Study Union Final Exam Review BSC 2010Review Time: 4/22/18 from 8:30-10:30 PM in Cape Florida SI Leader: Matthew J. Disclaimer: I have made this review to the best of my ability, however it is not an entirely comprehensive exam, and should not be used as a supplement. Not all information is guaranteed to be correct. Exam Tips:

- Make sure to get lots of rest, eat, and take time for yourself while studying for finals! It sounds so simple, but can make a huge difference when it comes to actually taking the test.

- Try to practice problems without looking at the answers right away. You will have a better chance of remembering information if you look it up in the book or in your notes rather than looking at the answer key directly.

Questions:1. The number of ______ differs in isotopes.

a. Neutronsb. Protonsc. Electrons

2. What is the mass number of an atom?a. Protons + electronsb. Electrons + neutronsc. Only protonsd. Protons + neutrons

3. What are the four essential elements of life?a. Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Heliumb. Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Carbon, and Fluorinec. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogend. Sodium, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, and Sulfur

4. Which of the following describes an atom that has lost an electron and is positively charged?

a. Anionb. Cationc. This does not describe an iond. This could be A or B

5. What kind of bond will form in the following molecules/compounds? (polar or nonpolar, covalent, ionic, hydrogen)

a. CO2 , nonpolar covalent

b. H2 , nonpolar covalentc. BaS, ionic

d. H2O, polar covalente. H2O bonded to NH3 , hydrogen bonding

6. What characteristics below are those of a hydrogen bond?a. Weakb. Extremely important to the specific properties of waterc. Temporaryd. Partially positive atom of one polar molecule covalently bonded to

electronegative atom of another polar molecule e. all of the above

7. A small sample of NaCl is added to water to create a new mixture. Which of the following is the solvent?

a. The NaCl sampleb. The waterc. The new mixture of NaCl and waterd. None of the above

8. Which of the following is most hydrophilic?a. CH3OHb. CH4

c. H2

d. Fats and Oils9. What does pH measure?

a. OH- concentrationb. The amount of energy in a solutionc. H+ concentrationd. H2O concentration

10. Which of the following is an acid?a. [H+] = 1 x 10-14

b. [H+] = 1 x 10-7

c. [H+] = 1 x 10-9

d. [H+] = 1 x 10-6

11. What differs among isomers of the same element?a. The number of protonsb. The number of neutronsc. The arrangement of the moleculesd. The molecular formula

12. What functional groups are present in the following molecule (you can select more than one if applicable)

a. Hydroxylb. Carbonylc. Carboxyld. Methyle. Phosphatef. Aminog. Sulfhydryl

13. Which of the following refers to the process in which a water molecule is added to separate monomers?

a. Dehydration Reactionb. Glycosidic Linkagec. Hydrolysisd. Peptide Bond

14. Which of the following does not have a specific polymer?a. Carbohydrateb. Lipidc. Proteind. Nucleic Acid

15. Which of the following represents a proper ratio for Carbohydrates?a. C4H8O4

b. C2H5O2

c. CHO2

d. CH2Oe. Both a and d

16. Which of the following is a type of polysaccharide that is extensively branched and made by animals?

a. Glucose

b. Starchc. Glycogend. Cellulosee. Chitin

17. What type of lipid is shown in the picture below?

a. Steroidb. Unsaturated fatc. Saturated fatd. Phospholipid

18. T or F. Some types of lipids will mix with water due to being hydrophilic.a. Trueb. False

19. Which of the following is not a component of an amino acid?a. Amino Groupb. R Groupc. Carboxyld. Hydrogen Atome. Carbonyl

20. Which of the following molecules orient themselves into sandwich like membranes because of hydrophobic components within the membrane?

a. Amyloseb. Glycogenc. Cellulosed. Phospholipide. Protein

21. Which type of structure shows the linear chain of amino acids joined together by covalent bonds?

a. Primary

b. Secondaryc. Tertiaryd. Quaternary

22. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?a. Adenineb. Thyminec. Cytosined. Uracil

23. If a DNA sample was composed of 40% Adenine, how much Guanine is present?a. 40%b. 60%c. 20%d. 10%

24. Deoxyribose and Ribose refers to the ______ in DNA and RNA.a. Hydrogen Bondsb. Phosphate Groupc. Pentose Sugard. Nitrogenous Base

25. If a DNA strand has a sequence 3’ AGT CGC ATC CGC 5’, what would be the polarity and sequence of the other DNA strand?

a. 3’ TCA GCG TAG GCG 5’b. 3’ GCG TAG GCG GGG 5’ c. 5’ TCA GCG TAG GCG 3’d. 3’ UCA GCG UAG GCG 5’

26. When comparing plant and animal cells, which of the following is not a unique characteristic to plants?

a. Cell Wallb. Central Vacuolec. Cytosold. Chloroplasts

27. Which of the following terms refers to the selective barrier that controls what can enter and leave a cell and contains cytoplasm?

a. Golgi Apparatusb. Endoplasmic Reticulumc. Intermediate Filamentsd. Plasma Membrane

28. Which type of ribosomes usually make proteins that are to be sent out of the cell?a. Freeb. Bound

c. Neitherd. Both

29. Which organ would you expect to have the most Smooth ER due to its detoxifying properties?

a. Heartb. Intestinesc. Liverd. Lungs

30. Which organelle contains enzymes that can digest organelles which no longer work (Autophagy)?

a. Vacuoleb. Vesiclec. Transport Proteind. Lysosomes

31. T or F. Mitochondria contain a single membrane, and are the site of cellular respiration.a. Trueb. False

32. Phagocytosis refers more specifically to what type of lysosome breakdown?a. Foodb. Organellesc. Enzymesd. All of the above

33. What role does O2 play in aerobic respiration?a. It plays no roleb. It combines with acetyl CoA at the start of the Krebs cyclec. It is given off as a byproduct during the oxidation of pyruvated. It combines with H2O to help drive the formation of ATPe. It is the final electron acceptor at the end of the Electron Transport Chain

34. What does it mean for the cell membrane to amphipathic?a. The membrane has a hydrophobic regionb. The membrane has a hydrophilic regionc. Both A and Bd. Neither A or B

35. Which of the following is a characteristic of an integral protein?a. Binds to the hydrophobic region of the cell membraneb. Can be Transmembranec. Will penetrate the nonpolar region of the cell membraned. All of the above

36. What is pinocytosis?

a. "Cell eating"b. Taking large amounts of stuff into a cell at one timec. "Cell drinking"d. Take small amounts of stuff into a cell at one time, usually liquide. A and Bf. C and D

37. Is the interior of the animal cell in the following picture hypertonic, hypotonic, or isotonic, and what will happen to the cell?

a. Hypertonic, lyseb. Hypertonic, shrivelc. Hypotonic, lysed. Hypotonic, shrivele. Isotonic

38. What is the purpose of electron carriers NADH and FADH2?a. To transport electrons out of the mitochondriab. To deliver electrons to the electron transport chainc. To create water by delivering electrons to oxygend. To neutralize charge by removing electrons from reactions

39. Which of the following is the substance that is produced by the oxidation of pyruvate, and is then fed into the citric acid cycle?

a. Pyruvateb. Glucosec. acetyl-CoAd. O2e. CO2

40. Photosynthesis takes place in the membranes of… a. Thylakoidsb. Granac. Photosystemsd. Photons

41. What type of phosphorylation is responsible for the majority of ATP production during cellular respiration?

a. Substrate Level Phosphorylationb. Oxidative Phosphorylationc. Chemiosmosisd. None of the above

42. Which of the following occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast?a. Light dependent reactionb. Electron Transport Chainc. Calvin Cycled. Glycolysis

43. Which of the following is not a product of the light dependent reaction?a. Oxygenb. ATPc. NADPHd. Sugar

44. If a new found animal has a haploid number of 60, what is its diploid number, and would the diploid number be the number of chromosomes found in gametes or somatic cells?

a. The diploid number would be n=120, and these are somatic cellsb. The diploid number would be 2n=120, and these are gametes cellsc. The diploid number would be n=30, and these are gametes cellsd. The diploid number would be 2n=120, and these are somatic cells

45. In a karyotype, how many pairs of autosomes does a human have?a. 22b. 23c. 45d. 46

46. During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?a. Prophaseb. Telophasec. Anaphased. Metaphase

47. Which choice below properly matches the stage of mitosis with its description?a. Telophase: Formation of two nuclei

b. Metaphase: The cell elongates and cohesion proteins begin to denaturec. Prophase: Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plated. Anaphase: Chromatin condenses and microtubules form

48. T or F. Gametes are diploid cells such as egg and sperm, and there is only one pair of each chromosome.

a. Trueb. False

49. Which of the following is the complex of proteins at which the mitotic spindle will attach to the chromosomes, one microtubule from each side?

a. Centrosomeb. Centromerec. Cohesiond. Kinetechore

50. The mature form of a newly discovered species of eukaryote contains 12 chromosomes and exists in the diploid state (2n=12). In this new species, how many chromosomes are present in a mitotic cell immediately after anaphase?

a. 12b. 6c. 24d. 18

51. During which of the following mitotic phases will a cell be haploid?a. Prophaseb. Anaphasec. Metaphased. Telophasee. None of the above

52. T or F. The mitotic phase is where the cell spends most of its time during cell division.a. Trueb. False

53. When referring to the paternal and maternal versions of chromosome 3, we can call them _____ in relation to each other.

a. Sister Chromatidsb. Homologousc. Exactly identicald. None of the above

54. A scientist is interested in studying the event of crossing over (recombination) in mouse gametes. She wants to label some of the mice with fluorescent dyes to better visualize it. During what phase of the cell cycle should she look at these fluorescent DNA strands to most effectively study recombination?

a. Anaphase 2b. Telophase 1c. Prophase 1d. Metaphase 2e. Anaphase 1

55. Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is correct?a. Mitosis only occurs in prokaryotes, including all bacteria, while meiosis occurs in

higher life forms.b. Mitosis results in higher genetic variability than meiosisc. Both A and B are correctd. In the human body, mitosis occurs in somatic cells whereas meiosis occurs in

sex cells.56. Which of the following is true of both meiosis 1 and meiosis 2?

a. Both produce haploid cells.b. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase of meiosis 1, but not in meiosis 2.c. The G2 phase precedes both.d. Both include crossing over.e. Both produce haploid cells.

57. A cell has 40 chromosomes during G1 phase. How many sister chromatids does that cell have during prophase 1 of meiosis?

a. 10b. 20c. 30d. 40e. 80

58. A human cell has 46 total or 23 pairs of chromosomes. Following mitosis, the daughter cells would each have a total of ____ chromosomes. After meiosis I, the two daughter cells would have ____ chromosomes, and after meiosis II, the four daughter cells would each have ____ chromosomes.

a. 46, 46, 46b. 46, 23, 23c. 23, 23, 23d. 46, 12, 23

59. Which of the following is a source of genetic variation in meiosis?a. Crossing Overb. Independent Assortment c. Random Fertilizationd. All of the above

60. Which of the following explains why XXX females usually go undiagnosed?

a. The life expectancy is very low, so there usually is not enough time to recognize and treat the disorder

b. All but one X chromosome can be inactivatedc. We do not currently have the technology to know for sure if a female has an

additional X chromosome or notd. It is the Y chromosome that creates observable defect, not the X chromosomee. All of the above

61. In Mendel’s F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to recessive ratio was

a. 1:3:3:1b. 3:1c. 1:1d. 9:3:3:1

62. Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the phenotype of a heterozygous individual would be expressed as…

a. sSb. ssc. SSd. Sse. Tall

63. In the cross MMnn x mmNN, what proportion of the resulting F1 would be homozygous dominant for both genes?

a. noneb. 1/16c. 3/16d. 9/16

64. Which of the following describes multiple genes affecting one trait?a. Polygenic Traitb. Pleitropyc. Epistasis d. X inactivation

65. Black hair for horses (B) is dominant over brown (b). However, when a homozygous dominant haired female is crossed with a homozygous dominant male, a few offspring show a whitish/ tan color due to a third gene that is present. What could be the explanation?

a. Epistasis b. Incomplete Dominancec. Codominanced. Complete Dominance

66. Marfan Syndrome, a dominant single-gene defect, is characterized by lens dislocation, long limbs, spindly fingers, a caved-in chest, and a weakened aorta. This is an example of

a (an) ____ trait.a. Multifactoralb. Pleitropicc. Epistaticd. Polygenic

67. A homozygous red and homozygous white flower are crossed, and the offspring are all pink. What is this an example of?

a. Incomplete Dominanceb. Complete Dominancec. Codominanced. X linked

68. What is the purpose of topoisomerase during DNA replication?a. Hold the DNA polymerases in place during replicationb. Bring new nucleotides to the replication forkc. Cut the phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork to prevent the

DNA from getting overwoundd. Identify unwanted isomers of nucleotides

69. Which of the following refers to the correct model of DNA replication, where a newly synthesized strand of DNA is half the parent strand and half newly synthesized?

a. Semiconservativeb. Dispersivec. Conservatived. Random

70. T or F. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5’ end of the DNA strand.a. Trueb. False

71. T or F. The two sides of the double helix structure of DNA are held together with weak hydrogen bonds.

a. Trueb. False

72. DNA is the genetic material of all living organisms. Which of the following describes a difference between prokaryotic DNA and eukaryotic DNA?

a. Eukaryotic DNA is antiparallel while prokaryotic is notb. Prokaryotic DNA uses uracil while eukaryotic DNA uses thyminec. Prokaryotic DNA is haploid while eukaryotic DNA is diploidd. Prokaryotic DNA is circular while eukaryotic DNA is linear

73. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase have similar functions. Which statement is an incorrect description of these enzymes?

a. Both enzymes require a primer.b. DNA polymerase is used in replication while RNA polymerase is used in

transcriptionc. Both enzymes add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a chaind. The binding of RNA polymerase is preceded by the binding of transcription

factors 74. The codon chart shows that there is redundancy but not ambiguity in the genetic code.

How can this statement be explained?

a. One codon can code for several amino acids.b. Any mistakes are corrected during the proofreading process.c. Individual amino acids can have more than one codon, but each codon only

translates one amino acidd. The same 20 amino acids are used repeatedly. but in different combinations, to

create different proteins, accounting for the necessary genetic diversity of life75. Which enzyme is essential for transcription and has functions such as unwinding the

double helix and synthesizing mRNA?a. DNA polymeraseb. RNA polymerasec. Primased. Transcription Factor

76. In Eukaryotes we make pre-mRNA that must be edited before being released into the cytoplasm. How is the pre-mRNA prepared?

a. A polyadenylation (AAUAAA) tail is added to one endb. Splicing occurs and introns are removed from the mRNA strand, leaving exons

behindc. A 5’ end cap is added d. All of the above

77. At which site of the large ribosomal subunit does the first tRNA bind?a. A siteb. P sitec. E site

78. In a species of lab mice, there is a gene with 2 alleles that determines fur color with the black (B) allele dominant over the brown (b) allele. There is another gene with 2 alleles that determines if the mouse is bald or not bald with the not bald (E) allele dominant over the bald (e) allele. This second gene is recessively epistatic over the fur color gene. If you breed a black mouse that is homozygous black for the fur color gene but heterozygous for the epistatic gene with a brown mouse who is also heterozygous for the epistatic gene, what is the expected phenotypes in the offspring? Assume independent assortment of the 2 genes.

79. If you crossed a parent who was heterozygote for both gene A and B with a parent who was homozygous recessive for both gene A and B, what is the chance their offspring will be homozygous recessive for both genes?

80. A mom with blood type O has children with a man with Type AB blood. What are the possible blood types of their children?

a. Mom is ii and man is IAIB

b. Possible blood types would be IAi, or IBi

81. The following pedigree shows a recessively inherited disease with the filled in shapes indicating individuals who have the disease. What are the genotypes of the different family members?

1 is A_

2 is A_

3 is A_

4 is aa

5 is Aa

6 is Aa

7 is A_

8 is aa

82. In eggplants, there are true breeding deep purple eggplants (CPCP) and true breeding white egg plants (CWCW). If you breed a purple and white eggplant, you get all lavender (pale purple) eggplants (CPCW). If you breed these lavender eggplants with each other, what is the expected colors and ratios of the offspring?