is hygienic requires of everyday clothes? A. To have toxic, chemical additions excreted into environment, B. To have physical and chemical properties unfavourable for human organism; C. * To improve heat comfort of people D. To harden breathing and blood circulation; E. To harden motions of human, to dispose and press inner organs,

302. Which one of the following are natural fibres from plants? A. Silk B. Wool, C. * Cotton, D. Viscous, E. Nylon.

303. Which one of the following is not purpose of bathing? A. Hygiene, and the physical appearance of cleanliness; B. * Discoloration skin; C. Decontamination from chemical hazards. D. Recreation E. Decontamination from biological hazards.

304. Which one of the following is not purpose of use bathing as therapy (e.g. hydrotherapy),

A. * physical appearance of cleanliness B. healing, C. rehabilitation from addiction, D. rehabilitation from injury; E. relaxation.

305. Which one of the following is a not classical temperament? A. * normal, B. melancholic, C. phlegmatic,

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D. sanguine, E. choleric.

306. Which one of the following is not component of personal hygiene A. washing of the body and hair frequently B. Oral hygiene C. Cleaning of the clothes and living area. D. * Optimal daylight in room E. Wear clean underwear and clothing daily.

307. Which one of the following is not component of personal hygiene A. Frequent washing of hands and/or face. B. * Proper artificial ventilation in living area C. Daily brushing and flossing teeth D. Cleaning of the clothes E. Cleaning of the living area

308. Which one of the following is not hygienic requires of everyday clothes? A. To improve heat comfort of people. B. * To answers of growth and mass of body of people; C. To be enough strong, easily cleaned from external and internal pollution. D. Not to have toxic, chemical additions excreted into environment, E. Not to have physical and chemical properties unfavourable for skin and human

organism in whole. 309. Which one of the following is not hygienic requires of everyday clothes?

A. To provide optimum under-clothes microclimate; B. Not to harden breathing and blood circulation; C. Not to harden motions of human, D. Not to dispose and press inner organs, parts of apparatus of support and motions. E. * To answers of growth and mass of body of people;

310. Which one of the following are synthetic fibres? A. Acetate, B. Wool, C. Cotton, D. Viscous, E. * Nylon.

311. Which one of the following number of factors is not caused body smells A. Wastes excreted through the skin B. The actions of bacteria that live on the skin C. Feed on dead skin cells and sweat D. Unwashed clothes, such as underwear and socks E. * Hand washing

312. Which weight of clothes must be (in % from mass of body): A. no more than 20-30 %; B. no more than 40-50 %; C. no more than 1-5 %; D. * no more than 8-10 %; E. no more than 60-75 %.

313. Working clothes – is…: A. * Special means for preventing or releaving dangerous or harmful production

influences on worker B. clothes for rest C. ''face'' of company D. Clothes made of natural textile E. Underwear

314. Optimal healthy life includes

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A. * Moderate physical exercise, investigation of fabric fibbers origin and determination a price of 1 m2 of fabric

B. Athletic involvement C. Blood and urine examination at least twice a year. D. X –ray examination at least once a year. E. Determination of amount CO2;

315. Which one of the following are natural fibres? A. Acetate, B. Not correct answer, C. *Cotton, D. Viscous, E. Nylon.

316. The main purpose of washing hands is A. *To cleanse the hands of bacteria B. To cleanse the hands of animalC. To cleanse the hands of natural D. To removing soil E. All are correct

317. Oral hygiene is a health program which prevent one of the next diseases A. scoliosisB. *gingivitis, C. silicoses; D. hepatitis, E. trauma

318. Which one of the following are not physical properties of fabrics: A. Thickness B. *Firmness to UV-rays; C. DensityD. PorosityE. capillarity

319. Which one of the following is component of personal hygiene A. Frequent washing of hands and face. B. * Proper artificial ventilation in living area C. Proper natural ventilation in living area D. Cleaning of the clothes E. Cleaning of the living area

320. Which one of the following is not component of personal hygiene A. washing of the body and hair frequently B. Oral hygiene C. Cleaning of the clothes and living area. D. * Optimal natural illumination in room E. Wear clean underwear and clothing daily.

321. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. Minimum a 1 time per week B. Minimum 2 times per week C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per day E. * Minimum 2 times per day

322. Name the plan of settlement with a designation of a place accommodation of the ground area under construction projected object

A. general plan; B. * situational plan C. horizontal plan D. Facades plan

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E. explanatory note 323. Name the plan of settlement with a designation of a place accommodation of the

ground area under construction projected object A. general plan; B. * situational plan C. horizontal plan D. Facades plan E. explanatory note

324. What square must be on the one patient in many beds ward? A. 11m2 B. 9 m2 C. * 7 m2 D. 22m2 E. 5,5 m2

325. How many patients must be in the typical wards section A. 25 B. 35 C. * 30 D. 15 E. 20

326. A chamber section in therapeutic separations is designed on: A. 50 beds B. 60 beds C. * 30 beds D. is not regulated E. Regulated only in city hospitals

327. A chamber section in therapeutic separations is designed on: A. 50 beds B. 60 beds C. * 30 beds D. is not regulated E. Regulated only in city hospitals

328. A city hospital consists of separate surgical and therapeutic buildings which are placed along a few separate houses which are intended for infectious, maternity and child's separations. To define the system of building of hospital.

A. Centralized block B. centralised C. Dentralised D. * mixed E. hostel

329. A city hospital consists of separate surgical and therapeutic buildings which are placed along a few separate houses which are intended for infectious, maternity and child's separations. To define the system of building of hospital.

A. Centralized block B. centralised C. Dentralised D. * mixed E. hostel

330. According to the hygienic requirements in the hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:

A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House

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D. In doctors room E. * operating

331. The hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:

A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room E. * operating

332. Indicate where exhaust ventilation present in the hospital`s rooms :A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room E. * operating

333. Airing of the Chamber carried out by multiple air vents open during the day. What of the following indicators to evaluate the effectiveness of airing?

A. oxygenation of air B. the concentration of carbon monoxide C. * the concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. oxygen content

334. Allowable quantity of beds in isolator of infections department A. 6 beds B. 4 beds C. 3 beds. D. * 2 beds E. 5 beds

335. Allowable quantity of beds in isolator of infections department A. 6 beds B. 4 beds C. 3 beds. D. * 2 beds E. 5 beds

336. At sanitary examination of project of infectious hospital was set, that isolator room and half-of isolator room are the basic architectural elements of the infection department. By absence of which to the element half of isolator differs from isolator?

A. By absence of ward B. By absence of toilet facilities C. By absence of sluice D. By absence of Entrance from the departmen E. * By absence to Entrance from a street

337. At sanitary examination of project of infectious hospital was set, that isolator room and half-of isolator room are the basic architectural elements of the infection department. By absence of which to the element half of isolator differs from isolator?

A. By absence of ward B. By absence of toilet facilities C. By absence of sluice D. By absence of Entrance from the departmen E. * By absence to Entrance from a street

338. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of measures of a prophylaxis. Which one from next has the primary value?

A. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments

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C. specific immune prophylaxis; D. * exposure and isolation of source of infection E. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature

339. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of measures of a prophylaxis. Which one from next has the primary value?

A. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital; B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments C. specific immune prophylaxis; D. * exposure and isolation of source of infection E. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature

340. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?

A. 30 m2 B. 24 m2 C. 28 m2 D. * 40 m2 E. 52 m2

341. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?

A. 30 m2 B. 24 m2 C. 28 m2 D. * 40 m2 E. 52 m2

342. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?

A. 24 m2 B. 28 m2 C. 30 m2 D. * 40 m2 E. 52 m2

343. Biological laboratory Regional Hospital conducts monthly quality control pre sterilisation processing and sterilization of instruments, using, in particular, samples from the test indicators. What control using these samples?

A. * The temperature in the autoclave B. General microbe semination C. Remains of blood D. Remnants of detergents E. The pressure in the autoclave

344. Building of dermato-venereology and oncologic departmens is foreseen by the project of reconstruction of central district hospital. Which system of deleting of wastes is most hygienical requirements?

A. * Collection in air-tight capacities with a next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital

B. the separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization at the plant for incineration of garbage D. disinfection by 5 % solution of chloric lime and burying on the ground of domestic

wastes E. the compatible deleting with other hard wastes from hospital

345. Building of dermato-venereology and oncologic departmens is foreseen by the project of reconstruction of central district hospital. Which system of deleting of wastes is most hygienical requirements?

A. * Collection in air-tight capacities with a next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital

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B. the separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization at the plant for incineration of garbage D. disinfection by 5 % solution of chloric lime and burying on the ground of domestic

wastes E. the compatible deleting with other hard wastes from hospital

346. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. What type of building is most expedient in this case?

A. decentralized B. centralized C. is mixed D. Block E. * centralized block

347. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. What type of building is most expedient in this case?

A. decentralized B. centralized C. is mixed D. Block E. * centralized block

348. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. What type of building is most expedient in this case?

A. decentralized B. centralized C. is mixed D. Block E. * centralized block

349. Choose a hospital room, which rated the temperature 22 degrees: A. Corridor B. * Checking bandaging C. Chamber D. Operating E. not corect answer

350. Determine the best time of the infectious hospital waste water in septic tanks to achieve effective mechanical cleaning?

A. 3 hours B. 3 days C. 5 hours D. * 5 days E. half a year

351. During the reconstruction of city hospital in town, located on 55° to north, transference of surgical block is planned from a underground on 1-floor of the building. What part of the direction is it necessary to orientate the windows of new operating hall on for creation of optimum terms of labour of surgical personnel?

A. West B. east C. * north D. South E. South-west

352. Elbow taps equip: A. Gateways boxes B. Procedure room C. Surgery. D. House of newborns. E. * Preoperative.

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353. For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?:

A. should be not less than 10 m B. should be not less than 15m C. * should be not less than 25 m D. should be not less than 30 m E. should be not less than 40m

354. For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?:

A. should be not less than 10 m B. should be not less than 15m C. * should be not less than 25 m D. should be not less than 30 m E. should be not less than 40m

355. For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?

A. should be not less than 10 m B. should be not less than 15m C. * should be not less than 25 m; D. should be not less than 30 m E. should be not less than 40m

356. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2 in air . What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward?

A. * 0,1 % B. 1,0 % C. 10,0 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

357. What is the maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide in patient room? A. * – 0,1 % B. – 1,0 % C. – 10,0 % D. – 0,25 % E. – 0,5 %

358. Frequency of wet cleaning aseptic chambers: A. Once a day B. * Twice a day C. Once a week D. Twice a week E. three times a week

359. General area of therapeutic separation makes 28 m2. What maximal amount of beds is this ward counted on?

A. 2 B. 5 C. 3 D. * 4 E. 1

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360. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?

A. To 300 B. * To 500 C. To 1000 D. To 1500 E. To 2000

361. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?

A. To 300 B. * To 500 C. To 1000 D. To 1500 E. To 2000

362. How many patients must be in the typical wards section A. 25 B. 35 C. * 30 D. 15 E. 20

363. What are the number patients must be in the one typical hospital wards section? A. 25 B. 35 C. * 30 D. 15 E. 20

364. How many posts of the on duty nurse are in one ward section? A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

365. How many posts of the on duty nurse are in one ward section? A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

366. What are number of the duty nurse`s post in one ward section? A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

367. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Minimum 2 times per a week. C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. * Minimum 2 times per a day

368. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. Minimum a 1 time per a week

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B. Minimum 2 times per a week. C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. * Minimum 2 times per a day

369. In a hospital, which is built, should be artificial illumination. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps:

A. Operation room (general illumination) – 200 lux B. * Examination rooms – 190 lux C. Ward– 40 lux D. Corridors – 15 lux E. Dressing-room– 50 lux

370. In a hospital, which is built, should be artificial illumination. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps:

A. Operation room (general illumination) – 200 lux B. * Examination rooms – 190 lux; C. ward– 40 lux D. Corridors – 15 lux E. Manipulation – 50 lux.

371. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps in the hospital?

A. Operation room (general illumination) – 200 lux B. * Examination rooms – 190 lux; C. ward– 40 lux D. Corridors – 15 lux E. Manipulation – 50 lux.

372. In identifying the hospital infection in the hospital to hold a particular set of measures on prevention. Which of the following activities is of paramount importance?

A. of the disinfection of all hospital premises; B. To strengthen control over sterilisation of instruments; C. Specific immunization; D. * Detection and isolation of the source of infection; E. Isolation of patients with fever.

373. In purulent operating a surgical department patient with leg amputation gangrene. How does the waste disposed of origin operating in hospitals?

A. * burned in special furnaces B. are being exported to waste solid waste C. are being exported to the special places for dumping animals. D. bury oneself at the hospital E. crushed and discharged into sewer

374. In the dressing surgical department to start work was a common bacterial contamination of the air. What should be a general indicator of microbial numbers in this case?

A. 300 B. * to 500 C. Up to 1000 D. Up to 1500 E. Before 2000

375. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with: A. health B. With the cardiovascular diseases C. * with influenza D. By the opthomalogical diseases E. pathological pregnancy

376. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with:

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A. health B. With the cardiovascular diseases C. * with influenza D. By the opthomalogical diseases E. pathological pregnancy

377. In the rural hospital, which is being built, to ensure a minimum level of facilities artificial illumination. What is the premise of this hospital will not be a violation of artificial lighting fluorescent lamps:

A. Operating (general lighting) - 200 lx; B. * A doctor's office - 300 lx; C. House - 40 lx; D. Corridors - 15 lx; E. manipulative - 50 lx.

378. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small powerv

379. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small powerv

380. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small power

381. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small power

382. In what conditions should be chlorinated products? A. In the light of B. In the dark C. * In dry and dark place D. In a closed container E. In the wet ground

383. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel A. * Operating B. A doctor's office

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C. Lobby D. Corridor E. doctors room

384. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel A. * Operating B. A doctor's office C. Lobby D. Corridor E. doctors room

385. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator: A. * room B. Preoperative C. Operating D. Opaque Chamber E. family

386. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator: A. * room B. Preoperative C. Operating D. Opaque Chamber E. family

387. Less light using fluorescent bulbs is operating as: A. 50 B. 100 C. 300 D. * 400 E. 1000

388. Levels of noise in the wards shall not exceed: A. 10 dB. B. 15 dB. C. 20 dB D. 25 dB. E. * 30 dB

389. Light coefficient in doctors room must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

390. Light coefficient in operation room must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

391. Light coefficient in operation room must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

392. Light coefficient in hospital corridor must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4

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C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. * 1:8-1:10

393. Light coefficient in wards must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

394. Light coefficient in wards must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

395. Light ratio of medical dentists must be: A. 1:2 - 1:3 B. * 1:4 - 1:5 C. 1:6 - 1:7 D. 1:8 - 1:9 E. 1:9 - 1:10

396. Light ratio, which recommended in operating. A. 1:2-1:2,5. B. 1:2-1:3. C. 1:4-1:5. D. 1:3-1:4. E. * 1:2-1:4.

397. Major professional harm to the medical staff? A. * Mental and moral tension B. Prolonged stay on their feet C. Lack of artificial lighting D. Lack of artificial lighting E. Uncertainty

398. Mark, which incorrectly indicated the rate of natural lighting. A. The operating - 2%. B. * In handling - 1%. C. Check bound - 2% D. House - 1%. E. Corridors of 0.1%.

399. Mark, which incorrectly stated the rule light ratio: A. The operation - 1:2 - 1:4. B. Surgery - 1:4 - 1:5. C. In Chambers - 1:6 - 1:8. D. * In the wards - 1:8 - 1:10 E. In the corridor - 1:8 - 1:10.

400. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead, behind and the sides. A. general plan B. situational plan; C. * Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

401. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead, behind and the sides. A. general plan B. situational plan;

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C. * Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

402. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:

A. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:

B. malaria mosquitoes C. helminths D. Sick animals infections E. * herbs

403. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to chemical A. anaesthetics B. antibiotics C. antibiotics D. * dust that contains silicon dioxide E. dust that contains silicon dioxide

404. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to the physical

A. ionizing, e / m and laser radiation B. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound, noise, vibration) C. increasing the atmospheric pressure D. poor lighting and high light load E. * physiological

405. Name the adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. load of the senses (hearing, sight) B. * stressful situation (the need to make a decision in a deficit time) C. forced to working out and static load D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory E. lack of professional training in some young professionals

406. Name the factor, which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection: A. the level of wound contamination B. the length of incision C. opening the windows D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery E. use of antibiotics

407. Name the factor, which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection: A. the level of wound contamination B. the length of incision C. opening the windows D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery E. use of antibiotics

408. Name the group of harmful and dangerous factors that are not typical for doctors of different specialties:

A. Physical B. * Made C. Chemical D. Biological E. Physiological

409. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected building and other buildings are represented.

A. * general plan B. situational plan C. Facades plan

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D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

410. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected building and other buildings are represented.

A. * general plan B. situational plan C. Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

411. Nazvit adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. load of the senses (hearing, sight) B. * working with dead material C. forced to working out and static load D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory E. lack of professional training in some young professionals

412. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 20 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 48%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. * comfortable microclimate B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. Microclimate discomfort heating type D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air

413. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 25 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 78%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. Microclimate comfortable B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. * Microclimate discomfort heating type D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air

414. On lot land of hospital at the mixed system of building select a main corps, polyclinic, obstretics-gyaenocological building, infectious building, kharcheblok, economic buildings, pathoanatomical corps, and hospital garden, with the bar of the green planting. What must be the maximum percentage of build up hospital in the area?

A. 25 % B. 35 % C. 20 % D. * 15 % E. 10 %

415. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room A. The south, a southeast B. * The north C. The west, a southwest D. The east, northeast. E. The west

416. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room A. The south, a southeast B. * The north C. The west, a southwest D. The east, northeast. E. The west

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417. Please provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. * The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.1% B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of hg C. Frequency - 50 lx D. aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter. E. Oxygenation of air - up to 1 mg oxygen / m3

418. provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.2% B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of hg C. Oxygenation of air - to 2 mg O2 / m3 D. * Aerobic Bacterial - to 3500 in 1 m3 in summer E. Aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter

419. On instructions from the doctor nurse made the measurements needed to evaluate the micro-climatic conditions in hospital wards. The results of measurements: the average temperature - 19 0 C, the speed of air - 0.1 m / sec, relative humidity - 50%, which corresponds to a comfortable microclimate. By that action can achieve such conditions in the wards for elderly patients?

A. * According space heating, ventilation and air conditioning B. Selection of appropriate clothing and footwear C. Ttraining D. Rational diet E. Rational diet

420. Primary prevention of diseases including: A. Warning of further development of diseases B. * Warning of further development of diseases C. Prevention of complications of the disease D. Rehabilitation E. Prevention of recurrence of disease

421. Procedural therapy department requires periodic preventive disinfection. 12 m2 floor space, height of 3.8 meters procedural panels at a height of 1.7 m covered with oil paints, floor tiles covered. What disinfecting means necessary to apply for this purpose?

A. The solution of bleach 3-5% B. * The solution chloramine 1-2% C. The solution sulfanol 0.5% D. The solution of caustic soda E. Carbolic acid solution

422. Provides nutrition in hospital? A. * Hygienic conditions aimed at ensuring patients complete somatic and mental

comfort B. Hygienic conditions that provide patients a long, deep sleep C. Skilful care D. The presence of light house E. The availability of comfortable beds

423. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 % C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

424. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 %

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C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

425. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic’s ward corresponds to the hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 % C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

426. Relative humidity of air in the oncology wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

427. Relative humidity of air in the pediatrictic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

428. Relative humidity of air in the surgery wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

429. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

430. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

431. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate; B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

432. Select the correct option for the doctor's office: A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m

/ s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02

m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally.

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C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally

D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally

E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s, changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally.

433. Select the correct option for the doctor's office: A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m

/ s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02

m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally. C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s,

changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s,

changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s,

changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally. 434. Select the correct option for the doctor's office:

A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally

B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally.

C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally

D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally

E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s, changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally.

435. Set to be micro-climatic conditions in the ward for patients with severe burns? A. Temperature - 200S, relative humidity - 40%, the speed of air - 0.1 m / s B. Temperature - 180S, relative humidity - 50%, the speed of air - 1 m / s C. Temperature - 150S, relative humidity - 60%, the speed of air - 1 m / s D. * 22-250S temperature, relative humidity - 55%, the speed of air - 0.05 - 0.1 m / s E. Temperature - 280p relative humidity - 65% of the speed of air - 0.5 m / s

436. Specify one of the five given options, which are located on the right order (1st, 2nd, 3rd places) factors that cause occupational diseases doctors:

A. * Chemistry (1), biological (2), psychological (3) B. biological (1), psychological (2), Physics (3) C. Physics (1), biological (2), chemical (3) D. Biology (1), chemistry (2), psychological (3) E. psychological (1), chemistry (2), biological (3)

437. Specify one of the five given options, which are one to one (1st, 2nd, 3rd places) diseases that cause the disease with temporary disability benefits:

A. * of the inspiration (1), circulatory system (2), skeletal system (3) B. bodies inspiration (1), the bone system (2), circulatory system (3) C. bodies inspiration (I), digestive system (2), cardiovascular system (3) D. of the inspiration (1), psychological (2), cardio-vascular system (3) E. bodies i inspiration (1), digestive system (2), cardio-vascular system (3)

438. Staff physiotherapy ward, performing therapeutic procedures in the UHF and microwave installations to have the impact of electromagnetic fields (EMP). List of data required for the evaluation of working conditions of staff treatment rooms.

A. * Results EMP measurement of tension in the workplace, and length of time during the day

B. GDR EMP Radio

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C. The health personnel (complaints, objective data) D. duration of time during the day E. Specifications devices that generate EMP

439. Svitlovyy ratio, which is recommended for the premises of the stay of patients. A. 1:2-1:3. B. 1:4-1:5. C. * 1:6-1:7. D. 1:9-1:10. E. 1:10-1:12.

440. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled coccyx micro flora. For the prevention of nosocomial infections in the recovery room to be necessary to provide ventilation:

A. tidal flat extraction volume B. * tidal dominated exhaust hoods C. general exchange of matters D. Only extraction E. tidal extraction dominated by the influens of sun rays

441. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled pyo microflora in quantities that exceed the permissible level. To prevent the pollution of air operating in it must be ventilated:

A. * Tidal exhaust dominated by the influx B. Only Exhaust C. Only tidal D. Tidal exhaust, with equal volumes of flow and exhaust E. Tidal dominated exhaust hoods

442. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be A. not more 12-15% B. * not less then 60 %, C. 15-20 %. D. not more 20-25 %; E. 45-55 %;

443. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be A. not more 12-15% B. * not less then 60 %, C. 15-20 %. D. not more 20-25 %; E. 45-55 %;

444. The level of general illumination by fluorescent lamps in medical offices should be, lx:

A. 100 B. 200 C. * 300 D. 400 E. 500

445. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. A. One. B. Two. C. * Three. D. Four E. Five

446. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. A. One. B. Two. C. * Three.

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D. Four E. Five

447. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital?

A. * central block B. Perimeter. C. is mixed D. is centralized E. Decentralizing

448. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital?

A. * central block B. Perimeter. C. is mixed D. is centralized E. Decentralizing

449. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital construction leather and venerological cancer and offices. Which system best suits fucker hygienic requirements?

A. * Gathering in sealed tanks, followed by combustion in a special installation at the hospital

B. Separate export special transport to Solid Waste Disposal C. Utilization at the incineration plant D. Preliminary decontamination 5% solution of bleach and dumping of waste at the

household E. Joint General hospital removal of solid waste

450. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of skin and veronological and oncologic separations. What system of delete of wastes will answer hygienical requirements?

A. * it gathered and then disposed in special setting on territory of hospital B. separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization is at the garbage dumping plant D. previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place E. all things are dumped together with hospital waste

451. To evaluate the effectiveness of renovation use rate - the rate the effectiveness of renovation. Minimum coefficient of performance reorganization, which demonstrates the effective air rescue.

A. Not less than 2 B. * At least 5 C. 10 D. 15 E. 20

452. To evaluate the effectiveness of airing the Chamber determined the content of CO2 in the air. What is the maximum permitted concentration of carbon dioxide in the air chamber

A. * 0.1% B. 0.04% C. 0.01% D. 0,15% E. 0,20%

453. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?

A. concentration of nitrogen

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B. concentration of smeech gas C. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. concentration of oxygen

454. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?

A. concentration of nitrogen B. concentration of smeech gas C. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. concentration of oxygen

455. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic department?

A. 10,0 % B. 1,0 % C. * 0,1 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

456. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic department?

A. 10,0 % B. 1,0 % C. * 0,1 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

457. What factors do not affect the degree of severity and tension medical staff? A. Conditions of work in medical organizations B. nature of work C. availability of professional harm D. * length of leave E. conditions of life and recreation in the production stuff

458. What factors influence the effectiveness of the chemical deactivation? A. * solution B. atmospheric pressure C. The temperature D. Humidity E. Exposition (processing time)

459. What is necessary to analyze the doctor hygienist for the examination of the project to make a conclusion about how natural lighting hygienic requirements under current sanitary regulations. Identify the best answer.

A. * Light coefficient (SC), the rate recess (BB), the rate of natural illumination (PAC), the angle of incidence, the angle of the hole

B. angle of the angle of the hole, the rate recess (BB), light coefficient (SC) C. daylight factor (PAC), light coefficient (SC), the rate recess (BB) D. angle of the angle of aperture, the light ratio E. ratio of natural light, reflection coefficient

460. What measures should be taken to hospitals to improve working conditions? A. current control of the Orders of compliance with established hygienic standards B. regulation regimes of work and rest according to the severity and labour tension C. immunization medical staff during epidemics D. spa treatment of cases of health workers E. * strict control of the administration of hospitals for compliance with sanitary-

epidemiological profile 461. What rooms are not present in ward section?

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A. Wards. B. A room of daytime stays C. Procedural D. * laboratory. E. doctor’s room

462. What rooms are not present in ward section? A. Wards. B. A room of daytime stays C. Procedural D. * laboratory. E. doctor’s room

463. What therapeutic processes affect the environment? A. * What therapeutic processes affect the environment? B. Promotes a quiet stay of patients in hospital C. Improves care D. Improves care E. Provides nutrition in hospital

464. What ventilation should be used in the operation: A. natural B. tidal C. Exhaust D. * tidal exhaust dominated at expiration E. tidal dominated exhaust hoods

465. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

466. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

467. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

468. When bacteriological study of air in the House of therapeutic outlet identified high levels of pollution. In the ward area of 28 m2 divided 4 beds, airing through the window leaf is held twice a day, the entrance to the office is equipped with the gateway, removal of debris twice a day, wet cleaning of the morning and evening. What are the causes of increasing bacterial contamination of the air chamber?

A. * Insufficient ventilation B. Lack of space at 1 bed C. insufficient multiplicity of removing debris D. insufficient multiplicity of wet cleaning E. Lack of mechanical ventilation

469. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?

A. * Near the post of nurse

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B. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. Near the doctor’s office D. At the beginning of the corridor. E. Near the dinning room.

470. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?

A. * Near the post of nurse B. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. Near the doctor’s office D. At the beginning of the corridor. E. Near the dinning room.

471. Where the infectious department should be placed? A. * In a separate a building B. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital C. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital D. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital. E. Near to cardiological department

472. Where the infectious department should be placed? A. * In a separate a building B. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital C. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital D. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital. E. Near to cardiological department

473. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?

A. * decentralized B. centralized C. Sectional D. block E. Free

474. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?

A. * decentralized B. centralized C. Sectional D. block E. Free

475. Which operating more favourable climate for working surgeons? A. * T air - 22 0C; R. humidity - 40%, T councils. - 24 0C; pages. movement of air -

0,03 m / sec B. T types. - 24 0C; Rest. humidity - 20%, T councils. - 26 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0.05 m / sec C. T types. - 25 0C; Rest. humidity - 70%, T councils. 28 0C; pages. movement of air -

0.08 m / sec D. T types. - 23 0C; Rest. humidity - 80%, T councils. - 25 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0.1 m / sec E. T types. - 25 0C; Rest. humidity - 55%, T councils. 28 - 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0,09 m / sec 476. While major repairs have been provided to upgrade the hospital colours for the

hospital premises, so that the latter has great psychological value and asthetic, with the walls of the chambers for patients to paint, taking into account:

A. * Orientation of the windows B. Profile of hospital C. Diseases of patients who were hospitalized in these chambers

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D. Insulation regime E. temperature-humidity regime

477. Who is directly responsible for the organization and holding of sanitary and anti-epidemic measures in the medical establishment?

A. * Surgeon B. Senior ordinate C. Older sister D. Hospital Staff E. Surgeon sanitary station

478. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house

A. acute respiratory disease B. at absence of the medical documentation C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. long waterless interval E. * Fe-deficient anemia

479. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house

A. acute respiratory disease B. at absence of the medical documentation C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. long waterless interval E. * Fe-deficient anemia

480. Without natural light can not arrange: A. Bathrooms in the wards. B. Dressing of staff. C. * room D. pre operation E. room for personal hygiene, staff

481. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments?

A. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Minimum 2 times per a week C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. * Minimum 2 times per a day

482. Name the plan of settlement with a designation of a place accommodation of the ground area under construction projected object

A. general plan; B. * situational plan C. horizontal plan D. Facades plan E. explanatory note

483. What square must be on the one patient in many beds ward? A. 11m2 B. 9 m2 C. * 7 m2 D. 22m2 E. 5,5 m2

484. How many patients must be in the typical wards section?

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A. 25 B. 35 C. * 30 D. 15 E. 20

485. A chamber section in therapeutic separations is designed on:

A. 50 beds B. 60 beds C. * 30 beds D. is not regulated E. Regulated only in city hospitals

486. A city hospital consists of separate surgical and therapeutic buildings which are placed along a few separate houses which are intended for infectious, maternity and child's separations. To define the system of building of hospital.

A. Centralized block B. centralised C. Dentralised D. * mixed E. hostel

487. According to the hygienic requirements in the hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:

A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room E. * Operating

488. The hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:

F. The room charge nurse G. In the corridor H. In the House I. In doctors room J. * operating

489. Indicate where exhaust ventilation present in the hospital`s rooms :

A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room E. * Operating

490. Airing of the Chamber carried out by multiple air vents open during the day. What of the following indicators to evaluate the effectiveness of airing?

A. oxygenation of air

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B. the concentration of carbon monoxide C. the concentration of carbon dioxide D. * concentration of dust E. oxygen content

491. Allowable quantity of beds in isolator of infections department A. 6 beds B. 4 beds C. 3 beds. D. * 2 beds E. 5 beds

492. At sanitary examination of project of infectious hospital was set, that isolator room and half-of isolator room are the basic architectural elements of the infection department. By absence of which to the element half of isolator differs from isolator?

A. By absence of ward B. By absence of toilet facilities C. By absence of sluice D. By absence of Entrance from the departmen E. * By absence to Entrance from a street

493. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of measures of a prophylaxis. Which one from next has the primary value?

A. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital; B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments C. specific immune prophylaxis; D. * exposure and isolation of source of infection E. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature

494. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?

A. 30 m2 B. 24 m2 C. 28 m2 D. * 40 m2 E. 52 m2

495. Biological laboratory Regional Hospital conducts monthly quality control pre sterilisation processing and sterilization of instruments, using, in particular, samples from the test indicators. What control using these samples?

A. * The temperature in the autoclave B. General microbe semination C. Remains of blood D. Remnants of detergents E. The pressure in the autoclave

496. Building of dermato-venereology and oncologic departmens is foreseen by the project of reconstruction of central district hospital. Which system of deleting of wastes is most hygienical requirements?

A. * Collection in air-tight capacities with a next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital

B. the separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization at the plant for incineration of garbage D. disinfection by 5 % solution of chloric lime and burying on the ground of domestic

wastes E. the compatible deleting with other hard wastes from hospital

497. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. What type of building is most expedient in this case?

A. decentralized B. centralized

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C. is mixed D. Block E. * centralized block

498. Choose a hospital room, which rated the temperature 22 degrees: A. Corridor B. * Checking bandaging C. Chamber D. Operating E. not corect answer

499. Determine the best time of the infectious hospital waste water in septic tanks to achieve effective mechanical cleaning?

A. 3 hours B. 3 days C. 5 hours D. * 5 days E. half a year

500. Elbow taps equip: A. Gateways boxes B. Procedure room C. Surgery. D. House of newborns. E. * Preoperative.

501. For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?

A. should be not less than 10 m B. should be not less than 15m C. * should be not less than 25 m D. should be not less than 30 m E. should be not less than 40m

502. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2 in air. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward?

A. * 0,1 % B. 1,0 % C. 10,0 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

503. What is the maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide in patient room? A. * 0,1 % B. 1,0 % C. 10,0 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

504. For how many beds are boxes section? A. for 5 beds B. for 10 beds C. for 15 beds D. for 25 beds E. * for 30 beds

505. For how many beds are semi-boxes section? A. for 5 beds B. for 10 beds C. for 15 beds

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D. for 25 beds E. * for 30 beds

506. Frequency of wet cleaning aseptic chambers:

K. Once a day L. * Twice a day M. Once a week N. Twice a week O. three times a week

507. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?

A. To 300 B. * To 500 C. To 1000 D. To 1500 E. To 2000

508. How many beds in isolator of infections department? A. * 2 beds B. 3 beds C. 4 beds D. 5 beds E. 6 beds

509. How many hours have working day of doctor tuberculosis? A. 2 hours day B. 4 hours day C. * 6 hours day D. 7 hours day E. 8 hours day

510. How many hours last working day for medical workers,which directly connected with radionuclides?

A. 2–hours day B. * 4-hours day C. 6- hours day D. 8-hours day E. 10-hours day

511. How many lux must have artificial lighting in the ward? A. 5-10 lux B. 10-15 lux C. 20-30 lux D. 30-50 lux E. * 30-60 lux

512. How many persent must have green area? A. 20 % B. 30 % C. * 40 % D. 50 % E. 60-65 %

513. How many persent must have household zone? A. 10 % B. * 15% C. 20%-25% D. 30 %

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E. 35 % 514. How many posts of the on duty nurse are in one ward section?

A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

515. What are number of the duty nurse`s post in one ward section? A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

516. How many types of corridor must have every hospital? A. 1 type B. * 2 types C. 3 types D. 4 types E. 5 types

517. How must be located beds to the light conductive wall? A. near wall B. * parallelly C. in the central part of the wall D. all are correct E. all not correct

518. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Minimum 2 times per a week. C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. * Minimum 2 times per a day

519. In a hospital, which is built, should be artificial illumination. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps?

A. Operation room (general illumination) is 200 lux B. Examination rooms is 190 lux; C. wardis 40 lux D. Corridors is15 lux E. Manipulation is 50 lux.

520. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps in the hospital?

A. Operation room (general illumination) is 200 lux B. * Examination rooms is 190 lux; C. Ward is40 lux D. Corridors is 15 lux E. Manipulation is 50 lux.

521. In identifying the hospital infection in the hospital to hold a particular set of measures on prevention. Which of the following activities is of paramount importance?

A. of the disinfection of all hospital premises; B. To strengthen control over sterilisation of instruments; C. Specific immunization; D. * Detection and isolation of the source of infection; E. Isolation of patients with fever.

522. In purulent operating a surgical department patient with leg amputation gangrene. How does the waste disposed of origin operating in hospitals?

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A. * burned in special furnaces B. are being exported to waste solid waste C. are being exported to the special places for dumping animals. D. bury oneself at the hospital E. crushed and discharged into sewer

523. In the dressing surgical department to start work was a common bacterial contamination of the air. What should be a general indicator of microbial numbers in this case?

A. 300 B. * to 500 C. Up to 1000 D. Up to 1500 E. Before 2000

524. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with: A. health B. With the cardiovascular diseases C. * with influenza D. By the opthomalogical diseases E. pathological pregnancy

525. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with: A. health B. With the cardiovascular diseases C. * with influenza D. By the opthomalogical diseases E. pathological pregnancy

526. In the rural hospital, which is being built, to ensure a minimum level of facilities artificial illumination. What is the premise of this hospital will not be a violation of artificial lighting fluorescent lamps:

A. Operating (general lighting) - 200 lx; B. * A doctor's office - 300 lx; C. House - 40 lx; D. Corridors - 15 lx; E. manipulative - 50 lx.

527. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small powerv

528. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small powerv

529. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter

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C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small power

530. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small power

531. In what conditions should be chlorinated products? A. In the light of B. In the dark C. * In dry and dark place D. In a closed container E. In the wet ground

532. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel A. * Operating B. A doctor's office C. Lobby D. Corridor E. doctors room

533. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel A. * Operating B. A doctor's office C. Lobby D. Corridor E. doctors room

534. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator: A. * room B. Preoperative C. Operating D. Opaque Chamber E. family

535. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator: A. * room B. Preoperative C. Operating D. Opaque Chamber E. family

536. Less light using fluorescent bulbs is operating as: A. 50 B. 100 C. 300 D. * 400 E. 1000

537. Levels of noise in the wards shall not exceed: A. 10 dB. B. 15 dB. C. 20 dB D. 25 dB. E. * 30 dB

538. Light coefficient in doctors room must be:

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A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

539. Light coefficient in operation room must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

540. Light coefficient in operation room must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

541. Light coefficient in hospital corridor must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. * 1:8-1:10

542. Light coefficient in wards must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

543. Light coefficient in wards must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

544. Light ratio of medical dentists must be: A. 1:2 - 1:3 B. * 1:4 - 1:5 C. 1:6 - 1:7 D. 1:8 - 1:9 E. 1:9 - 1:10

545. Light ratio, which recommended in operating. A. 1:2-1:2,5. B. 1:2-1:3. C. 1:4-1:5. D. 1:3-1:4. E. * 1:2-1:4.

546. Major professional harm to the medical staff? A. * Mental and moral tension B. Prolonged stay on their feet C. Lack of artificial lighting D. Lack of artificial lighting E. Uncertainty

547. Mark, which incorrectly indicated the rate of natural lighting.

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A. The operating - 2%. B. * In handling - 1%. C. Check bound - 2% D. House - 1%. E. Corridors of 0.1%.

548. Mark, which incorrectly stated the rule light ratio: A. The operation - 1:2 - 1:4. B. Surgery - 1:4 - 1:5. C. In Chambers - 1:6 - 1:8. D. * In the wards - 1:8 - 1:10 E. In the corridor - 1:8 - 1:10.

549. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead, behind and the sides. A. general plan B. situational plan; C. * Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

550. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead, behind and the sides. A. general plan B. situational plan; C. * Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

551. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:

A. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:

B. malaria mosquitoes C. helminths D. Sick animals infections E. * herbs

552. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to chemical A. anaesthetics B. antibiotics C. antibiotics D. * dust that contains silicon dioxide E. dust that contains silicon dioxide

553. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to the physical

A. ionizing, e / m and laser radiation B. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound, noise, vibration) C. increasing the atmospheric pressure D. poor lighting and high light load E. * physiological

554. Name the adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. load of the senses (hearing, sight) B. * stressful situation (the need to make a decision in a deficit time) C. forced to working out and static load D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory E. lack of professional training in some young professionals

555. Name the factor, which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection: A. the level of wound contamination B. the length of incision C. opening the windows

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D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery E. use of antibiotics

556. Name the factor, which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection: A. the level of wound contamination B. the length of incision C. opening the windows D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery E. use of antibiotics

557. Name the group of harmful and dangerous factors that are not typical for doctors of different specialties:

A. Physical B. * Made C. Chemical D. Biological E. Physiological

558. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected building and other buildings are represented.

A. * general plan B. situational plan C. Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

559. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected building and other buildings are represented.

A. * general plan B. situational plan C. Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

560. Nazvit adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. load of the senses (hearing, sight) B. * working with dead material C. forced to working out and static load D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory E. lack of professional training in some young professionals

561. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 20 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 48%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. * comfortable microclimate B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. Microclimate discomfort heating type D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air

562. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 25 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 78%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. Microclimate comfortable B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. * Microclimate discomfort heating type D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air

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563. On lot land of hospital at the mixed system of building select a main corps, polyclinic, obstretics-gyaenocological building, infectious building, kharcheblok, economic buildings, pathoanatomical corps, and hospital garden, with the bar of the green planting. What must be the maximum percentage of build up hospital in the area?

A. 25 % B. 35 % C. 20 % D. * 15 % E. 10 %

564. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room A. The south, a southeast B. * The north C. The west, a southwest D. The east, northeast. E. The west

565. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room A. The south, a southeast B. * The north C. The west, a southwest D. The east, northeast. E. The west

566. Please provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. * The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.1% B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of hg C. Frequency - 50 lx D. aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter. E. Oxygenation of air - up to 1 mg oxygen / m3

567. provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.2% B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of hg C. Oxygenation of air - to 2 mg O2 / m3 D. * Aerobic Bacterial - to 3500 in 1 m3 in summer E. Aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter

568. On instructions from the doctor nurse made the measurements needed to evaluate the micro-climatic conditions in hospital wards. The results of measurements: the average temperature - 19 0 C, the speed of air - 0.1 m / sec, relative humidity - 50%, which corresponds to a comfortable microclimate. By that action can achieve such conditions in the wards for elderly patients?

A. * According space heating, ventilation and air conditioning B. Selection of appropriate clothing and footwear C. Ttraining D. Rational diet E. Rational diet

569. Primary prevention of diseases including: A. Warning of further development of diseases B. * Warning of further development of diseases C. Prevention of complications of the disease D. Rehabilitation E. Prevention of recurrence of disease

570. Procedural therapy department requires periodic preventive disinfection. 12 m2 floor space, height of 3.8 meters procedural panels at a height of 1.7 m covered with oil paints, floor tiles covered. What disinfecting means necessary to apply for this purpose?

A. The solution of bleach 3-5% B. * The solution chloramine 1-2%

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C. The solution sulfanol 0.5% D. The solution of caustic soda E. Carbolic acid solution

571. Provides nutrition in hospital? A. * Hygienic conditions aimed at ensuring patients complete somatic and mental

comfort B. Hygienic conditions that provide patients a long, deep sleep C. Skilful care D. The presence of light house E. The availability of comfortable beds

572. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 % C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

573. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 % C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

574. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic’s ward corresponds to the hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 % C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

575. Relative humidity of air in the oncology wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

576. Relative humidity of air in the pediatrictic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

577. Relative humidity of air in the surgery wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

578. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 %

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E. * 30-60 % 579. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is

A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

580. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate; B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

581. Select the correct option for the doctor's office: A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m

/ s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02

m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally. C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s,

changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s,

changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s,

changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally. 582. Select the correct option for the doctor's office:

A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally

B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally.

C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally

D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally

E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s, changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally.

583. Select the correct option for the doctor's office: A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m

/ s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02

m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally. C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s,

changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally D. temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s,

changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally E. Temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s,

changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally. 584. Set to be micro-climatic conditions in the ward for patients with severe burns?

A. Temperature - 200S, relative humidity - 40%, the speed of air - 0.1 m / s B. Temperature - 180S, relative humidity - 50%, the speed of air - 1 m / s C. Temperature - 150S, relative humidity - 60%, the speed of air - 1 m / s D. * 22-250S temperature, relative humidity - 55%, the speed of air - 0.05 - 0.1 m / s E. Temperature - 280p relative humidity - 65% of the speed of air - 0.5 m / s

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585. Specify one of the five given options, which are located on the right order (1st, 2nd, 3rd places) factors that cause occupational diseases doctors:

A. * Chemistry (1), biological (2), psychological (3) B. biological (1), psychological (2), Physics (3) C. Physics (1), biological (2), chemical (3) D. Biology (1), chemistry (2), psychological (3) E. psychological (1), chemistry (2), biological (3)

586. Specify one of the five given options, which are one to one (1st, 2nd, 3rd places) diseases that cause the disease with temporary disability benefits:

A. * of the inspiration (1), circulatory system (2), skeletal system (3) B. bodies inspiration (1), the bone system (2), circulatory system (3) C. bodies inspiration (I), digestive system (2), cardiovascular system (3) D. of the inspiration (1), psychological (2), cardio-vascular system (3) E. bodies i inspiration (1), digestive system (2), cardio-vascular system (3)

587. Staff physiotherapy ward, performing therapeutic procedures in the UHF and microwave installations to have the impact of electromagnetic fields (EMP). List of data required for the evaluation of working conditions of staff treatment rooms.

A. * Results EMP measurement of tension in the workplace, and length of time during the day

B. GDR EMP Radio C. The health personnel (complaints, objective data) D. duration of time during the day E. Specifications devices that generate EMP

588. Svitlovyy ratio, which is recommended for the premises of the stay of patients. A. 1:2-1:3. B. 1:4-1:5. C. * 1:6-1:7. D. 1:9-1:10. E. 1:10-1:12.

589. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled coccyx micro flora. For the prevention of nosocomial infections in the recovery room to be necessary to provide ventilation:

A. tidal flat extraction volume B. * tidal dominated exhaust hoods C. general exchange of matters D. Only extraction E. tidal extraction dominated by the influens of sun rays

590. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled pyo microflora in quantities that exceed the permissible level. To prevent the pollution of air operating in it must be ventilated:

A. * Tidal exhaust dominated by the influx B. Only Exhaust C. Only tidal D. Tidal exhaust, with equal volumes of flow and exhaust E. Tidal dominated exhaust hoods

591. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be A. not more 12-15% B. * not less then 60 %, C. 15-20 %. D. not more 20-25 %; E. 45-55 %;

592. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be A. not more 12-15% B. * not less then 60 %,

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C. 15-20 %. D. not more 20-25 %; E. 45-55 %;

593. The level of general illumination by fluorescent lamps in medical offices should be, lx:

A. 100 B. 200 C. * 300 D. 400 E. 500

594. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. A. One. B. Two. C. * Three. D. Four E. Five

595. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. A. One. B. Two. C. * Three. D. Four E. Five

596. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital?

A. * central block B. Perimeter. C. is mixed D. is centralized E. Decentralizing

597. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital?

A. * central block B. Perimeter. C. is mixed D. is centralized E. Decentralizing

598. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital construction leather and venerological cancer and offices. Which system best suits fucker hygienic requirements?

A. * Gathering in sealed tanks, followed by combustion in a special installation at the hospital

B. Separate export special transport to Solid Waste Disposal C. Utilization at the incineration plant D. Preliminary decontamination 5% solution of bleach and dumping of waste at the

household E. Joint General hospital removal of solid waste

599. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of skin and veronological and oncologic separations. What system of delete of wastes will answer hygienical requirements?

A. * it gathered and then disposed in special setting on territory of hospital B. separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization is at the garbage dumping plant D. previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place

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E. all things are dumped together with hospital waste 600. To evaluate the effectiveness of renovation use rate - the rate the effectiveness of

renovation. Minimum coefficient of performance reorganization, which demonstrates the effective air rescue.

A. Not less than 2 B. * At least 5 C. 10 D. 15 E. 20

601. To evaluate the effectiveness of airing the Chamber determined the content of CO2 in the air. What is the maximum permitted concentration of carbon dioxide in the air chamber

A. * 0.1% B. 0.04% C. 0.01% D. 0,15% E. 0,20%

602. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?

A. concentration of nitrogen B. concentration of smeech gas C. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. concentration of oxygen

603. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?

A. concentration of nitrogen B. concentration of smeech gas C. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. concentration of oxygen

604. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic department?

A. 10,0 % B. 1,0 % C. * 0,1 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

605. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic department?

A. 10,0 % B. 1,0 % C. * 0,1 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

606. What factors do not affect the degree of severity and tension medical staff? A. Conditions of work in medical organizations B. nature of work C. availability of professional harm D. * length of leave E. conditions of life and recreation in the production stuff

607. What factors influence the effectiveness of the chemical deactivation? A. * solution B. atmospheric pressure

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C. The temperature D. Humidity E. Exposition (processing time)

608. What is necessary to analyze the doctor hygienist for the examination of the project to make a conclusion about how natural lighting hygienic requirements under current sanitary regulations. Identify the best answer.

A. * Light coefficient (SC), the rate recess (BB), the rate of natural illumination (PAC), the angle of incidence, the angle of the hole

B. angle of the angle of the hole, the rate recess (BB), light coefficient (SC) C. daylight factor (PAC), light coefficient (SC), the rate recess (BB) D. angle of the angle of aperture, the light ratio E. ratio of natural light, reflection coefficient

609. What measures should be taken to hospitals to improve working conditions? A. current control of the Orders of compliance with established hygienic standards B. regulation regimes of work and rest according to the severity and labour tension C. immunization medical staff during epidemics D. spa treatment of cases of health workers E. * strict control of the administration of hospitals for compliance with sanitary-

epidemiological profile 610. What rooms are not present in ward section?

A. Wards. B. A room of daytime stays C. Procedural D. * laboratory. E. doctor’s room

611. What rooms are not present in ward section? A. Wards. B. A room of daytime stays C. Procedural D. * laboratory. E. doctor’s room

612. What therapeutic processes affect the environment? A. * What therapeutic processes affect the environment? B. Promotes a quiet stay of patients in hospital C. Improves care D. Improves care E. Provides nutrition in hospital

613. What ventilation should be used in the operation: A. natural B. tidal C. Exhaust D. * tidal exhaust dominated at expiration E. tidal dominated exhaust hoods

614. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

615. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic

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E. * factory 616. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type?

A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

617. When bacteriological study of air in the House of therapeutic outlet identified high levels of pollution. In the ward area of 28 m2 divided 4 beds, airing through the window leaf is held twice a day, the entrance to the office is equipped with the gateway, removal of debris twice a day, wet cleaning of the morning and evening. What are the causes of increasing bacterial contamination of the air chamber?

A. * Insufficient ventilation B. Lack of space at 1 bed C. insufficient multiplicity of removing debris D. insufficient multiplicity of wet cleaning E. Lack of mechanical ventilation

618. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?

A. * Near the post of nurse B. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. Near the doctor’s office D. At the beginning of the corridor. E. Near the dinning room.

619. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?

A. * Near the post of nurse B. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. Near the doctor’s office D. At the beginning of the corridor. E. Near the dinning room.

620. Where the infectious department should be placed? A. * In a separate a building B. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital C. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital D. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital. E. Near to cardiological department

621. Where the infectious department should be placed? A. * In a separate a building B. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital C. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital D. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital. E. Near to cardiological department

622. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?

A. * decentralized B. centralized C. Sectional D. block E. Free

623. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?

A. * decentralized B. centralized

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C. Sectional D. block E. Free

624. Which operating more favourable climate for working surgeons? A. * T air - 22 0C; R. humidity - 40%, T councils. - 24 0C; pages. movement of air -

0,03 m / sec B. T types. - 24 0C; Rest. humidity - 20%, T councils. - 26 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0.05 m / sec C. T types. - 25 0C; Rest. humidity - 70%, T councils. 28 0C; pages. movement of air -

0.08 m / sec D. T types. - 23 0C; Rest. humidity - 80%, T councils. - 25 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0.1 m / sec E. T types. - 25 0C; Rest. humidity - 55%, T councils. 28 - 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0,09 m / sec 625. While major repairs have been provided to upgrade the hospital colours for the

hospital premises, so that the latter has great psychological value and asthetic, with the walls of the chambers for patients to paint, taking into account:

A. * Orientation of the windows B. Profile of hospital C. Diseases of patients who were hospitalized in these chambers D. Insulation regime E. temperature-humidity regime

626. Who is directly responsible for the organization and holding of sanitary and anti-epidemic measures in the medical establishment?

A. * Surgeon B. Senior ordinate C. Older sister D. Hospital Staff E. Surgeon sanitary station

627. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house

A. acute respiratory disease B. at absence of the medical documentation C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. long waterless interval E. * Fe-deficient anemia

628. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house

A. acute respiratory disease B. at absence of the medical documentation C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. long waterless interval E. * Fe-deficient anemia

629. Without natural light can not arrange: A. Bathrooms in the wards. B. Dressing of staff. C. * room D. pre operation E. room for personal hygiene, staff

630. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Minimum 2 times per a week C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per a day

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E. * Minimum 2 times per a day 631. Name the plan of settlement with a designation of a place accommodation of the

ground area under construction projected object A. general plan; B. * situational plan C. horizontal plan D. Facades plan E. explanatory note

632. What square must be on the one patient in many beds ward? A. 11m2 B. 9 m2 C. * 7 m2 D. 22m2 E. 5,5 m2

633. How many patients must be in the typical wards section? A. 25 B. 35 C. * 30 D. 15 E. 20

634. A chamber section in therapeutic separations is designed on: A. 50 beds B. 60 beds C. * 30 beds D. is not regulated E. Regulated only in city hospitals

635. A city hospital consists of separate surgical and therapeutic buildings which are placed along a few separate houses which are intended for infectious, maternity and child's separations. To define the system of building of hospital.

A. Centralized block B. centralised C. Dentralised D. * mixed E. hostel

636. According to the hygienic requirements in the hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:

A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room E. * operating

637. The hospital premises have general exchange of matters tidal exhaust ventilation. Indicate where the flow of air from the premises must prevail over expiration:

A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room E. * operating

638. Indicate where exhaust ventilation present in the hospital`s rooms :A. The room charge nurse B. In the corridor C. In the House D. In doctors room

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E. * operating 639. Airing of the Chamber carried out by multiple air vents open during the day. What of

the following indicators to evaluate the effectiveness of airing? A. oxygenation of air B. the concentration of carbon monoxide C. * the concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. oxygen content

640. Allowable quantity of beds in isolator of infections department A. 6 beds B. 4 beds C. 3 beds. D. * 2 beds E. 5 beds

641. At sanitary examination of project of infectious hospital was set, that isolator room and half-of isolator room are the basic architectural elements of the infection department. By absence of which to the element half of isolator differs from isolator?

A. By absence of ward B. By absence of toilet facilities C. By absence of sluice D. By absence of Entrance from the departmen E. * By absence to Entrance from a street

642. At the presence of Nosocomial infections in hospital is necessary to use the definite group of measures of a prophylaxis. Which one from next has the primary value?

A. disinfection in all apartments of the hospital; B. strengthening of control after sterilization of instruments C. specific immune prophylaxis; D. * exposure and isolation of source of infection E. isolation of patients with the promoted temperature

643. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?

A. 30 m2 B. 24 m2 C. 28 m2 D. * 40 m2 E. 52 m2

644. Biological laboratory Regional Hospital conducts monthly quality control pre sterilisation processing and sterilization of instruments, using, in particular, samples from the test indicators. What control using these samples?

A. * The temperature in the autoclave B. General microbe semination C. Remains of blood D. Remnants of detergents E. The pressure in the autoclave

645. Building of dermato-venereology and oncologic departmens is foreseen by the project of reconstruction of central district hospital. Which system of deleting of wastes is most hygienical requirements?

A. * Collection in air-tight capacities with a next incineration in the special setting on territory of hospital

B. the separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization at the plant for incineration of garbage D. disinfection by 5 % solution of chloric lime and burying on the ground of domestic

wastes E. the compatible deleting with other hard wastes from hospital

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646. Building of multiprofile hospital is planned in one of the centralized regions of the town. What type of building is most expedient in this case?

A. decentralized B. centralized C. is mixed D. Block E. * centralized block

647. Choose a hospital room, which rated the temperature 22 degrees: A. Corridor B. * Checking bandaging C. Chamber D. Operating E. not corect answer

648. Determine the best time of the infectious hospital waste water in septic tanks to achieve effective mechanical cleaning?

A. 3 hours B. 3 days C. 5 hours D. * 5 days E. half a year

649. Elbow taps equip: A. Gateways boxes B. Procedure room C. Surgery. D. House of newborns. E. * Preoperative.

650. For collection of hospital garbage and domestic wastes use containers (dust-bin) with covers on the specialized grounds with waterproof coverage. Which a minimum distance between a ground for dust container (dust-bin) and ward or medical-diagnostic departments must be?

A. should be not less than 10 m B. should be not less than 15m C. * should be not less than 25 m D. should be not less than 30 m E. should be not less than 40m

651. For estimation of efficiency of ventilation in wards determined concentration of CO2

in air . What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide may be in ward? A. * 0,1 % B. 1,0 % C. 10,0 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

652. What is the maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide in patient room? A. * 0,1 % B. 1,0 % C. 10,0 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

653. For how many beds are boxes section? A. for 5 beds B. for 10 beds C. for 15 beds D. for 25 beds E. * for 30 beds

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654. For how many beds are semi-boxes section? A. for 5 beds B. for 10 beds C. for 15 beds D. for 25 beds E. * for 30 beds

655. Frequency of wet cleaning aseptic chambers: A. Once a day B. * Twice a day C. Once a week D. Twice a week E. three times a week

656. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?

A. To 300 B. * To 500 C. To 1000 D. To 1500 E. To 2000

657. How many beds in isolator of infections department? A. 2 beds B. 3 beds C. 4 beds D. 5 beds E. 6 beds

658. How many hours have working day of doctor tuberculosis? A. 2 hours day B. 4 hours day C. * 6 hours day D. 7 hours day E. 8 hours day

659. How many hours last working day for medical workers,which directly connected with radionuclides?

A. 2–hours day B. * 4-hours day C. 6- hours day D. 8-hours day E. 10-hours day

660. How many lux must have artificial lighting in the ward? A. 5-10 lux B. 10-15 lux C. 20-30 lux D. 30-50 lux E. * 30-60 lux

661. How many persent must have green area? A. 20 % B. 30 % C. 40 % D. 50 % E. 60-65 %

662. How many persent must have household zone? A. 10 % B. 15%

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C. 20%-25% D. 30 % E. 35 %

663. How many posts of the on duty nurse are in one ward section? A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

664. What are number of the duty nurse`s post in one ward section? A. * One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. E. Five

665. How many types of corridor must have every hospital? A. 1 type B. * 2 types C. 3 types D. 4 types E. 5 types

666. How must be located beds to the light conductive wall? A. near wall B. * parallelly C. in the central part of the wall D. all are correct E. all not correct

667. How often must clear up dust-bin (garbage-can) in the hospital departments? A. Minimum a 1 time per a week B. Minimum 2 times per a week. C. Minimum a 1 time per 2 days D. Minimum a 1 time per a day E. * Minimum 2 times per a day

668. In a hospital, which is built, should be artificial illumination. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps?

A. Operation room (general illumination) is 200 lux B. * Examination rooms is 190 lux; C. wardis 40 lux D. Corridors is15 lux E. Manipulation is 50 lux.

669. Where will not be violation of norms of lamplight by luminescent lamps in the hospital?

A. Operation room (general illumination) is 200 lux B. * Examination rooms is 190 lux; C. Ward is40 lux D. Corridors is 15 lux E. Manipulation is 50 lux.

670. In identifying the hospital infection in the hospital to hold a particular set of measures on prevention. Which of the following activities is of paramount importance?

A. of the disinfection of all hospital premises; B. To strengthen control over sterilisation of instruments; C. Specific immunization; D. * Detection and isolation of the source of infection; E. Isolation of patients with fever.

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671. In purulent operating a surgical department patient with leg amputation gangrene. How does the waste disposed of origin operating in hospitals?

A. * burned in special furnaces B. are being exported to waste solid waste C. are being exported to the special places for dumping animals. D. bury oneself at the hospital E. crushed and discharged into sewer

672. In the dressing surgical department to start work was a common bacterial contamination of the air. What should be a general indicator of microbial numbers in this case?

A. 300 B. * to 500 C. Up to 1000 D. Up to 1500 E. Before 2000

673. In the observation unit of obstetric hospital women are admitted with: A. health B. With the cardiovascular diseases C. * with influenza D. By the opthomalogical diseases E. pathological pregnancy

674. In the rural hospital, which is being built, to ensure a minimum level of facilities artificial illumination. What is the premise of this hospital will not be a violation of artificial lighting luminescent lamps:

A. Operating (general lighting) - 200 lx; B. * A doctor's room - 300 lx; C. House - 40 lx; D. Corridors - 15 lx; E. manipulative - 50 lx.

675. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small powerv

676. In the settlement of NN building of district hospital is planned on 100 beds but the hospital land is very sandy What from the offered charts of cleaning of flow waters most rational for this object?

A. * by the fields of underground filtration B. With the sand-gravel filter C. With the filtering well D. With the compact options of the factory making E. From biofilteration of small power

677. In what conditions should be chlorinated products? A. In the light of B. In the dark C. * In dry and dark place D. In a closed container E. In the wet ground

678. In what rooms you can install radiant heating-panel A. * Operating B. A doctor's office

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C. Lobby D. Corridor E. doctors room

679. In which rooms can be set metallic radiator: A. * room B. Preoperative C. Operating D. Opaque Chamber E. family

680. Less light using luminescent lamp is operating as: A. 50 LxB. 100 LxC. 300 LxD. * 400 LxE. 1000 Lx

681. Levels of noise in the operation room not exceed? A. 10 dB B. *30 dB C. 50 dB D. 60 dB E. 80 dB

682. Levels of noise in the wards shall not exceed: A. 10 dB. B. 15 dB. C. 20 dB D. 25 dB. E. * 30 dB

683. Levels of noise in the hospital corridor at day shall not exceed? A. 10 dB B. 15 dB C. 20 dB D. *45 dB E. 30 dB

684. Light coefficient in doctors room must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

685. Light coefficient in operation room must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. * 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

686. Light coefficient in hospital corridor must be: A. 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4 C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. * 1:8-1:10

687. Light coefficient in wards must be: A. * 1:5-1:6 B. 1:3-1:4

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C. 1:7-1:8 D. 1:2-1:4 E. 1:10-1:12

688. Light coefficient of medical dentists must be: A. 1:2 - 1:3 B. * 1:4 - 1:5 C. 1:6 - 1:7 D. 1:8 - 1:9 E. 1:9 - 1:10

689. Light coefficient, which recommended in operating. A. 1:2-1:2,5. B. 1:2-1:3. C. 1:4-1:5. D. 1:3-1:4. E. * 1:2-1:4.

690. Major professional harm to the medical staff? A. * Mental and moral tension B. Prolonged stay on their feet C. Lack of artificial lighting D. Lack of artificial lighting E. Uncertainty

691. Mark, which incorrectly indicated the rate of natural lighting. A. The operating - 2%. B. * In handling - 1%. C. Check bound - 2% D. House - 1%. E. Corridors of 0.1%.

692. Mark, which incorrectly stated the rule light ratio? A. In operation room 1/2-1/4 B. In the ward 1/8-1/10 C. In Chambers - 1/6 - 1/8 D. Surgery - 1/4-1/5 E. In corridor-1/10-1/11

693. Mark, which incorrectly stated the rule light ratio: A. The operation - 1:2 - 1:4. B. Surgery - 1:4 - 1:5. C. In Chambers - 1:6 - 1:8. D. * In the wards - 1:8 - 1:10 E. In the corridor - 1:8 - 1:10.

694. Name a graphic representation to a kind of a building ahead, behind and the sides. A. general plan B. situational plan; C. * Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

695. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:

A. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to biological factors:

B. malaria mosquitoes C. helminths D. Sick animals infections E. * herbs

696. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to chemical

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A. anaesthetics B. antibiotics C. antibiotics D. * dust that contains silicon dioxide E. dust that contains silicon dioxide

697. Name harmful and dangerous factors in the work of doctors, not related to the physical

A. ionizing, e / m and laser radiation B. mechanical vibrations (ultrasound, noise, vibration) C. increasing the atmospheric pressure D. poor lighting and high light load E. * physiological

698. Name the adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. load of the senses (hearing, sight) B. * stressful situation (the need to make a decision in a deficit time) C. forced to working out and static load D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory E. lack of professional training in some young professionals

699. Name the factor, which don’t increasing the risk of developing a hospital infection: A. the level of wound contamination B. the length of incision C. opening the windows D. * the duration of hospitalization before surgery E. use of antibiotics

700. Name the group of harmful and dangerous factors that are not typical for doctors of different specialties:

A. Physical B. * Made C. Chemical D. Biological E. Physiological

701. Name the plan of the ground area projected object on which the borders of a site existing, projected building and other buildings are represented.

A. * general plan B. situational plan C. Facades plan D. horizontal plan E. explanatory note

702. Nazvit adverse physiological factors that occur during the work doctors: A. load of the senses (hearing, sight) B. * working with dead material C. forced to working out and static load D. emotional and mental stress, stress and operational long-term memory E. lack of professional training in some young professionals

703. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 20 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 48%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. * comfortable microclimate B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. Microclimate discomfort heating type D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air

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704. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 25 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 78%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. Microclimate comfortable B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. * Microclimate discomfort heating type D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air

705. On lot land of hospital at the mixed system of building select a main corps, polyclinic, obstretics-gyaenocological building, infectious building, kharcheblok, economic buildings, pathoanatomical corps, hospital garden, with the bar of the green planting. What must be the maximum percentage of build up hospital in the area?

A. 25 % B. 35 % C. 20 % D. * 15 % E. 10 %

706. Optimum orientation of the windows in operating room A. The south, a southeast B. * The north C. The west, a southwest D. The east, northeast. E. The west

707. Please provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. * The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.1% B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of mercury C. Frequency - 50 lx D. aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter. E. Oxygenation of air - up to 1 mg oxygen / m3

708. provide hygienic requirements to the properties of air hospital wards: A. The content of carbon dioxide - to 0.2% B. Atmospheric pressure - 755 mm of mercury C. Oxygenation of air - to 2 mg O2 / m3 D. * Aerobic Bacterial - to 3500 in 1 m3 in summer E. Aerobic Bacterial to 8000 in 1 m3 of winter

709. On instructions from the doctor nurse made the measurements needed to evaluate the micro-climatic conditions in hospital wards. The results of measurements: the average temperature - 190 C, the speed of air - 0.1 m / sec, relative humidity - 50%, which corresponds to a comfortable microclimate. By that action can achieve such conditions in the wards for elderly patients?

A. * According space heating, ventilation and air conditioning B. Selection of appropriate clothing and footwear C. Ttraining D. Rational diet E. Rational diet

710. Primary prevention of diseases including: A. Warning of further development of diseases B. * Warning of further development of diseases C. Prevention of complications of the disease D. Rehabilitation E. Prevention of recurrence of disease

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711. Procedural therapy department requires periodic preventive disinfection. 12 m2 floor space, height of 3.8 meters procedural panels at a height of 1.7 m covered with oil paints, floor tiles covered. What disinfecting means necessary to apply for this purpose?

A. The solution of bleach 3-5% B. * The solution chloramine 1-2% C. The solution sulfanol 0.5% D. The solution of caustic soda E. Carbolic acid solution

712. Provides nutrition in hospital? A. * Hygienic conditions aimed at ensuring patients complete somatic and mental

comfort B. Hygienic conditions that provide patients a long, deep sleep C. Skilful care D. The presence of light house E. The availability of comfortable beds

713. Relative humidity of air in a therapeutic ward corresponds to thes to hygienical norm. Indicate possible norms of humidity.

A. 20-40 % B. 50-70 % C. 70-90 % D. * 30-60 % E. 20-65 %

714. Relative humidity of air in the infection wards is? A. 10-20% B. 20-30% C. 30-40% D. 30-50% E. * 30-60%

715. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

716. Relative humidity of air in the therapeutic wards is A. 20-50 % B. 30-70 % C. 30-80 % D. 20-40 % E. * 30-60 %

717. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate; B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

718. Select the correct option for the doctor's office: A. * The temperature is 20 degrees, relative humidity - 40%, the movement of air 0,2 m

/ s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally B. The temperature of 22 degrees, relative humidity - 25%, the movement of air 0,02

m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally.

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C. 24 degrees C. temperature, relative humidity - 60%, the movement of air 0.01 m / s, changing the temperature of 2 degrees horizontally

D. . temperature of 25 degrees, relative humidity - 70%, the movement of air 0,2 m / s, changing the temperature of 2.5 degrees horizontally

E. temperature of 18 degrees, relative humidity - 90%, the movement of air 0,5 m / s, changing the temperature of 3 degrees horizontally.

719. Set to be micro-climatic conditions in the ward for patients with severe burns? A. Temperature - 200S, relative humidity - 40%, the speed of air - 0.1 m / s B. Temperature - 180S, relative humidity - 50%, the speed of air - 1 m / s C. Temperature - 150S, relative humidity - 60%, the speed of air - 1 m / s D. * 22-250S temperature, relative humidity - 55%, the speed of air - 0.05 - 0.1 m / s E. Temperature - 280p relative humidity - 65% of the speed of air - 0.5 m / s

720. Specify one of the five given options, which are located on the right order (1st, 2nd, 3rd places) factors that cause occupational diseases doctors:

A. * Chemistry (1), biological (2), psychological (3) B. biological (1), psychological (2), Physics (3) C. Physics (1), biological (2), chemical (3) D. Biology (1), chemistry (2), psychological (3) E. psychological (1), chemistry (2), biological (3)

721. Specify one of the five given options, which are one to one (1st, 2nd, 3rd places) diseases that cause the disease with temporary disability benefits:

A. * of the inspiration (1), circulatory system (2), skeletal system (3) B. bodies inspiration (1), the bone system (2), circulatory system (3) C. bodies inspiration (I), digestive system (2), cardiovascular system (3) D. of the inspiration (1), psychological (2), cardio-vascular system (3) E. bodies i inspiration (1), digestive system (2), cardio-vascular system (3)

722. Square of anesthetic room must be? A. 3 m2 B. 5 m2 C. 10 m2 D. 12 m2 E. *15 m2

723. Square of operating room must be? A. 10 m2 B. 20 m2 C. *30 m2 D. 40 m2 E. 50 m2

724. Square of pre- operative room must be? A. 3 m2 B. 5m2 C. 10 m2 D. *10-12 m2 E. 20 m2

725. Staff physiotherapy ward, performing therapeutic procedures in the UHF and microwave installations to have the impact of electromagnetic fields (EMP). List of data required for the evaluation of working conditions of staff treatment rooms.

A. * Results EMP measurement of tension in the workplace, and length of time during the day

B. GDR EMP Radio C. The health personnel (complaints, objective data) D. duration of time during the day E. Specifications devices that generate EMP

726. Svitlovyy ratio, which is recommended for the premises of the stay of patients.

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A. 1:2-1:3. B. 1:4-1:5. C. * 1:6-1:7. D. 1:9-1:10. E. 1:10-1:12.

727. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled coccyx micro flora. For the prevention of nosocomial infections in the recovery room to be necessary to provide ventilation:

A. tidal flat extraction volume B. * tidal dominated exhaust hoods C. general exchange of matters D. Only extraction E. tidal extraction dominated by the influens of sun rays

728. The air chambers of the surgical department, which are ill with pus filled wounds, soiled pyo microflora in quantities that exceed the permissible level. To prevent the pollution of air operating in it must be ventilated:

A. * Tidal exhaust dominated by the influx B. Only Exhaust C. Only tidal D. Tidal exhaust, with equal volumes of flow and exhaust E. Tidal dominated exhaust hoods

729. The area of a zone of green trees and shrubs must be A. not more 12-15% B. * not less then 60 %, C. 15-20 %. D. not more 20-25 %; E. 45-55 %;

730. The distances between the radiological building and other ones? A. 15 m B. 20 m C. *25 m D. 30 m E. 40 m

731. The level of general illumination by fluorescent lamps in medical offices should be, lx:

A. 100 B. 200 C. * 300 D. 400 E. 500

732. The minimum quantity of entrances to hospital territory with infection department. A. One. B. Two. C. * Three. D. Four E. Five

733. The operation room for two operating tables has the area of? A. 5 m2 B. 10 m2 C. 15 m2 D. 20 m2 E. *30 m2

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734. The project of hospital divides the hospital buildings into three groups: hospital, treatment-diagnostic and economic which are connected through underground passages. What system of building is applied at planning of hospital?

A. * central block B. Perimeter. C. is mixed D. is centralized E. Decentralizing

735. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital construction leather and venerological cancer and offices. Which system best suits fucker hygienic requirements?

A. * Gathering in sealed tanks, followed by combustion in a special installation at the hospital

B. Separate export special transport to Solid Waste Disposal C. Utilization at the incineration plant D. Preliminary decontamination 5% solution of bleach and dumping of waste at the

household E. Joint General hospital removal of solid waste

736. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of skin and veronological and oncologic separations. What system of delete of wastes will answer hygienical requirements?

A. * it gathered and then disposed in special setting on territory of hospital B. separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization is at the garbage dumping plant D. previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place E. all things are dumped together with hospital waste

737. The results of measurements: the average temperature of air is 20 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 48%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber?

A. *comfortable microclimate B. microclimate discomfort coolant type C. microclimate discomfort heating type D. microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity E. microclimate uncomfortable with the increased temperature

738. To evaluate the effectiveness of renovation use rate - the rate the effectiveness of renovation. Minimum coefficient of performance reorganization, which demonstrates the effective air rescue.

A. Not less than 2 B. * At least 5 C. 10 D. 15 E. 20

739. To evaluate the effectiveness of airing the Chamber determined the content of CO2 in the air. What is the maximum permitted concentration of carbon dioxide in the air chamber

A. * 0.1% B. 0.04% C. 0.01% D. 0,15% E. 0,20%

740. Ventilation of ward is carried out by the frequent opening of small hinged window the pane for a day. Which index help to estimate efficiency of ventilation?

A. concentration of nitrogen B. concentration of smeech gas C. * concentration of carbon dioxide D. concentration of dust E. concentration of oxygen

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741. What maximal admissible concentration of carbonic dioxide (CO2) may be in ward in therapeutic department?

A. 10,0 % B. 1,0 % C. * 0,1 % D. 0,25 % E. 0,5 %

742. What factors do not affect the degree of severity and tension medical staff? A. Conditions of work in medical organizations B. nature of work C. availability of professional harm D. * length of leave E. conditions of life and recreation in the production stuff

743. What factors influence the effectiveness of the chemical deactivation? A. * solution B. atmospheric pressure C. The temperature D. Humidity E. Exposition (processing time)

744. What is necessary to analyze the doctor hygienist for the examination of the project to make a conclusion about how natural lighting hygienic requirements under current sanitary regulations. Identify the best answer.

A. * Light coefficient (SC), the rate recess (BB), the rate of natural illumination (PAC), the angle of incidence, the angle of the hole

B. angle of the angle of the hole, the rate recess (BB), light coefficient (SC) C. daylight factor (PAC), light coefficient (SC), the rate recess (BB) D. angle of the angle of aperture, the light ratio E. ratio of natural light, reflection coefficient

745. What measures should be taken to hospitals to improve working conditions? A. current control of the Orders of compliance with established hygienic standards B. regulation regimes of work and rest according to the severity and labour tension C. immunization medical staff during epidemics D. spa treatment of cases of health workers E. * strict control of the administration of hospitals for compliance with sanitary-

epidemiological profile 746. What must be distance between morbid anatomical building and a household one?

A. at the distance of 10 m B. at the distance of 20 m C. at the distance of 30 m D. at the distance of 40 m E. at the distance of 45 m

747. What must be distance between the building flanks? A. not less than 5 m B. not less than 10 m C. not less than 20 m D. *not less than 25 m E. not less than 30 m

748. What must be artificial illumination by incandescent lamps in the wards? A. not less than 10 lux B. not less than 20 lux C. * not less than 30 lux D. not less than 40 lux E. not less than 50 lux

749. What must be artificial illumination by incandescent lamps in the procedure room?

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A. 20-40 lux B. 40-60 lux C. 60-80 lux D. 80-100 lux E. * 100-150 lux

750. What must be concentration of CO2 in the ward during the inspection? A. 0,1 % B. * 0,2 % C. 0,3 % D. 0,4 % E. 0,5 %

751. What must be indices of hospital air pollution,such as air oxygenation? A. 5 mgO2/m3 B. 10 mgO2/m3 C. 15 mgO2/m3 D. 20 mgO2/m3 E. * 20-24 mgO2/m3

752. What must be light coeficient for dressing room? A. 0,5% B. 1 % C. 1,5% D. * 1,5-2% E. 2,5%

753. What must be light coeficient for manipulating room? A. 0,5 % B. 1 % C. 1,5 % D. * 1,5-2 % E. 3 %

754. What must be natural lighting in the ward? A. * not less than 1 % B. not less than 2 % C. not less than 3 % D. not less than 4 % E. not less than 5 %

755. What must be the distance between the walls with wards and doctors rooms windows?

A. 2.5 of the opposite building height B. 3 of the opposite building height C. 3.5 of the opposite building height D. 4 of the opposite building height E. all are correct

756. What orientation of window is optimal for ward? A. * South-East B. South C. West D. North E. All are correct

757. What rooms are not present in ward section? A. Wards. B. A room of daytime stays C. Procedural D. * laboratory. E. doctor’s room

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758. What square for sanitary room or corridor in the hospital? A. 2-4 m2 B. 4-6 m2 C. 6-8 m2 D. 8-10 m2 E. 10-12 m2

759. What square have the doctors room? A. 2-3 m2 B. 4-5 m2 C. 6-7 m2 D. * 8-9 m2 E. 10-11 m2

760. What square have the medical nurses station? A. 1 m2 B. 2 m2 C. 3 m2 D. * 4 m2 E. 5 m2

761. What square must be doctor's room in the hospital? A. 2-4 m2 B. 4-6 m2 C. 6-8 m2 D. 8-9 m2 E. 10-11 m2

762. What square must be manipulation room in the hospital? A. 2-4 m2 B. 4-6 m2 C. 6-8 m2 D. 9-10 m2 E. 12-15 m2

763. What square must be for room for clean and dirty linen in the hospital? A. each of 2 m2 B. each of 3 m2 C. each of 4 m2 D. each of 5 m2 E. each of 6 m2

764. What square must have a lavatory with a bathroom in the hospital? A. 2 m2 B. 4 m2 C. 6 m2 D. 8 m2 E. 10 m2

765. What square must have anesthetic room in the operation block? A. 5 m2 B. 7 m2 C. 10 m2 D. 12 m2 E. * 15 m2

766. What square must have operation room in the operation block? A. 5 m2 B. 10 m2 C. 20 m2 D. 25 m2 E. * 30 m2

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767. What square must have pre-operative room in the operation block? A. 5 m2 B. 7 m2 C. 10 m2 D. * 10-12 m2 E. 15 m2

768. What temperature must be for patients with thyrotoxicosis? A. 5-10 0C B. 15-20 0C C. * 18-22 0C D. 23-25 0C E. 26-30 0C

769. What the main occupational hazards for dental doctor? A. noise and vibration B. sight exertion C. blinding effect of the lamp D. danger of infection from the patient E. * all are correct

770. What therapeutic processes affect the environment? A. * What therapeutic processes affect the environment? B. Promotes a quiet stay of patients in hospital C. Improves care D. Improves care E. Provides nutrition in hospital

771. What ventilation should be used in the operation: A. natural B. tidal C. Exhaust D. * tidal exhaust dominated at expiration E. tidal dominated exhaust hoods

772. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type ? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

773. Whatever units are not included in a hospital of general type ? A. Separation of functional diagnostics B. Induction centre C. Permanent establishment D. Polyclinic E. * factory

774. When bacteriological study of air in the House of therapeutic outlet identified high levels of pollution. In the ward area of 28 m2 divided 4 beds, airing through the window leaf is held twice a day, the entrance to the office is equipped with the gateway, removal of debris twice a day, wet cleaning of the morning and evening. What are the causes of increasing bacterial contamination of the air chamber?

A. * Insufficient ventilation B. Lack of space at 1 bed C. insufficient multiplicity of removing debris D. insufficient multiplicity of wet cleaning E. Lack of mechanical ventilation

775. Where must be arrangement of ward for 1 and 2 beds for grave patients in the plan of ward section?

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A. * Near the post of nurse B. In the end of the corridor of ward section C. Near the doctor’s office D. At the beginning of the corridor. E. Near the dinning room.

776. Where must be situated the operating block of a surgical department? A. * in a separate outhouse B. in the first floor C. in the second floor D. in other building E. all are correct

777. Where the infectious department should be placed? A. * In a separate a building B. On a ground floor of the multi-storey hospital C. On last floor of the multi-storey hospital D. On a separate floor of the multi-storey hospital. E. Near to cardiological department

778. Which kind of hospital building is best against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?

A. * decentralized B. centralized C. Sectional D. block E. Free

779. Which kind of hospital building is wors against the prophylaxis of intra hospital infections?

A. centralized B. * decentralized C. mixed D. central block E. perimeter

780. Which operating more favourable climate for working surgeons? A. * T air - 22 0C; R. humidity - 40%, T councils. - 24 0C; pages. movement of air -

0,03 m / sec B. T types. - 24 0C; Rest. humidity - 20%, T councils. - 26 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0.05 m / sec C. T types. - 25 0C; Rest. humidity - 70%, T councils. 28 0C; pages. movement of air -

0.08 m / sec D. T types. - 23 0C; Rest. humidity - 80%, T councils. - 25 0C; pages. movement of air

- 0.1 m / sec E. T types. - 25 0C; Rest. humidity - 55%, T councils. 28 0C; pages. movement of air -

0,09 m / sec 781. While major repairs have been provided to upgrade the hospital colours for the

hospital premises, so that the latter has great psychological value and asthetic, with the walls of the chambers for patients to paint, taking into account:

A. * Orientation of the windows B. Profile of hospital C. Diseases of patients who were hospitalized in these chambers D. Insulation regime E. temperature-humidity regime

782. Who is directly responsible for the organization and holding of sanitary and anti-epidemic measures in the medical establishment?

A. * Surgeon B. Senior ordinate

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C. Older sister D. Hospital Staff E. Surgeon sanitary station

783. Who one of the following pregnant women is not reception in observation department of the maternity house

A. acute respiratory disease B. at absence of the medical documentation C. skin diseases of infectious ethyology D. long waterless interval E. * Fe-deficient anemia

784. Without natural light can not arrange: A. Bathrooms in the wards. B. Dressing of staff. C. * room D. pre operation E. room for personal hygiene, staff

785. What must be maximum concentration of CO2 in the ward accouding standart? A. 0,01 % B. 0,03 % C. 0,41 % D. 0,55 % E. * 0,2 %

786. Name functional zones, which not allocated in the operating room A. *Zone of preventive regime;B. Zones of a limited regimen;C. Zone of a common regimen;D. Zone of a sterile regime;E. Zone of a strict regimen.

787. What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in operation room?A. on the North*B. on the South C. on theWestD. on the EastE. on the South- East

788. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in operation room?A. More than 1,5 %B. Less than 0,5 %C. *More than 2,5 %D. Less than 1,5 %E. Less than 1,0 %

789. What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in manipulation room?

A. *on the NorthB. on the South C. on theWestD. on the EastE. on the South- East

790. __________ is a process resulting in the gain or loss of one or more electrons in A. Neutral atoms. B. * Radiation C. Ionization D. Radiopaque E. Radiolucent

791. __________ refers to the amount of radiation absorbed.

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A. Rem B. Roentgen C. Tagging D. * Rad E. Curie

792. A free radical is: A. Any charged particle. B. * An atom or molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell C. An atom with an even number of electrons. D. A chemically stable atom. E. All of these choices are true

793. A free radical is: A. Any charged particle. B. * An atom, ion or molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell. C. An atom with an even number of electrons. D. A chemically stable atom. E. Any stable particle.

794. A Geiger-Muller counter measures: A. * The arrival of individual photons of ionising radiation or high energy particles B. The incidence of heat C. The incidence of light D. Electronic pulses E. None of above

795. A radiation monitor device should be worn by all except A. Radiographer undergoing a radiographic procedure B. Nurse working in an area where mobile radiography is performed C. * Family member assisting a patient during a radiographic procedure D. Radiographer performing fluoroscopic procedures E. All of above

796. A single whole body exposure to what dose of radiation will almost invariably lead to a persons death in a relatively short time?

A. 25 rem B. 100 rem C. 300 rem D. * 600 rem E. 1000 rem

797. A(n) _____ is an atomic particle with a positive or negative electrical charge. A. Roentgen B. Curie C. * Ion D. Rad E. Roentgen

798. A(n) __________ is a unit of radioactivity. A. Anode B. Ampere C. * Curie D. Dose E. Rem

799. Absorbed Dose A. A common form of particulate radiation. They contain 2 protons and 2 neutrons and

are positively charged B. A form of radiation originating from an atom following removal of an electron or

excitation of the atom

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C. The amount of energy depoisted in any form of matter such as teeth, chair, air by any type of radiation

D. Radiation that is scattered when when a low-energy x-ray passes near an atom's outer electron

E. None of above 800. Absorbed dose is measured in

A. Sieverts B. Man sieverts C. Coulombs D. * Grays E. Becquerel

801. Absorption A. A small negitively charged particle of the atom containing much energy and little

mass. B. A common form of particulate radiation. They contain 2 protons and 2 neutrons and

are positively charged C. A unit of measurment that describes the wavelengths of certain high frequency

radiation. D. The process through which radiation imparts some or all of its energy to any material

through which it passes. E. None of above

802. All types of radiation can induce biologic effects by direct or indirect action. A. * True. B. False. C. Only x-ray D. Only Electrons E. Gamma rays.

803. Background radiation A. The internal energy within the atom that holds its components together. B. The ability to do work and overcome resistance C. In chemistry, a simple substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical means D. Ionizing radiation that is always present E. None of above

804. Beta particles A. The ability to do work and overcome resistance B. A form of particulate radiation, high speed negative electrons C. Compares the biological effects of various types of radiation D. Total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom E. None of above

805. Characteristics radiation A. A unit of measurment that describes the wavelengths of certain high frequency

radiation. B. In chemistry, a simple substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical means C. A form of radiation originating from an atom following removal of an electron or

excitation of the atom D. The radioactive disintergration of the nucleus of an unstable atom by the emission of

particles, photons of energy or both E. None of above

806. Corpuscular radiations not include A. Beta particles B. Neutrons C. Gamma rays D. Protons E. Deuterons

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807. Curie is the unit for A. Radiation emitted; B. Radiation absorbed; C. * Radioactivity; D. Biological effect; E. All of the above.

808. Decay A. The smallest particles of an element that has the properies of that element B. Radiation that is scattered when when a low-energy x-ray passes near an atom's outer

electron C. * The radioactive disintergration of the nucleus of an unstable atom by the emission

of particles, photons of energy or both D. The amount of energy depoisted in any form of matter such as teeth, chair, air by any

type of radiation E. None of above

809. Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for: A. X-rays. B. * Neutrons and alpha particles. C. Electrons. D. Gamma rays. E. Beta particles

810. Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for: A. X-rays. B. * alpha particles C. Electrons. D. Gamma rays E. All of these choices are true

811. Direct effects of irradiation are those that A. * Cause immediate cell death B. Affect structures distant from irradiated structures C. Affect the site of irradiation D. Cause the least biological effect E. None of above

812. Dose A. In chemistry, a simple substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical means B. The internal energy within the atom that holds its components together. C. The ability to do work and overcome resistance D. * The amount absorbed radiation in grays or rads at any given point E. None of above

813. Dose equivalent A. The ability to do work and overcome resistance B. The internal energy within the atom that holds its components together. C. * Compares the biological effects of various types of radiation D. Total number of protons in the nucleus of an atom E. None of above

814. Dose equivalent is measured in A. * Sieverts B. Man sieverts C. Coulombs D. Grays E. Becquerel

815. Electromagnetic radiation A. A common form of particulate radiation. They contain 2 protons and 2 neutrons and

are positively charged

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B. * Forms of energy propelled by wave motion as photons. has no charge, mass, or weight and travels at the speed of light.

C. Radiation that is scattered when when a low-energy x-ray passes near an atom's outer electron

D. A form of radiation originating from an atom following removal of an electron or excitation of the atom

E. None of above 816. Energy transmitted in the form of electromagnetic waves or subatomic particles.

A. Effects of radiation B. Radioactivity C. Ionization D. * Radiation E. Exposure dose

817. Exposure A. The internal energy within the atom that holds its components together. B. * A measurment of ionization produced in air by x- or gamma radiation C. A small negitively charged particle of the atom containing much energy and little

mass. D. A unit of measurment that describes the wavelengths of certain high frequency

radiation. E. None of above

818. Exposure is measured in A. * Coulombs per kg B. Coulombs per mg C. Sieverts per cGy D. Coulombs per mGy E. Becquerel

819. Exposure is measured in A. * Coulombs per kg B. Coulombs per mg C. Sieverts per cGy D. Coulombs per mGy E. Grays

820. For a specific delivered dose of “soft” x-rays, which type of type of material has the largest absorbed dose?

A. * Bone B. Muscle C. Water D. They all have the same absorbed dose E. None of above

821. How is named the number of nuclear transforma¬tions taking place per unit time in a radioisotope?

A. Dose equivalent B. Exposure C. Absorbed dose D. * Activity E. Quality factor

822. How will the dose of radiation change at the decrease of time of display? A. Increased in quadratic dependence to the activity B. * Decreased directly proportional to the activity C. Not change D. Increased directly proportional to the activity E. Decreased in geometrical dependence on activity

823. How will the dose of radiation change at the increase of time of display?

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A. Increased in quadratic dependence to the activity B. * Increased directly proportional to the activity C. Not change D. Increased in logarithmic dependence to the activity E. Increased in geometrical dependence on activity

824. In order of increase penetrating power, rank the following types of radiation: A. beta < gamma < alpha B. * alpha < Beta < gamma C. gamma < Beta < alpha D. beta < alpha < gamma E. gamma < alpha < Beta

825. In the case of non-uniform irradiation of the body, the risk for stochastic effects is described by:

A. * the equivalent dose. B. the effective dose. C. the total absorbed dose. D. quality factor E. age

826. In which of these diagnostic techniques is radiation from a radioisotope used? A. CT B. MRI C. * PET D. Ultrasound E. Thermometriya

827. Increasing the distance from a source by a factor of three, will A. Reduce the exposure rate in 3 times B. * Reduce the exposure rate in 9 times C. Increases the exposure rate in 4 times D. Increase the exposure rate in 9 times E. Not change

828. Main principles of protection from external gamma-radiation are A. Time, distance B. * Time, distance screen C. Distance, screen, ventilation D. Distance, screen, ventilation, respirators E. Screen, ventilation, rubber gloves

829. Main principles of protection from external gamma-radiation are A. Time, distance B. * Time, distance screen C. Distance, screen, ventilation D. Distance, screen, ventilation, respirators E. Screen, ventilation, rubber gloves

830. Maximum permissible dose for adults exposed in the course of their work is …. per year -

A. * 5 rem; B. 2 rem; C. 10 rem; D. 50 rem; E. 100 rem.

831. Naturally occurring radioisotopes does not include: A. Uranium-238 B. Radium-226 C. * Technetium-99 D. Carbon-14

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E. Potassium - 40 832. Of its energy over the shortest distance when passing through human tissue:

A. * alpha particles B. beta particles C. x-rays D. gamma particles E. neutron

833. One gray of radiation is equal to A. 0,1 rad; B. 1 rad; C. 10 rad; D. * 100 rad; E. 1000 rad.

834. One Gray of X-rays gives a dose equivalent of A. 5 Sv B. 10 Sv C. * 1 Sv D. 0,1 Sv E. 20 Sv F. One Gray of X-rays gives a dose equivalent of G. 5 Sv H. 10 Sv I. 0,1 Sv J. * 1 Sv K. 0,5 Sv

835. One of the following is complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation:

A. Education of the individual B. * Type of radiation involved C. The sex of the individual D. Place of residence E. Duration of holiday

836. One of the following is complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation:

A. Education of the individual; B. The sex of the individual. C. Place of residence D. * Size of dose received E. Duration of holiday.

837. One of the following is complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation:

A. * Part of the body exposed B. Education of the individual C. The sex of the individual. D. Place of residence E. Duration of holiday.

838. One of the following is complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation:

A. * The age of the individual B. Education of the individual; C. The sex of the individual. D. Place of residence E. Duration of holiday.

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839. One of the following is not complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation:

A. Type of radiation involved B. * Education of the individual C. Size of dose received D. Part of the body exposed E. The age of the individual

840. One of the following is not complicated the occurrence of particular health effects from exposure to ionizing radiation:

A. Size of dose received B. Rate the dose is received C. Part of the body exposed D. The age of the individual E. * The sex of the individual

841. One of the following is not main principle of protection from closed ionizing radiation.

A. * Protection by temperature B. Protection by distance C. Protection by quantity D. Protection by screens E. Protection by time

842. One of the following is somatic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism

A. Cancerogenic effect B. Leukemia C. Genetic mutation D. Impotence E. * Chronic ray disease

843. One of the following is somato-stochastic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism

A. Radial burns B. Acute ray disease C. Cataract D. * Cancerogenic effect E. Chronic ray disease

844. Photographic film badge monitoring devices are unable to detect: A. * Neutrons B. Beta particles C. Gamma rays D. X-rays E. Alpha particles

845. Radiation detectors use which of the following properties to detect radioactivity? A. Charge B. * Ionizing ability C. Mass D. All of these E. None of above

846. Radiation protection shields are made up of A. Copper; B. Silver; C. * Lead; D. Tin; E. Glass.

847. Radiation-induced temporary or constant sterility belong to

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A. Genetic effect; B. * Somatic early effect; C. Somatic late effect; D. Stochastic effects; E. Hereditary effect

848. Radioactivity may be defined as: A. A process whereby some nuclides undergo spontaneous changes in the structure of

electrons B. A process whereby some nuclides undergo spontaneous changes in the structure of

neutrons C. A process whereby some nuclides undergo spontaneous changes in the structure of

protons D. * A process whereby some nuclides undergo spontaneous changes in the structure of

nuclei E. None of above

849. Relates the absorbed dose to the biological effect of that dose is A. Exposure B. * Dose equivalent C. Radioactivity D. Radiation protection E. Quality factor

850. Relative biological efficiency in alpha-radiation higher, than in gamma-radiation in A. * 20 times B. 10 times C. 2 times D. It is impossible to compare E. Equal

851. Sum of the electrical charges of the ions of one sign produced in unit mass of air under certain defined conditions is...

A. * Exposure B. Absorbed dose C. Dose equivalent D. Activity E. Quality factor

852. The cardinal rules of radiation protection recommended the use of A. Maximum exposure time, distance and shielding B. Automatic exposure control, fast imaging systems, and maximum shielding C. * Minimum exposure time, maximum distance, and appropriate shielding D. Maximum beam restriction, minimum exposure time, and maximum distance E. None of above

853. The discoverer of radioactivity was A. * Henri Becquerel B. Marie Curie C. Kurchatov D. Rezerford E. Nobel

854. The effective dose from a PA chest examination is typically A. 2 mSv B. 20 mSv C. * 0.02 mSv D. 0.2 mSv E. 1 mSv

855. The equivalent dose is: A. The mean absorbed dose over all irradiated organs.

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B. The product of absorbed dose and radiation weighting factor for a given tissue or organ, where the absorbed dose is averaged over the tissue or organ.

C. * The product of absorbed dose and tissue weighting factor. D. The mean quality factor over all irradiated organs. E. The quotient of the average energy transferred to the matter in a volume element by

ionizing radiation and the mass of the matter in this volume element 856. The heaviest of the particle emissions are:

A. Beta particles B. * Alpha particles C. Neutrons D. Gamma rays E. X-rays

857. The largest part of our background exposure comes from. A. Diagnostic x-rays B. * Naturally occurring sources of radiation and radioactivity in the environment C. Nuclear weapons fallout D. Industrial radiography E. None of above

858. The monitoring and measuring of a person’s exposure to radiation is called: A. Densitometry B. * Dosimetry C. Sensitometry D. Thermometry E. Ph-metry

859. The most important problem involving radiation exposure of the public is: A. medical examinations. B. * radon. C. accidents in nuclear power plants. D. Nuclear medicine E. Smoking

860. The primary purpose for using personal monitoring is to: A. protect the radiographer B. calculate the total amount of radiation a radiographer delivers C. monitor a radiographer’s repeat rate D. * indicate a radiographer’s occupational exposure E. None of above

861. The probability of stochastic radiation effects depends: A. on the absorbed dose B. only on the energy of the radiation. C. only on the particle type of the radiation. D. both on the energy and the particle type of the radiation. E. * All are correct

862. The process by which atoms or molecules lose electrons and become positively charged particles.

A. Radioactivity B. * Ionization: C. Radiation D. Effects of radiation E. Exposure dose

863. The recommended level for manmade sources other than medical in the case of continuous exposure for the public is (annual effective dose):

A. * 1 mSv. B. 2 mSv. C. 5 mSv.

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D. 20 mSv. E. 0.5 mSv.

864. The recommended monthly limit to the embryo or fetus is: A. 0.1 mSv. B. 10.0 mSv. C. 2.0 mSv. D. * 0.5 mSv. E. 1.0 mSv.

865. The susceptibility of a tissue or organ to radiation is accounted for in: A. the equivalent dose. B. the absorbed dose. C. * the effective dose. D. activity E. quality Factor.

866. The unit of absorbed dose is A. * Rad B. Roentgen C. Coulombs per kilogram D. Curie E. Milli-curie

867. The unit of dose equivalent is A. * Rem B. Rad C. Roentgen D. Coulombs per kilogram E. Milli-curie

868. The unit of the collective effective dose is: A. * Person-Sv. B. R. C. Gy. D. Sv. E. Rad

869. To which group of critical organs does foots, brushes and forearms belong to? A. 1 B. 2 C. * 3 D. 4 E. 5

870. Under the Ionising radiation regulations (IRR 99) the annual dose limit for an adult worker is

A. 5 mSv B. 50 mSv C. 2 mSv D. * 20 mSv E. 1 mSv

871. Unit of one of dose equivalent is A. Grey; B. Roentgen; C. Beguerrel; D. Curie; E. * Sievert;

872. Unit of one of radiation absorbed is A. * Grey; B. Roentgen;

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C. Beguerrel; D. Curie; E. Rem.

873. What are the principles of protecting from external gamma-irradiation? A. Time, distance B. * Time, distance screen C. Time, distance, screen, ventilation D. Distance, screen, ventilation, respirators E. Screen, ventilation, rubber gloves

874. What does appear as a result of action ionizing of radiation in air of room for x-ray examination?

A. Oxygen B. * Ozone C. Dioxide of carbon D. Oxide of carbon E. Oxide of sulphur

875. What essence is in „radiation aseptic”. A. * Prevention contamination of environment by the radio-active matters and receipt

its in the organism of man B. Prevention of contamination of environment by the chemical matters and receipt its

in the organism of man C. Reduction of duration of working day and quantity of procedures D. Use of tool with the prolonged pens and manipulators controlled from distance E. Rise of specific and unspecific immunity of man

876. What from next can change the period of half-decay? A. Heating to the high temperature B. High pressure C. Low pressure D. * Changing is not possible E. High pressure and temperature

877. What group of critical organs do brushes and forearms belong to? A. 1 B. 2 C. * 3 D. 4 E. 5

878. What group of critical organs does a thyroid gland belong to? A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

879. What is the atomic number of the element produced when an element with atomic number Z emits an ? particle?

A. * Z - 2 B. Z - 1 C. Z + 1 D. Z + 2 E. Z = 0

880. What is the atomic number of the element produced when an element with atomic number Z emits a positron?

A. Z- 2 B. * Z- 1 C. Z + 1

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D. Z + 2 E. Z = 0

881. What is the difference between X-rays and gamma rays? A. * X-rays are produced extranuclearly whereas gamma rays are produced in nuclear

decays. B. X-rays have higher energies than gamma rays. C. Gamma rays are produced by bremsstrahlung. D. X-rays and gamma rays interact with matter differently. E. Gamma-rays are a stream of photons, which are particles without mass, each

traveling in a wave-like pattern and moving at the speed of light.  882. What is the difference between X-rays and gamma rays?

A. * X-rays are produced extranuclearly whereas gamma rays are produced in nuclear decays

B. X-rays have higher energies than gamma rays C. Gamma rays are produced by bremsstrahlung D. X-rays and gamma rays interact with matter differently E. All of these choices are true

883. What is the main reason for the difference in biologic effects caused by neutrons and photons?

A. The energy of the radiation. B. The fact that the charged particles produced by neutrons are, for the most part,

positively charged. C. * The density of ionization D. The fact that neutrons can interact with nuclei. E. All of these choices are true

884. What is the main source of natural background radiation? A. Electrons. B. X-rays. C. Neutrons. D. * Alpha-particles E. All of these choices are true

885. What is the mass number of the element produced when an element with mass number A undergoes electron capture?

A. A - 2 B. A - 1 C. * A D. A + 1 E. A + 2

886. What is the maximum monthly radiation exposure dose allowed for the pregnant radiation worker?

A. * 0.5 rem B. 1 rem C. 5 rem D. 50 rem E. 500 rem

887. What is the unit for biological damage done by radiation? A. Curie B. Gray C. Rad D. Roentgen E. * Rem

888. What is the whole body dose equivalent limit for the occupational exposure according to the National Council on Radiation Protection (NCRP)?

A. 5000 mSv (500 rem)

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B. 500 mSv (50 rem) C. * 50 mSv (5 rem) D. 5 mSv (0.5 rem) E. 0,5 mSv (0.05 rem)

889. What material is recommended for protecting from gamma-rays? A. Organic glass; B. Concrete, paraffin; C. Aluminum; D. Cadmium; E. * Lead.

890. What materials are recommended for protecting from gamma-rays? A. Organic glass B. Concrete, paraffin C. Aluminum D. Cadmium E. * Lead

891. What of the following is ionizing radiation. A. * Alpha particles B. Ultraviolet radiation C. RF (microwave) radiation D. Infrared radiation E. Laser radiation

892. What one of the following is NOT a good shield for beta radiation A. Plastic, B. Aluminum, C. Wood D. * Paper E. All are good

893. What one of the following is not somatic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism

A. Radial burns B. Acute ray disease C. Cataract D. * Cancerogenic effect E. Chronic ray disease

894. What one of the following is not somatic pathology of action ionizing a radiation on an organism?

A. Radial burns; B. Acute ray disease ; C. Cataract; D. * Genetic mutation E. Chronic ray disease

895. What one of the following is not the kind of ionizing a radiation? A. ?-particles B. ? -particles C. X-ray D. Gamma rays E. * UV-rays.

896. What one of the following may change the period of half-decay? A. Heating to the high temperature B. High pressure; C. Low pressure; D. High pressure and temperature. E. * None of above

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897. What organs or systems are most sensible to ionizing a radiation? A. * Gonads B. Skin C. Bones D. Liver E. Heart

898. What type of ionizing radiations can be completely stopped by the aluminium shielding thickness of 0, 5 sm

A. * ?-particles B. ? -particles C. X-ray D. Gamma rays E. Neutron ray

899. What type of ionizing radiations not stopped by the aluminium shielding thickness of 0, 5 sm?

A. beta-particles; B. ? -particles C. * X-ray D. Visible ray E. None of above

900. What types of radiation can induce same biologic effects by direct or indirect action. A. Beta radiation and Alpha radiation, B. Alpha radiation and Gamma rays, C. Gamma rays and x-ray D. Neutrons and Gamma rays E. * All of above

901. What types of radiation have a radiation factor (quality factor) most for? A. Beta radiation B. * Alpha radiation C. Gamma rays D. Neutrons E. None of the above

902. When human bodies receive less radiation? A. When more time spends near sources; B. * When more distance from source C. When greater activity of source; D. When use personal dosimeter; E. None the above.

903. When human bodies receive more radiation? A. When less time spends near sources; B. When more distance from source; C. * When greater activity of source; D. When use personal dosimeter; E. When use shields.

904. When human body receive less radiation ? A. * When less time spend near sources B. When less distance from source C. When greater time near source D. When use personal dosimeter E. None the above

905. Which is true about radioactivity? Radioactivity A. is used to treat certain cancers. B. damages white blood cells. C. deforms DNA.

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D. * All of these choices are true E. all are false

906. Which is true about radioactivity? Radioactivity A. is used to treat certain cancers. B. damages white blood cells. C. deforms DNA. D. * All of these choices are true. E. None of above

907. Which naturally occurring radioactive particles are negatively charged? A. Alpha particles B. * Beta particles C. Gamma radiation D. Neutrons E. X-ray

908. Which naturally occurring radioactive particles are negatively charged? A. Alpha particles B. * Beta particles C. Gamma radiation D. Neutrons E. X-rays.

909. Which of the following devices are used to protect the patient from unnecessary radiation exposure?

A. Collimators, filters, grids B. Immobilisation devices, filters, high kVp techniques C. * Shields, direct exposure systems, increased SID D. Short source to skin distance, fast screens, cones E. None of above

910. Which of the following forms of radiation consists of electrically neutral particles? A. α-particles B. beta-particles C. * gama-ray D. proton E. none of these

911. Which of the following forms of radiation involves the heaviest particles? A. * α -particles B. beta-particles C. gama-ray D. none of these E. positron

912. Which of the following gives the correct order of the penetrating power of radiation? A. ? > ? > ? B. ? > ? > ? C. ? > ? > ? D. * ? > ? > ? E. None of above

913. Which of the following is a measure of effect of radiation on biological material? A. Curie B. Gray C. Rad D. * Sievert E. Roentgen

914. Which of the following is of particular importance in studying the effect of radiation on the body?

A. Energy

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B. Intensity C. * Energy and intensity D. Origin E. None of above

915. Which of the following is the most important biological measure of radiation? A. Curie B. Rad C. * Rem D. Sievert E. Roentgen

916. Which of the following is the name given to a packet of electromagnetic radiation? A. Phonon B. Phonton C. Phason D. * Photon E. None of above

917. Which of the following scientists discovered radioactivity? A. * H. Becquerel B. M. Curie C. A. Einstein D. E. Rutherford E. Isaak Newton

918. Which of the following scientists is not closely associated with early studies of radioactivity?

A. H. Becquerel B. M. Curie C. * A. Einstein D. E. Rutherford E. Isaak Newton

919. Which of the following statements is true of artificially created isotopes? A. All artificially created isotopes are stable. B. * All artificially created isotopes are unstable. C. Most artificially created isotopes are stable. D. Most artificially created isotopes are unstable. E. None of above

920. Which of the following statements regarding the prodromal syndrome is false? A. * The prodromal syndrome is caused by the LD50 dose B. The main symptoms of the syndrome are nausea and vomiting. C. The syndrome is followed by a symptom-free period, known as the latent period. D. No significant biological events take place during the latent period. E. All of these choices are true

921. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of the cerebrovascular syndrome? A. Nausea. B. Vomiting. C. * Disorientation D. Diarrhea. E. All of these choices are true

922. Which of the following will have activity of 1.0 Ci? A. g of naturally occurring Ra B. kg of naturally occurring Ra C. * g of pure 286Ra D. kg pure 286Ra E. none of above

923. Which one from the following type of radiation consists of electrons?

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A. * Beta radiation B. Alpha radiation C. Gamma rays D. Neutrons E. None of above

924. Which one from the following type of radiation consists of two protons and two neutrons?

A. Beta radiation B. * Alpha radiation C. Gamma rays D. Neutrons E. None of the above

925. Which one of the following are important radiation quantities and units? A. Biological dose B. * absorbed dose C. index BGEC D. wavelengths E. Maximal admissible concentration

926. Which one of the following forms of radiation can penetrate the deepest into body tissue?

A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. * Gamma-rays D. Positron E. Proton

927. Which one of the following is a corpuscular radiation? A. * beta particles, B. X-ray, C. gamma rays, D. UV ray, E. All are correct

928. Which one of the following is an electromagnetic radiation? A. Beta particles B. Neutrons C. * Gamma rays D. Protons E. Deuterons

929. Which one of the following is an electromagnetic radiation? A. Beta particles, B. Neutrons, C. Protons D. Deuterons. E. * None of above

930. Which one of the following is external exposure from radioactive material? A. Inhalation; B. * Penetrate through body C. Absorption through skin; D. Ingestion; E. Absorption through an open wound;

931. Which one of the following is indication of long-term effects of radiation exposure? A. * Carcino genesis B. Damage to the gastrointestinal tract C. Goitre, D. Caries

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E. Hair loss 932. Which one of the following is not important radiation quantities and units?

A. Exposure, B. Absorbed dose C. Dose equivalent D. * Wavelengths E. Activity

933. Which one of the following is not indication of long-term effects of radiation exposure?

A. Carcino genesis B. * Damage to the gastrointestinal tract C. Cataract formation D. Life span shortening E. Embryological and genetic damage

934. Which one of the following is not internal exposure from radioactive material? A. Inhalation B. Ingestion; C. Absorption through skin; D. Absorption through an open wound; E. * Penetrate through body

935. Which one of the following kind of ionizing radiations do not penetrate matter to any great depth?

A. X-ray B. gamma rays C. * alpha particles D. beta particles E. protons

936. Which one of the following kind of ionizing radiations has ranges in soft tissues of the order of several millimeters?

A. X-ray B. Gamma rays C. * Alpha particles D. Beta particles E. Protons

937. Which one of the following kind of ionizing radiations have less penetrate ability? A. Beta particles, B. Neutrons, C. Gamma rays, D. Protons, E. * α -particles

938. Which one of the following kind of ionizing radiations have most penetrate ability?A. Beta particles B. Neutrons C. * Gamma rays D. Protons E. Deuterons

939. Which one of the following type of ionizing radiations is a nucleus of helium atoms? A. X-ray B. Gamma rays C. * Alpha particles D. Beta particles E. Protons

940. Which one of the following type of ionizing radiations is not commonly use for medical applications?

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A. X-ray B. Gamma rays C. Alpha particles D. Beta particles E. * Protons

941. Which one of the following type of ionizing radiations use for medical applications? A. X-ray, B. Gamma rays, C. Alpha particles, D. Beta particles, E. * All are correct

942. Which one of the following type of radiation consists of photons? A. Beta radiation B. Alpha radiation C. * Gamma rays D. Neutrons E. None of above

943. Which type of cell is least sensitive to irradiation? A. Mature lymphocytes, B. Erythroblasts, C. Spermatogonia D. Myelocytes E. * Nerve cells

944. Which type of cell is most sensitive to irradiation? A. Red blood cells B. * White blood cells C. Bone cells D. Muscle cells E. Nerve cells

945. Which type of radioactive particles has the longest half-life? A. Alpha- emitters B. Beta- emitters C. Gamma- emitters D. * There is no relationship between half-life and the type of radiation E. All of these choices are true.

946. Which unit allows the damage capability of a quantity of radiation to be expressed? A. * Sieverts B. Man sieverts C. Coulombs D. Grays E. Becquerel

947. Which unit allows the damage capability of a quantity of radiation to be expressed: A. * Sieverts B. Man sieverts C. Coulombs D. Grays E. Lux

948. would remain after 15 days? A. 12.5 g B. * 13.3 g C. 25.0 g D. 40.0 g E. 60.0 g

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949. Which of the following is not a reason why water warms and cools much more slowly than land?

A. solar energy penetrates more deeply into water B. heat energy is mixed in a deeper layer of water C. water has a higher heat capacity D. a portion of the solar energy that strikes water is used to evaporate it E. * it takes more heat to raise the temperature of a given amount of soil 1o C than it

does to raise the temperature of water 1o C. 950. On exposure to sunlight which vitamin is lost?

A. Vitamin A; B. Vitamin B1; C. Vitamin B6; D. * Vitamin C E. Vitamin D.

951. A baby fed on cow’s milk only, is likely to develop A. Beri-beri; B. Rickets; C. Night blindness; D. * Scurvy E. Goiter.

952. All are vegetable origin except A. Vitamin A; B. Vitamin B1; C. Vitamin C; D. * Vitamin B12 E. None of these.

953. All of the following diseases may lead to poor absorption of vitamins A, E, and K except:

A. Crohn's disease. B. Cystic fibrosis. C. Celiac disease. D. * Scurvy. E. Diarrhea

954. All of the following kinds of microclimate are possible except A. * Neutral B. Optimal. C. Comfortable. D. Heating. E. Cooling.

955. All of the following methods will help to preserve food nutrients except: A. * Cut fruits and vegetables into pieces and store before eating. B. Use microwave cooking or steaming for vegetables. C. Refrigerate foods in a moisture-proof container near freezing temperature. D. All of the above methods preserve vitamins. E. None of the above

956. Although the polar regions radiate away more heat energy than they receive by insolation in the course of a year, they are prevented from becoming progressively colder each year by the:

A. Conduction of heat through the interior of the earth B. Concentration of earth's magnetic field lines at the poles C. * Circulation of heat by the atmosphere and oceans D. The insulating properties of snow E. Release of latent heat to the atmosphere when polar ice melts

957. Calcification of the soft tissues is a symptom of:

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A. Vitamin K deficiency. B. Vitamin D deficiency. C. * Vitamin D excess. D. Vitamin A excess. E. Vitamin C excess

958. Calcium deficiency occurs in the absence of vitamin_________. A. * Ascorbic acid B. Nicotinic acid C. Thiamine D. Iodine E. Iron

959. Carotene is not found in A. Red carrot; B. Apricot; C. * Potato D. Spinach; E. Margarine.

960. Carotenosis is a condition causing yellow or orange pigments in the skin. It is caused by consuming too much of which types of food?

A. Dairy products B. Whole grains C. * Deep green and dark yellow fruits and vegetables D. Red meats E. Tea

961. Daily requirement of protein for adults is – A. * 1 g/kg B. 2 g/kg; C. 3 g/kg; D. 4 g/kg; E. 5 g/kg

962. Daily requirement of vitamin A is – A. 400 IU; B. 300 IU; C. 1000 IU; D. * 2000 IU E. 4000 IU.

963. Daily requirement of vitamin C is – A. 20 mg; B. * 100 mg C. 200 mg; D. 500 mg; E. 1000 mg.

964. Deficiency of Vitamin D gives rise to : A. Rheumatism B. Arthritis C. Hernia D. * Rickets E. Scurvy

965. Deficiency symptoms such as respiratory infections, gastrointestinal disturbances, and blindness are related to the role of vitamin A in:

A. Promoting growth. B. Maintaining healthy tissue. C. * Acting as an antioxidant. D. Blood clotting.

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E. None of the above 966. During the afternoon the greatest temperature difference between the surface air and

the air several meters above occurs on a: A. * Clear, calm afternoon B. Clear, windy afternoon C. Cloudy, calm afternoon D. Cloudy, windy afternoon E. None of the above

967. During the winter in the Northern Hemisphere, the "land of the midnight sun" would be found:

A. * At high latitudes B. At middle latitudes C. Near the equator D. In the desert southwest E. On the West Coast

968. For every 100 kilocalories vitamin B1 required is – A. * 0,05 mg B. 0,5 mg; C. 5,0 mg; D. 1,0 mg; E. 1,0 gm.

969. Highest vitamin A content is seen in- A. Lemon; B. Green leafy vegetables; C. Tomato; D. Ragi; E. * Fish oils

970. Highly concentrated tube feedings can result in: A. Constipation B. * Nausea and vomiting C. Aspiration D. Diarrhea E. All of the above

971. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat loss of man ? A. Increase a radiation; B. Decrease a convection; C. Increases evaporation; D. * Decreases evaporation; E. Decrease a radiation

972. Hypothermia is most common in: A. Hot, humid weather B. * Cold, wet weather C. Hot, dry weather D. Cold, dry weather E. Any weather

973. Ideal conditions for a strong radiation inversion: A. * Clear, calm, dry, winter night B. Clear, calm, moist, summer night C. Cloudy, calm, moist, winter night D. Cloudy, windy, moist, summer night E. Clear, windy, dry, summer night

974. Identify one function of vitamin D. A. Necessary for iron metabolism B. Prevents scurvy

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C. Acts as an antioxidant D. * Aids in the absorption of calcium E. None of the above

975. Identify the best sources of carotenoids. A. Whole grains, nuts, seeds, egg yolk, and plant oils B. Lean meat, poultry, fish, and legumes C. Corn, peas, and beans D. * Pumpkin, carrots, squash, sweet potatoes, and apricots E. None of the above

976. If the sun suddenly began emitting more energy, the earth's radiative equilibrium temperature would:

A. * Increase B. Decrease C. Remain the same D. Begin to oscillate E. None of above

977. If the sun suddenly began emitting more energy, the earth's radiative equilibrium temperature would:

A. * Increase B. Decrease C. Remain the same D. Begin to oscillate E. None of above

978. In a temperature inversion: A. * Air temperature increases with increasing height B. Air temperature decreases with increasing height C. Air temperature remains constant with increasing height D. It is warmer at night than during the day E. None of above

979. In meteorology, the word insolation refers to: A. A well-constructed, energy-efficient home B. The solar constant C. * Incoming solar radiation D. An increase in solar output E. All of the above

980. In most areas the warmest time of the day about 5 feet above the ground occurs: A. Around noon B. * In the afternoon between 2 and 5 pm C. In the early evening after 6 pm D. Just before the sun sets E. All the above

981. In order to increase their absorption of iron, a person may benefit from consuming an adequate intake of vitamin ____?

A. * C B. A C. K D. D E. B1

982. In summer, humid regions typically have ________daily temperature ranges and _______maximum temperatures than drier regions.

A. * Smaller, lower B. Smaller, higher C. Larger, lower D. Larger, higher

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E. All of the above 983. Individuals who eat vegetarian diets may be lacking:

A. Amino acids B. Vitamins C. Electrolytes D. * Iron E. Calories

984. Iron absorption from intestine is regulated by A. Acid secretion in stomach; B. Reducing substances in food; C. * Mucosal block in the intestinal cells in according to iron requirement D. Alkaline medium in small intestine. E. Alkaline medium

985. Joints of obese individuals are likely to develop: A. * Osteoarthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Atherosclerosis. D. Varicosities. E. Abnormal fat.

986. Lack of enough potassium results in which problem? A. Rickets B. Tendency to hemorrhage C. Weakened connective tissue D. Osteomalacia E. * Muscle weakness

987. Lack of fiber in tube feedings can result in: A. * Constipation B. Nausea and vomiting C. Aspiration D. Diarrhea E. All of the above

988. Lines connecting points of equal temperature are called: A. Isobars B. * Isotherms C. Thermals D. Thermographs E. All of the above

989. Low clouds retard surface cooling at night better than clear skies because: A. * The clouds absorb and radiate infrared energy back to earth B. The water droplets in the clouds reflect infrared energy back to earth C. The clouds start convection currents between them D. The clouds are better conductors of heat than is the clear night air E. The formation of the clouds releases latent heat energy

990. Main natural sources of carotene is NOT A. Dark-green leafy vegetables B. Tomatoes, C. Carrots; D. Papaya; E. * Citrus

991. Meat is a major source of ... A. * Iron, phosphorus, zinc B. Calcium, sodium C. Potassium, calcium D. Iron, copper.

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E. Fluorine, chrome. 992. Metabolic syndrome includes all of the following except:

A. Risk for cardiovascular disease. B. Risk for peripheral vascular disease. C. Obese individuals with excess visceral fat. D. * Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. E. None of the above

993. Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate: A. Humidity of air; B. Temperature; C. * Chemical structure of air D. Speed of air motion; E. Radiation temperature.

994. Niacin is synthesized from A. * Tryptophan B. Methionine; C. Tyrosine; D. Phenylalanine. E. Lysine.

995. Night blindness drying of the conjunctiva, dry and scaly skin and loss of hair are some of the symptoms of :

A. Vitamin K deficiency B. * Vitamin A deficiency C. Iron deficiency D. Folic acid deficeiency E. None of the above

996. Night blindness is a condition brought about by: A. * Vitamin A deficiency. B. Vitamin D deficiency. C. Vitamin K deficiency. D. Vitamin C deficiency. E. Hypervitaminosis.

997. Normal indices of air’s humidity is A. 10-20 %; B. 70-80 %; C. 20-30 %; D. * 30-60 %; E. 80-100 %.

998. Of the following substances, which supplies the body with amino acids? A. * Proteins B. Fats C. Carbohydrates D. Minerals E. Water

999. Of the following, which is a vitamin precursor? A. Retinol B. Choline C. * Carotenoids D. 1.25(OH)2 vitamin D E. None of the above

1000. On a clear, calm, night, the ground and air above cool mainly by this process: A. Evaporation B. Reflection C. Convection

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D. Conduction E. * Radiation

1001. One of the first signs of vitamin A deficiency is: A. Anemia. B. Jaundice. C. * Night blindness. D. Scurvy. E. Rickets

1002. One of the following is not effect of cold and dry air on the body. A. All the body functions are more active; B. * Breathing is deeper and more frequent C. Loss of appetite; D. The circulation of blood is increased; E. A process of digestion is stimulated.

1003. One of the last signs of vitamin A deficiency is: A. Anemia B. Osteoporosis C. * Blindness D. Hemorrhage E. None of the above

1004. One serious consequence of a vitamin A deficiency is: A. Scurvy. B. Depression. C. * Xeropthalmia. D. Keshan disease. E. Beri-beri

1005. One-a-day types of vitamin and mineral supplements: A. are necessary to prevent against nutrient deficiencies. B. include all known essential vitamins and minerals. C. are scientifically prepared to ensure a balance of all known essential nutrients. D. * are often not needed by healthy, active adults who regularly eat a varied diet. E. None of the above

1006. Our seasons are caused by: A. the changing distance between the earth and the sun B. the angle at which sunlight reaches the earth C. the length of the daylight hours D. all of the above E. * only (b) and (c) are correct

1007. Plant oils are excellent sources of __________ and liver is an excellent source of __________.

A. vitamin K; vitamin A B. vitamin E; vitamin D C. * vitamin E; vitamin A D. vitamin D; vitamin K E. vitamin B; vitamin C

1008. Poorest source of vitamin C among following is A. Orange; B. * Apple C. Cabbage; D. Guava; E. Indian gooseberry;

1009. Poverty is not the only cause of malnutrition. Other causes include: A. ignorance. B. obesity.

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C. alcoholism. D. excess vitamin consumption. E. * all of the above may cause malnutrition.

1010. Protein content is highest per 100 g in – A. milk; B. meat; C. ground nut; D. hens egg; E. * soybeans

1011. Protein content is highest per 100 g in – A. milk; B. * meat C. rice; D. hens egg; E. bread.

1012. Sources of vitamin A is NOT A. Butter, B. Eggs, C. * Meat D. Liver, E. Fish.

1013. Sunlight passes through a thicker portion of the atmosphere at A. Sunrise B. Noon C. Sunset D. Night E. * Both a and c

1014. Sunlight that bounces off a surface is said to be ________ from the surface. A. Radiated B. Absorbed C. Emitted D. * Reflected E. All are correct

1015. Sunlight that bounces off a surface is said to be ________ from the surface. A. Radiated B. Absorbed C. Emitted D. * Reflected E. None of above

1016. Suppose last night was clear and calm. Tonight low clouds will be present. From this you would conclude that tonight's minimum temperature will be:

A. * Higher than last night's minimum temperature B. Lower than last night's minimum temperature C. The same as last night's minimum temperature D. Above freezing E. All are correct

1017. The 4D-syndrome characterises the following disease_________. A. * malaria B. jaundice C. flu D. diarrhoea E. none of the above

1018. The atmospheric greenhouse effect is produced mainly by the: A. absorption and re-emission of visible light by the atmosphere

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B. absorption and re-emission of ultraviolet radiation by the atmosphere C. * absorption and re-emission of infrared radiation by the atmosphere D. absorption and re-emission of visible light by clouds E. absorption and re-emission of visible light by the ground

1019. The atmospheric layer in which we live is called the: A. * troposphere B. stratosphere C. thermosphere D. ionosphere E. exosphere

1020. The atmospheric layer in which we live is called the: A. * troposphere B. stratosphere C. thermosphere D. ionosphere E. exosphere

1021. The average adult requirement of calories per day is: A. 1 pound of water by 1°F B. * 1 pound of water by 1°C C. 1 gram of water by 1°F D. 1 gram of water by 1°C E. 1 kg of water by 1°C

1022. The best approach for losing weight would be: A. medications. B. medications and a quick exercise program. C. * behavior modification and reduced caloric intake. D. strict exercise. E. None of the above

1023. The caloric yield of fats is: A. 4 calories per gram B. 5 calories per gram C. 7 calories per gram D. * 9 calories per gram E. 15 calories per gram

1024. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded ventilated room are all except A. Increase of temperature; B. Increase in humidity; C. * Increase in CO2; D. Decrease in air change; E. All of these.

1025. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded ventilated room are all except A. Increase of temperature; B. Increase in humidity; C. * Increase in CO2; D. Decrease in air change; E. All of these.

1026. The deepest radiation inversion would be observed: A. at the equator any day of the year B. * in polar regions in winter C. at the top of a high mountain in winter D. on a desert in winter E. in a deep valley during the summer

1027. The deficiency of which of the following group of nutrients affects the skin? A. Iron, Iodine, Zinc, Potassium

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B. * Riboflacin, Niacin, Pyridoxine, Pantothenic Acid C. Vitamin K, Calcium, Fluorine, Copper D. All the three E. None of the above

1028. The disease that is non-communicable is_________. A. Malaria B. * Marasmus C. AIDS D. Jaundice E. Typhoid

1029. The earth's atmosphere is divided into layers based on the vertical profile of: A. air pressure B. * air temperature C. air density D. wind speed E. All are correct

1030. The earth's radiative equilibrium temperature is: A. * the temperature at which the earth is absorbing solar radiation and emitting

infrared radiation at equal rates B. the temperature at which the earth is radiating energy at maximum intensity C. the average temperature the earth must maintain to prevent the oceans from freezing

solid D. the temperature at which rates of evaporation and condensation on the earth are in

balance E. None of above

1031. The gas that absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere: A. water vapor B. nitrous oxide C. carbon dioxide D. * ozone E. chlorofluorocarbons

1032. The greatest variation in daily temperature usually occurs: A. * at the ground B. about 5 feet above the ground C. at the top of a high-rise apartment complex D. at the level where thermals stop rising E. on mountain tops

1033. The heart disorder caused by a selenium deficiency is __________. A. * Keshan disease B. Anemia C. Scurvy D. xeropthalmia E. rickets

1034. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in A. Orange; B. Lemon; C. * Indian gooseberry D. Grapes. E. Carrot.

1035. The hottest atmospheric layer is the: A. stratosphere B. mesosphere C. * thermosphere D. troposphere

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E. None of above 1036. The lag in daily temperature refers to the time lag between the:

A. * time of maximum solar radiation and the time of maximum temperature B. time of minimum temperature and the time of maximum solar radiation C. minimum and maximum temperature for a day D. minimum and maximum solar energy received at the surface for a given day E. sunrise and sunset

1037. The largest annual ranges of temperatures are found: A. * at polar latitudes over land B. at polar latitudes over water C. at middle latitudes near large bodies of water D. at the Equator E. in the Northern Central Plains of the United States

1038. The lowest temperature is usually observed: A. at the time of sunset B. near midnight C. several hours before sunrise D. * around sunrise E. several hours after sunrise

1039. The main reason(s) for warm summers in northern middle latitudes is that: A. the earth is closer to the sun in summer B. the sun is higher in the sky and we receive more direct solar radiation C. the days are longer D. all of the above E. * only (b) and (c) are correct

1040. The maximum in daytime surface temperature typically occurs _______ the earth receives its most intense solar radiation.

A. before B. * after C. exactly when D. newer E. always

1041. The most important reason why summers in the Southern Hemisphere are not warmer than summers in the Northern Hemisphere is that:

A. the earth is closer to the sun in January B. the earth is farther from the sun in July C. * over 80% of the Southern Hemisphere is covered with water D. the sun's energy is less intense in the Southern Hemisphere E. all of the above

1042. The need for vitamin E in the diet will increase with an increase in the amount of what other nutrient in the diet?

A. Protein. B. Saturated fatty acids. C. Carbohydrate. D. * Polyunsaturated fatty acids. E. None of the above

1043. The north-facing side of a hill in a mountainous region in the US tends to: A. receive less sunlight during a year than the south-facing side B. grow a variety of trees that are typically observed at higher elevation C. be a better location for a ski run than the south-facing side D. have snow on the ground for a longer period of time in winter compared to the south-

facing side E. * all of the above

1044. The obese individual has a higher risk of which complication?

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A. Hypertension B. Maturity-onset diabetes C. Gall bladder disease D. Answers 1 and 2 both are true. E. * All three are true.

1045. The primary cause of a radiation inversion is: A. * infrared radiation emitted by the earth's surface B. infrared radiation absorbed by the earth's surface C. solar radiation absorbed by the earth's surface D. solar radiation reflected by the earth's surface E. infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere and clouds

1046. The recommended percentage of dietary fat per day is: A. 10% B. 20% C. * 30% D. 15% E. 5 %

1047. The state of thermal comfort depends on a temperature and humidity of surrounding air. What combination of this parameters cause overcooling of human organism?

A. High temperature and low humidity; B. Low temperature and low humidity; C. * Low temperature and high humidity; D. High temperature and high humidity; E. None of above.

1048. The strongest radiation inversions occur when A. Skies are overcast B. Skies are partly cloudy C. * Skies are clear D. Precipitation is falling E. All of the above

1049. The vitamin synthesized by bacteria in the intestine is: A. E B. D C. A D. B E. * K

1050. The wind direction is: A. * the direction from which the wind is blowing B. the direction to which the wind is blowing C. always directly from high toward low pressure D. always directly from low toward high pressure E. None of above

1051. Thermal belts are: A. pockets of warm air resting on a valley during the afternoon B. pockets of cold air resting on a valley floor at night C. * warmer hillsides that are less likely to experience freezing conditions D. cold, below-freezing air found at the top of a mountain E. none of the above

1052. Using purgatives on a regular basis is harmful to health. Which deficiency does it cause?

A. Iron B. Potassium C. * Iodine D. Chromium

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E. None of the above 1053. Vitamin E functions in the body:

A. to maintain vision and skin integrity, as well as growth of nails and bones. B. * as an antioxidant to prevent cell damage. C. to calcify bones and teeth. D. to supply energy and spare protein. E. none of the above

1054. Vitamin K deficiency is a possible result of: A. kidney disease. B. * antibiotic therapy. C. presence of phytates. D. insufficient intake of citrus fruits. E. none of the above

1055. Vitamin K is found in: A. seafood, iodized salt, and dairy products. B. fortified cereals, milk, and cheese. C. citrus fruits, cantaloupe, seeds, and nuts. D. * green leafy vegetables. E. none of the above

1056. Vitamin K is needed in the body for: A. enzyme action. B. * blood clotting. C. energy production. D. carbohydrate metabolism E. none of the above

1057. What vitamin belong to fatsoluble: A. A. B. B. C. C. D. * D. E. E.

1058. Vitamins are classified A. Organic and inorganic. B. * Fat-soluble and water soluble. C. Essential and nonessential. D. Elements and compounds. E. Natural and artificial

1059. Warming in the stratosphere is mainly caused by: A. * absorption of ultraviolet radiation by ozone B. release of latent heat energy during condensation C. chemical reactions between ozone and chlorofluorocarbons D. frictional heating caused by meteorites E. none

1060. Water heats up ______ and cools off _____ than land. A. More quickly, more quickly B. More quickly, more slowly C. More slowly, more quickly D. * More slowly, more slowly E. None of the above

1061. What air temperature stops the heat loss by convection ? A. 20 °C B. * 33 °C C. 13 °C D. 37 °C

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E. 0 °C 1062. What are the effects of Vitamin B6 deficiency?

A. Beriberi B. Scurvy C. * Dermatomyoma D. Certain types of Eczema E. Hemorrhages

1063. What disease is associated with a deficiency of vitamin C? A. Osteoporosis B. * Scurvy C. Xeropthalemia D. Keshan disease E. Rickets

1064. What diseases results to the formation of Harrison's sulcus and pigeon breast? A. Kwashiorkor; B. Pellagra; C. * Rickets D. Xerophthalmia; E. Scurvy.

1065. What does niacin deficiency cause? A. Acne B. Scurvy C. Boils D. * Pellagra E. Rickets

1066. What does vitamin K deficiency lead to ? A. Problem in digestion B. * Problem in Blood Coagulation C. Problem in Calcium Metabolism D. All the three E. None of the above

1067. What environmental factors influence on intensity of cooling of the human body A. * Temperature of air, humidity of air, motion of air B. Temperature of air, humidity of air C. Temperature of air, radiation temperature D. Motion of air E. Temperature of air

1068. What from next clinical symptoms NOT characteristic for xerophthalmia A. Follicular hyperkeratosis; B. * Night blindness; C. Anemia; D. Conjunctival xerosis; E. Keratomalacia

1069. What is the condition known as, in which the body does not get its fair share of nutrients, either from starvation, or as a result of poor absorption :

A. Marasmus B. Malnutrition C. Kwashiorkor D. * Malnutrition & Marasmus E. None of the above

1070. What is the name of the disease in man arising out of Vitamin B1 deficiency ? A. Scurvy B. * Beriberi C. Pellagra

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D. Gingivitis E. Rickets

1071. What nutrient is NOT necessary for the development of the teeth and their surrounding structures?

A. Fluoride; B. * Vit B1; C. Vit. A; D. Vit C; E. Phosphorus.

1072. What parameter of microclimate does not influence on loss of heat by evaporation. A. Temperature of an air; B. Humidity; C. Velocity of air moving; D. * All right E. None of these.

1073. What parameter of microclimate does not influence on loss of heat by evaporation. A. Humidity; B. * Radiation temperature C. Velocity of air moving; D. A, B and C; E. None of the above.

1074. What parameter of the microclimate we can measuring with the help of Kata thermometer?

A. Air temperature; B. Point of dew; C. Relative moisture; D. * Speed of air moving E. Resulting temperature.

1075. What pathological change in an organism is caused by the local action of high temperature ?

A. Heat-prostration B. Sunstroke C. * Burn; D. General hyperthermia E. Violation of thermoregulation of organism

1076. What pathological changes in an organism is cause by the local overcooling ? A. Cold diseases; B. Inflammatory diseases; C. Hypothermia; D. Infectious diseases; E. * Frost-bitten

1077. What type of air’s humidity using for estimation of microclimatic condition? A. Minimum humidity; B. Middle humidity; C. * Relative humidity D. Maximum humidity; E. General humidity.

1078. What unfavorable change is caused by high temperature of air ? A. Sunstroke; B. * Heat-prostration; C. Hypertensive crisis; D. Asthmatic state; E. Stroke.

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1079. When it is January and winter in the Northern Hemisphere, it is ______and ________in the Southern Hemisphere.

A. * January and summer B. January and winter C. July and winter D. July and summer E. None of the above

1080. Where are the days and nights of equal length all year long? A. at 66.5o (degree) B. nowhere C. at 23.5o (degree) D. * at the Equator E. at the poluce

1081. Which disease is the clinical manifestation of vitamin A deficiency? A. Kwashiorkor; B. Pellagra; C. Fe-deficient anemia; D. * Xerophthalmia E. Scurvy.

1082. Which factor is not affects a person's sensitivity to heat A. Weight, B. Degree of physical fitness, C. * Electric illumination D. Degree of acclimatization, E. Use of alcohol or drugs.

1083. Which latitude belt best describes the middle latitudes? A. 20o to 80o B. 10o to 35o C. 20o to 35o D. 40o to 70o E. * 30o to 50o

1084. Which of following foods does NOT contain any phytochemicals? A. Tomatoes B. Oranges C. Nuts D. * Chicken E. None of the above

1085. Which of the following are true about carbohydrates?A. 1, 3, and 5 B. 2, 4, and 5 C. 2, 3, 4, and 5 D. * 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 E. 2, 3, and 4

1086. Which of the following best describes nutrition? A. The body’s need for calories, water, protein, carbohydrates, fats, vitamin, and

minerals B. The process whereby the body uses food and fluids to reach and maintain health C. The comparison of a certain volume or weight of the energy source with its ability to

produce heat D. Food is a source of body energy for human beings and it provides the means by

which human being function E. * All of the above

1087. Which of the following can be used as a method of protecting an orchard from damaging low temperatures during a radiation inversion?

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A. orchard heaters B. wind machines C. irrigation (cover the area with water) D. * all of the above E. None of the above

1088. Which of the following cooking methods may decrease a food's vitamin C content? A. stir-frying B. * boiling C. steaming D. microwaving E. freezing

1089. Which of the following diseases is associated with vitamin C deficiency? A. Psoriasis B. * Scurvy C. Pellagra D. Vitiligo E. Beri-beri

1090. Which of the following foods contain the highest level of vitamin C? A. 1 cup orange juice B. * 1 cup red sweet peppers C. 1 cup strawberries D. 1 cup spinach E. All of the above

1091. Which of the following foods contains the highest amount of selenium? A. Cabbage B. * Roasted mixed nuts C. Couscous D. Watermelon E. Apple

1092. Which of the following foods would be considered a poor source of vitamin E? A. Soybean oil B. Almonds C. Total Raisin Bran D. * Milk E. All of the above

1093. Which of the following gases are mainly responsible for the atmospheric greenhouse effect in the earth's atmosphere?

A. Oxygen and nitrogen B. Nitrogen and carbon dioxide C. Ozone and oxygen D. * Water vapor and carbon dioxide E. All are correct

1094. Which of the following health problems is not associated with vitamin D deficiency? A. Osteomalacia B. Rickets C. Bone malformations D. * Skin cancer E. Osteoporoses

1095. Which of the following helps to explain why even though northern latitudes experience 24 hours of sunlight on June 22, they are not warmer than latitudes further south?

A. Solar energy is spread over a larger area in northern latitudes B. Some of the sun's energy is reflected by snow and ice in the northern latitudes C. Increased cloud cover reflects solar energy in the northern latitudes D. Solar energy is used to melt frozen soil in the northern latitudes

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E. * All of the above 1096. Which of the following is a major symptom of vitamin C deficiency?

A. Infertility B. * Tissue hemorrhage C. Decreased hair growth D. Increased hair growth E. Night blindness

1097. Which of the following is NOT a good source of vitamin D? A. Sunshine B. Fatty fish C. Fortified milk and margarine D. * Fruit, vegetables, and whole grains E. None of the above

1098. Which of the following is NOT a key function of vitamin A? A. Protecting LDL from oxidation B. Essential to sight C. Cell differentiation D. * Enhancing absorption of iron E. None of the above

1099. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD)? A. A sedentary lifestyle B. Smoking C. Obesity D. Alcohols E. * Eating 5 or more servings of fruits and vegetables each day

1100. Which of the following is not generally a true statement about fat-soluble vitamins? A. * Excess amounts are readily excreted from the body. B. They can be consumed less frequently than the water-soluble vitamins. C. They are bound to proteins when traveling in the blood. D. They may accumulate to toxic amounts in the body. E. None of the above

1101. Which of the following plays a crucial role in the body's physiological functions? A. * Retinol B. Retinoic acid C. Retinal D. Retina E. None of the above

1102. Which of the following provide the body with necessary electrolytes? A. Vitamins B. Proteins C. * Minerals D. Fats E. Water

1103. Which of the following substitutes for some of our need for vitamin E? A. * Selenium B. Sodium C. Sulfur D. Silver E. Iodine

1104. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a vitamin D deficiency in infants and young children?

A. Abnormally high blood calcium B. Rupture of red blood cells C. Bowed legs

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D. * Abnormally low blood calcium E. None of the above

1105. Which of the following water-soluble vitamins does not pose a particularly high risk of toxicity?

A. Vitamin B-6 B. * Thiamin C. Niacin D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin PP

1106. Which one of following indexes of temperature is comfortable for human? A. 10-12 °C; B. * 18-20 °C C. 15-17 °C; D. 24-26 °C; E. 22-24 °C.

1107. Which one of the following is not reason of osteomalacia? A. Pregnancy of women; B. Lack vitamin D in diet; C. Lactation of women; D. * Drinking milk E. Work indoor.

1108. Which one of the following way of heat loss depends on speed of air? A. Radiation, B. Convection, C. * Conduction, D. Perspiration E. Perspiration and radiation

1109. The wing anemometer has measuring speed of the wind A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec; B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec; C. From 1-10 m/sec; D. * From 0,5 – 15 m/sec E. From 1 to 50 m/sec.

1110. A direction and force of a wind is taken into account for need of A. Illumination of room; B. Ventilation of room; C. * Construction and planning of cities D. Color of wall; E. None of above.

1111. A next quantity of infrared irradiation enters in the complement of solar irradiation A. 40 %; B. * 49 %; C. 55 %; D. 59 %; E. 65 %.

1112. A next quantity of ultra-violet rays enters in the complement of solar irradiation A. * 1 %; B. 5 %; C. 10 %; D. 20 %; E. 20 %;

1113. A quantity of an air that comes into the room during 1 hour is A. * The volume of ventilation B. The ratio of ventilation;

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C. Kind of ventilation; D. Amount of oxygen; E. Amount of carbonic dioxide.

1114. Absolute humidity is expressed as A. * Mm.Mc colume B. Degrees; C. Grams per cubic metre of air D. Kilogram E. Watt.

1115. Absolute humidity is measured by A. Catatermometer. B. Hygrometer. C. Thermometer. D. Barometer, E. * Psychrometer

1116. According to hygienic standards, is the use of these lamps allowed in educational facilities?

A. No B. * Yes C. Under certain circumstances D. With the permission of a doctor SES E. Sometimes

1117. Air is dry when relative humidity is A. * to 30 % B. to 45 % C. to 55 % D. to 70 % E. to 85 %

1118. Air is moist when relative humidity is A. to 40 % B. to 55 % C. 56 – 60 % D. 51 – 85 % E. * more 60 %

1119. Air is not dry when relative humidity is A. to 30 % B. to 25 % C. 25 – 30 % D. 25– 40 % E. * 30-40 %

1120. Air is not moist when relative humidity is A. * 40 – 55 % B. 56 - 70 % C. 71 - 85 % D. more than 85 % E. more than 95 %

1121. Among luminescent lamps, light bulbs which do not exist? A. Fluorescent (DF) B. White light (LB) C. Warm white light (LTB) D. * Cold light E. All of the above

1122. Amount of moisture being contained in 1m3 air with at the given temperature is A. Relative humidity;

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B. * Absolute humidity; C. Maximum humidity; D. A dew Point; E. None of above.

1123. Anemometer is used for measuring A. * Air velocity B. Air temperature; C. Humidity; D. Cooling power of air; E. Atmospheric pressure.

1124. Biodoze of ultraviolet irradiation given to the patient are measured in minutes. What is this appliance called?

A. * Appliance Gorbachev B. Ultravioletmetrom C. Actinometer D. dRadiometer E. Katathermometer

1125. Choose the norm of natural lightning coefficient for the school rooms: A. 0,1-0,2 %. B. 0,2-0,5 % C. 0.5-1 % D. 0,5-1,5 % E. * 1,25-1,5 %.

1126. Choose the normal value of the falling angle of the leaving rooms: A. not less than 25 0C B. not more than 25 0C C. * not less than 27 0C D. not more than 27 0C E. not less than 30 0C

1127. Choose the normal value of the window angle for the leaving rooms: A. Not less than 2 0C B. * not less than 5 0C C. not less than 7 C D. not less than 10 0C E. not less than 27 0C

1128. Choose UV spectrum with the bactericidal effect : A. * 280-10 nm B. 315-265 nm C. 320-280 nm D. 380-300 nm E. 400-315 nm

1129. Coefficient of daylight is: A. a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor B. a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance from

the window to the opposite wall C. * a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor D. angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface to

the upper edge of the window E. an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface

to the upper edge of the object with darken the window 1130. Coefficient of depth (CD) of room is:

A. * an attitude of distance from the window to the opposite wall to distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor

B. the distance from the window to the opposite wall

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C. a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor D. a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor E. an attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to the distance

from window to the opposite wall . 1131. Development of which of the disease is not caused by inadequate lighting

A. Development of fatigue B. Suppressors of accommodation C. * Diabetes D. Fatigue visual analyzer E. Nearsightedness

1132. Device for measuring of atmosphere pressure is A. Sphygmomanometer B. * Barometer- aneroid C. Anemometer D. Psychrometr. E. Pyranometr.

1133. Disinfection of air is considered effective, if an effectiveness coefficient is not less A. Than 2 B. Than 3 C. * than 5 D. than 10 E. than 50

1134. Disinfection of air is considered effective, if effectiveness degree is not less than A. 20 %; B. 25 %; C. 60 %; D. * 80 %, E. 50 %.

1135. For lighting of workplace the angle of incidence according to hygienic norms should be:

A. * not less than 27° B. more than 27° C. not less than 5° D. more than 5° E. not less than 70°

1136. For lighting of workplace the angle of opening of light rays according to hygienic norms should be:

A. not less than 27° B. more than 27° C. * not less than 5° D. more than 5° E. not less than 70°

1137. For the measurement of the IR radiation you need: A. Piranometer B. Luxmeter C. Psichrometer D. * Aktimometer E. Anemometer

1138. For the measurement of the UV radiation you need: A. Aktinometr B. Luxmetr C. * Uvimetr D. Anemometer E. Psichrometr

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1139. For which rooms Lightning coefficient 1:2 is recommended? A. Ward B. Corridor C. Bath  D. Dressing room E. * Operating room

1140. For which rooms Lightning coefficient 1:2-1:4 is recommended? A. * Operating rooms B. Ward C. Dressing room D. Pantry E. Delivery rooms

1141. For which rooms Lightning coefficient 1:4-1:5 is recommended? A. Wards B. Operating rooms C. * Dressing rooms D. Pantry rooms E. Delivery rooms

1142. For which rooms minimal Lightning Coefficient is 1:6 ? A. * Ward B. Corridor C. Bath  D. Dressing room E. Operating room

1143. General illumination of patients room planned to provide by luminescent lamps. Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?

A. 250 Lx B. 350 Lx C. 150 Lx D. * 300 Lx E. 200 Lx

1144. General illumination of patients`s room is planned to provide by incandescent lamps. Which one of the following is the norm for patients`s room ?

A. 250 Lx B. 350 Lx C. 300 Lx D. * 150 Lx E. 200 Lx

1145. General illumination of school class is planned to provide by luminescent lamps. Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms?

A. 250 Lx B. 350 Lx C. 150 Lx D. * 300 Lx E. 200 Lx

1146. General lamplight of school class is planned to provide by incandescent lamps. Which one of the following is the norm for classrooms ?

A. 250 Lx B. 350 Lx C. * 150 Lx D. 300 Lx E. 200 Lx

1147. Graphical diagram, which characterizes number of a wind in the given district, measured by long-term observations name

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A. Wind direction; B. * Rose of winds; C. Air velocity; D. Speed of the wind; E. Cooling power of air.

1148. High altitude is good for one of following persons A. Suffering from chronic bronchitis, B. Suffering from diseases of heart, C. Suffering from infections of kidneys, D. * Suffering from anemia E. Suffering from diseases of liver.

1149. High altitude is good for one of following persons A. * Suffering from anemia; B. Suffering from chronic bronchitis, C. Suffering from diseases of heart, D. Suffering from infections of kidneys, E. Suffering from emphysema.

1150. How does high humidity of air influence on the ways of heat emission of man ? A. Increases radiation B. Decreases a convection C. Increases a perspiration D. * Decreases perspiration E. Decreases a radiation

1151. How does mark a calm in a wind rose ? A. By a circle the diameter of which equals the number of calmsv B. * By a circle the radius of which equals the number of calms C. By a circle length of which equals the number of calms D. circle, the area of which equals the number of calms E. circle, the diameter of which equals the number of calms

1152. How does the hair of hygrometer react on changing of humidity ? A. At growth of humidity shortens B. * At growth of humidity lengthens C. At diminishing of humidity lengthens D. At drying lengthens E. At growth of humidity changes the diameter

1153. How many scales on the clock-face of anemometer ? A. One B. Two C. * Three D. Four E. Five

1154. How many units does the lower scale of the luxmeter have? A. 10 B. 20 C. * 30 D. 40 E. 50

1155. How many units does the upper scale of the luxmeter have? A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60 E. * 100

1156. How much rhumbs must be in the “rose of wind”?

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A. 4; B. 6; C. * 16; D. 15; E. 20.

1157. Humidity of air influence on next kind of exchange in human body A. Vitamins exchange; B. * Heat exchange; C. Protein exchange; D. Fat exchange; E. Gas exchange.

1158. Hygrograph registers air humidity changes A. for a day and a hour. B. * for a day and a week C. for a day and a month. D. for a week and a month E. for a hours and a month.

1159. In how many areas the range is divided into UV radiation A. 1 B. 2 C. * 3 D. 4 E. 5

1160. In one of the following temperature scales boiling point is 100 degree. A. * Celsius B. Fahrenheit; C. Kelvin; D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

1161. In one of the following temperature scales boiling point is 212 degree. A. Celsius; B. Kelvin; C. * Fahrenhei D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

1162. In one of the following temperature scales freezing point is - 273 degree. A. Celsius; B. Fahrenheit; C. * Kelvin D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

1163. In one of the following temperature scales freezing point is 32 degree. A. Celsius; B. * Fahrenheit C. Kelvin; D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

1164. In the aspect of hygienic properties which is important in source of artificial light? A. It has low thermal radiation B. Energy Saving C. Allows bake svila close to natural D. Can be used to illuminate the operative field E. Can be used for domestic lighting workplace turner

1165. In the hospital premises

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A. At the production B. In training room C. * In the operating room D. In the recreational facilities

1166. In what unit measuring speed of air? A. Meters B. Hours; C. Centimeters; D. * Meter per second E. m3/hour.

1167. In what units does estimate speed and force of wind? A. * In meters per second B. In marks C. In kilometers for a minute D. In meters for a minute E. In percents

1168. In which one of the following conditions may development "Caisson's disease"? A. Effects of decreased Atmospheric Pressure; B. Effects of Increased temperature; C. * Effects of Increased Atmospheric Pressure D. Effects of decreased temperature; E. None of the above.

1169. Increasing energy of light goes in the order A. ultraviolet, visible, infrared. B. visible, infrared, ultraviolet. C. * infrared, visible, ultraviolet. D. ultraviolet, infrared, visible. E. ultraviolet, x-ray, visible.

1170. Inside of capillary tube of maximal thermometer is A. Alcohol; B. * Mercury; C. Iron; D. Water; E. Air.

1171. Inside of capillary tube of minimal thermometer is A. * Alcohol; B. Mercury; C. Iron; D. Water; E. Air.

1172. Katathermometer is used for measuring A. Air temperature; B. Humidity; C. Radiation temperature; D. * Cooling power of air E. Atmospheric pressure.

1173. Light coefficient (LC) is: A. * a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a B. a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance from

the window to the opposite wall C. a ratio of lighting indoors to simultaneous lighting outdoor D. angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface to

the upper edge of the window

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E. an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface to the upper edge of the object with darken the window

1174. Light source, mounted in a valve is called: A. Counter B. Dosimeter C. Photometer D. * Lamp E. All of the options

1175. Low temperature of air conduce to the increase of next ways of heat loses A. Perspiration; B. Radiation; C. Convections and perspiration; D. Conduction and radiation; E. * Convections and conduction.

1176. Maximal humidity of air depend from A. Atmospheric pressure; B. * Temperature of air; C. Relative humidity; D. the deficit of satiation; E. Temperature of body.

1177. Mercury-quartz lamps and special bactericidal lamps used for the disinfections A. Water, B. * Air in wards C. Surgical instruments; D. Patrimonial halls, E. All are right.

1178. Name influence of extra doses of UV radiation. A. Haemopoetic effect. B. * Carcinogenic effect C. Thermal. D. Formation of pigment. E. Increasing of common resistance.

1179. Name methods of measure biolodgical doze of UV-irradiation. A. * Biolodical method B. Geometrical method C. Calculation methods D. Mathematical methods E. Astronomical method

1180. Name normal middle temperature in living room. A. +16 - +180 C B. +18 - +20C C. +16 - + 19 C D. * +20 - +22 C E. +22 - +25 C

1181. Name sanitary-prophylactic measure to prophylactic UV radiation’s insufficiency. A. Clear window’s glasses. B. Protect environment from wastes. C. Using bactericide lamp. D. * Using erytemic- luminiscent E. Using electric lamp.

1182. Name the index, which not apply to calculation method of investigated of natural illumination.

A. Angle of opening. B. * Evening of illumination.

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C. Angle of incidence of light rays D. Light coefficient (LC) E. Coefficient of day lighting

1183. Name the minmum level of artificial illumination in the work place by luministcent lamp.

A. 100 lux B. 150 lux C. 200 lux D. 250 lux E. * 300 lux

1184. Name the minmum level of artificial illumination in the work placeby electric lamp. A. 100 lux B. * 150 lux C. 200 lux D. 250 lux E. 300 lux

1185. Name the norm of artificial illumination in the classroom by electric (bulp) lamp. A. 100 lux. B. 125 lux C. * 150 lux D. 175 lux E. 200 lux.

1186. Name the norm of artificial illumination in the living room by electric lamp. A. 100 lux B. * 150 lux C. 200 lux D. 250 lux E. 300 lux

1187. Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate: A. Humidity of air; B. Temperature; C. * Chemical structure of air D. Speed of air motion; E. Radiation temperature

1188. Name the parameters, which not characterized microclimate: A. Humidity of air; B. Temperature; C. * Chemical structure of air D. Speed of air motion; E. Radiation temperature.

1189. Name your most typical uses for UV radiation A. Gastritis B. Ulcer C. * Failure pigmentation D. Anemia E. Availability body nevi and warts

1190. Natural ventilation is caused by A. Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air; B. Wind force; C. * A and B both. D. Color of wall; E. None of above.

1191. Natural ventilation is caused by A. Difference of the temperature of outside and inside air;

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B. Wind force; C. * A and B both D. Color of wall; E. None of above.

1192. Natural ventilation largely depends on the following natural for¬ces: A. * Difference of temperatures inside an apartment and outside of the apartment and

increased pressure on the walls of external air at wind B. B. Difference of temperatures and humidity inside an apartment and outside C. C. Difference of speed of motion of air inside an apartment and outside D. D. A presence of sources of radiation temperature inside of apartment E. E. Difference of pressure of air inside an apartment and outside

1193. Non-electric sources to the artificial lighting are all except: A. Kerosene lamps B. Carbide lamp C. Candles D. Gas lamps E. * Incandescent

1194. Normal artificial lighting in sanitary units, bathrooms A. 200 lux B. 100 lux C. 50 lux D. * 74-100 lux E. 150 lux

1195. Normal artificial lighting in the House A. 200 lux B. * 100 lx C. 150 lux D. 50 lux E. 74-100 lux

1196. Normal indices of air’s humidity is A. 10-20 %; B. 70-80 %; C. 20-30 %; D. * 30-60 %; E. 80-100 %.

1197. On how many parts is divided the temperature scale on Celsius? A. 180 B. 80 C. * 100 D. 120 E. 50

1198. One of the earliest temperature scales was that devised by A. * Fahrenheit B. Celsius; C. Kelvin; D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

1199. One of the following is contraindication for UV-exposure of people A. Chill, B. Diseases of respiratory organs; C. Rickets; D. * Malignant tumors E. Osteoporosis.

1200. One of the following is not contraindication for UV-exposure of people

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A. Tuberculosis in active phase, B. * Diseases of respiratory organs; C. Eczema, D. Malignant tumors, E. Exhausting, increased sensitivity to light rickets.

1201. One of the following is not effect of cold and dry air on the body. A. All the body functions are more active; B. Breathing is deeper and more frequent, C. * Loss of appetite D. The circulation of blood is increased; E. A process of digestion is stimulated.

1202. One of the indicators of natural light is the angle of incidence of light. Specify corner in this picture?

A. * Angle YOU B. Angle defects C. Angle Das D. This angle is not in the picture E. This is not true angle EA Figure

1203. Relative humidity is measured by A. Catatermometer. B. * Hygrometer C. Thermometer. D. Barometer E. Psychrometer

1204. Research of microclimate of apartments is conducted in a hospital. What device use for measure the temperature of air ?

A. * Psychrometer; B. Anemometer; C. Aspirator; D. Katatermometer; E. Piranometer.

1205. Rosa of winds – it is A. Repetition of direction of winds is for the short interval of time in this locality; B. direction of motion of winds is in an environment; C. * graphic image of repetition of winds in this locality on rhumbs for the protracted

interval of time; D. frequency of winds of certain direction is in this locality. E. Repetition of direction of winds is for the protracted interval of time.

1206. Specify the opening angle in the picture svila A. Angle ABC B. Angle defects C. Angle Das D. This angle is missing in the picture E. Angle FAV

1207. Specify what type of fixtures exists? A. Direct light B. * No direct light C. Evenly-scattered light D. Sent-scattered light E. Reflected light

1208. The air changes in the room during 1 hour when all windows and doors are closed may be not more

A. * 0,5 B. 1,5;

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C. 2,5; D. 5,0; E. 25.

1209. The angle of opening of light rays is: A. a ratio of a glass area of windows to area of a floor B. a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance from

the window to the opposite wall C. angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this surface to

the upper edge of the window D. a attitude of distance from the upper edge of the window to a floor to distance from

the window to the opposite wall E. * an angle between a horizontal surface of a table, and line conducted from this

surface to the upper edge of the object with darken the window 1210. The artificial sources of UV radiation are not

A. Straight-blended quartz lamp B. Lamp ultraviolet C. Bactericidal lamps ultraviolet D. * Incandescent E. Arc-blended quartz lamp

1211. The brightness of visible lamp’s parts of general illumination in schools and hospitals must not be more than

A. * 2000 nits B. 100 nits C. 300 nits D. 150 nits E. 1000 nits

1212. The cup anemometer has measuring speed of the wind A. From 0,05-0,1 m/sec; B. From 0,1 – 1 m/sec; C. From 1-10 m/sec; D. From 0,1 – 15 m/sec E. * From 1 to 50 m/sec

1213. The disadvantage of incandescent lamps are all except: A. Displacement spectrum in the yellow-red side B. Sense color distortion C. action direct rays D. * Strobe E. Dusky effect

1214. The disadvantage of luminescent lamps is: A. Displacement spectrum in the yellow-red side B. Sense color distortion C. * Strobe D. Dusky effect E. Not corect

1215. The length of the wave in part A of UV-rays is A. 3000 – 760 nm; B. 760-400 nm; C. 400-315 nm; D. * 315-290 nm; E. 290-180 nm.

1216. The length of the wave in part B of UV-rays is A. 3000 – 760 nm B. 760-400 nm C. 400-315 nm;

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D. * 315-290 nm E. 290-180 nm.

1217. The length of the wave in part C of UV-rays is A. 3000 – 760 nm; B. 760-400 nm; C. 400-315 nm; D. 315-290 nm; E. * 290-180 nm.

1218. The minimal daily optimal (physiological) dose, preventing rickets of children with the white skin, is

A. * 1 / 2 of biodose B. 1 / 6 of biodose; C. 1 / 5 of biodose; D. 1 / 8 of biodose; E. 1 / 3 of biodose;

1219. The minimal daily prophylactic dose, using for preventing rachitis in children with the white skin, is

A. 1 / 2 biodose; B. 1 / 6 of biodose; C. 1 / 5 of biodose; D. 1/ 10 of biodose; E. * 1 / 8 of biodose

1220. The most expressed bactericidal action has next part of UV-irradiation A. * Part C B. Part B; C. Part A; D. Part A and B; E. None of the above.

1221. The most fatal complication which can occur to divers (under high atmospheric pressure)

A. Pulmonary oedema; B. * Air embolism C. Rupture of spleen; D. Myocardial infarction; E. None of above.

1222. The part of Ultra-violet irradiation, which absorbed by ozone layer, is A. * Part C; B. Part B; C. Part A; D. Part A and B; E. None of the above.

1223. The spectrum of erythemal lamp consists A. Only visible rays; B. Only UV-rays of A type, C. Only UV-rays of B type; D. * Visible rays, UV-rays of A and B types; E. Visible rays, UV-rays of A, B and C types.

1224. The spectrum of mercury-quartz lamp contains A. Only visible rays; B. Visible rays and UV-rays of A type, C. Visible rays and UV-rays of B type; D. Visible rays, UV-rays of B and C types; E. * Visible rays, UV-rays of A, B and C types

1225. Thermograph registers air temperature changes

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A. for a day and a hour. B. * for a day and a week. C. for a day and a month. D. for a week and a month E. for a hours and a month.

1226. Thermograph usually used for A. Measuring of temperature of air B. * Registration of changes of temperature of air C. Measuring and registration of changes of temperature of air D. Measuring of amplitude of changes of temperature of air E. Measuring and registration of temperature of body

1227. Through which device is instrumental evaluation of artificial lighting done? A. August psychrometer B. hygrometer Assman C. hygrometer D. Barometer E. * Illuminometer

1228. What are the norm of lightning in the surgical operating room? A. * 400 lux B. 200 lux C. 150 lux D. 100 lux E. 50 lux

1229. What basic indexes of hygienical estimation of temperature condition ? A. Minimum temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines B. Maximal temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines C. * Middle temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines D. Optimal temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines E. Possible temperature, difference in horizontal lines and vertical lines

1230. What color is optimum for the sthenes of room oriented to the north ? A. * Apricot B. Light-green C. Blue D. Grey E. Green

1231. What color is optimum for the sthenes of room oriented to the south ? A. * Light-green B. Yellow C. Apricot D. Orange E. Rose

1232. What compensate mechanisms do work at raising in mountains ? A. Increase of Increase of blood pressure; B. Decrease of Increase of blood pressure; C. * An increase of amount of red corpuscles is in blood D. Decrease of amount of red corpuscles is in bloodж E. pain in joints and musclesю

1233. What deficit of satiation ? A. * A difference is between maximal and relative humidity B. A difference is between maximal and absolute humidity C. A difference is between absolute and relative humidity D. Difference between maximal and by the point of dew E. Difference between absolute and by the point of dew

1234. What devise used for registration of artificial illumination?

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A. Catatermometer. B. Psychrometr. C. Anemometer D. Barometer E. * Luxmeter

1235. What devise used for registration of body’s temperature? A. Catatermometer. B. * Maximal mercury thermometer C. Minimal alcohol thermometer. D. Minimal mercury thermometer. E. Luxmeter.

1236. What disease appears during influence of high air pressure? A. Mountain’s disease. B. Hypertension. C. * Caisson disease D. Stenocardia. E. Goiter.

1237. What does bright spakrling cause? A. * lowering of all visual functions and nervouse system B. sore eye and headache C. lowering of all visual functions and sore eye D. causes irritation, sore eye and headache E. lowering of all visual functions, causes irritation, sore eye and headache

1238. What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room? A. Square of the floor B. Cleanness of glass C. Color of wall D. * Relative humidity E. Square of the window

1239. What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room? A. * Square of the floor B. Cleanness of glass C. Color of wall D. Relative humidity E. Square of the window

1240. What does not influents on conditions of daily lighting in the room? A. Square of the floor B. Cleanness of glass C. Color of wall D. * Relative humidity E. Square of the window

1241. What factor does atmospheric pressure depend from? A. Geographical longitude B. * A height above the level of sea C. * Temperature of air D. Height above the level of sea and geographical breadth E. Height above the level of sea and geographical longitude

1242. What functions of hygrograph ? A. Measuring of absolute humidity B. Measuring of relative humidity C. Record of changes of absolute humidity D. * Record of changes of relative humidity E. Measuring and record of changes of relative humidity

1243. What is not biologic effect of influence UV radiation?

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A. Haemopoetic effect. B. Activate metabolism C. * Diuretical D. Formation of pigment. E. Formation of vit. D.

1244. What is not main effect of influence of UV-irradiation. A. Formation of pigment. B. Stimulated. C. * Thermal D. Vitamin formation. E. Bactericide.

1245. What is optimal (physiological) dose of UV radiation, if biodose is 4 minute? A. 0,5 minute; B. 1,5 minute; C. * 2 minute; D. 2,5 minute; E. 3 minute.

1246. What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in manipulation room?

A. * on the North B. on the South C. on theWest D. on the East E. on the South- East

1247. What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in operation room? A. * on the North B. on the South C. on theWest D. on the East E. on the South- East

1248. What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in patient room? A. on the North B. * on the South C. on theWest D. on the East E. on the South- East

1249. What is orientation of the windows on the world sides should be in sudy room? A. on the North B. on the South C. on theWest D. on the East E. * on the South- East

1250. What is prophylactic dose of UV radiation for adult, if biodose is 4 minute? A. 25 second B. * 30 second C. 1 minute D. 1,5 minute E. 2 minute

1251. What is the hygienic norm of artifficial light (incandenses lamp) in patient room? A. 50 lux B. 80 lux C. 100 lux D. * 150 lux E. 200 lux

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1252. What is the hygienic norm of artifficial light (luministcent lamp) in work place? A. 250 lux B. * 300 lux C. 100 lux D. 150 lux E. 200 lux

1253. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in livinig room? A. * More than 0,75 % B. Less than 0,25 % C. More than 2,5 % D. Less than 1,5 % E. More than 1,8 %

1254. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in operation room? A. More than 1,5 % B. Less than 0,5 % C. * More than 2,5 % D. Less than 1,5 % E. Less than 1,0 %

1255. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in patient room? A. More than 1,5 % B. * Less than 0,5 % C. More than 2,5 % D. Less than 1,5 % E. Less than 1,0 %

1256. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of daylight in study room? A. * More than 1,5 % B. Less than 0,5 % C. More than 35 % D. Less than 1,5 % E. Less than 1,0 %

1257. What is the hygienic norm of coefficient of depth room? A. More than 2 B. More than 3 C. More than 4 D. Less than 1 E. * Less than 2

1258. What is the length of the UV ray (nm): A. 0.05 - 10; B. More 400; C. Less 0,05; D. * 400 - 180; E. 400 - 760.

1259. What is the name of index for estimation of natural illumination by instrumental method

A. Angeof falling. B. Deep Coeficient C. Angel of opening D. Light coefficient. E. * Coeficient of natural illumination

1260. What is the norm of general artificial lightning at the cabinet of a physician (lk, for luminescent lamps)?

A. Not more than 400; B. Not more than 500; C. * not less than400;

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D. Not less than 500; E. 300

1261. What is the norm of general artificial lightning at the school rooms  (lk, for luminescent lamps)?

A. not less than 100; B. Less 200; C. Not more than 300; D. * not less than 300; E. 150.

1262. What is the norm of L.C. (light coefficient) in doctor room? A. * 1: 5 B. 1: 8 C. 1:10 D. 1:2 E. 1:12

1263. What is the norm of L.C. (light coefficient) in operation room? A. 1: 5 B. 1: 8 C. 1:10 D. * 1:2 E. 1:12

1264. Which type of artificial light source uses this light? A. Light bulbs B. Lamps general C. Lamps local D. Lamp integrated E. * Lamp luminescent

1265. Why are fluorescent lamps not recommended for operations? A. It is a noise generator B. * Not clearly visible boundary demarcation line C. Tedious eye surgeon D. A flashing effect E. Causes strobing.

1266. Why is this appliance used? A. For the measurement of natural light B. To measure the absolute humidity C. For measuring ionizing radiation D. * Biodoze to measure UV radiation E. To measure infrared radiation

1267. With the help of what device does estimate a temperature condition during hour? A. Alcohol thermometer B. Mercury thermometer C. Minimal thermometer D. Maximal thermometer E. * Thermograph

1268. With the purpose of study of influencing of microclimate on the organism of man we must organize the systematic looking after the temperature of air during 3th days. Choose a device which will allow most exactly to register a temperature:

A. * Thermograph B. Alcoholic thermometer C. Mercury thermometer D. Psychrometer Avgusta E. Psychrometer Assmana

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Situation tasks

1. April 12 in Ternopil was variable cloudiness and short-term atmospheric precipitation, atmospheric pressure was 755 mmHg , speed of wind was 8,5 m/s. Daily overfall of temperatures was 7 degree, atmospheric pressure was 10 mm Hg. What medical type of weather was in Ternopil?

A. * strengthen medical control B. favorable C. very favorable D. severe medical control E. Sharpe

2. To characterize weather changeability often use “index of weather changeability”. Weather is very changable when index

A. Less than 20; B. 20-30; C. 30-40; D. 40-50; E. * More than 50.

3. District physician was charged with plan drafting concerning medical and preventive measures among the population in the area he is assigned to. What measures must he include in this plan as regarding primary prevention of illness?

A. * Prevention of disease onset B. Prevention of disease complications C. Referral of patients to sanatorium D. Measures to improve patients' life conditions E. Measures to increase patients' life quality

4. Atmospheric air of an industrial centre is polluted with the following wastes of metallurgical plants: sulphuric, nitric, metal, carbon oxides that have negative influence upon the inhabitants' health. The effect of these hazards can be characterized as:

A. Adjacent B. Associated C. Complex D. Mixed E. * Combined

5. Choose a method of graphic representation of monthly information about the number of registered cases of acute intestinal infection and their comparison to the average monthly values, obtained for 5 last years:

A. The figured diagram B. Curvilinear diagram C. The radial diagram D. * The linear diagram E. The sector diagram

6. A resident of mean, 69 years old, diagnosed with Chronic ischemic heart disease with heart failure of the third degree. The required permanent gets chemotherapy, physiotherapy. The doctor asked for advice because he had heard on the radio weather forecast: "Waiting for approaching cyclone and atmospheric pressure over the next day will fall significantly. Give recommendations to the patient.

A. Add to the usual treatment regimen is also antispasmodic and anticoagulant drugs B. * Implement measures aimed at increasing non-specific resistance of the body C. Sparing treatment and treatment for the normal scheme D. The usual household-labour regime E. Hospitalization in the Chamber "Biotron"

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7. A village in the Ternopil region formed within a week of cold weather with the passing cold front. According to the meteorological forecast changes in the coming days are expected. What effect in humans cause this synoptic situation

A. Tonic; B. Hypertensive; C. Hypoxic; D. Spastic. E. * Indifferent

8. After a stormy civil defence warning residents of towns were placed in specialized repositories. Which of the following factors over time will carry out the most negative impact on human health?

A. * Increasing concentrations of CO2. B. Unfavourable microclimate. C. Noise. D. Inhaler. E. "Touch hunger".

9. After cleaning of drained waters it was found agents of typhoid fever, dysenteric bacteries and poliomyelitis viruses. What the method of recleaning we have to use for preventing spreading of this agents in the water?

A. ionic exchange B. extraction C. * biological D. absorption E. coagulation

10. After storm warning people were hiding in the specialised covers of civil defence by workers of civil defence department. What is the most negative factor that will make an influence after some time to this covering people?

A. * increasing og CO2 concentration B. unfavourable microclimate C. noise D. gas mask E. ''sensorial hunger''

11. After the sewage was found agents of typhoid fever, bacteria and viruses dysentery polio, which cleaning method to be taken to prevent disease by using these waters for household use?

A. Ion exchange B. Extraction C. * Biology D. Absorbance E. Clot

12. Cardioilogist from Ternopil received urgent message from the weather station. In consequence of solar flash it is expected a big geomagnetic storm. Give your recommendations as to changes in treatment scheme in patients with chronical ischemic heart disease in the hospital

A. * to strengthen spasmolytic and anticoagulational therapy B. to prescribe hypotensial medicines C. to prescribe bed regime D. to carry on an usual treatment E. to cancel prescribed earlier procedures

13. Cardioilogist from Ternopil received urgent message from the weather station. In consequence of solar flash it is expected a big geomagnetic storm. Give your recommendations as to changes in treatment scheme in patients with arterial hypertension disease in the hospital

A. * to presribe in addition hypotension medicines and anticoagulational therapy

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B. to strengthen spasmolytic therapy C. to prescribe bed regime D. to carry on an usual treatment E. to cancel prescribed earlier procedures

14. Cardioilogist from Ternopil received urgent message from the weather station. In consequence of solar flash it is expected a big geomagnetic storm. Give your recommendations as to changes in treatment scheme in patients with arterial hypertension disease in the hospital

A. * to presribe in addition hypotension medicines and anticoagulational therapy B. to strengthen spasmolytic therapy C. to prescribe bed regime D. to carry on an usual treatment E. to cancel prescribed earlier procedures

15. Cardiologist from Kyiv received urgent warning Weather Bureau. The next day a large magnetic storm is expected as a result of flare on the Sun. Give suggestions for changes in the scheme of treatment of hypertension in the hospital.

A. * Optional be hypertensive drugs and anticoagulant therapy. B. Strengthen antispasmodic therapy. C. Assign bed rest. D. Continue previously assigned treatment. E. Cancel before the intended effects of treatment and diagnostic procedures.

16. Daily oscillations of air temperature is 20 degree, barometric pressure – 7 mb, speed of air moving in moment of viewing – 6 m/s. What type of weather is characterised by such indexes?

A. * Irritating B. Optimal C. Sharp D. Hypotensial E. Hypoxical

17. Discharge of sewage into the river are planned in the city. Here the river lives in the village, which the water supply from underground sources. Calculation of the sanitation sewage descent should be made

A. To gauge the river near the village B. To gauge the river below the village C. To gauge the river near the city D. * Calculation not done, the requirements for wastewater E. To gauge the river above the village

18. Discharge of sewage into the river below the planned city. Here the river is located 5 km city A. that uses the river as a source of drinking water, and 10 km - the village with water from underground sources. Calculation of the sanitation sewage descent should be made

A. * To gauge the river near the city B. To create a river near the village C. To gauge the river near the village D. Payment is not made, the requirements for wastewater E. To gauge the river below the city

19. Discharge of sewage into the river M. conducted below the city. Downstream in the village is located 5 km of water from wells, and the city is located 30 km S, using river water as a source of drinking water. Calculation of the sanitation sewage descent should be made

A. To gauge the river near the village B. To gauge the river below the city B C. * To create a river near the village and the city. D. Payment is not made, the requirements for wastewater E. To gauge the river below the village

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20. Doctor-Cardiologist from Lvov received an urgent warning Weather Bureau. The next day a large magnetic storm is expected as a result of flare on the Sun. Give suggestions for changes in the scheme of treatment of hypertension in the hospital.

A. * Optional be hypertensive drugs and anticoagulant therapy B. Strengthen antispasmodic therapy. C. Assign bed rest. D. Continue previously assigned treatment. E. Cancel before the intended effects of treatment and diagnostic procedures.

21. During 12 days in September 2006 it was cyclone above the Ukraine. It was sunny, windless weather. Maximal air temperature was 30 degree, in the night – 20 degree. On the capital city roads was created a high concentration of smoke, soot and other components of exhaust car gases. How it is called?

A. magnetic storm B. increased solar activity C. toxic mist (London smog) D. * photochemical smog (Los-Angeles smog) E. hurricane

22. During the morning bypass in a patient with arthritis of the knee roll (60) appeared to increase in complaints are pain, irritability, anxiety, weaken bowel, the body appeared pink rash. Which of the following symptoms related to metrological reactions?

A. Strengthening joint pain, skin rash, indigestion disorders; B. Strengthening joint pain, irritability, skin rash; C. Strengthening joint pain, irritability, indigestion disorders; D. * Greater pain in joints, irritability, anxiety; E. Strengthening joint pain, anxiety, skin rashes.

23. During two weeks over the territory of Ternopil region observed such a synoptic situation \: Cloudy, intermittent rain, meteorological forecasts for expected cold front approaching, the weather will change. How to describe such weather from the medical point of view for classification of Ovcharov?

A. Anoxic type; B. Anoxic spastic type of elements; C. Go forecast spastic type stand indifferent; D. Spastic type; E. * Variable weather with the transition in indifferent weather spastic type.

24. During two weeks over the territory of the Kiev region observed such a synoptic situation: Cloudy, intermittent rain, meteorological forecasts for expected cold front approaching, the weather will change. How to describe such weather from the medical point of view for classification of Ovcharov?

A. Anoxic type; B. Anoxic spastic type of elements; C. Go forecast spastic type stand indifferent D. Spastic type; E. * Variable weather with the transition in indifferent weather spastic type.

25. In the november in the city D was 7 day-last mist. On the 4-5 day by help of emergency (every day) were hospitalised 150 ill persons with respiratory and heart-vessels diseases. It was in 10-12 times more than in days before it. How called this weather-synoptical situation?

A. glazed frost B. * toxic mist (London smog) C. photochemical mist (Los-Angeles smog) D. snowstorm E. geomagnetic storm

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26. In the observing region month average temperature of June is 18 degree, January – 12 degree, precipitations are rare, number of month sunny days – 25, speed rate of wind – 8-12 m/s. What climatic zone is described?

A. * moderate climate according to a monthly average temperature of June and January B. moderate climate according to a monthly average temperature of June and number of

sunny days in a month C. moderate climate according to monthly average temperature of January and number

of precipitation D. moderate climat according to a monthly average temperature of June and speed rate

of wind E. moderate climat according to a monthly average temperature and speed rate of wind

27. In the city which is situated in the valley, there were streets full of cars during a few days. After that a lot of citizens complained to an acute irritation of eyes conjunctiva, upper respiratory tracts, delacrimation and coughing. What is the reason of this illness?

A. * increasing the number of photooxydantes in the air B. increasing of nitrogen (I) oxyde in the air C. increasing of CO in the air D. increasing of CO2 in the air E. increasing of ozone in the air

28. In the town in Ternopil region during a week was cold weather with the passing of cold front. According to the information from meteorological station in the nearest time changing of weather won't expect. What kind of effect in the human organism will make this synoptic situation?

A. toning up B. hypotensionic C. hypoxic D. spasmodic E. * indifferent

29. It is planned to throw down the drained waters to the river in the city territory. There is a town below the city, which use the water from underground spring. Calculation of sanitary conditions for throwing down the drained waters must be provided for the next point

A. river fold near the town B. river fold below the town C. river fold near the city D. * calculation is not provided, demands are for drained waters E. river fold before the town

30. Odessa, house-owner, 58 years, and diagnosis: chronic hypertensive illness of heart is ill the last 10 years. For the increase of metheostability and prevention of origin of hypertensive crisis a doctor recommended to conduct a seasonal prophylaxis in most dangerous on weather terms periods of year and immediately in front of by them. In what periods of year for the habitant of this region of Ukraine is it most expedient to conduct a seasonal prophylaxis?

A. January-March, November B. * December, February-May C. January-March, May, December D. January-May E. December-April

31. on April, 12, 2000 in O. there was a variable cloudiness and brief sinking, atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg., wind - 8,5 m/sec, day's overfall of temperatures -7 0 C , atmospheric pressure - 10 mm Hg What medical type does this weather belong to?

A. * Increased medical control B. Favorable C. Very favorable D. Severe medical control

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E. Sharp 32. Patient with metabolic arthritis of knee joints (age 60) complains to an increasing of pain,

irritability, anxiety, intestine weakening, pink rush on the body. What among this signs are refered to a meteopathies

A. an increasing of joint pain, pink rush on the body, dyspeptical disorders B. an increasing of joint pain, irritability, pink rush on the body C. dyspeptical disorders, irritability, an increasing of joint pain D. * an increasing of joint pain, irritability, anxiety E. an increasing of joint pain, anxiety, pink rush on the body

33. Patient with non-specific polyarthritis (age 67) before the acute changing of weather feels the short breath, joint oedema, headache and heartache, body rush. There are proteins and blood in the urine tests, raising temperature. What clinical sign, except short breath, heartache and headache most depend of weather?

A. urine protein B. * joint oedema C. hematuria D. raising of body temperature E. body rush}

34. Patient with the hypertonic disease IIA stadium complains to a headache, heartache, short breath, general weakness, all which appeared in this morning. There was a considerable worsening of weather at the day before it – strengthening of wind – 9-10 m/s, cloudiness, oscillation of electromagnetic field, changing of temperature and atmospheric pressure to a 8 degree and 40mb accordingly. What are the reasons that make the patient feel bad?

A. * changings of electromagnetic field and atmospheric pressure B. changing of temperature and atmospheric pressure, cloudiness C. changing of temperature and atmospheric pressure, strengthening of wind D. changing of temperature, strengthening of wind, cloudiness E. changing of temperature, electromagnetic field, strengthening of wind

35. A patient with hypertension phase complains of headache, pain in the heart, shortness of breath, general weakness, which appeared to him in the morning. Before there was a significant deterioration in weather - a dramatic increase in wind - 9-10 m / s, cloudy weather, the electromagnetic field fluctuations, changes in temperature and atmospheric pressure at 8 0 C and 40 MB respectively. What are the reasons for deterioration of the patient?

A. * Change of electromagnetic fields and atmospheric pressure; B. Changes in temperature and atmospheric pressure, precipitation; C. Changes in air temperature, air pressure, strong wind; D. Changes in air temperature, wind speed acceleration, cloudy; E. Changes in temperature and Earth's magnetic field, strong wind.

36. Physician Internal Medicine Department developed a scheme of temporary metrological factors disease prevention in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, which includes treatment drugs vitamin therapy, exercise, massage and physiotherapy. Which of the following methods preferable?

A. * Bed rest, medications, Vitamin therapy; B. Bed rest, Vitamin therapy, massage; C. Bed rest, Vitamin therapy, physical therapy; D. Bed rest, exercise, Vitamin therapy; E. Chemotherapeutic remedies, massage and physiotherapy.

37. Citizen of city Ch., 69 years old, has a chronic ischemic heart disease with heart insufficiency III degree. Has necessary permanent chimio- and physiotherapy. He asked his doctor for advice, because heard on radio about approaching of cyclone and decreasing of atmosphere pressure during next day. Give some recommendations for this patient

A. to add to his usual scheme of treatment spasmolytic and anticoagulational medicines B. * to introduce the measures for elevation of non-specific organism resistance

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C. safe regime and treatment according usual scheme D. to keep usual working regime E. to hospitalize in the ''Biotrone'' ward

38. The 24-hours change of air temperature is 1 0С, change of atmospheric pressure is 3 Mb, speed of air motion in the moment of supervision is 2 m/sec. What type of weather is characterized by such indexes?

A. Irritate; B. * Optimal; C. Acute; D. Non favorable; E. Need medical control.

39. The 24-hours change of air temperature is 2 0С, change of atmospheric pressure is 7 Mb, speed of air motion in the moment of supervision is 6 m/sec. What type of weather is characterized by such indexes?

A. * Irritate; B. Optimal; C. Acute; D. Favorable; E. Very favorable.

40. The 24-hours change of air temperature is 5 0С, change of atmospheric pressure is 10 Mb, speed of air motion in the moment of supervision is 10 m/sec. What type of weather is characterized by such indexes?

A. Irritate; B. Optimal; C. * Acute D. Favorable; E. Very favorable.

41. The 67-year old patient with nonspecific polyarthritis before the sudden weather changes in the hospital there were more complaints of shortness of breath, swelling of joints, the main pain and pain, protein and blood present in urine, art, skin rashes. Protein and blood in urine increased body temperature. What is the clinical symptom, except for shortness of breath, heart and headaches most metrological dependence?

A. Protein in urine. B. * Swelling of joints. C. Blood present in urine. D. High fever. E. Skin rash.

42. The April 12, 2000 in TV was variable cloudiness and intermittent sediments, atmospheric pressure - 755 mm hg, wind - 8,5 m / s, daily temperature 70 C, tmospheric pressure 10 mmHg Which type of medical owns the weather?

A. * Intensive medical monitoring B. Auspicious C. Very favorable D. Strict medical supervision E. Sharp

43. The city D. within 7 days was fog. At 4-5 days of using the ambulance service (daily) in 150 patients hospitalized with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases in November. It is 10-12 times higher than in previous days. What is the name of weather, such synoptic situation?

A. Ice. B. * Toxic fog (London smog). C. Photochemical smog (Los Angeles smog). D. Blizzard. E. Geomagnetic storm.

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44. The city, situated in the valley for several days, the streets were crowded with cars. The day after the installation of solar no wind turned to the hospital's residents complaining of severe conjunctivitis irritation of eyes, upper respiratory tract, accompanied by cough. What is the cause of the disease, residents of the city?

A. * Increase in air content photo oxidant B. Increasing nitrogen content in the air (I) oxide C. Increase in air content of carbon dioxide D. Enhancing the content of the air carbon monoxide E. Increase content of ozone in the air

45. The daily interallowance vibrations of temperature of air made 20 0 С, barometric pressure - 7 mm Hg, speed of motion of air in the moment of supervision - 6 m/sec. What type of weather is characterized by such indexes?

A. * Irritate B. Optimum C. Sharp D. Hypotantion E. Gipoksichna

46. The doctor-cardiologist from Ternopil received an urgent message weather bureau. As a result of flare on the Sun expected large geomagnetic storm. Give suggestions for changes in the treatment of ischemic heart disease in hospital.

A. * Strengthen antispasmodic and anticoagulant therapy. B. Assign hypertensive drugs. C. Assign bed rest. D. Continue previously assigned treatment. E. Cancel before the intended effects of treatment and diagnostic procedures.

47. The fluctuations during every day in air temperature were 20 0, barometric pressure - 7 mmHg, air speed at the time of observation - 6 m / sec. What type of weather characterized by the following indicators?

A. * Galling B. Optimum C. Spicy D. Not correct E. Hypoxic

48. The housewife lives in Odessa, 58 years, diagnosis: chronic hypertensive heart disease, sick in 10 years. To improve metrological stability and prevent hypertensive crisis doctor recommended conducting seasonal prevention of dangerous weather conditions for periods of the year and just before them. In that period, the resident of the region to Ukraine to conduct the most appropriate seasonal prophylaxis?

A. January-March, November; B. * December, February-May; C. January-March, May, December; D. Jan-May; E. December-April.

49. The region of observation average temperature in June is 18 0 C, and in January - 12 0 C, precipitation is rare, the number of sunny days per month - 25, wind speed - 8-12 m / sec. Which climate zone includes of the area?

A. * Moderate climate on average monthly temperature of June and January; B. Temperate climate on average monthly temperature of June and the number of sunny

days per month; C. Moderate climate on the average January temperature and precipitation; D. Temperate climate on average monthly temperature of June and wind speed; E. Temperate climate on average monthly temperature and wind speed.

50. The harmful for review and approval to the City SES project received the maximum permissible discharge of chemicals several industrial, food and household enterprises M .

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Reset will make the river S. 1,5 km downstream the city limits. The draft GDS provides qualitative composition of these sewage facilities. Indicate which discharge wastewater from the following should definitely ban

A. * Waste water containing the substance with unidentified MAC. B. Wastewater hospital. C. Coke plant wastewater. D. Wastewater from meat packing and poultry. E. Sewage plant of dry cleaning clothes.

51. Therapeutist made a scheme of temporary prophylaxis of meteopathy in patient who's suffering from rheumatoid arthritis, which includes bed regime, medicines, vitamins, physical exercises, massage, physiotherapy. What among these methods is better?

A. * bed regime, medicines, vitamins B. bed regime, vitamins, massage C. bed regime, vitamins, physiotherapy D. bed regime, physical exercises, vitamins E. chimiotherapeutical remedies, massage, physiotherapy

52. There are throwing down the drained waters in the river behind the city borders. There are town 5 km below the river flow, where water is taken from the wells, and city C in 30 km below that uses the river as the source of drink water. Calculation of sanitary conditions of throwing down drained waters must be provided for

A. river fold near the town B. river fold below the city B C. * river folds near the town and city C D. calculation is not provided, demands are for drained waters E. river fold below the town

53. There are throwing down the drained waters in the river behind the city borders. There are city A 5 km below the river flow, which uses the river water, and town in 10 km below that uses the underground spring for drinking water. Calculation of sanitary conditions of throwing down drained waters must be provided for

A. river fold at the city A B. river folds at the city A and town C. for river fold at the town D. calculation is not provided, demands are for drained waters E. * river fold before the city

54. There is the next synoptic situation on the west of Ukraine that was observed during the last 2 weeks. Variable cloudiness, short-time precipitations, according the prognosis it will be approaching of cold front, changing the weather. How can it be classified according to an Ovcharova's classification?

A. hypoxic type B. hypoxic type with the spasmodic elements C. transit from the spasmodic weather type to a constant indifferent D. spasmodic type E. * unstable weather with the transit from indifferent to a spasmodic weather type

55. There was increasing the exacerbation of hypertonic disease frequency according to weather changes (strengthening of wind – to 10 m/s, temperature – 10 degree, decrease of atmospheric pressure to 15 mm Hg, increase of air humidity to 98%). determine this type of weather

A. windy B. cloudy C. * hypoxic D. spasmodic E. indifferent

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56. There was the next weather situation during 2 week on the Kyiv city. Variable cloudiness, short-time precipitations, according the prognosis it will be approaching of cold front, changing the weather. How can it be classified according to an Ovcharova's classification?

A. hypoxic type B. hypoxic type with the spasmodic elements C. transit from the spasmodic weather type to a constant indifferent D. spasmodic type E. * unstable weather with the transit from indifferent to a spasmodic weather type

57. To the city government there was sent a project with the limited doses of throwing down of harmful chemical substances from few industrial, food and everyday companies. Throwing down is planned to make in the river S. on the 1,5 km lower the city border after water flow. This project contains a qualitative content of drained waters from these companies. Choose what fault of drained waters is absolutely prohibited

A. * drained waters which content substances with undetermined limited doses B. drained waters of hospitals C. drained waters of cokechimical plant D. drained waters of meat processing and packing factory and poultry-farm E. drained waters of chemical cleaning of clothes factory

58. Within 12 days in September 2006 over Ukraine formed anticyclone. It was a sunny weather in the afternoon, during the day all those days there was no wind was calm. Maximum daytime temperatures reached 300C, 200S at night. Over the roads in Kyiv and in areas of road junctions situation, characterized by high content in the air of smoke, soot and other components of the exhaust of automobiles. In this situation not feeling patients feels with pulmonary and cardiovascular diseases. What's that of weather-synoptic situation?

A. Magnetic storm. B. Increased solar activity. C. Toxic fog (London smog). D. * Photochemical smog (Los Angeles smog). E. Drifting snow.

59. Within the city during the day was increased frequency of aggravation of arterial hypertension at the change of weather (strong wind - 10 m / s, the temperature at 100 degrees centidegreee, lower atmospheric pressure at 15 mmHg, increasing the humidity to 98 %). Define this type of weather.

A. Chickenpox B. Clearly C. * "Hypoxic" D. "Spastic" E. Indifferent

60. Woman from south of Ukraine, housewife, age 58, diagnosis – chronical hypertonic heart disease, suffered last 10 years. To increase resistance to weather and preventing hypertonic crysis her doctor recommended to do the season prophylaxy in most dangerous due to weather conditions seasons of the year during this changes and immediately before it. What is the best time for season prophylaxy in this region?

A. January-March, November B. * December, February-May C. January-March, May, December D. January-May E. December-April

61. 1. A 52-year-old male is under gastroenterologist supervision due to chronic autoimmune gastritis for 10 years. He presents with some nausea, feeling of weight in epigastrium after meal. Last exacerbation of disease was 6 month ago. He adheres to a diet, smokes 10 cigarettes per day, and uses alcohol moderately. What measures to prevent stomach cancer are necessary?

A. Taking antacids periodically

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B. * Cancellation of smoking and alcohol use C. Taking H2-blokers periodically D. Taking antihelycobacter medications periodically E. Taking gastrocepin periodically

62. At the review of patient a very important factor is determination of lines of psychical health. On what doctor is it necessary to pay attention foremost?

A. * Nervovo-psychical development which answers to age* B. Absence of expressed induvidual change of the character C. Decline of professional capabilities D. Increase of motive activity E. Passing of psychical development is in relation to age

63. Bath-house of the general setting «Gull» invited the students of university on an excursion. Expound the basic rules of conduct and safety of stay in a bath-house

A. * For measuring of temperature of air it does not follow to use mercury thermometers, impossible to bring in washings and other facilities in a glass container, not to visit a bath-house patients with infectious diseases, mycotic illnesses

B. Better to visit a bath-house at o'clock of maximal intoxication, to get a contrasting shower

C. Safer is a visit of bath-house in the morning and in workings days D. In a bath-house absent any risk is for the health of visitors E. Such rules do not exist

64. Every main doctor must know and remember basic biorythmical principles of rational organization of everyday activity of man for the labour of own medical collective productivity. What basic principles do behave to them?

A. * Introduction of methods of rational organization of free time B. Increase rezistants of organism C. Increase of positive emotional feel D. An improvement of microclimate is in a collective E. Decline of level of the physical loading

65. Every main doctor must know and remember basic biorythmical principles of rational organization of every day activity of man for the labour of own medical collective productivity. What basic principles do behave to them?

A. *Introduction of facilities of rational organization of spare time B. Increase of rezistants of organism C. Increase of positive emotional feel D. Decline of level of the physical loading E. Improvement of mood

66. Every main doctor must know and remember basic biorythmical principles of rational organization of everyday activity of man for the labour of own medical collective productivity. What basic principles do behave to them?

A. *Providing of combination of time of labour activity in course of time optimum of physiology functions of organism, use of motive activity as synchronizer of biological rhythms

B. Increase of rezistants of organism C. Increase of positive emotional feel D. Improvement of microclimate in a collective, improvement of mood E. Decline of level of the physical loading

67. Every stomatology determines the hygienical index of teeth. What does he allows to estimate?

A. * Cleanness and intensity of dental raid. B. Number of caries teeth. C. Amount of unharmed teeth. D. Amount of the stopped teeth.

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E. State of oral cavity. 68. Except for logistic introduction on factories with the newest technologies, it is needed also

to utillize psychohygienic principles optimizations of activity of man, to which belong: A. * Ground and introduction of measures of psycho-hygienical correction is

differentiated B. Attestation of workplaces C. Principles of organization of physical education D. Determination of mental capacity E. Leadthrough of tempering

69. Except for logistic introduction on factories with the newest technologies, it is needed also to utillize psychohygienic principles optimizations of activity of man, to which belong:

A. * Leadthrough of the hygienical setting of norms of production activity of man, rational organization of outside of activities

B. Hygienical estimation of terms of labour and studies C. Attestation of workplaces D. Principles of organization of physical education, leadthrough of tempering E. Determination of mental capacity

70. For building of steam bath-house it is needed to know the basic list of apartments the builders of firm «Ternopil'bud» in obedience to hygienical standards. What to basis from them?

A. * Entrance, platform, holl, cloak-room, room for treatment, locker room, washing, steam bath,wc

B. A list of apartments of value is not, main comfort microclimate and of high quality water

C. The list of apartments of such bath-house must answer requirements to sanitary delousing

D. Except for traditional and obligatory apartments in this bath-house there must be yet playing automats, billiards and pharmacy

E. Such list of value is not, main comfort 71. For the prophylaxis of disease a caries stomatologies recommend to conduct such

prophylactic measures: A. * Ftorination of water, anticaries diet, examination is on the state an oral cavity. B. Review of oral cavity.Use of tinctures of herbares. C. Cleaning of teeth by a soda. D. Rinse of teeth by water. E. Chlorination of water

72. For the prophylaxis of disinchronosis in the workplace the metallurgical factory of the Donetsk area inculcated:

A. * Hot eating B. To improve a mood C. Decline D. Comfortable furnitures E. A beautiful microclimate is in a collective

73. For the prophylaxis of disinchronosis in the workplace in a bank utillize: A. * During rest to create dark B. To improve a mood C. Decline D. Comfortable furnitures E. A beautiful microclimate is in a collective

74. For the prophylaxis of disinchronosis in the workplace in a bank utillize: A. * Arranging of break B. To improve a mood C. Decline D. Comfortable furnitures

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E. A beautiful microclimate is in a collective 75. For the workers of clinical laboratory hospitals which work in the conditions of comfort

microclimate must be purchased dressed. What from the transferred properties of clothes must be basic?

A. Hygroscopicity. B. Paro permeability C. * Ventileness. D. Heat-conducting. E. Convection

76. In age of global rise in a temperature, ecological and social crisis an extraordinarily important question appears before humanity – «Helth of man» in time. What it?

A. * Process of maintainance and development of biological, physiology functions at an optimum capacity and social activity of man at maximal duration it active life

B. Duration of its life C. Amount of years of capacity D. Achievement of high indexes is in sport E. Achievement of high results is in a physical culture

77. In schools of Ternopil students volunteer conducted educate hours concerning the personal hygiene. Marked most, that to the sphere of the personal hygiene enter:

A. * Hygiene of rest and sleep, hygiene of individual feed, hygiene of mental work B. tobacco smoking only after acceptance of meal C. Acceptance of hot baths is during work D. Tourism and alcoholism E. Permanent visit of competitions of chess-players

78. In schools of Ternopil students volunteer conducted educate hours concerning the personal hygiene. Marked most, that it is necessary for the normal functioning of skin:

A. * To support a skin in clean B. To utillize deodorant C. Not to wash a body water, but only to use flavours and lotions D. To utillize water, but only distilled E. To limit washing of body, but daily to put the vidprasovany worn next to the skin

linen on 79. In schools of Ternopil students volunteer conducted educate hours concerning the personal

hygiene. Marked most, that to the sphere of the personal hygiene enter: A. * Prevention of harmful habits, hygiene of sexual life, hygiene of clothes and shoes B. Acceptance of hot baths is during work C. An infatuation for a game is in a domino D. Tourism and alcoholism E. Permanent visit of competitions of chess-players

80. In schools of Ternopil students volunteer conducted educate hours concerning the personal hygiene. Marked most, that it is necessary for the normal functioning of skin:

A. * To utillize water as basic mean of washing of skin B. Not to wash a body water, but only to use flavours and lotions C. Daily to wipe a skin an eau-de-cologne or alcohol D. To utillize water, but only distilled E. To limit washing of body, but daily to put the vidprasovany worn next to the skin

linen on 81. In the conditions of implementation of a number of production operations in the conditions

of discomfort microclimate of heating it is necessary to provide maximal absorption of aquatic pair from air and surface of body. What from the properties of clothes transferred below must be taken into account above all things?

A. * Hygroscopicity. B. Water vapor permeability C. Ventileness.

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D. Heat-conducting. E. All correct.

82. In the publicity action of brand of «Gala» in the Chernigov area set various questions the visitors of department of cleansers of supermarket, one of which was: «That enters in the complement of cleansers».

A. * Alkylsulfates, alkylsulfonates additions which improve pricing strengthen washings properties and others like that.

B. Alcohols from sugars, fats are natural, emulsifiers, preservatives and zryhlyuvachi. C. Ethers of high sort, glycerin of natural origin and dyes. D. Turpentine is in even correlation with fats natural and glycerin. E. Absolutely the same components as well as for soap liquid except for triglycerides of

higher fat acids. 83. In the publicity action of brand of «Gala» in the Chernigov area set various questions the

visitors of department of cleansers of supermarket, one of which was: «What kind are not the synthetic washings produced facilities in after a physical structure?».

A. Powders B. Liquids C. Pastes D. * Mazey E. Granules

84. It is confirmed scientific researches, that for the assiduous students of freshmen of all of educational establishments more frequent all arises up disinchronosis. What it such?

A. * Type of chronopathologia B. Process of treatment of chronic diseases C. Precursor of convalescence D. Improvement of physical form E. Violation of mutual relations is in family

85. It is confirmed scientific researches, that for the assiduous students of freshmen of all of educational establishments more frequent all arises up disinchronosis. What it such?

A. * Suputnik of various disease B. Process of treatment of chronic diseases C. Improvement of physical form D. Violation of mutual relations is in family E. Violation of descriptions of personality

86. It is necessary to define a main doctor from what material: natural or artificial – it follows to order making of clothes for the personnel of hospital. Specify main from the hygienical point of view advantages of fabric from natural fibres?

A. * High higroscopical and good ventileness. B. Firmness to influence of mechanical, chemical and biological factors that elasticity. C. High heat-conducting and large moisture-capacity. D. High aesthetically beautiful qualities. E. Cheapness.

87. It is needed to choose the amount of marks, which answers an ever-higher ekstraversion, the students of medical university. Help them.

A. * 22–26 marks B. 7–11 marks C. 12–16 marks D. 52–58 marks E. 28–34 marks

88. It is needed to choose the amount of marks, which answers an ever-higher ekstraversion, the students of medical university. Help them.

A. 7–11 marks B. 12–16 marks C. 52–58 marks

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D. 28–34 marks E. * 0–6 marks

89. It is needed to order a main doctor dressed for the middle medical personnel of reanimation separation. Specify from the hygienical point of view from what material must be dressed.

A. Synthetic wares. B. Semisynthetic wares. C. Cotton wares. D. Woolen wares. E. * Synthetic and cotton wares.

90. It will always be to remember the technologist of sewing factory about hygienical requirements for everyday clothes which is sewn on his factory. Are these requirements what basic?

A. * To provide an optimum under-cloth microclimate and thermal comfort of people B. Clothes must not influence on forming of under-cloth micclimate C. The basic hygienical requirement is duration of the use and firmness to moisture D. Hygienical requirements are groundless – main or the user of clothes is satisfied E. If clothes arrange an user, hygienical requirements to the clothes are improper

91. Joiner's factory «Budservis» utillizes production clothes for the workers. What it? A. * Special mean, intended for prevention or diminishing of influence on the worker of

dangerous or harmful production agents B. Dressed for rest C. “Face” of firm D. Dressed from natural fabric E. Worn next to the skin clothes

92. On Ternopil textile factory utillize the methods of research of fabrics of clothes of own production. What method is on your opinion utillized for investigation of hygienical indexes.

A. * Determination of thickness of fabric and its closeness and capillarity B. Determination of coloured gamma C. Compatibility of colors D. Compatibility of sizeE. A cost is 1 kg of fabric in an euro

93. On any large firm for the high level of mental and physical capacity necessary: A. * Motivational level B. High self-appraisal C. Low self-appraisal D. Physical preparation E. Education

94. On enterprises the additional evaluation of character was inculcated in the department of shots. What do personal questionnaires utillize in such cases?

A. * Shmisheka B. Ayzenko C. Konyukhova D. Shevchuka E. KKU

95. On enterprises the additional evaluation of character was inculcated in the department of shots. What do personal questionnaires utillize in such cases?

A. * Kettela B. Ivanova C. Ayzenko D. Konyukhova E. Shevchuka

96. On enterprises the additional evaluation of character was inculcated in the department of shots. What do personal questionnaires utillize in such cases?

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A. * MMRI, Mini-mult B. Ivanova, KKU C. Ayzenko D. Konyukhova E. Shevchuka

97. On testing dermatologists were set such question. Does the vitamin- form function of skin consist in what?

A. synthesis of Vit B B. synthesis of Vit. C C. synthesis of Vit. K D. * synthesis of Vit. D E. synthesis of Vit. A

98. On the department of hygiene to the students a task to learn the changed physiology curves was given. What curves do belong to them?

A. * Plateau-likeB. Physiologycal C. Circular D. Traditional E. Untraditional

99. On the department of hygiene to the students a task to learn the changed physiology curves was given. What curves do belong to them?

A. * InertB. Circular C. Traditional D. Untraditional E. Physiology

100. On the department of hygiene to the students a task to learn the changed physiology curves was given. What curves do belong to them?

A. * Two vertexis B. Untraditional C. Traditional D. Physiology

101. On the department of hygiene to the students a task to learn the changed physiology curves was given. What curves do belong to them?

A. * InvertedB. Circular C. Traditional D. Untraditional E. Physiology

102. On the lesson of fifth class a teacher tried to explain to the children, what habits are harmful and which not as situatioonal tasks, where a question stood: «That does not behave to harmful habits»

A. Drug addiction B. Alcoholism C. Tabacco smoking D. * Melomania E. Toxicomania

103. On the lesson of fifth class a teacher tried to explain to the children, what habits are harmful and which not as situatioonal tasks, where a question stood: «That does not behave to harmful habits»

A. Drug addiction B. Alcoholism C. Tabacco smokingD. * Bibliomania

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E. Toxicomania 104. Periodically to wash off pollutants

A. * To utillize daily nicely, that desinfected skin B. To utillize deodorant C. Not to wash a body water, but only to use flavours and lotions D. Daily to wipe a skin an eau-de-cologne or alcohol E. Used of the gel

105. Under closing of microclimate will be optimum if at an ambient of 18-22°С temperature such parameters show up under to the cloth microclimate:

A. * Temperature of air – 32,5-34,5 °N B. An oxide of carbon must be epsent C. The temperature of air must equal the temperature of body of user D. Relative humidity must equal absolute humidity E. The rate of movement of air must be felt

106. Sportsmen for the improvement of sporting achievements were advised to synchronize of vital functions of organism. What does depend from it?

A. * Physical form B. Interrelation is with circumferential C. Level of education D. Level of attention E. Sexual development

107. The questionnaire of temperament is most widespread in the national center of mental and psychological researches:

A. * Rusalova B. Shmisheka C. MMRI D. Mini-mult E. Kettela

108. The questionnaire of temperament is most widespread in the national center of mental and psychological researches:

A. * Ayzenko B. Konyukhova C. Spilbergera D. Shmisheka E. MMRI

109. The students of the first course of medical faculty during the leadthrough of psychohygienic researches are studied:

A. * Character properties, temperament B. State of health, age-old-sexual features C. Feel probed D. Mood, level of the sexual ripening E. Adequacy of self-appraisal

110. The students of the first course were advised for an improvement by studies, to define the biorhythms. What it such?

A. * Supporting autonomous processes of duties of the states of organism and vibrations of physiology reactions of individual

B. Rhythmic reiteration of the same symptoms at one and the same time C. Autonomous processes of organism of, which are directed on convalescence D. Internal clock of organism E. Biological driver of rhythm of heart

111. In the ward section of somatic department are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 1,5 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic?

A. * Width of corridor

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B. The total quantity of beds C. Quantity of 2- beds wards D. Quantity of 1- bed wards E. Quantity of 4- beds wards.

112. In the ward section of somatic department are 40 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,5 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic?

A. Width of corridor B. * The total quantity of beds C. Quantity of 2- beds wards D. Quantity of 1- bed wards E. Quantity of 4- beds wards

113. Results of estimation microclimate of ward in pediatric department are next: the middle temperature of air is 21 °C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 85 %. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. * discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

114. Results of estimation microclimate of ward in pediatric department are next: the middle temperature of air is 21 °C, speed of air is 0,6 m/s, relative humidity of air is 55 %. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. * discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

115. A city somatic hospital on 300 beds consists of main building with separate therapeutical and aurgical departmentts . In a few separate houses located maternity, child's and radiological separation, connected with a main building by underground and surface covered passages. Define the system of building of hospital:

A. centralized B. * centralized block C. decentralize D. Free E. Mixed

116. A hospital area is placed within the limits of settlement, to the north of an operating industrial enterprise. Main wind during the year is from north.Level of ground waters is 3 m from a terrain. ,building area is 15 %, planting of greenery - 65 %. What from the resulted descriptions does not answer sanitary hygienic requirements.

A. * location in respect to the operating industrial enterprise B. A location is within the limits of settlement C. less building area D. Area of plantation E. High level of ground water

117. An area, taken under building hospital, occupies 19 % of the land, area of planting of greenery - 62 %, area of orchads - 30 m2 on one bed. The perimeter of the green planting area has width 1.5m. Distance from a pathology anatomical building to the patient building - 32 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic requirements?

A. * area of buildings B. Distance is from patient building to the pathology anatomical building C. A width of the green planting is on a perimeter D. area of greenery

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E. area of orchads 118. An area, taken under building hospital, occupies 29 % of the land, area of planting of

greenery – 72 %. The perimeter of the green planting area has width 1.5m. Distance from a pathology anatomical building to the patient building is 32 m. Which one from the resulted indexes does not hygienic requirements?

A. * area of buildings B. Distance is from patient building to the pathology anatomical building C. A width of the green planting is on a perimeter D. area of greenery E. area of orchads

119. At bacteriological study of air in the House of Medicine department identified high levels of pollution. The ward area of 28 m2 placed 4 beds, conducted through vents airing twice a day, remove garbage twice a day, wet cleaning in the morning and evening. What causes increase bacterial contamination of air patient’s room?

A. * Inadequate ventilation B. less area for 1 bed C. remove garbage Low multiplicity D. less of multiplicity wet cleaning E. high area for 1 bed

120. By territorial SES received a draft building multi-profile hospital. The project envisages construction of Ward sections on 30 beds, ward for 4 beds are 20%, ward for 2 beds are 20%, ward for 1 bed is 60%, the buffet for 20 seats, the ratio of area to the area of auxiliary buildings wards is 1. Which of the following indicators does not meet hygienic standards?

A. * Percentage of the wards for 4 beds B. Number of beds in the section C. Percentage of the wards for 2 beds D. Ratio of area to the area of auxiliary buildings wards E. Number of seats in the buffet

121. During the study of microclimatic terms of hospital chamber: area - 6 m2, middle temperature of air - 16 °, relative humidity - 72 %, rate of movement of air - 0,35 m/s, coefficient of natural luminosity - 0,88 %, light coefficient - 1:5. Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate of hospital chamber.

A. Discomfort, with lot of vibrations B. Comfort C. Discomfort, with the high humidity of air D. Discomfort, type of heating E. * Discomfort, cool type

122. Favorable treatment and security service, effective prevention of nosocomial infections, availability of hospital patients to use the park system provides building hospitals:

A. * decentralized B. Centralized C. Block D. Centralized Block E. Free

123. In one of district centers building of hospital is foreseen into 200 places. According to the situational and general plan testifies: the area of land is 0,2 hectares with a slope facing southward, Gravel sandy loam, ground level water - 2,5 m, dominating winds of locality are from south. South from the land, at the distance of 400 m, there is an operating enterprise for production of artificial materials, in the troop landings of which contained pair of ether and acetone. On basis of the above factors why cannot a hospital be build there?

A. * operating enterprise B. Size of land

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C. Standing level waters D. Mechanical composition E. slope of land

124. In the erected surgical separation of 60 beds two which are planned operating-rooms of an area to 10 and 20 m2. Windows oriented to the north . Light coefficient - 1:2, coefficient of day light - 2,5 %. What parameters donot answer hygienical requirements?

A. Light coefficient B. * area of operating-rooms C. Orientation of windows D. Amount of operating-rooms E. coefficient of day light

125. In the ward section of somatic department are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 1,5 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic?

A. * Width of corridor B. The total quantity of beds C. Quantity of 2- beds wards D. Quantity of 1- bed wards E. Quantity of 4- beds wards

126. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms are 60 %, 2-bed are 20 %, 1-bed are 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic requirements?

A. * General amount of beds B. Width of corridor C. Amount of 2-bed room D. Amount of 1- bed room E. Amount of 4- bed room

127. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms is 60 %, 2-bed - 20 %, 1-bed - 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic requirements?

A. * General amount of beds B. Width of corridor C. Amount of 2-bed room D. Amount of 1- bed room E. Amount of 4- bed room

128. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 7 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,5 m, and between beds and external wall is 1 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements?

A. * Distance between beds B. Distance between beds and external wall C. the Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D. the Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms E. the Light coefficient in buffets

129. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 7 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:9-1:10. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and external wall is 1 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements?

A. Distance between beds B. Distance between beds and external wall C. the Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D. the Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms E. * the Light coefficient in buffets

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130. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 8 - 1 : 9, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and external wall is 0,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements?

A. Distance between beds B. Distance between beds and external wall C. * The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D. The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms E. The Light coefficient in buffets

131. Isolator in infectious department has an area of 27 m2. What are the maximum numbers of beds in this ward?

A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 6

132. Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2. What maximal amount of beds can he be expected on?

A. * 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

133. Land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form a size 200 x 300 m. On the front of area a medical building is located, in a center is a hospital garden, and at back of territory are economic structures. On what distance from the boundary of area must a medical building be located?

A. Not less than 50 m B. Not less than 20 m C. * less than 30 m D. Not less than 15 m E. Not less than 25 m

134. On land of rural district hospital on 60 beds such areas are selected: medical building for non-infectious of patients, medical building for infectious patients with the separated green areas, and also economic area together with pathology anatomical separation. What violation is assumed at planning of area?

A. * Combination of economic and pathology anatomical areas B. Separation of green areas C. A location of infectious separation is on the area of hospital D. separate infections and non infectious areas E. presence of infection and pathology anatomical buildings in hospital

135. On lot land of hospital at the mixed system of building select a main corps, polyclinic, and obstetrics - gynecological building, infectious building, kitchen, economic buildings, pathology anatomical corps, and hospital garden, with the bar of the green planting. What must be the maximum percentage of build up hospital in the area?

A. 25 % B. 35 % C. 20 % D. * 15 % E. 10 %

136. On lot land of rural district hospital on 100 beds there are such areas: Zone of medical departments for noninfectious patients, medical departments for infectious patients with the separated garden zone, and also economic area in which located pathology-anatomic department. What violation is assumed at planning of hospital?

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A. Presents of infectious department on the area of hospital B. separated garden zone C. * Combination of economic and pathology-anatomic department D. Differentiation of areas for infectious and noninfectious patients E. Presents of pathology-anatomic department on the area of hospital

137. Planned construction of a multi-disciplinary hospital in one city N. What type of building most expedient in this case?

A. * Centralized-block B. Decentralized C. Centralized D. Mixed E. Block

138. Results of estimation microclimate of newborn wards are next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate; B. * discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

139. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic department is next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. * comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

140. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmentt is next: the middle temperature of air is 21 °C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 55 %. Give hygienic estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. * comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

141. The area for building by hospital corps is 19 % of lot land, area of planting of greenery – 62 %, area of garden zone – 30 m2 on one bed. Green planting is placed on a perimeter of area with width 15 meters. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departmentts to the ward departmentts – 32 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienical?

A. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departmentts to the ward departmentts B. * The area for building by hospital corps C. Width of the green planting on the perimeter of area D. Area of planting of greenery E. Area of garden zone

142. The area of ward on 1 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 9 m2. Does it corresponds to the hygienical requirements?

A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building.

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143. The area of ward on 1 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 9 m2. Does it corresponds to the hygienical requirements?

A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only D. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building. E. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals

144. The area of ward on 2 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 14 m2. Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements?

A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building 145. The area of ward on 3 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 21 m2.

Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements B. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals C. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only D. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building 146. The area of ward on 4 beds in the therapeutic department of city hospital is 28 m2.

Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building 147. The content of microorganisms in the air before the operation 3500/m3 , and after the

operation was 1500m3 . A clearing the air by bactericidal lamps. How much should decrease the content of microorganisms to sanitation was considered effective?

A. * 80% B. 20% C. 40% D. 60% E. 99%

148. The habitant of m. Chertkova, 58 years, is ill hypertension first degree with frequent hypertensive crises. Gets necessary permanent chemical- physiotherapy. Offer locality, most expedient for sanatorium treatment in a cardiologic sanatorium.

A. sanatorium is Kyiv B. sanatorium in Crimea on the coast of the Black sea C. * cardiologic sanatorium D. sanatorium on the beach of sea E. sanatorium is in Pribaltici (m. of Yurmala)

149. The hospital lot land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form with size 200х300 m. On the facade of area the located medical corps, in a center - hospital garden, at back of territory - economic structures. On what distance from the border of area a medical corps must be disposed?

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A. not less than 15 m B. not less than 20 m C. not less than 25 m D. * not less than 30 m E. not less than 50 m

150. The moist cleaning up of ward of festering after operation department is carried out one time per a day with the use of 1 % solution of chloric lime, ventilation of ward are four times per a day, replacement of linen – one time per a week, and in the case of contamination by its excretions from a wound – immediately, patients take hygienic shower one time per a week. What is the defect of the hospital regimen of department?

A. Insufficient ventilation B. Insufficient concentration of chloric lime C. * Insufficient frequency of cleaning up of ward D. Ill-timed replacement of linen E. Insufficient frequency of washing of patients

151. The obstetric department is located in three-storied building. The ground floor occupies the observation obstetric department, first floor occupies physiology maternity department, and second floor occupies department of pathology of pregnancy. All floors unite by the channels of extraction ventilation. What change is required by the maternity department?

A. Location of physiology maternity department on the second floor; B. Location of observation maternity department on the first floor C. Location of physiology maternity department on the ground floor D. * Location of observation maternity department on the second floor E. Location of department of pathology on the ground floor

152. The project of reconstruction of central district hospital is foresee building of skin and veronological and oncologic separations. What system of delete of wastes will answer hygienic requirements?

A. * it gathered and then disposed in special setting on territory of hospital B. separate export by the special transport on the ground of domestic wastes C. utilization is at the garbage dumping plant D. previous disinfecting 5 % by solution of chloric lime and burial place E. all things are dumped together with hospital waste

153. The results of sanitary inspection of operation room a multi-profile hospital revealed: the operating area of 40 m2, windows oriented to the north, general lighting fluorescent - 200 lux. The air temperature in operation room is 220 C, the multiplicity of exchange of air is 10 times for 1 hour. Provided for filing sterile air. Which of the following indicators does not meet hygienic standards?

A. The orientation of windows B. Operating Area C. The temperature D. Multiplicity air exchange E. * The level of illumination

154. The results of sanitary inspection of operation room a multi-profile hospital revealed: the operating area of 38 m2, windows oriented to the south, general lighting fluorescent - 400 lux., The air temperature in operation room is 200 C, the multiplicity of exchange of air is 10 times per 1 hour. Provided for filing sterile air. Which of the following indicators does not meet hygienic standards?

A. * The orientation of windows B. Operating Area C. Type and level of illumination D. The air temperature E. Multiplicity air exchange

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155. The results of sanitary inspection Medicine departmentt many profile hospital are: in Ward section there are 30 beds, ward for 4 beds are 60 %, ward for 2 beds are 20 %, ward for 1 bed is 20 %, the distance from the office nurse to the remotest ward is 15 m, total area of auxiliary buildings are 50%, extra beds are placed in auxiliary buildings. Where permitted to place additional beds?

A. * Not permitted B. In any wards C. Wards for 1 bed D. In the hallway E. In the auxiliary premises

156. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the south, the air balance is zero. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:

A. * Chamber for adults B. Handling C. family D. Check bandaging E. Lobby

157. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the east, the air balance is negative. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:

A. * Boxing for infectious patients B. Operating C. family D. Check bandaging E. Corridor

158. The ward on Cardiology hospital blowing ventilation provides air flow volume of 50 m3 per hour in 1 patient. Assess the adequacy of ward ventilation.

A. * volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - at least 60 m3/hour 1 patient B. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 40 m3/hour 1 patient C. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 50 m3/hour 1 patient D. volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - not less than 80 m3/hour 1 patient E. Volume ventilation inadequate, the norm - at least 100 m3/hour 1 patient.

159. When sanitary inspection of land allocated for construction of a versatile district hospital with 300 beds, it was found that its area of 4 hectares of greenery - 65%, construction - 10% natural slope of 1.50, the level of standing groundwater 0,9 m the average equivalent noise level - 60 dB. At the hospital to 3 entrances. What resulted from the performance does not meet hygienic requirements?

A. * Average equivalent noise B. Percentage of building C. Percentage of landscaping D. Standing level of groundwater E. Land area

160. When sanitary inspection of operation room  a multi-profile hospital revealed: the operating area of 1954 m2, windows oriented to the north, general lighting fluorescent - 400 lux., The air temperature in operation room is 270 C, the multiplicity of exchange of air - 10 times for 1 hour. Provided for filing sterile air. Which of the following indicators does not meet hygienic standards?

A. * The air temperature B. The orientation of windows C. Type of lighting and light levels D. Operating Area E. Multiplicity air exchange

161. In the ward section of somatic departmen are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 1,5 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic?

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A. * Width of corridor B. The total quantity of beds C. Quantity of 2- beds wards D. Quantity of 1- bed wards E. Quantity of 4- beds wards.

162. . Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 21 °C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 85 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. * discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

163. While laboratory studies of air hospital wards found: the total number of micro organisms in the air - 2500 to 1 m3, of which 125 - haemolytic streptococcus. What measures should be undertaken with the purpose of decontamination of air in the House?

A. * UFO sterilizing lamp B. Dissipation of 0.5% solution chloramines in the air C. Electro aero-ionisation of air D. Air conditioning E. Infrared radiation air

164. On instructions from the doctor nurse conducted measurements, which are necessary to assess the climate chamber therapy department. The results of measurements: the average temperature is 20,0 ° C, the speed of air - 0.2 m / s, relative humidity - 58%. Give hygienic assessment of climate chamber.

A. Microclimate discomfort heating type B. Microclimate discomfort coolant type C. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased air humidity D. Microclimate uncomfortable with the increased speed of air E. * Comfortable microclimate

165. A city somatic hospital on 300 beds consists of main building with separate therapeutical and aurgical departments . In a few separate houses located maternity, child's and radiological separation, connected with a main building by underground and surface covered passages. Define the system of building of hospital:

A. centralized B. * centralized block C. decentralize D. Free E. Mixed

166. A hospital area is placed within the limits of settlement, to the north of an operating industrial enterprise. Main wind during the year is from north.Level of ground waters is 3 m from a terrain. ,building area is 15 %, planting of greenery - 65 %. What from the resulted descriptions does not answer sanitary hygienic requirements.

A. * location in respect to the operating industrial enterprise B. A location is within the limits of settlement C. less building area D. Area of plantation E. High level of ground water

167. An area, taken under building hospital, occupies 19 % of the land, area of planting of greenery - 62 %, area of orchads - 30 m2 on one bed. The perimeter of the green planting area has width 1.5m. Distance from a pathoanatomical building to the patient building - 32 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienical requirements?

A. * area of buildings B. Distance is from patient building to the pathoanatomical building

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C. A width of the green planting is on a perimeter D. area of greenery E. area of orchads

168. At the sanitary inspection of burn separation it was set for adults, that must have 4 beds with area of 28 m2. What minimum area of chambers must be in this separation?

A. 24 m2 B. 28 m2 C. 30 m2 D. * 40 m2 E. 52 m2

169. By the Cardio logical office in the city hospital to hospital 80 patients with arterial hypertension and ischemic heart disease, of which 20 patients with the statement show a further recovery. Where the most appropriate patients to recommend further recovery?

A. * The Department of Rehabilitation B. In the face of clinics C. In the hospital at home D. In the day hospital E. In a preventive clinic

170. During the micro-climatic conditions of hospital wards is set: the area - 6 m3, the average temperature - 16 ° C, relative humidity - 72%, the speed of air - 0,35 m / s, the rate of natural illumination - 0.88%, the rate of light - 1:5. Give hygienic assessment of climate hospital room

A. * Discomfort, cooling type B. Comfortable C. Discomfort, with high humidity D. discomfort, such as heating E. Discomfort, with significant fluctuations of key parameters

171. During the reconstruction of city hospital in town, located on 55° to North, transference of surgical block is planned from a underground on 1-floor of the building. What part of the direction is it necessary to orientate the windows of new operating hall on for creation of optimum terms of labour of surgical personnel?

A. West B. East C. * North D. South E. South-west

172. During the study of microclimatic terms of hospital chamber: area - 6 m2, middle temperature of air - 16 °, relative humidity - 72 %, rate of movement of air - 0,35 m/s, coefficient of natural luminosity - 0,88 %, light coefficient - 1:5. Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate of hospital room.

A. Discomfort, with lot of vibrations B. Comfort C. Discomfort, with the high humidity of air D. Discomfort, type of heating E. * Discomfort, cool type

173. For the renovation of the air in the surgical department of Children's Hospital during the influenza epidemic planned use of irradiation lamps WAS -30. In order to establish the regime of exposure after exposure, took the air was carried out using apparatus Krotov, and calculated the effective sanation. Disinfection of air is considered effective, if effectiveness degree is not less than

A. * 85% B. 75% C. 70% D. 65%

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E. 55% 174. General area of therapeutic separation makes 28 m2. What are maximal numbers of

beds in this ward? A. 2 B. 5 C. 3 D. * 4 E. 1

175. In connection with the increase of purulent-septic complications after surgical treatment made the critical examination of medical surgical unit at the carrier staphylococcus. As a result of direct seeding in yellow-salt agar material from the surface of tonsillectomy doctor N after 48 hours incubation at temperatures 37 ° C in the cup Petri found solid growth in isolated colonies. What is the measure of prevention purulent-septic complications in surgery patients is a priority?

A. * N temporarily remove the doctor from participating in operations B. Requiring doctors to wear masks in wards office C. Assign the doctor N lubricating the front nose sections 1% ointment D. Assign the doctor N rinse of pharynx 1% alcohol solution chlorphylypt 3 times a day E. appoint a doctor to get an overview of N Othorhinolaryngologist and dentist

176. In hospital wards size 5x3, 5 meters, there are two windows. Airing of the Chamber carried out by 4-time air vents open during the day. Determination of carbon dioxide were carried out by air pass through the glass Dressily with an alkaline solution. Please provide valid content of carbon dioxide in the air chamber.

A. 0.04% B. 0.04% C. * 0.1% D. 0.01% E. 0.15%

177. In one of district centers building of hospital is foreseen into 200 places. According to the situational and general plan testifies: the area of land is 0,2 hectares with a slope facing southward, Gravel sandy loam, ground level water - 2,5 m, dominating winds of locality are from south. South from the land, at the distance of 400 m, there is an operating enterprise for production of artificial materials, in the troop landings of which contained pair of ether and acetone. On basis of the above factors why cannot a hospital be build there?

A. * operating enterprise B. Size of land C. Standing level waters D. Mechanical composition E. slope of land

178. In the House of Cardiology department district hospital tidal exhaust ventilation provides air flow in the volume of 50 m3 of 1 patient per hour. Assess the adequacy of ventilation chamber.

A. * Volume of poor ventilation, the rule - not less than 60 m3/chas for 1 patient. B. volume of poor ventilation, the rule - not less than 40 m3/chas for 1 patient. C. volume of poor ventilation, the rule - not less than 50 m3/chas for 1 patient. D. Volume poor ventilation, the rule - not less than 80 m3/chas for 1 patient. E. volume of poor ventilation, the rule - not less than 100 m3/chas for 1 patient.

179. In the laboratory study of the quality of air chamber for patients in the summer it was found that bacterial semination - 4000 bacteria/m3, haemolytic streptococcus - 25 KUO/m3, the content of carbon dioxide - 0.1%. To estimate the degree of purity of the air.

A. * Average net B. Very clean C. Clear D. Contaminated

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E. It is contaminated 180. In the ward section of somatic department are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards

are 60 %, 2-beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 1,5 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic?

A. * Width of corridor B. The total quantity of beds C. Quantity of 2- beds wards D. Quantity of 1- bed wards E. Quantity of 4- beds wards

181. In the ward section of somatic hospital on 40 beds an amount of 4-bed rooms is 60 %, 2-bed - 20 %, 1-bed - 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not answer hygienic requirements?

A. * General amount of beds B. Width of corridor C. Amount of 2-bed room D. Amount of 1- bed room E. Amount of 4- bed room

182. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 7 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,5 m, and between beds and external wall is 1 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements?

A. * Distance between beds B. Distance between beds and external wall C. the Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D. the Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms E. the Light coefficient in buffets

183. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 7 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:9-1:10. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and external wall is 1 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements?

A. Distance between beds B. Distance between beds and external wall C. the Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms D. the Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms E. * the Light coefficient in buffets

184. In the children's infectious diseases hospital recorded the occurrence of in-ARI. House of hospital tidal exhaust system is not equipped. The presence of boxes and half box accordance with design solutions provided. Data analysis of properties of air allowed to identify the content of carbon dioxide in hospital wards: the ward number 1 - 0,15%, № 2 - 0,25%, № 3 - 0.07%. In a chamber of carbon dioxide meets the hygienic requirements?

A. * In the House number 3 B. In the House number 2 C. In any ward D. In all wards E. In the House number 1

185. Isolator of infectious department has an area of 22 m2. What maximal amount of beds can he be expected on?

A. * 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

186. Land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form a size is 200x300 m. On the front of area a medical building is located, in a center is a hospital garden, at back of

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territory are economic structures. On what distance from the boundary of area must a medical building be located?

A. Not less than 50 m B. Not less than 20 m C. * less than 30 m D. Not less than 15 m E. Not less than 25 m

187. On land of hospital 25 % areas have buildings, 60 % - green plantation and 15 % it is on an economic al court and passages. What method is it necessary to improve planning of hospital area in?

A. To increase the percentage of building area B. To decrease the percent of plantation C. * Percent of building D. To increase the percent of plantation E. To decrease a percent on an economic court and passages

188. On land of rural district hospital on 60 beds such areas are selected: medical building for non-infectious of patients, medical building for infectious patients with the separated green areas, and also economic area together with pathoanatomical separation . What violation is assumed at planning of area?

A. * Combination of economic and pathoanatomical areas B. Separation of green areas C. A location of infectious separation is on the area of hospital D. separate infectios and non infectious areas E. presence of infection and pathoanatomical buildings in hospital

189. On lot land of rural district hospital on 100 beds the are such areas: Zone of medical departments for noninfectious patients, medical departments for infectious patients with the separated garden zone, and also economic area in which located patologo-anatomic departmen. What violation is assumed at planning of hospital?

A. Presents of infectious departmen on the area of hospital B. separated garden zone C. * Combination of economic and patologo-anatomic departmen D. Differentiation of areas for infectious and uninfectious patients E. Presents of patologo-anatomic departmen on the area of hospital

190. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. * comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

191. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 21 °C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 55 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. * comfort microclimate B. discomfort microclimate of cooling type C. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

192. Sanitary conditions in the manipulation are following indicators: air temperature 20 0 C, relative humidity of 55%, air speed 0.1 m / sec, the rate of natural lighting (PAC) 2%, the level of artificial lighting 80 lx. Which of the following indicators requires correction.

A. Ratio of natural lighting B. The temperature

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C. Relative humidity D. The speed of air movement E. * The level of artificial lighting

193. The area for building by hospital corps is 19 % of lot land, area of planting of greenery – 62 %, area of garden zone – 30 m2 on one bed. Green planting is placed on a perimeter of area with width 15 meters. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departments to the ward departments – 32 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienical?

A. Distance from a patologo-anatomic departments to the ward departments B. * The area for building by hospital corps C. Width of the green planting on the perimeter of area D. Area of planting of greenery E. Area of garden zone

194. The area of ward on 1 beds in the therapeutic departmen of city hospital is 9 m2. Does it corresponds to the hygienical requirements?

A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building. 195. The area of ward on 2 beds in the therapeutic departmen of city hospital is 14 m2.

Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building 196. The area of ward on 3 beds in the therapeutic departmen of city hospital is 21 m2.

Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements B. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals C. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only D. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building 197. The area of ward on 4 beds in the therapeutic departmen of city hospital is 28 m2.

Does it corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements? A. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for city hospitals only B. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements C. * Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for all hospitals D. Corresponds to the hygienical requirements for children hospitals only E. Does not corresponds to the to the hygienical requirements only for hospitals with

centralized system of building 198. The habitant of m. Chertkova, 58 years, is ill hypertension first degree with frequent

hypertensive crises. Gets necessary permanent chemical- physiotherapy. Offer locality, most expedient for sanatorium treatment in a cardiologic sanatorium.

A. sanatorium in Kyiv B. sanatorium in Crimea on the coast of the Black sea C. * cardiologic sanatorium D. sanatorium is on the coast of sea E. sanatorium is in Pribaltici (m. of Yurmala)

199. The hospital lot land of the centralized hospital has a rectangular form with size 200х300 m. On the facade of area the located medical corps, in a center - hospital garden, at

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back of territory - economic structures. On what distance from the border of area a medical corps must be disposed?

A. not less than 15 m B. not less than 20 m C. not less than 25 m D. * not less than 30 m E. not less than 50 m

200. The moist cleaning up of ward of festering after operation departmen is carried out one time per a day with the use of 1 % solution of chloric lime, ventilation of ward are four times per a day, replacement of linen – one time per a week, and in the case of contamination by its excretions from a wound – immediately, patients take hygienical shower one time per a week. What is the defect of the hospital regimen of departmen?

A. Insufficient ventilation B. Insufficient concentration of chloric lime C. * Insufficient frequency of cleaning up of ward D. Ill-timed replacement of linen E. Insufficient frequency of washing of patients

201. The obstetric departmen is located in three-storeyed building. The ground floor occupies the observation obsteric department, first floor occupies physiology maternity departmen, and second floor occupies departmen of pathology of pregnancy. All floors unite by the channels of extraction ventilation.What change is required by the maternity departmen?

A. Location of physiology maternity departmen on the second floor; B. Location of observation maternity departmen on the first floor C. Location of physiology maternity departmen on the ground floor D. * Location of observation maternity departmen on the second floor E. Location of departmen of pathology on the ground floor

202. In manipulation lightening ratio, the angle of incidence of light rays for a job nurses and angle hole meet hygienic requirements, and the ratio of natural illumination in winter insufficient. What could be the primary cause of the discrepancy between the figures set by the natural illumination?

A. * Covered the hoarfrost of window B. A large area of manipulation C. Insufficient space ups D. Far from the window of jobs E. Shading the windows of buildings opposite

203. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the south, the air balance is zero. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:

A. * Chamber for adults B. Handling C. family D. Check bandaging E. Lobby

204. The temperature is 20 degrees, light 1:6 ratio, targeting the east, the air balance is negative. Select a room to which these conditions meet the hygiene standards:

A. * Boxing for infectious patients B. Operating C. family D. Check bandaging E. Corridor

205. When bacteriological study of air in the House of therapeutic outlet identified high levels of pollution. In the ward area of 28 m2 divided 4 beds, airing through the window leaf is held twice a day, the entrance to the office is equipped with the gateway, removal of

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debris twice a day, wet cleaning of the morning and evening. What are the causes of increasing bacterial contamination of the air chamber?

A. * Insufficient ventilation B. Lack of space at 1 bed C. insufficient multiplicity of removing debris D. insufficient multiplicity of wet cleaning E. Lack of mechanical ventilation

206. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the following parameters: T - 22,0 ° C, air speed of -0.1 m / s, -55% humidity, the content of CO2 - 0.1%, the multiplicity of air - 8. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic requirements:

A. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the following parameters: T - 22,0 ° C, air speed of -0.1 m / s, -55% humidity, the content of CO2 - 0.1%, the multiplicity of air - 8. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic requirements:

B. Temperature C. * Air D. Humidity E. The content of CO2

207. When examining sanitary working conditions of doctors in the operating climate received the following parameters: T - 22,0 ° C, air speed of -0.1 m / s, -75% humidity, the content of CO2 - 0.1%, the multiplicity of air - 5. Decide which of the parameters of climate does not meet hygienic requirements:

A. Air B. Temperature C. Wet D. The speed of air movement E. * The content of CO2

208. While laboratory studies of air hospital wards found: the total number of micro organisms in the air - 2500 to 1 m3, of which 125 - haemolytic streptococcus. What measures should be undertaken with the purpose of decontamination of air in the House?

A. * UV sterilizing lamp B. Dissipation of 0.5% solution chloramines in the air C. Electro aero-ionisation of air D. Air conditioning E. Infrared radiation air

209. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:7-1:8, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and external wall is 1,0 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the the hygienical requirements?

A. Distance between beds.B. Distance between beds and external wall.C. The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms.D. * The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms.E. The Light coefficient in buffets.

210. General bacterial contamination of air was definitely in dressing – room of surgical departmen to beginning of work. Which the index of general microbic number must be in this case?

A. To 300B. To 500C. To 750D. To 100 E. *To 1500

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211. Results of estimation microclimate of ward of therapeutic departmenis is next: the middle temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,5 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Give hygienical estimation of microclimate of ward.

A. comfort microclimate; B. discomfort microclimate of cooling typeC. discomfort microclimate of heating type D. discomfort microclimate with the increased humidity of air E. discomfort microclimate with the increased speed of air

212. On the hospital lot land at the mixed system building are such areas: zone of medical departments for noninfectious patients, medical departments for infectious patients with the separated garden zone, economic area and patologo-anatomic departmen.. Which the minimal percent of garden zone must be?

A. 15 %;B. 20 %;C. 35 %;D. 50 %;E. *60 %.

213. Temperature of air in a ward for hyperthyreotic patients corresponds to the hygienic norm. Indicate possible norms of temperature.

A. 20°С B. 24°С C. 15°С D. 22°С E. *18° С

214. Rules of beds localization in ward for 4 patients.A. Near the door.B. On a distance of 1,5 m from wall with window.C. Perpendicularly to windows.D. Under the wall with window. E. * In parallel to windows.

215. In the ward section of somatic departmen are 30 beds. The quantity of 4-beds wards are 60 %, 2-beds wards are 20 %, 1-bed wards are 20 %. Width of corridor is 2,0 m. Which one from the next indexes is not hygienic?

A. *Width of corridor. B. The total quantity of beds. C. Quantity of 2- beds wards.D. Quantity of 1- bed wards.E. Quantity of 4- beds wards.

216. In wards and doctors rooms a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 6, in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms is 1:4-1:3, in buffets is 1:6-1:7. Distance between beds in a ward - 0,9 m, and between beds and external wall is 0,5 m. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements?

A. Distance between beds.B. *Distance between beds and external wall.C. The Light coefficient in wards and doctors rooms.D. The Light coefficient in operating-rooms and dressing - rooms.E. The Light coefficient in buffets.

217. In doctor room a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 7, coefficient of day lighting is 0,5%, temperature of air is 20 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 58 %. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements?

A. The Light coefficient in doctors room and speed of air in room.B. Relative humidity of air.C. The Light coefficient in doctors rooms.D. *The coefficient of day lighting.

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E. The speed of air in room218. In doctor room a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 7, coefficient of day lighting is 1,5%,

temperature of air is 22 °C, speed of air is 0,2 m/s, relative humidity of air is 85 %. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements?

A. The Light coefficient in doctor room and speed of air in room.B. *Relative humidity of air.C. The Light coefficient in doctor room.D. The coefficient of day lighting.E. The speed of air in room

219. In doctor room a light coefficient is 1 : 5 - 1 : 6, coefficient of day lighting is 1,0%, temperature of air is 26 °C, speed of air is 0,1 m/s, relative humidity of air is 48 %. Which from the resulted indexes does not corresponds to the hygienic requirements?

A. *Temperature of air B. Relative humidity of air.C. The Light coefficient in doctor room.D. The coefficient of day lighting.E. The speed of air in room

220. A victim entered after a accident case in hospital. For finding out of localization of damages a doctor did research of vertebral post and bones of pelvis. Specify the origin of radio-active radiation which was used in this case.

A. * X-ray B. Proton. C. Electronic. D. Neutron E. Thermonuclear

221. Clay is select for production table wares. Effective natural radio-activity of standard was 400 Bk·kg-1 (the level of maximum possible level is 370 Bk·kg-1). Give a conclusion in relation to possibility of the use of clay as material for making of tableware.

A. * Using it is impossible. B. Using it is possible only for the production of non-permanent tableware. C. Using it is possible for tableware in which the large volumes of products are saved in

depositories. D. Using it is possible without limitations E. E. Using after screening table wares by leaden enamel.

222. In a radiological department was using a source of gamma-radiation for treatment of oncologic patients. In air of apartments is set absence of radio-active isotopes. What type of irradiation use for patients?

A. * External B. Internal. C. Incorporated. D. Mixed. E. United.

223. In laboratory of nuclear physics studded of radio-active transformations. During an experiment with a natural radio-active element, ionizing is got a radiation which forming of helium atoms. Specify the type of this radio-active transformation.

A. * Alpha-particle. B. Beta- particles. C. Electronic beta- particles. D. Positron beta- particles. E. X-ray.

224. A man, aged 28, power-supply system operator, was at his working place during the breakdown on the nuclear power plant. In the result of the steam-air explosion there was an emission of circa 30 kg radioactive iodine (I131). Which radioprotector is expedient in this case?

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A. Cystamine B. * Potassium iodide C. Thiourea D. Leucine E. Valine

225. A man, aged 35, power-supply system operator, was at his working place during the breakdown on the nuclear power plant. In the result of the steam-air explosion there was an emission of circa 20 kg radioactive iodine (I131). Which radioprotector is expedient in this case?

A. Cystamine B. * Potassium iodide C. Thiourea D. Leucine E. Valine

226.  A man, aged 45, power-supply system operator, was at his working place during the breakdown on the nuclear power plant. In the result of the steam-air explosion there was an emission of circa 25 kg radioactive iodine (I131). Which radioprotector is expedient in this case?

A. Cystamine B. * Potassium iodide C. Thiourea D. Leucine E. Valine

227. A radiation detector which is located 1.0 meters from a radiation source indicates a radiation intensity of 100 mCi (millicuries). What would the radiation intensity be if the detector was 2.0 meters from the source?

A. * 25 mCi B. 50 mCi C. 200 mCi D. 400 mCi E. 10 mCi

228. A radiation detector which is located 2.0 meters from a radiation source indicates a radiation intensity of 100 mCi (millicuries). What would the radiation intensity be if the detector was 4.0 meters from the source?

A. * 25 mCi B. 50 mCi C. 200 mCi D. 400 mCi E. 10 mCi

229. A radiation detector which is located 2.0 meters from a radiation source indicates a radiation intensity of 80 mCi (millicuries). What would the radiation intensity be if the detector was 4.0 meters from the source?

A. * 20 mCi B. 50 mCi C. 200 mCi D. 400 mCi E. 10 mCi

230. At the increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 2 times dose A. increased in 4 times B. increased in 2 times C. will not change D. will decrease in 2 times E. * will decrease in 4 times

231. At the increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 2 times dose

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A. increased in 4 times B. increased in 2 times C. will not change D. will decrease in 2 times E. * will decrease in 4 times

232. At the increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 2 times dose A. increased in 4 times B. increased in 2 times C. will not change D. will decrease in 2 times E. * will decrease in 4 times

233. At the increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 3 times dose A. increased in 4 times B. increased in 2 times C. will not change D. will decrease in 2 times E. * will decrease in 9 times

234. At the increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 3 times dose A. increased in 4 times B. increased in 2 times C. will not change D. will decrease in 2 times E. * will decrease in 9 times

235. At the increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 3 times dose A. increased in 4 times B. increased in 2 times C. will not change D. will decrease in 2 times E. * will decrease in 9 times

236. At the radiological department of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agaf'type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source B. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and

shortening of working time D. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance E. Screening of the source and individual protection of respiration organs

237.  At the radiological unit of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance B. Systematic cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening

of working time C. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration

organs 238. At the radiological unit of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of “Agat”

type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

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A. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs

B. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and

shortening of working time D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene

239.  At the radiological unit of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance B. Systematic cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening

of working time C. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration

organs 240. At the radiological unit of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of “Agat”

type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs

B. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and

shortening of working time D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene

241.  At the radiological unit of the hospital, gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agat" type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance B. Systematic cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and shortening

of working time C. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration

organs 242. Different isotopes are useful in different dating processes. Suppose we wished to

determine the age of an object which we suspect to be approximately 10,000 years old. An isotope with which of the following half-lives would be most appropriate for this project?

A. 50 years B. 500 years C. * 5,000 years D. 50,000 years E. 10,000 years

243. Different isotopes are useful in different dating processes. Suppose we wished to determine the age of an object which we suspect to be approximately 10,000 years old. An isotope with which of the following half-lives would be most appropriate for this project?

A. 50 years B. 500 years C. * 5,000 years

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D. 50,000 years E. 10,000 years

244. Different isotopes are useful in different dating processes. Suppose we wished to determine the age of an object which we suspect to be approximately 10,000 years old. An isotope with which of the following half-lives would be most appropriate for this project?

A. 50 years B. 500 years C. * 5,000 years D. 50,000 years E. 10,000 years

245. Doubling the distance from a point source of x-, gamma or neutron radiation, will reduce the exposure rate in 4 times

A. * True B. False, reduce the exposure rate in 2 times C. False, increases the exposure rate in 4 times D. False, increase the exposure rate in 2 times E. False, not change

246. Doubling the distance from a point source of x-, gamma or neutron radiation, will A. * reduce the exposure rate in 4 times B. reduce the exposure rate in 2 times C. increases the exposure rate in 4 times D. increase the exposure rate in 2 times E. not change

247. Doubling the distance from a point source of x-, gamma or neutron radiation, will reduce the exposure rate in 4 times

A. * True B. True only for point source of x-radiation C. True only for point source of gamma-radiation D. false E. not change

248. During work with the opened sources of ionizing radiations the complex of protective measures, which often name radiation asepsis, is carried out. What does not behave to these measures?

A. Maximal pressurization of working processes B. Rational planning of apartments C. Use of general and local extraction ventilation. D. Coverage of working surfaces by materials which it is badly adsorb radionouclidi E. * Limitation of duration of working day

249. During work with the opened sources of ionizing radiations the complex of protective measures, which often name radiation asepsis, is carried out. What does not behave to these measures?

A. Maximal pressurization of working processes B. Rational planning of apartments C. Use of general and local extraction ventilation. D. Coverage of working surfaces by materials which it is badly adsorb radionouclidi E. * Shielding

250. For diagnoses lung diseases was use x-ray examination. The effective dose from a PA chest examination is typically

A. 2 mSv B. * 20 mSv C. 0.02 mSv D. 0.2 mSv E. 0,1 mSv

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251. Gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agaf'type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms in the radiological department of the hospital, . What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. * Decrease of working time B. Proper room ventilation C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination D. Personall hygiene compliance E. Individual protection of respiration organs

252. How change absorber dose when increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 2 times activity of sourse of irradiation in 2 times and time from 1 to 2 hours

A. Increased in 4 times; B. Increased in 2 times; C. * Not change D. Decrease in 2 times; E. Decrease in 4 times.

253. How change absorber dose when increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 2 times activity of sourse of irradiation in 2 times and time from 1 to 2 hours

A. Increased in 4 times; B. Increased in 2 times; C. * Not change D. Decrease in 2 times; E. Decrease in 4 times.

254. How change absorber dose when increase a distance from a source of ionizing radiation in 2 times activity of sourse of irradiation in 2 times and time from 1 to 2 hours

A. Increased in 4 times; B. Increased in 2 times; C. * Not change D. Decrease in 2 times; E. Decrease in 4 times.

255. In the  hospital are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms gamma-devices of radiotherapy of “Agat” type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation . What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration organs

B. * Shortening of working time and screening of the source C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and

shortening of working time D. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation E. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene

256. In the radiological department of the hospital gamma-devices of radiotherapy of "Agaf'type and other closed sources of ionizing radiation are used for treatment of malignant neoplasms. What are the measures to be taken to protect personnel at the time of work with radioactive sources of such type?

A. * Screening of the source B. Capsulation of devices and organization of room ventilation C. Systematical cleansing of surfaces from the radioactive contamination and

shortening of working time D. The increase of distance to the source and individual hygiene compliance E. Screening of the source and the use of means of individual protection of respiration

organs 257. The half life of an radionuclide is 5 days. If the initial activity was 100 MBq on the

5th day of the month, what will be its activity on the 15th day of that month

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A. 75 MBq B. 50 MBq C. * 25 MBq D. 12.5 MBq E. 6.5 MBq

258. The half life of an radionuclide is 5 days. If the initial activity was 100 MBq on the 5th day of the month, what will be its activity on the 15th day of that month

A. 75 MBq B. 50 MBq C. * 25 MBq D. 12.5 MBq E. 6.5 MBq

259. The half life of an radionuclide is 5 days. If the initial activity was 100 MBq on the 5th day of the month, what will be its activity on the 15th day of that month

A. 75 MBq B. 50 MBq C. * 25 MBq D. 12.5 MBq E. 6.5 MBq

260. The half-life of I-131 is 8 days. If a medical treatment involves a dose of 80 mg of I-131, how much of the isotope remains after 16 days?

A. 10 mg B. * 20 mg C. 50 mg D. 75 mg E. 100 mg

261. The half-life of I-131 is 8 days. If a medical treatment involves a dose of 100 mg of I-131, how much of the isotope remains after 16 days?

A. 12.5 mg B. * 25 mg C. 50 mg D. 75 mg E. 100 mg

262. The half-life of I-131 is 8 days. If a medical treatment involves a dose of 100 mg of I-131, how much of the isotope remains after 16 days?

A. 12.5 mg B. * 25 mg C. 50 mg D. 75 mg E. 100 mg

263. The property possessed by some elements of spontaneously emitting energy in the form of particles or waves by disintegration of their atomic nuclei is named

A. * Radioactivity B. Ionization C. Radiation D. Effects of radiation E. Exposure dose

264. The property possessed by some elements of spontaneously emitting energy in the form of particles or waves by disintegration of their atomic nuclei is named

A. * Radioactivity B. Ionization C. Radiation D. Effects of radiation E. Exposure dose

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265. The property possessed by some elements of spontaneously emitting energy in the form of particles or waves by disintegration of their atomic nuclei is named

A. * Radioactivity B. Ionization C. Radiation D. Effects of radiation E. Exposure dose

266. We are all exposed to ionizing radiation from natural sources at all times. This radiation is called natural background radiation, and its main sources are the following except

A. Radioactive substances in the earth's crust; B. Emanation of radioactive gas from the earth; C. * Doses from a diagnostic x-ray D. Trace amounts of radioactivity in the body; E. Cosmic rays  from outer space which bombard the earth.

267. We are all exposed to ionizing radiation from natural sources at all times. This radiation is called natural background radiation, and its main sources are the following except

A. Radioactive substances in the earth's crust; B. Emanation of radioactive gas from the earth; C. * Doses from a diagnostic x-ray D. Trace amounts of radioactivity in the body; E. Cosmic rays  from outer space which bombard the earth.

268. We are all exposed to ionizing radiation from natural sources at all times. This radiation is called natural background radiation, and its main sources are the following except

A. Radioactive substances in the earth's crust; B. Emanation of radioactive gas from the earth; C. * Doses from a diagnostic x-ray D. Trace amounts of radioactivity in the body; E. Cosmic rays  from outer space which bombard the earth.

269. Work with the opened sources of ionizing radiations need the complex of protective measures, which often name radiation asepsis, is carried out. What does not behave to these measures?

A. Maximal pressurization of working processes B. Rational planning of apartments C. Use of general and local extraction ventilation. D. Coverage of working surfaces by materials which it is badly adsorb radionouclidi E. * Limitation of duration of working day

270. An important reason for the large daily temperature range over deserts is: A. * There is little water vapor in the air to absorb and re-radiate infrared radiation B. The light-colored sand radiates heat very rapidly at night C. Dry air is a very poor heat conductor D. Free convection cells are unable to form above the hot desert ground E. The ozone content of desert air is very low

271. In the northern hemisphere, the number of hours of daylight begin to shorten after the A. Spring equinox B. * Summer solstice C. Autumn equinox D. Winter solstice E. Never

272. A 15 year old adolescent was taken to the hospital with complaints of poor night vision. Objectively: increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjuctiva. The

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patient's skin is dry, scales off, folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. What is the cause of this disease?

A. Biotin deficit B. Folic acid deficit C. Thiamine deficit D. * Retinole deficit E. Napthtochynones deficit

273. In a man the disease started with acute onset. Frequent watery stool developed 6 hours ago. The body's temperature is normal. Then vomiting took place. On physical examination: man's voice is hoarse, eyes are deeply set in the orbits. The pulse is frequent. Blood pressure is low. There is no urine. What is the preliminary diagnosis?

A. Typhoid fever B. * Cholera C. Toxic food-borne infection D. Salmonellosis E. Dysentery

274. A woman, aged 23, complains of periodical febrile chills with fever up to 40°C, sensation of heat alternating with profuse sweat. During last three months has lived in a tropical African country. The patient has already suffered 3 such attacks, which appeared every other day, lasted 12 hours, and were accompanied by the headache, lumbar and muscular pain. The face is pale with yellowish tinge. Cyanotic lips. Liver, spleen are enlarged. In blood: RBC 2.5 * lO12/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Leptospirosis B. Epidemic typhus C. Sepsis D. Hemoiytic anaemia E. * Malaria

275. The disease began acutely. The frequent watery stool developed 6 hours ago. The body's temperature is normal. Then the vomiting was joined. On examination: his voice is hoarse, eyes are deeply sunken in the orbits. The pulse is frequent. Blood pressure is low. There is no urine. What is the preliminary diagnosis?

A. Dysentery B. Salmonellosis C. * Cholera D. Typhoid fever E. Toxic food-borne infection

276. A 28 year old patient was admitted to the clinic with complaints of the temperature rise up to 39,0oC, headache, weakness, constipation on the 9th day of the diseas E. On examination: single roseolas on the skin of the abdomen are present. The pulse rate is 78 bpm. The liver is enlarged by 2 cm. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. * Typhoid fever B. Sepsis C. Leptospirosis D. Malaria E. Brucellosis

277. A 25-year-old man is hospitalized with complaints of double vision, worsening of eyesight, difficulty of breath, dryness in the mouth. He fell ill acutely 12 hours ago. Before falling ill he ate mushrooms. Physical examination: skin is pale, pupils are wide with weak reaction to light, swallowing is disturbed. Ps 55 bpm. Severe muscle weakness. The stomach is bloated . What is your preliminary diagnosis?

A. Salmonella infection, gastrointestinal form B. Yersiniosis C. * Botulism D. Leptospirosis

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E. Lambliasis 278. The sample from 5 tons milk batch was taken. In the lab analysis it was defined: fat

content 2%, specific density 1,04 g/cm3, acidity 21°T, reductase probe - weak positive. How should the product be used?

A. Technical utilization B. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality C. Sell without limitations D. Destroy product E. Write off for animal feeding

279. A 15-year-old teenager complains of poor night vision. Physical examination: increased darkness adaptation time, Bitot's spots on conjunctiva. The patient skin is dry, scales off; folliculitis signs of the face skin are present. What is the cause of the disease?

A. Napthtoquinone deficit B. * Retinole deficit C. Thiamine deficit D. Folic acid deficit E. Biotin deficit

280. Water that is used for supply of the city, contains fluoride 2,0 mg/L, nitrates 43 mg/L, chlorides 250 mg/L, ferrum 0,2 mg/L, residual nitrogen 0,5 mg/L. What medical condition is the most likely to occur in inhabitants of this city?

A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Methemoglobinemia C. Caries D. Endemic goitre E. * Fluorosis

281.  A 28-year-old patient was admitted on the 9th day of the disease to the clinic with complaints of temperature up to 39,0°C, headache, weakness, constipation. On physical examination, single roseolas are on skin of the abdomen. Ps — 78 bpm. The liver is enlarged by 2 cm. What is the probable diagnosis?

A. Brucellosis B. * Typhoid fever C. Malaria D. Leptospirosis E. Sepsis

282.  A 5 tons milk batch was sampled. The lab analysis revealed: fat content 2%, specific density - 1,04 g/cm3, acidity - 210Т, reductase probe - weak-positive. What way is the product to be used in?

A. Do the product away B. * Sell but inform customers about milk quality C. Discard for animal feeding D. Sell without limitations E. Technical utilization

283. A person eats 8 grams of protein, 25 grams of carbohydrates, 6 grams of fat and 4 grams of alcohol. Calculate the energy value (in calories) from the stated totals

A. 254 B. 204 C. 224 D. * 214 E. 194

284. At any given time, ______ of the earth is illuminated by the sun. A. One-fourth B. One-third C. * One-half D. Two-thirds

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E. All 285. At what time during a 24-hour day would a radiation temperature inversion best be

developed? A. At sunset B. * Near sunrise C. Toward the end of the morning D. Between 2 and 5 pm when the air temperature reaches a maximum E. None of the above

286. Favorable conditions of thermoregulation at the high temperature of air will be, when in room

A. * Low humidity and high speed of air moving B. Normal humidity and low speed of air moving C. High humidity and high speed of air moving D. High humidity and sufficient speed of air moving E. Maximal humidity and low speed of air moving

287. For determination of influencing of microclimate on the functional state of organism of children and teenagers investigated the physiological indexes of tension of functions of organs and systems which take part in heat-exchange processes: pulse, blood pressure, rate of breath, temperature of body, amount of selection sweat in 1 min, speed of visual and auditory reactions and others like that. What index does represent tension of function of thermoregulation of organism objectively?

A. * Temperature of body B. Pulse and blood pressure; C. Rate of breath per 1 min; D. Selection sweat per 1 min; E. Speed of visual and auditory reactions

288. Heat, that produced by the organism of worker in hot workplace in the conditions of high temperatures and low humidity, lost mainly by evaporation and usually causes heat cramps. What kind of imbalance present here?

A. Protein imbalance; B. * Electrolyte imbalance C. Vitamin imbalance D. Carbohydrate imbalance; E. Fat imbalance.

289. In calm air the temperature of air is -10o C, if the wind speed should increase to 30 knots (with no change in air temperature) the thermometer would indicate:

A. A much higher temperature than -10o C B. A much lower temperature than -10o C C. * A temperature of -10o C D. A temperature of -30o C E. None of the above

290. In the normal condition (temperature of the air 18 0C) human losses for heating food, drinking, inhaled air near

A. 5 % of the heat; B. * 15 % of the heat C. 25 % of the heat; D. 35 % of the heat; E. 50 % of the heat;

291. In the normal condition (temperature of the air 18 0C) human losses through the skin near

A. 100 % of the heat; B. 90 % of the heat; C. * 85 % of the heat D. 70 % of the heat;

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E. 50 % of the heat. 292. In the normal condition (temperature of the air 18 0C) near 15 % of the heat human

losses for A. Heating food, B. Heating drinking C. Heating inhaled air D. * All are correct E. None of above

293. In the normal condition (temperature of the air 18 0C) near 85 % of the heat human losses through

A. The lung; B. The mouth; C. * The skin; D. The intestines; E. The blood

294. Loss of heat, which depends on difference between temperature of a skin and temperature an air, is

A. Conduction B. * Convection C. Evaporation D. Radiation E. All are correct.

295. Patient in the state of alcoholic intoxication after a few hours stay in a snowdrift was delivered to the hospital with diagnosis "General hypothermia". What way of heat loss was prevail for a patient?

A. * Conduction; B. Convection; C. Radiation; D. Evaporation; E. Radiation

296. Performing hard physical labor in a hot environment usually occurs heat cramps which have been attributed to pathological change caused by sweating. What kind of imbalance present here?

A. Protein imbalance; B. * Electrolyte imbalance C. Vitamin imbalance D. Carbohydrate imbalance; E. Fat imbalance.

297. Results of measuring microclimatic conditions in classroom: middle temperature of air 29 0С, speed of motion of air 0,2 m/sec, relative humidity of air 45 %. Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate.

A. Comfort. B. Discomfort, with the high speed of motion of air; C. Discomfort cooling type. D. * Discomfort with the high temperature E. Discomfort with the high humidity of air.

298. Results of investigation conditions of hospital word: area is 7 m2, average temperature of air + 26 0С, relative humidity 72 %, speed of motion of air 0,1 m/sec, LC is 1 : 5. Give a hygienic estimation the microclimate of hospital word

A. Overcooling. B. Comfortable; C. Optimal; D. * Overheating; E. Normal.

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299. Results of investigation conditions of hospital word: area is 6 m2, middle temperature of air + 16 0С, relative humidity 72 %, speed of motion of air 0,35 m/sec, CNI is 0,88 %, LC is 1 : 5. Give a hygienic estimation the microclimate of hospital word

A. * Overcooling B. Comfortable; C. Optimal; D. Overheating; E. Normal.

300. Results of measuring microclimatic conditions in classroom: middle temperature of air 19 0С, speed of motion of air 0,2 m/sec, relative humidity of air 55 %. Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate.

A. * Comfort. B. Discomfort, heating type; C. Discomfort cooling type. D. Discomfort with the high temperature. E. Discomfort with the high humidity of air.

301. Results of measuring microclimatic conditions in classroom: middle temperature of air 20 0С, speed of motion of air 0,3 m/sec, relative humidity of air 50 %. Give a hygienical estimation the microclimate.

A. * Comfort. B. Discomfort, heating type; C. Discomfort cooling type. D. Discomfort with the high temperature. E. Discomfort with the high humidity of air.

302. Student estimate the parameters of microclimate of studying room. Which one of the following from the transferred indexes here is not a necessity to determine, because it does not behave to the parameters of microclimate?

A. * Day light; B. Humidity of air C. Temperature of air D. Speed of motion of air E. Radiation temperature of surfaces

303. Student estimates the parameters of microclimate in patient’s room. Which one of the following indexes is not behave to the parameters of microclimate?

A. Humidity of air B. Temperature of air C. Speed of motion of air D. * Light coefficient; E. Radiation temperature

304. Student estimates the parameters of microclimate in study room. Which one of the following indexes is not behave to the parameters of microclimate?

A. Humidity of air B. Temperature of air C. * Concentration of carbon dioxide D. Speed of motion of air E. Radiation temperature

305. The atmosphere near the earth's surface is "heated from below." Which of the following does not significantly contribute to this heating?

A. Conduction of heat upward from a hot surface B. Convection from a hot surface C. Absorption of infrared energy that has been radiated from the surface D. * Heat energy from the earth's interior E. None of above

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306. The conditions of physical labor in a hot environment are characterized as discomfort microclimate: temperature of air 31 0С, radiation temperature 23 0С, relative humidity 95 %, speed of air motion 0,2 m/sec. Which one of the following way of heat loss is more effective ?

A. * Radiation; B. Perspiration; C. Convection. D. Conduction. E. All of these.

307. The conditions of physical labor in a hot environment are characterized as discomfort microclimate: temperature of air 21 0С, radiation temperature 18 0С, relative humidity 85 %, speed of air motion 0,2 m/sec. Which one of the following way of heat loss is more effective?

A. * Radiation; B. Perspiration; C. Convection. D. Conduction. E. All of these.

308. The earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degree with respect to the plane of its orbit around the sun. If the amount of tilt were increased to 40 degree, we would expect in middle latitudes:

A. * Hotter summers and colder winters than at present B. Cooler summers and milder winters than at present C. Hotter summers and milder winters than at present D. Cooler summers and colder winters than at present E. No appreciable change from present conditions

309. The microclimate of apartment is characterized by followings parameters: temperature of air - 40 °C; relative humidity - 70 %; speed of motion of air - 0,1 m/sec; radiation temperature - 80-90 °C. Which one of the following pathological state of organism will be after work in this condition?

A. * General hyperthermia (heat-prostration); B. Decrease of work ability; C. Physiologic change of the system of circulation of blood; D. Physiologic change of the respiratory system; E. Local hyperthermia.

310. The state of thermal comfort depends on a temperature and humidity of surrounding air. What combination of this parameters influence of heat loss and overheating an organism?

A. High temperature and low humidity; B. Low temperature and low humidity C. Low temperature and high humidity; D. * High temperature and high humidity E. None of above.

311.  The Transcarpathian region is characterized by constant high (over 80%) air moisture. Population of this region feels an intense cold in winter when the temperature is temperately low. What way of heat emission becomes more active?

A. Radiation B. * Convection C. Evaporation D. Conduction E. Irradiation

312. What illness is characterized by next symptoms: tiredness, weakness, and dyspnea on exertion, tachycardia, palpitations, and edema?

A. * Iron deficiency;

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B. Calcium deficiency C. Kwashiorkor D. Pellagra E. Xerophthalmia

313. What indexes of microclimate are taken into account during work with nomograma for determination of equivalently effective temperatures?

A. Temperature of air, humidity of air, motion of air B. Temperature of air and motion of air C. Temperature of air, a temperature is radiation, motion of air D. Humidity and motion of air E. * Temperature of air, a temperature is radiation, humidity and motion of air

314. What main way of heat loss when temperature of air is 12 оС, relative humidity 55 %, speed of air motion 0,3 m/sec, radiation temperature 6 оС?

A. * Radiation B. Convection C. Evaporation D. Conducting E. None of these.

315. Which one of the following statements about clinical features of vitamin A deficiency is not true

A. Night blindness occurs due to impaired dark adaptation; B. Bitot’s spot affects bulbar conjunctiva. C. Vit A deficiency cause follicular hyperkeratosis of the skin, D. Xerophthalmia usually begins with a drying of the conjunctiva; E. * Bitot’s spot affects palpebral conjunctiva

316. Which one of the following way of heat loss depends on temperature of subjects contacting with body?

A. Radiation, B. * Convection, C. Conduction, D. Perspiration. E. Perspiration and radiation

317. Which one of the following way of heat loss does prevail in the conditions of comfort microclimate?

A. Radiation; B. * Perspiration; C. Convection. D. Condaction. E. None of these.

318. Which one of the following way of heat loss is more effective in such microclimatic conditions: temperature of air 40 0С, to the temperature of surrounding objects 43 0С, to relative humidity 30 % and speeds of air motion is 0,5 m/sec?

A. Radiation; B. * Perspiration; C. Convection. D. Conduction. E. All of these.

319. Which one of the following way of heat loss is more effective in such microclimatic conditions: temperature of air 35 0С, to the temperature of surrounding objects 33 0С, to relative humidity 30 % and speeds of air motion is 0,5 m/sec?

A. Radiation; B. * Perspiration; C. Convection. D. Conduction.

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E. All of these.320. Thyreotoxicosis patient is in the two-place hospital ward of therapeutic department.

The area of the ward is 18m2, height is 3 m, ventilation rate is 2,5/h. Air temperature is 20° C, relative humidity is 45%, air movement velocity is 0,3 m/sec, light coefficient is 1/5, noise level constitutes 30 dB. Make a hygienic assessment of these conditions.

A. All conditions are OK B. Non-effective ventilation C. High level of noise D. * Discomfortable microclimate E. Poor lighting

321. In course of observation of sanitary conditions of studying at the technical university it was necessary to evaluate the visual regimen of students, who study from 9 a.m to 3 p.m. What index of natural light will be the most informative?

A. Time of the room insolation B. Light coefficient C. Depth of study room D. Presence of mixed (upper-lateral) light E. * Natural light coefficient

322. In order to study impact of microclimate upon the human organism it is necessary to make systematic observation of air temperature over 3 days. Choose a device that will allow to make the most precise temperature records:

A. * Thermograph B. Alcohol thermometer C. August's psychrometer D. Mercury thermometer E. Assmann psychrometer

323. Thyreotoxicosis patient is in the two-place hospital ward of therapeutic department. The area of the ward is 18m2, height is 3 m, ventilation rate is 2,5/h. Air temperature is 20°C, relative humidity is 45%, air movement velocity is 0,3 m/sec, light coefficient is 1/5, noise level constitutes 30 dB. Make a hygienic assessment of these conditions.

A. Poor lighting B. All conditions are OK C. High level of noise D. Non-effective ventilation E. * Discomfortable microclimate

324. The Transcarpathian region is characterized by constant high (over 80%) air moisture. Population of this region feels an intense cold in winter when the temperature is temperately low. What way of heat emission becomes more active?

A. Radiation B. * Convection C. Evaporation D. Conduction E. Irradiation

325. Patient with thyreotoxicosis is in the 2 beds hospital ward of therapeutic department. The area of the ward is 18 m2, height 3 m, ventilation rate 2,5/hr. Air temperature - 200С, relative humidity - 45%, air movement velocity - 0,3 m/s, light coefficient - 1/5, noise level - 30 db. Do hygienic evaluation of the conditions meet the standards?

A. Non-effective ventilation B. All conditions meet the requirements C. High level of noise D. Poor lighting E. * Discomfortable microclimate

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326. At the depth of 80 m repairing works were done. Because of the weather divers had to float quickly. After coming to the surface they complained diplopia, nystagmus, nausea, abdominal pain. What was the reason of those symptoms?

A. * Emboly with nitrogen B. Vessel thrombosis C. High pressure of the visceral organs D. Toxic influence of nitrogen E. Oxygen emboly

327. At the evaluation of temperature condition an apartment is set that on height of 10 cm from a floor a temperature of air was 170 C, on height of 1 - 190 C, on height of 1,5 - 200 C. What difference of temperatures for vertical lines is possible?

A. * 2,5 0 C B. 1,5 0 C C. 0,5 0 C D. 1 0 C E. 4 0 C

328. At the evaluation of temperature condition an apartment is set that on height of 10 cm from a floor a temperature of air was 170 C, on height of 1 - 190 C, on height of 1,5 - 200 C. What difference of temperatures for vertical lines is possible?

A. * 2,5 0 C B. 1,5 0 C C. 0,5 0 C D. 1 0 C E. 4 0 C

329. At the northern part of the city a chemical factory is placed. During the year you may observe next winds: northern 10%, eastern 20%, southern 50% and western 20%. Choose the best place for a hospital

A. Southwards from the factory B. Eastwards C. * Northwards D. Westwards E. Near the factory

330. Choose possible ways of heat irradiation of the body in case if temperature is 2°C, relative humidity is 98% and velocity of air is 1,8 m/s.

A. All ways are complicated B. Only convection is possible C. Only radiation is possible D. * Radiation and convection prevail E. Only perspiration is possible

331. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 33°C, relative humidity is 78% and velocity of air is 0,15 m/s.

A. Comfort B. Optimal C. Irritating D. * Intermitting E. Overheating

332. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 40°C, relative humidity is 80% and velocity of air is 0,1 m/s.

A. Comfort B. Optimal C. Hardening D. * Stimulating E. Overheating

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333. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 19°C, relative humidity is 42% and velocity of air is 0,12 m/s.

A. Calefacient B. Cooling C. Hardening D. Malevolent E. * Optimal

334. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 8°C, relative humidity is 80% and velocity of air is 10 m/s.

A. Comfort B. Calefacient C. Hardening D. * Cooling E. Stimulating

335. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 92% and velocity of air is 0,5 m/s.

A. * Cooling B. Calefacient C. Irritating D. Optimal E. Overheating

336. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 40°C, relative humidity is 98% and velocity of air is 1,5 m/s.

A. Optimal B. Overheating C. Stimulating D. * Calefacient E. Cooling

337. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 40°C, relative humidity is 98% and velocity of air is 0,01 m/s.

A. * Calefacient B. Cooling C. Stimulating D. Overheating E. Optimal

338. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 18°C, relative humidity is 40% and velocity of air is 0,1 m/s.

A. Calefacient B. Cooling C. * Optimal D. Malevolent E. Hardening

339. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 10°C, relative humidity is 88% and velocity of air is 1,5 m/s.

A. Comfort B. Calefacient C. * Cooling D. Stimulating E. Hardening

340. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 20°C, relative humidity is 45% and velocity of air is 0,15m/s.

A. Intermitting B. Calefacient C. Cooling

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D. * Optimal E. Irritating

341. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 32°C, relative humidity is 70% and velocity of air is 0,2 m/s.

A. Comfort B. Cooling C. * Calefacient D. Hardening E. Irritating

342. Choose the type of the microclimate: temperature is 37°C, relative humidity is 88% and velocity of air is 0,05 m/s.

A. Comfort B. * Calefacient C. Cooling D. Intermitting E. Irritating

343. Describe the type of microclimate if: temperature of air is 520С, relative humidity is 70 %, a rate of air movement is 0,2 m/s:

A. comfortable; B. unfavourable; C. Treatment. D. * overheating; E. cooling;

344. Describe the type of microclimate under the conditions: temperature of air is 37 0С, relative humidity is 88%, a rate of movement of air is 0,05 meter per second:

A. acute; B. * overheating; C. cooling; D. comfort; E. irritating.

345. Describe the type of microclimate, if temperature of air is 40С, relative humidity is 88 %, a rate of movement of air is 1,5 meter per second:

A. acute; B. overheating; C. * cooling; D. comfort; E. irritating.

346. Describe the type of microclimate, if temperature of air is 200С, relative humidity is 45 %, rate of movement of air is 0,15 meter per second:

A. acute; B. overheating; C. cooling; D. * comfort; E. irritating.

347. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 400С, relative humidity is 80 %, a rate of air movement is 0,1 m/s:

A. comfortable; B. unfavourable; C. * overheating; D. Treatment. E. cooling;

348. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 300С relative humidity is 98 %, a rate of air movement is 0,01 m/s:

A. comfortable;

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B. * overheating; C. unfavourable; D. Treatment. E. cooling;

349. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 40С, relative humidity is 78 %, rate of air movement is 2,5 m/s:

A. * cooling; B. comfortable; C. overheating; D. unfavourable; E. Treatment.

350. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 100С, relative humidity is 92 %, a rate of air movement is 5,0 m/s:

A. comfortable; B. overheating; C. unfavourable; D. Treatment. E. * cooling;

351. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 8 0С, relative humidity is 80 %, rate of air movement is 10 m/s.

A. comfortable; B. overheating; C. * cooling; D. unfavourable; E. Treatment.

352. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 190С, relative humidity is 42 %, rate of air movement is 0,12 m/s:

A. * comfortable; B. overheating; C. cooling; D. unfavourable; E. Treatment.

353. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 180С, relative humidity is 40 %, a rate of air movement is 0,1 m/sec:

A. overheating; B. cooling; C. * comfortable; D. unfavourable; E. Treatment.

354. Describe the type of microclimate, if: temperature of air is 450С, relative humidity is 78 %, rate of air movement is 0,15 m/s:

A. * overheating; B. comfortable; C. unfavourable; D. Treatment. E. cooling;

355. During the practical class student performed the evaluation of “humid”, “dry” thermometers and absolute humidity with the help of Assman psychrometer. To evaluate the relative humidity student should find in the table:

A. * Maximal humidity B. Atmospheric pressure C. Velocity of the air D. Temperature ingredient E. General humidity of the air

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356. During the studying of the temperature of the room it was found, that: in the middle of the room at the height of 10 cm t=17°, 1m t=19° and 1,5 m t= 20°.Which vertical temperature difference is allowable?

A. * 2,5°C B. 1,5°C C. 0,5°C D. 1°C E. 4°C

357. For measurement of the air velocity warmed katatermometer was placed at a height of 1,5 m during 5 minutes. What mistakes were done?

A. Wrong device for measurement B. Wrong time of measurement, it should last 10 minutes C. * Time from 38 °C to 35°C in should be taken, not just 5 minutes D. Cooling factor is not measured E. Katatermometer should be cold, not warmed

358. For measurement of the temperature thermometry was conducted next way: during 5 minutes at a height of 2,5 m in the middle of the room temperature was measured by a thermometer. What are the mistakes of such thermometry method?

A. Wrong device used: katatermometer should be chosen B. Measurement should be performed near the window C. The time of measurement is wrong D. * The height should be not 2,5 m, but 1,5 m over the floor E. Measurement should be performed near the doors

359. For measuring of air humidity catathermometer was moistened by the distilled water, led a ventilator, hung up at the level of a 1,5 m from a floor in a centre a room and in 10 minutes took indexes of dry and moist thermometer. What is wrong?

A. Wrong chosen a level from a floor; B. Research time is broken; C. * For measuring air humidity is needed psychrometer; D. For moistening of wet thermometer using the distilled water unright, needed isotonic

solution of NaCl; E. Measuring conduct out of employment ventilator.

360. For research of rate of air movement was placed a heated catathermometer at the level of a 1,5 m from a floor and in 5 minutes of cooling were taken off by results of researches. What is wrong?

A. a device is wrong chosen for research; B. Measuring time is not observed, 10 mines are needed; C. * It is necessary to define time of cooling of device from 38 0С to 350С in seconds,

but not 5 mines; D. a cooling factor is not measured; E. For research cooling catathermometer is needed, but not heated.

361. In one of the following temperature scales boiling point is 100 degree. A. * Celsius B. Fahrenheit; C. Kelvin; D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

362. In one of the following temperature scales boiling point is 212 degree. A. Celsius; B. Kelvin; C. * Fahrenhei D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

363. In one of the following temperature scales freezing point is - 273 degree.

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A. Celsius; B. Fahrenheit; C. * Kelvin D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

364. In one of the following temperature scales freezing point is 32 degree. A. Celsius; B. * Fahrenheit C. Kelvin; D. Reaumur; E. None of the above.

365. Kata thermometer is used for measuring A. Air temperature; B. Humidity; C. Atmospheric pressure; D. * Cooling power of air E. Air velocity.

366. On a depth 80 m repair works of corps of submarine were conducted. In connection with the worsening of weather terms were quickly heaved up divers on a surface. Divers complained on pain in the ears, accompanied with disturbance in hearing, excruciating pain in joints and muscles, vertigo, epigastric pain, changed sense of smell and taste and vomiting. That is reason of such state.

A. * Embolism by nitrogen B. Formation of blood clots is in vessels C. Pressure is promoted in internal organs D. Toxic action of nitrogen E. Embolism by oxygen

367. On a depth 80 m repair works of corps of submarine were conducted. In connection with the worsening of weather terms were quickly heaved up divers on a surface. Divers complained on pain in the ears, accompanied with disturbance in hearing, excruciating pain in joints and muscles, vertigo, epigastric pain, changed sense of smell and taste and vomiting. That is reason of such state.

A. * Embolism by nitrogen B. Formation of blood clots is in vessels C. Pressure is promoted in internal organs D. Toxic action of nitrogen E. Embolism by oxygen

368. On a depth 90 m repair works of corps of submarine were conducted. In connection with the worsening of weather workers were quickly heaved up on a surface. Divers complained on pain in the ears, accompanied with disturbance in hearing, excruciating pain in joints and muscles, vertigo, epigastric pain, changed sense of smell and taste and vomiting. That is reason of such state.

A. * increased absorption of oxygen by blood B. Formation of blood clots in vessels C. Pressure is promoted in internal organs D. Toxic action of nitrogen E. Embolism by oxygen

369. To explore the influence of microclimate on the organism’s functional conditions of children physiological indicators of tension in heat exchange were studied. Which indicator shows objectively tension of the heat exchange?

A. * Body temperature B. Pulse C. Breathing/ min D. Perspiration/min

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E. Speed of visual and auditory reaction

Test questions to figures

1 Which device is presented on the Fig. 27 ?A. Dosimeter-radiometer. *B. Luxmeter.C. Vibrometer.D. Radiometer.E. Hygrometer.

2 What dose of radiation measures the device represented on the Fig. 27? A. Equivalent dose of gamma radiation. *B. Exposure doses of radiation.C. Absorbed dose of radiation.D. The output radiation exposure dose.E. Power absorbed radiation dose.

3 What dose of radiation measures the device represented on the Fig. 27?A. Power equivalent dose of gamma radiation. *B. Integral doses of radiation.C. Power exposure doses of radiation.D. Power absorbed radiation dose.E. Exposure doses of radiation.

4 What dose of radiation measures the device represented on the Fig. 27?A. To assess surface contamination β-radionuclides.*B. Activity for nuclides in radioactive sources.C. Exposure doses of radiation.D. Power exposure doses of radiationE. Power absorbed radiation dose.

5 What the device represented on the Fig. 27 is used for in the household ?A. For radiation safety premises, buildings and structures, objects, etc. *B. To determine the effective dose.C. To determine the radiation exposure dose.D. For the determination of absorbed dose of radiation.E. To determine the integral dose of radiation.

6 What the device represented on the Fig. 27 is used for in the household ?A. To estimate the radioactive contamination of forest berries and mushrooms. *B. Determination of activity of the pollution source.C. To determine the radiation exposure dose.D. For the determination of absorbed dose of radiation.E. Power absorbed radiation dose.

7 Under what number on Fig. 28 α-particles are represented? A. 1 *

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B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 3-4

8 Under what number on Fig. 28 β-particles are represented? A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. 3-4

9 Under what number on Fig. 28 gamma-rays are represented? A. 1B. 2C. 3 *D. 4E. 3-4

10 Under what number on Fig. 28 a neutron flux is represented? A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 2-3E. 4 *

11 What radiation is represented by number 1 in Fig. 29?A. The flow of α-particles *B. The flow of electronsC. Gamma-rays D. X-ray radiationE. Neutron flux

12 What radiation is represented by number 2 in Fig. 29? A. The flow of mesonsB. The flow of β-particles *C. Gamma-rays D. X-ray radiationE. Neutron flux

13 What radiation is represented by number 3 in Fig. 29?A. Neutron flux B. The flow of β-particles C. β-positron emissionD. The flow of α-particles E. Gamma-rays *

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14 What is represented on Fig.30? A. Situation plan of hospital*B. General plan of hospitalC. Plan residential quarterD. Plan of kindergartenE. The plan of the school

15 What is represented on Fig.31?A. General plan of hospital*B. Situation plan of hospitalC. Plan of policlinicD. Plan residential quarterE. Landscaping plan hospital

16 Under what number the hospital policlinic is shown on Fig.31 ?A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. 5

17 Under what number the main hospital building is shown on Fig.31 ?A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 6E. 7

18 Under what number the maternity department is shown on Fig.31 ?A. 2B. 3 *C. 4D. 5E. 6

19 Under which number the infection department is shown on Fig.31 ?A. 2B. 3C. 4 *D. 5E. 6

20 What is represented on Fig.72? A. General plan of hospital*B. Situation plan of hospitalC. Plan of policlinicD. Plan residential quarterE. Landscaping plan hospital

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21 What hospital department is represented on Fig.33? A. Fragment of a typical plan of operating block *B. Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine DepartmentC. Typical ward section in Pediatric departmentD. Typical ward section of infectious departmentE. Typical ward section tuberculosis department.

22 What hospital department is represented on Fig.34? A. Fragment of a typical plan of the surgical departmentB. Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department*C. Typical ward section of infectious departmentD. Typical ward section in pediatric departmentE. Receiving wards

23 What hospital department is represented on Fig.35?A. Fragment of a typical plan of the surgical departmentB. Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine DepartmentC. Typical ward section of infectious departmentD. Typical ward section in pediatric department*E. Receiving wards

24 What hospital department is represented on Fig.36?A. Fragment of a typical plan of the surgical departmentB. Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine DepartmentC. Typical ward section of infectious department*D. Typical ward section in pediatric departmentE. Receiving wards

25 What hospital department is represented on Fig.37?A. Fragment of a typical plan of the radiological departmentB. Fragment of a typical plan of the Internal Medicine Department*C. Typical ward section of infectious departmentD. Typical ward section in pediatric departmentE. Receiving wards

26 What is represented on Fig.38?A. General plan *B. Situation planC. Plan of policlinicD. Plan residential quarterE. Landscaping plan hospital

27 What is represented on Fig. 39?A. Plan of isolator in infection hospital *B. Receiving wardsC. Plan of ward in radiology department D. Plan of ward in pediatric departmentE. Plan of ward in Internal Medicine Department

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28 Does the plan isolator (boxing) infectious hospital meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 39?

A. Improper placement of beds in the ward. In wards the longer part of the bed is situated in parallel to the wall with the window *B. Isolator plan meet sanitary requirementsC. Isolator plan does not meet sanitary requirementsD. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowE. North orientation isolator

29 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 40?A. Plan of hospital`s ward does not meet sanitary requirements *B. Plan of hospital`s ward meet sanitary requirements C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowD. Insufficient area of hospital`s ward E. Improper placement of beds in the ward

30 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 41?A. Plan of ward does not meet sanitary requirements *B. Plan of ward meet sanitary requirements C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowD. Improper placement of beds in the wardE. Insufficient area of ward

31 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 42?A. Improper placement of beds in the ward. In wards the longer part of the bed is situated in parallel to the wall with the window *B. Plan of ward meets sanitary requirements C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowD. Insufficient area of ward E. Soruth orientation window in ward

32 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 43?A. According to the sanitary-hygienic requirements there can`t be more than 4 beds in patient`s room *B. Plan of ward meets sanitary requirements C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowD. Improper placement of beds in the ward E. Insufficient area of ward

33 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 44?A. Plan of patient`s room for one bed meets sanitary requirements *B. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowC. Improper placement of beds in the wardD. Insufficient area of ward E. Plan of ward does not meet sanitary requirements

34 Does the plan of ward’s section meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 37?A. Plan of ward’s section does not meet sanitary requirements because there is a six-bed

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patient’s room *B. Plan of ward meets sanitary requirements C. Insufficient area of two-beds patient`s room D. Improper placement of beds in the wardE. Insufficient distance from the bed to the window

35 Does the plan of isolator in infection department meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 46?

A. Improper placement of beds in the isolator. In wards the longer part of the bed is situated in parallel to the wall with the window *B. Plan of isolator in infection department meet sanitary requirements C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowD. Soruth orientation window in isolatorE. Insufficient area of isolator

36 What is represented on Fig. 47?A. TornadoB. Movement of air massesC. Cyclone *D. AnticycloneE. "Eye” of the cyclone

37 What is represented on Fig. 48?A. Scheme of the atmospheric vortex*B. Scheme of the resistance movement of cycloneC. "Eye” of the cycloneD. Front cycloneE. Scheme impulse cyclone motion

38 Under what number Anticyclone is shown on Fig. 48?A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5

39 Under what number cyclone is shown on Fig. 48?A. 1B. 2C. 3 *D. 4E. 5

40 Under what number "Eye” of the cyclone is shown on Fig. 48?A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4

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E. 5

41 Under what number Front cyclone is shown on Fig. 48?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. 5

42 What is represented on Fig. 49? A. Weather Map*B. Map of seismic wavesC. Map of climate zonesD. Map of temperature changesE. Wind map

43 How many climate zones on the map of Ukraine are shown on the Fig.50?A. 4B. 2C. 3D. 5 *E. 6

44 What facilities for biological cleaning of waste water are shown on the Fig. 51? A. Biological ratesB. Aeration tank *C. Secondary treatmentD. MetantenkyE. Sludge drying bed

45 What is represented on Fig. 52?A. Scheme of formation of cyclones *B. Scheme of formation of anticycloneC. Plan of air massesD. Scheme of winds’ motion E. Scheme of Impulse of cyclone motion

46 What is represented on Fig. 53?A. Scheme of formation of cyclones B. Scheme of formation of anticyclone*C. Scheme of movement of air masses D. Scheme of winds’ motion E. Scheme of Impulse of cyclone motion

47 What is represented on Fig. 54?A. Cosmic, galactic vortexB. The movement of air masses C. cyclones

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D. anticyclone*E. "Eye” of the cyclone

48 What is represented on Fig. 55?A. Scheme of formation of cyclones *B. Scheme of formation of anticycloneC. Scheme of winds’ motion D. Scheme of movement of air masses E. "Eye” of the cyclone

49 What is represented on Fig. 56?A. Scheme of formation of cyclones B. Scheme of formation of anticyclone*C. Scheme of winds’ motion D. Scheme of movement of air masses E. "Eye” of the cyclone

50 What facilities for purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 57? A. Metatank for activation of sludgeB. Sludge drying bedC. Primary treatment *D. Sludge returnE. Pipe to remove sand from Grit chamber

51 What facilities for biological purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 58?A. Aeration tank *B. Secondary treatmentC. Sludge seltihg tankD. Sludge drying bedE. Sludge return

52 What facilities for mechanical purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 59? A. Thick grate *B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Sludge seltihg tankE. Sludge return

53 What facilities for biological purification of waste water are shown on the Fig. 60?A. Secondary treatment*B. Aeration tankC. GrateD. Air compressorE. Sludge return

54 Under which number the correct distribution of load on the foot is shown on Fig. 61?A. Under № 1 *B. Under № 2

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C. Both correct D. No correct answer E. Under № 1and № 2

55 What is shown undet number 1 on the Fig. 62? A. Grate *B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

56 What is shown undet number 2 on the Fig. 62? A. GrateB. Grit chamber *C. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

57 What is shown undet number 3 on the Fig. 62?A. Pipe to remove sand from Grit chamber *B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

58 What is shown undet number 4 on the Fig. 62?A. GrateB. The compressor station for air supply in aeration tank *C. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

59 What is shown undet number 5 on the Fig. 62?A. Sludge drying bed *B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

60 What is shown undet number 6 on the Fig. 62?A. Grate B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment *D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

61 What is shown undet number 7 on the Fig. 62?A. The process of water entering into aeration tank from primary treatment *

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B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

62 What is shown undet number 9 on the Fig. 62?A. Grate B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank *

63 What is shown undet number 10 on the Fig. 62?A. The process of water entering into Secondary treatment *B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

64 What is shown undet number 11 on the Fig. 62?A. Metatank for activation of sludge*B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

65 What is shown undet number 12 on the Fig. 62?A. GrateB. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatment*E. Aeration tank

66 What is shown undet number 13 on the Fig. 62?A. Chlorine contakt tank *B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

67 What is shown undet number 14 on the Fig. 62?A. Chlorinator*B. Grit chamberC. Primary treatment D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

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68 What is shown undet number 15 on the Fig. 62?A. GrateB. Grit chamberC. Discharge effluent to lake, stream* Спуск води у відкриту водойму D. Secondary treatmentE. Aeration tank

69 Under what number the grate is shown on the Fig. 62?A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5

70 Under what number the Grit chamber is shown on the Fig. 62?A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. 5

71 Under what number the pipe to remove sand from Grit chamber is shown on the Fig. 62 ?A. 1B. 3 *C. 6D. 7E. 5

72 Under which number the compressor station for air supply in aeration tank is shown on the Fig. 62 ?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. 5

73 Under what number the Sludge drying bed is shown on the Fig. 62 ?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5 *

74 Under what number the Primary treatment is shown on the Fig. 62 ?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

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E. 6 *

75 Under what number the process of water serving into aeration tank from primary treatment is shown on the Fig. 62?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 7 *

76 Under what number the Aeration tank is shown on the Fig. 62 ?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 6E. 9 *

77 Under what number the process of water serving into Secondary treatment is shown on the Fig. 62 ?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 7E. 10 *

78 Under what number the metatank for activation of sludge is shown on the Fig. 62? A. 1B. 2C. 6D. 4E. 11 *

79 Under what number the Secondary treatment is shown on the Fig. 62 ?A. 1B. 12 *C. 7D. 4E. 5

80 Under what number the Chlorine contakt tank is shown on the Fig. 62?A. 1B. 2C. 13 *D. 14E. 15

81 Under what number the chlorineator is showen in the fig 62?A. 1

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B. 2C. 3D. 14 *E. 15

82 Under what number the Discharge effluent to lake, stream is showen in the fig 62?A. 1B. 2C. 13D. 14E. 15 *

83 What material can protect a radio-active α-particles presented on Fig. 63? A. AluminiumB. Paper *C. IronD. Concrete blockE. Glass

84 What material from presented on Fig. 63 is not protecting a radio-active α-particles ? A. AluminiumB. Paper* C. IronD. Concrete blockE. Glass

85 What material is used for proection from γ- rays practice on Fig. 63?A. Aluminium B. PaperC. IronD. Concrete block*E. Glass

86 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 1?A. α-particles *B. β-particlesC. γ-rayD. X-rayE. UV-ray

87 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 2?A. α-particlesB. β-particles *C. γ-rayD. X-rayE. UV-ray

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88 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 3?A. α-particlesB. β-particlesC. γ-ray*D. X-rayE. UV-ray

89 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 4?A. α-particlesB. β-particlesC. γ-rayD. X-ray*E. UV-ray

90 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 28 under a number 1?A. α-particles *B. β-particlesC. γ-rayD. X-rayE. UV-ray*

91 What material,a screen is made up of under 1 which represented on Fig. 65? A. AluminiumB. Paper *C. IronD. Concrete blockE. Glass

92 What material,a screen is made up of under 4 which represented on Fig. 65? A. AluminiumB. PaperC. IronD. Concrete block *E. Glass

93 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 65 marked a number 1 if a screen is made from a paper?

A. α-particles*B. β-particlesC. γ-rayD. X-rayE. UV-ray

94 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 65 marked a number 2 if a screen is made from a paper?

A. α-particlesB. β-particles*C. γ-ray

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D. X-rayE. UV-ray

95 What kind of ionizing radiation on Fig. 65 marked a number 3 if a screen is made from a paper?

A. α-particlesB. β-particlesC. γ-ray *D. X-rayE. UV-ray

96 What does the marked number 7 on Fig. 46 indicates?A. Sanitary roomB. Washing roomC. Special room *D. SendE. Post of nursing

97 What does the marked number 8 on Fig. 46 indicates?A. Sanitary roomB. Washing roomC. Special room D. Send*E. Post of nursing

98 What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 1?A. Radio-activety KaliumB. Radio-activety PoloniumC. Radio-activety PhosphorusD. Radio-activety Iodide*E. Radio-activety Stroncium

99 What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 2?A. Radio-activety KaliumB. Radio-activety Polonium*C. Radio-activety PhosphorusD. Radio-activety IodideE. Radio-activety Stroncium

100 What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 5?A. Radio-activety Kalium*B. Radio-activety PoloniumC. Radio-activety PhosphorusD. Radio-activety IodideE. Radio-activety Stroncium

101 What radio-isotope accumulates in an organ represented on Fig. 66 under a number 4?A. Radio-activety Potassium

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B. Radio-activety PoloniumC. Radio-activety PhosphorusD. Radio-activety IodideE. Radio-activety Stroncium*

102 What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Kalium? A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5 *

103 What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Polonium? A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. 5

104 What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Phosphorus? A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. 5

105 What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Iodide?A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5

106 What number on Fig. 66 is most markly accumulated in organ for radio-active Stroncium? A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. 5

107 What number on Fig. 67 represents the principles of protecting for an external gamma-radiation?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 1,2,3 *E. 1,2

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108 Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 1 on Fig 71? A. Choleric*B. SanguineC. PhlegmaticD. MelancholicE. Not correct

109 Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 2 on Fig 71? A. CholericB. Sanguine *C. PhlegmaticD. MelancholicE. Not correct

110Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 3 on Fig 71? A. CholericB. SanguineC. Phlegmatic*D. MelancholicE. Not correct

111Which type of temperament describes the characteristic of number 4 on Fig 71? A. CholericB. SanguineC. PhlegmaticD. Melancholic *E. Not correct

112What number describes the choleric type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71? A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4E. Not correct

113What number describes the sanguine type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71? A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. Not correct

114What number describes the phlegmatic type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71? A. 1B. 2C. 3 *D. 4E. Not correct

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115What number describes the melancholic type of temperament that characteristic on Fig 71? A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. Not correct

116What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a number 1?

A. Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic *B. Pin, talkative, accessibleC. Passive, peaceful, serious, reliableD. Touchy, irritable, anxious, E. Not correct

117What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a number 2?

A. Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimisticB. Pin, talkative, accessible *C. Passive, peaceful, serious, reliableD. Touchy, irritable, anxious, E. Not correct

118What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a number 3?

A. Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimisticB. Pin, talkative, accessibleC. Passive, peaceful, serious, reliable*D. Touchy, irritable, anxious, E. Not correct

119What characteristic belongs to the temperament which represented on Fig. 73 under a number 4?

A. Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimisticB. Pin, talkative, accessibleC. Passive, peaceful, serious, reliableD. Touchy, irritable, anxious, *E. Not correct

120 What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the temperament: Unsteady, excitative, aggressive, impulsive, optimistic?

A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4E. Not correct

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121 What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the temperament: Pin, talkative, accessible?

A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. Not correct

122 What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the temperament : passive, peaceful, serious, reliable, ?

A. 1B. 2C. 3 *D. 4E. Not correct

123 What number on Fig. 73 shows the followings descriptions of characteristic for the temperament: Touchy, irritable, anxious?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. Not correct

124 What component part of projects is represented on Fig.72?A. Situetion plan B. General plan*C. Plan of the living partD. Plan of the kindergardenE. Plan of the school

125 What component part of projects of the hospital is represented on Fig.30?A. Plan of the living partB. Floor planC. Situetion plan *D. General planE. Explanatory nottate

126 What area to ward meets hygienical standards is represented on Fig. 39? A. 18 m2

B. 20 m2

C. 22 m2 *D. 10 m2

E. 21 m2

127 What minimum area for one bed, for adult is needed to represented on Fig. 44 in the therapeutic separation?

A. 6 m2

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B. 7 m2

C. 8 m2

D. 9 m2 *E. 10 m2

128 Does the plan of hospital`s ward meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 40?A. Plan of hospital`s ward does not meet sanitary requirements *B. Plan of hospital`s ward meet sanitary requirements C. Insufficient distance from the bed to the windowD. Insufficient area of hospital`s ward E. Improper placement of beds in the ward

129 Does the distance from the bed to the window meet the sanitary-hygienic requirements on Fig. 44?

A. YesB. No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,3m C. No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,4 m D. No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,5m E. No, distance from a bed to the window is 0,6m

130 What ward of hospitals in plan is represented on Fig. 39A. Theraputic departmentB. Sugery departmentC. Infection department*D. Pediatric departmentE. Neurology department

131 What number shows the properties which described the printed cotton on Fig. 75 ?A. 1 *B. 2 C. 3D. 4E. Not correct

132 What number shows the properties which described the printed linen on Fig. 75 ?A. 1 B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. Not correct

133 What number shows the properties which described the printed wool on Fig. 75?A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 *D. 4E. Not correct

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134 What number shows the properties which described the printed silk on Fig. 75 ?A. 1B. 2 C. 3D. 4 *E. Not correct

135 What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 1 descriptions on Fig. 75? A. cotton *B. linenC. woolD. silkE. Not correct

136 What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 2 descriptions on Fig. 75? A. cotton B. linen *C. woolD. silkE. Not correct

137 What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 3 descriptions on Fig. 75? A. cotton B. linenC. wool *D. silkE. Not correct

138 What type of fabrics is charisterized by number 4descriptions on Fig. 75? A. cotton B. linenC. woolD. silk *E. Not correct

139 Which ward shows hygenic norm for theraputic department on fig. 37?A. YesB. No,not correct the 2 bed ward and enough light on the walls near the bed. C. No, not enough space square for two beds.D. No, the ward should not have more than 4 beds.* E. No,absence of patient in theraputic department.

140 What number is the type of fabric from which it is expedient to make an bed sheet on Fig.75 ?

A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4

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E. Not correct

141 What number is the type of fabric from which it is expedient to make an outerwear on Fig.75 ?

A. 1B. 2C. 3 *D. 4E. Not correct

142 What number the type of fabric is represented wich it is not used to utillize for under clothes on Fig.75 ?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4 *E. Not correct

143 Under what number Kwashiorkor is shown on Fig. 76?A. 1 *B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5

144 Under what number Marasmus is shown on Fig. 76?A. 1B. 2 *C. 3D. 4E. 5

145 Under what number Goitre is shown on Fig. 76?A. 1B. 2C. 3 *D. 4E. 5

146 Under what number Caries is shown on Fig. 76?A. 1B. 2 C. 3D. 4 *E. 5

147 Under what number Rickets is shown on Fig. 76?A. 1

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B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5 *

148 Under wich number of illness is characterized by next symptoms: failure to gain weight, wasting of muscles and of subcutaneous fat on Fig. 76?

A. CariesB. Marasmus*C. RicketsD. GoitreE. Kwashiorkor

149 Under wich number of illness is characterized by next symptoms: pitting oedema, anemia, retarded growth, loss of appetite, diarrhea, scanty hair growth on Fig. 76?

A. CariesB. MarasmusC. RicketsD. GoitreE. Kwashiorkor *

150 Under what number xerophthalmia, shown on Fig. 76?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. Not correct *