Vfr-Ifr Comm Questions

O91 – VFR COMMUNICATIONS

091-01 DEFINITIONS

091-01-01 Meanings and significance of associated terms

3201. What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts?

A – DME voice channelB – Voice channel of an ILSC – NDB frequenciesD – Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR

Ref: AIR:atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

3222. What does the term BLIND TRANSMISSION mean?

A – A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving stationB – A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not

addressed to a specific station or stationsC – A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information

which may affect the safely of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations

D – A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

091-01-02 Air Traffic Services abbreviations

3208. Which abbreviation is used for the term CONTROL ZONE?

A – CTAB – CZC – CTZD – CTR

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl, HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

3209. What does the abbreviation FIR mean?

A – Flight information requiredB – Flight information regionC – Flow information receivedD – Flight information radar

Ref: AIR: apl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

3215. What does the abbreviation HJ mean?

A – No specific working hoursB – Sunset to sunriseC – Sunrise to sunsetD – Continuous day and night service


Ans: C

3218. What does the abbreviation HX mean?

A – Continuous day and night serviceB – Sunrise to sunsetC – Sunset to sunriseD – No specific working hours


Ans: D

3224. Which abbreviation is used for Co-ordinated universal time?

A – UTCB – CUTC – GMTD – COUT


Ans: A

3236. What does the abbreviation AFIS mean?

A – Aerodrome flashing identification signalB – Automatic flight information serviceC – Aeronautical flight information systemD – Aerodrome flight information service


Ans: D

24700. The three main categories of aeronautical communications service are:

A – IFR, VFR, SVFRB – Air Ground, Flight Information Service, ATCC – Ground, Approach, TowerD – Ground/Tower, Approach/Departure, Area Radar

Ref: Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

091-01-03 Q-code groups commonly used in RTF air-ground communications

3207. What does QTE mean?

A – Magnetic heading to the stationB – Magnetic bearing from the stationC – True heading to the station (no wind)D – True bearing from the station

Ref: Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

3211. What is the Q-code for MAGNETIC HEADING TO THE STATION (NO WIND)?

A – QDMB – QDRC – QNED – QTE


Ans: A

3212. What does QDM mean?

A – True bearing from the stationB – Magnetic bearing from the stationC – True heading to the station (no wind)D – Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)


Ans: D

3213. QNH is the Q-code to indicate?

A – The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP)

B – The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)C – The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the groundD – The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the

surface of an aerodrome


Ans: C

3216. If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer?

A – QBIB – QNHC – QDMD – QFE


Ans: D

3223. What is the Q-code for magnetic bearing from the station?

A – QTEB – QDRC – QDMD – QFE


Ans: B

3232. Which Q-code is used to report altitude?

A – QNHB – AFEC – QFFD – QNJ


Ans: A

3233. What is the Q-code for TRUE BEARING FROM THE STATION?

A – QFEB – QDRC – QDMD – QTE


Ans: D

3234. What does QDR mean?

A – True heading to the stationB – Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)C – True bearing from the stationD – Magnetic bearing from the station


Ans: D

24583. An aircraft is requested to fly at 2500 feet on the airfield QFE. All references to vertical position should now be referred to as:

A – HeightB – AltitudeC – Pressure AltitudeD – Flight Level


Ans: A

24600. If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: “your true bearing is 256o

class alpha.” This means:

A – QTE accurate to ±5o

B – QUJ accurate to ±3o

C – QDR accurate to ±2o

D – QTE accurate to ±2o


Ans: D

24602. You obtain a clearance to descend to an ALTITUDE of 2500 feet, in the UK the clearance should also include the following pressure setting or settings:

A – QFE B – QNEC – QFE or QNHD – QNH


Ans: D

24604. A VDF Bearing or heading may be passed using the appropriate phrase or “Q” code. The code QDR means:

A - the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground stationB – the magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the ground stationC – the magnetic heading to steered by the aircraft to reach the VDF stationD – the aircraft is instructed to turn onto the specified heading unless it is

unable to comply in which case ATC must be immediately advised


Ans: B

091-01-04 Categories of messages

3204. Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc) belong to the category of:

A – Flight safety messagesB – Flight regularity messagesC – Service messagesD – Class B messages


Ans: A

3210. Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?

A – Meteorological messagesB – Radio teletype messagesC – Flight safety messagesD – Urgency messages


Ans: B

3214. The message to an aeronautical ground station PLEASE CALL A TAXI-CAB FOR US. WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045 IS:

A – An unauthorized messageB – A flight regularity messageC – A flight safety messageD – An urgency message


Ans: A

3217. The priority of the instruction TAXI TO RUNWAY 05 is:

A – Same as LINE-UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAITB – Greater than TRANSMIT FOR QDMC – Greater than CAUTION, CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF

TAXIWAYD – Less than CLEARED TO LAND


Ans: A

3230. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:

A – Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological messageB – Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety messageC – Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity messageD – Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message


Ans: C

3231. Flight safety messages are:

A – Operation messages concerning non-routine landingsB – Air traffic control messagesC – Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a personD – Messages relating to direction finding


Ans: B

3235. A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called:

A – Flight safety messageB – Distress messageC – Urgency messageD – Class B message


Ans: B

3238. The message addressed to an Area Control Center REQEUST RADAR VECTORS TO CIRCUMNAVIGATE ADVERSE WEATHER is:

A – A meteorological messageB – A flight safety messageC – An urgency messageD – A message relating to direction finding


Ans: B

3239. The clearance: CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKE-OFF RUNWAY 03 is:

A – A flight safety messageB – An urgency messageC – An unauthorized messageD – A flight regularity message


Ans: A

3240. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:

A – Distress message, urgency message, direction finding messageB – Direction finding message, distress message, urgency messageC – Distress message, flight safety message, urgency messageD – Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity Message


Ans: A

3247. A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:

A – A flight security messageB – An urgency messageC – A flight safety messageD – A flight regularity message


Ans: D

24577. Aeronautical messages are given an order of priority. Which of the following statements reflects the correct order of priority?

A – Meteorological messages take precedence over Direction Finding messages

B – Flight Safety messages will be handled before Urgency messagesC – Messages relating to Direction Finding take precedence over Flight Regularity messagesD – Flight Safety messages take precedence over Direction Finding messages


Ans: C

24584. You receive the following ATC message:

“G-ABCD after departure cleared to zone boundary via route Charlie. Climbto altitude 2000 feet QNH1010, squawk 6318”

This message is:

A – a clearance to take-off and depart to the zone boundary via route Charlie At 2000 feetB – a clearance to line-upC – a Flight Safety messageD – a Flight Regularity message


Ans: C

091-02 GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES

091-02-01 Transmission of letters

(No questions in this sub-chapter)

091-02-02 Transmission of numbers (including level information)

3504. What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 KHz):

A – One two zero decimal three sevenB – One twenty decimal three sevenC – One two zero three sevenD – One two zero three seven


Ans: A

3507. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or a height?

A – three five double zeroB – three five zero zeroC – three five hundredD – three thousand five hundred


Ans: D

3529. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:

A – The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding ExistsB – The terms DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units onlyC – The term DECIMAL must always be transmittedD – The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits


Ans: C

3530. What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH?

A – QNH one double 0 oneB – QNH one zero zero oneC – QNH one thousand and oneD – QNH one double zero one


Ans: B

3579. An aircraft is flying north-east at 2’.500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response:

A – 045 and 2.500B – Heading north-east at level 25C – Heading 45 at 2.500 feetD – Heading 045 at 2.500 feet


Ans: D

24566. An altitude of 2600 feet is transmitted as:

A – two thousand six hundred feetB – two six hundred feetC – two six thousand feetD – two six zero zero feet


Ans: A

091-02-03 Transmission of time

3510. When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?

A – Local time (LT), 24-hour clockB – Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)C – Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.D – No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required


Ans: B

3524. The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour?

A – Two zeroB – TwentyC – Two zero this hourD – Nine twenty A.M.


Ans: A

3562. The time is 4:15 PM. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?

A – One six one fiveB – Four fifteen PMC – Sixteen fifteenD – Four fifteen in the afternoon


Ans: A

24565. A time of “11.20” hours is transmitted as:

A – ‘one one two zero’ or ‘two zero’B – eleven twenty hoursC – eleven twentyD – twenty past eleven


Ans: A

24596. The time of 1400 UTC is transmitted as:

A – one thousand four hundredB – one four zero zeroC – fourteen hundred UTCD – one four zero zero uniform tango Charlie


Ans: B

091-02-04 Transmission Technique

2606. When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted?

A – In dense traffic during rush hoursB – NeverC – Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call signD – When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do so.


Ans: D

3171. In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made:

A – Only once on the designated frequencyB – Twice on the designated frequencyC – On the emergency frequency onlyD – During VFR flights only


Ans: B

3183. A message preceded by the phrase TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE shall be transmitted:

A – On the regional guard frequencyB – On the frequency presently in useC – On the international emergency frequencyD – On all available aeronautical stations


Ans: B

3184. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE during an en-route flight, the Aircraft station shall also:

A – Land at the nearest airfield/airportB – Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landingC – Advise the time of its next intended transmissionD – Return to the airport of departure


Ans: C

3526. How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call?

A – TOWER XY-ABCB – Stephenville TOWER X-BCC – Stephenville XY-ABCD – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC


Ans: D

3527. Before transmitting the pilot should…..

A – make sure that the aircraft is levelled offB – listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occurC – always write the message and read it during the transmissionD – make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time


Ans: B

3528. My message will be more effective and understandable if I:

A – maintain the speaking volume at a constant levelB – use the words twice methodC – stress the end of messageD – stress every beginning of message


Ans: A

3534. RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC SQUAWK IDENT. What does this mean:

A – X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and codeB – Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABCC – X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degreesD – X-BC shall operate the IDENT button


Ans: D

3552. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION (or message indicated). THE CORRECT VERSION IS:

A – QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016B – QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016C – QNH 1017, negative 1016D – QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016


Ans: B

3559. What is meant by good microphone technique?

A – Keep the microphone far away since it improves the readabilityB – Speak very loudly into the microphoneC – Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctlyD – Make large use of hesitation sounds as ER


Ans: C

091-02-05 Standard words and phrases (relevant RTF phraseology included)

2608. What does the phrase READ BACK mean:

A – Did you correctly receive the message?B – Let me know that you have received and understood this messageC – Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as receivedD – Check and confirm with originator


Ans: C

2614. What does the phrase Roger mean:

A – A direct answer in the affirmativeB – I have received all of your last transmissionC – A direct answer in the negativeD – Cleared for take-off or cleared to land


Ans: B

2623. What does the phrase GO AHEAD mean:

A – Taxi onB – Proceed with your messageC – Pass me the following information…D – Yes


Ans: B

3458. If a controller would like to say to you PASS ME THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION, he would use the expression:

A – READBACKB – REPORTC – SAY AGAIND – REQUEST


Ans: B

3492. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say Yes:

A – RogerB – YesC – AffirmD – Affirmative


Ans: C

3493. RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC SQUAWK STANBY. What does this mean?

A – X-BC is requested to standby on the frequencyB – X-BC is requested to switch to standby positionC – X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectorsD – X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy


Ans: B

3496. What does the instruction VACATE LEFT mean?

A – Turn left to leave the runwayB – Give way to aircraft from the leftC – Clear the runway immediatelyD – Hold position on the left side of the runway


Ans: A

3498. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: I SHOULD LIKE TO KNOW ___ or I WISH TO OBTAIN ___?

A – ConfirmB – ReportC – AcknowledgeD – Request


Ans: D

3503. How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder:

A – No SSRB – Negative transponderC – Transponder not availableD – Negative squawk


Ans: B

3513. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say “PASS ME THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION___”:

A – Say againB – RequestC – ReportD – Check


Ans: C

3518. Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:

A – What was your message?B – Repeat your messageC – Say againD – Repeat your last transmission


Ans: C

3521. What does the instruction GO AROUND mean?

A – Overtake the aircraft aheadB – Carry out a missed approachC – Make a 360o turnD – Proceed with your message


Ans: B

3522. RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: X-BC IDENTIFIED. What does this mean?

A – Radar identification has been achievedB – X-BC is not visible on the radar screenC – X-BC should perform an identification turnD – X-BC should operate the IDENT-button


Ans: A

3523. Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use?

A – Request backtrack on runwayB – Clearance to backtrackC – To enter back runwayD – Backtrack clearance


Ans: A

3542. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off:

A – Ready to goB – Ready for take-offC – Ready to line-upD – Ready for departure or ready


Ans: D

3545. RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC RECYCLE 1015. What does this mean?

A – X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)B – X-BC is requested to set new code 1015C – X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015D – X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015


Ans: D

3547. Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach:

A – Pulling upB – OvershootingC – Will make another approachD – Going around


Ans: D

3549. What does the instruction ORBIT RIGHT mean?

A – Make 360o turns to the rightB – Turn right to avoid other trafficC – Right-hand circuits are in useD – Leave the runway to the right


Ans: A

3550. Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: WAIT AND I WILL CALL YOU?

A – RogerB – Go aheadC – StandbyD – Wilco


Ans: C

3570. Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:

A – That is rightB – CorrectC – AffirmD – That is affirmative


Ans: B

3571. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase STANDBY?

A – Wait and I will call youB – Continue on present heading and listen outC – Select STANDBY on the SSR transponderD – Permission granted for action proposed


Ans: A

3577. What does the phrase SQUAWK 1234 mean:

A – Give a short count for DF (direction finder)B – Select code 1234 on the SSR transponderC – Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHzD – Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz


Ans: B

3582. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: I UNDERSTAND YOUR MESSAGE AND WILL COMPLY WITH IT:

A – Will comply with your instructionB – RogerC – WilcoD – OK, will do it


Ans: C

24562. An aircraft wishes to obtain a bearing from a VDF station that will be plottedon the chart relative to True North. The correct RT call is:

A – G-BNKD request QDM, G-BNKDB – true bearing, true bearing G-BNKD request true bearing, G-BNKDC – G-BNKD request QGH, G-BNKDD – G-BNKD training fix, training fix, training fix, G-BNKD


Ans: B

24568. Which of the following sequences shows the correct elements of a position report in the correct order?

(i) callsign(ii) reported position(iii) heading (oM)(iv) level of altitude(v) next position(vi) ETA of the next position(vii) aircraft type(viii) time of reported position

A – (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)B – (i) (vii) (ii) (vi) (iv)C – (i) (ii) (viii) (iv) (v) (vi)D – (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (vi)


Ans: C

24570. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, thereply should use the phrase:

A – CANCEL INSTRUCTIONB – UNABLE COMPLYC – NEGATIVE INSTRUCTIOND – REGRET CANNOT FOLLOW INSTRUCTION


Ans: B

24591. You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call “Long Final”?

A – 2 nmB – 4 nmC – between 8 and 4 nmD – 3 nm


Ans: C

091-02-06 Radiotelephony call signs for aeronautical stations

3532. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:

A – GROUNDB – APPROACHC – TOWERD – CONTROL


Ans: A

3546. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service:

A – APRONB – CONTROLC – AERODROMED – TOWER


Ans: D

3575. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service:

A – FLIGHT CENTREB – FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTREC – INFORMATIOND – CONTROL


Ans: C

24582. An aerodrome located at HEADCORN notified as having an Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) will identify itself to aircraft using the call-sign:

A – HEADCORN INFORMATIONB – HEADCORN RADIOC – HEADCORN TOWERD – HEADCORN AFIS


Ans: A

091-02-07 Radiotelephony call signs for aircraft

2616. When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign?

A – In dense trafficB – Only after satisfactory communication has been establishedC – Provided no confusion is likely to resultD – After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station


Ans: D

3499. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?

A – Hotel Bravo India Yankee CharlieB – Hotel Bravo Juliett India KiloC – Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee CharlieD – Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie


Ans: C

3509. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:

A – Cherokee X-BCB – Cherokee XY-BCC – Cherokee BCD – Cherokee X-ABC


Ans: C

3551. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:

A – XY-BCB – X-BCC – ABCD – BC


Ans: B

24573. For aircraft call-sign EASY GABCD the correct abbreviation is:

A – EASY Charlie DeltaB – Golf Charlie DeltaC – EASY Golf Charlie DeltaD – EASY Delta


Ans: A

24594. The pilot of an aircraft may abbreviate the aircraft radio call-sign only:

A – when there is no likelihood of confusion with another aircraftB – if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station and there is no likelihood of confusionC – on second and subsequent calls to an aeronautical ground stationD – when the call-sign has been specifically approved by ICAO


Ans: B

091-02-08 Transfer of communication

2602. Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100:

A – About 120 NMB – About 300 NMC – About 30 NMD – About 12 NM


Ans: A

3494. Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:

A – Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground stationB – Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground stationC – Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio

shadow zone of a hillD – Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio

Shadow zone of a hill


Ans: B

3497. Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission?

A – Level of aircraft and terrain elevationsB – The ionosphereC – Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstormsD – Day and night effect


Ans: A

3506. Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band:

A – 75 KHzB – 50 KHzC – 25 KHzD – 250 KHz


Ans: C

3555. Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50:

A – About 8 NMB – About 85 NMC – About 15 NM

D – About 150 NM


Ans: B

3560. To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 – 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?

A – Medium frequencyB – Very low frequencyC – Low frequencyD – Very high frequency


Ans: D

3566. What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:

A – The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into Valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influenceB – The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-wavesC – Practically straight-line similar to light wavesD – Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance


Ans: C

3568. Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?

A – 108.000 – 117.975 MHzB – 118.000 – 136.975 MHzC – 1810 – 2850 KHzD – 11650 – 13200 KHz


Ans: B

091-02-09 Test procedures including readability scale

3554. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean?

A – Readable but with difficultyB – ReadableC – Perfectly readableD – Unreadable


Ans: D

3556. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 2 mean:

A – Readable but with difficultyB – No problem to understandC – Loud and clearD – Unreadable


Ans: A

3581. Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:

A – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal checkB – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC pre-flight checkC – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7D – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check


Ans: C

3583. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 5 mean:

A – Perfectly readableB – UnreadableC – Problem to understandD – Readable but with difficulty


Ans: A

24563. “Readability 5” means:

A – readable now and thenB – perfectly readableC – unreadableD – readable with difficulty


Ans: B

091-02-10 Read back and acknowledgement requirements

2619. Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction?

A – Stephenville TOWER X-BCB – Will change to TOWER X-BCC- Changing over X-BCD – 118.7 X-BC


Ans: D

2621. Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?

A – Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed instructionsB – Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter

settingsC – Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions,

heading and speed instructionsD – Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR

codes


Ans: C

3515. Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: X-BC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD UNTIL 2500 FEET BEFORE TURNING RIGHT, WIND 270 DEGREES 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF. What is the correct read back:

A – Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take- off, X-BCB – Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BCC – Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BCD – Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC


Ans: D

3531. An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction?

A – WilcoB – Holding shortC – Will stop beforeD – Roger


Ans: B

3537. Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:

A – No, if the communication channel is overloadedB – No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (eg. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID)C – Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concernedD – No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is Likely to arise


Ans: C

3557. Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25 on which information is being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction?

A – Checking 123.25 X-BCB – Changing to 123.25 X-BCC – Will contact 123.25 X-BCD – Monitoring 123.25 X-BC


Ans: D

24567. A pilot is required to read back the following ATC messages:

A – altimeter settings, weather information, airways clearances, information regarding the proximity of other aircraft and taxi instructions

B – altimeter settings, weather information, information regarding the proximity of other aircraft and taxi instructions

C – altimeter settings, airways clearances, SSR operating instructions, level Instructions and any message when requested by ATCD – altimeter settings, taxi instructions, take-off clearances, weather

Information and any other information given by ATC


Ans: C

24587. When asked by ATC “are you able to maintain FL 80” the correct reply contains the word:

A – ROGERB – WILCOC – AFFIRM or NEGATIVED – CLEARED


Ans: C

091-02-11 Radar procedural phraseology

24569. What does “SQUAWK IDENT” mean?

A – select the SSR transponder code to 7000B – select the SSR transponder model to “AL T”C – operate the SSR transponder “special position identification” featureD – state the aircraft callsign three times


Ans: C

24586. A Radar Information Service (RIS) provides:

A – radar separation from all other trafficB – information for IFR traffic onlyC – the bearing, distance and if known, the altitude of conflicting trafficD – traffic information and avoiding action


Ans: C

24588. With the SSR transponder selected ON and “ALT” (Mode C) selected, anATSU requests: “G-ABCD, Verify your level,” this is to:

A – identify the aircraft positionB – check your altimeter settingC – calibrate the radar equipmentD – verify the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the

controller


Ans: D

091-03 RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION TERMS

091-03-01 Aerodrome weather

3192. Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOL-MET?

A – Runway reportsB – SPECI and TAFC – SIGMETD – Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports


Ans: D

3202. How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language:

A – In nautical miles onlyB – Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometresC – In feet and nautical milesD – Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres


Ans: D

3203. How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:

A – SIGMETB – ATISC – AFISD – VOLMET


Ans: D

091-03-02 Weather broadcast

3186. When the term Broken is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

A – 5 to 7 octasB – 1 to 4 octasC – 8 octas below 10,000 feetD – No clouds below 5,000 feet


Ans: A

3187. What is the correct way of expressing visibility?

A – Visibility 1.2 kilometresB – Visibility 1200 feetC – Visibility 1.2 nautical milesD – Visibility 1200 metres


Ans: D

3188. When the term Cavok is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:

A – Visibility more than 5,000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GNDB – Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GNDC – Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GNDD – Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND


Ans: D

3189. When the term Overcast is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

A – 50% or moreB – 100%C – Less than 50%D – No clouds but poor ground visibility


Ans: B

3190. When the term Scattered is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

A – More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)B – Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)C – Sky entirely covered (8 octas)D – No clouds below 5000 feet/GND


Ans: B

3278. The phrase BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20 from ATC means that the braking action is:

A – mediumB – goodC – medium to poorD – poor


Ans: D

091-04 ACTION REQUIRED TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF COMMUNICATION FAILURE

3164. What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station?

A – Squawk mode A code 7500B – Divert to the alternate airportC – Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stationsD – Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight


Ans: C

3165. An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot:

A – Return to the airport of departureB – Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communicationC – Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequencyD – Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit


Ans: C

3167. What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:

A – 7200B – 7600C – 7500D – 7700


Ans: B

3172. Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600?

A – In case of radio communication failureB – When entering bad weather areasC – When approaching a prohibited areaD – When flying over desert areas


Ans: A

3173. When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals?

A – When entering a FIR during an IFR flightB – When flying VFR over cloudsC – When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airportD – When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled

Aerodrome

Ans: D

3177. An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:

A – It is diverting to the alternate aerodromeB – It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failureC – It is requesting immediate level changeD – It is about to make a forced landing


Ans: B

14973. If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:

A – PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PANB – Transmitting blindC – Read you one, read you oneD – How do you read?


Ans: B

091-05 DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES

091-05-01 Distress

3250. An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:

A – The aircrafts transceiver is unserviceableB – The aircraft is being hijackedC – The aircraft is in distressD – There is a sick passenger on board


Ans: C

3258. Distress is defined as:

A – A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach

B – A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance

C – A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance

D – A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance


Ans: C

3261. An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:

A – PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PANB – DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFAC – MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAYD – URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY


Ans: C

3262. The frequency used for the first transmission of a MAYDAY call shall be:

A – The distress frequency 121.5 MHzB – The frequency currently in useC – Any other international emergency frequencyD – Any frequency at pilots discretion


Ans: B

3265. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:

A – Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilots intention, present position, level and heading

B – Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airportC – Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and levelD – Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required


Ans: A

3267. An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:

A – 7600B – 7700C – 7500D – 7200


Ans: B

24560. Distress is defined as a condition:

A – requiring immediate assistance and danger may or may not be threatenedB – of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger, and of requiring

immediate assistanceC – concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or some person on

board or within sight, but does not require immediate assistanceD – concerning the safety of any aircraft, ship or other vehicle


Ans: B

24578. A Distress or Urgency call shall be preceded by the pre-fix MAYDAY or PAN PAN transmitted:

A – OnceB – TwiceC – Three timesD – Until acknowledged


Ans: C

24579. Immediately following the MAYDAY pre-fix, an aircraft in Distress should transmit:

A – The aircraft call-sign twiceB – The nature of the emergencyC – The call-sign of the station addressed, when it is known and the

circumstances permitD – Its last known position


Ans: C

24580. An aircraft transmitting a distress message is required to give its position as:

A – The most accurate possible using GPS if fittedB – Present or last known position, altitude or level and headingC – Position relative to a VRPD – Latitude and longitude


Ans: B

24581. An aircraft in distress that is equipped with a SSR transponder should SQUAWK:

A – 7000B – 7500C – 7600D – 7700


Ans: D

24598. A Distress call shall be preceded by the pre-fix MAYDAY transmitted:

A – TwiceB – Three timesC – OnceD – One to three times after the aircraft callsign


Ans: B

091-05-02 Urgency

3249. Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:

A – The international emergency frequencyB – The air-ground frequency in use at the timeC – The regional guard frequencyD – Any frequency at pilots discretion


Ans: B

3271. An urgency message shall be preceded by the radio-telephony urgency signal:

A – ALERFA, spoken three timesB – URGENCY, spoken three timesC – MAYDAY, spoken three timesD – PAN PAN, spoken three times


Ans: D

3275. Urgency is defined as:

A – A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

B – A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

C – A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach

D – A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance


Ans: D

24561. The subsequent content of a Distress or Urgency message must consist of the following items:

(i) Position(ii) Intention of person in command(iii) Type of aircraft(iv) Nature of emergency(v) Call-sign

Transmitted in the order:

A – (v) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)B – (v) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)C – (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)D – (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)


Ans: C

24572. A condition of urgency is defined as:

A – a condition of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate assistance

B – a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person onboard or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

C – a condition requiring immediate assistanceD – a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some

person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance


Ans: D

091-06 GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF PROPAGATION

3248. The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:

A – An international emergency frequencyB – A frequency for air-to-air communicationC – A regional UHF frequencyD – An airline operation frequency


Ans: A

3269. Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency:

A – 122.500 MHzB – 121.500 MHxC – 121.050 MHzD – 121.005 MHz


Ans: B

24571. The frequency 243.0 MHz has a wavelength of ___ and lies on the ____band.

A – 12.3 cm UHFB – 1.23 m, UHFC – 12.3 cm, VHFD – 1.23 m, VHF


Ans: D24599. Attenuation of radio waves means:

A – the weakening of the radiated wavesB – the atmospheric bending of the wavesC – only the scattering of the waves by the tropopauseD – only the absorption of radio energy by the sea


Ans: A

24601. The wavelength of a radio aid is 6.97 cm. The corresponding frequency and frequency band are:

A – 4304 MHz SHFB – 43 MHz VHFC – 4304 MHz UHFD – 43 GHz EHF


Ans: A

24605. What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference is likely?

A – 3 MHzB – 30 MHzC – 300 MHzD – 3 GHz


Ans: B

24606. VHF communications sometimes experience extended ranges as a result of:

A – ionospheric ductingB – reflections from aircraftC – surface wave propagationD – super refraction


Ans: D

092 – IFR COMMUNICATIONS

092-01 INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS AND ORGANISATIONS

092-01-01 Meanings and significance of associated terms

2610. Which of the following calls is a GENERAL CALL?

A – YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROLB – YX-EFG, YX-FGH overC – ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROLD – YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C

3159. Blind transmission shall be made:

A – On the designated frequency (frequency in use)B – To all available aeronautical stationsC – On regional guard frequencies onlyD – During IFR flights only


Ans: A

3329. What does the word CHECK mean?

A – I understand your messageB – Confirm your last transmissionC – Read back my last instructionD – Examine a system or procedure


Ans: D

3331. What does the word APPROVED mean?

A – Permission for proposed action grantedB – That is correctC – Authorized to proceed under the conditions specifiedD – I repeat for clarity or emphasis


Ans: A

3332. What does the term AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION mean?

A – One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth

B – One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth

C – Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth

D – Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)


Ans: C

3340. What does the phrase BREAK BREAK mean?

A – The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expectedB – It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to

an aircraft stationC – It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environmentD – My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you


Ans: C

3341. What does the term CLEARANCE LIMIT mean:

A – The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced

B – The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearanceC – The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearanceD – The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance


Ans: D

3361. What does SELCAL mean?

A – A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously

B – A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

C – A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft

D – A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units


Ans: C

3362. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term VISUAL APPROACH?

A – An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain

B – An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMCC – A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather

conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima

D – An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight- in-approach


Ans: A

3366. What does the word CONTACT mean?

A – That is correctB – Radar contact establishedC – Listen out on (frequency)D – Establish radio contact with ….


Ans: D

3367. What does the word CORRECT mean?

A – That is correctB – An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is…C – Permission for proposed action not grantedD – Negative, the correct version is ….


Ans: A

3372. What does the term EXPECTED APPROACH TIME mean:

A – The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing

B – The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated

C – The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

D – The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing


Ans: A

3375. What does the word RECLEARED mean?

A – Consider that transmission as not sentB – Permission for proposed action grantedC – An error has been made in my last transmissionD – A change has been made to your last clearance


Ans: D

3379. What does the word REPORT mean?

A – Say againB – Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as receivedC – Pass me the following informationD – Examine a system or procedure


Ans: C

3380. What does the phrase VERIFY mean?

A – Read back VDF bearingB – Repeat your last transmissionC – Check and confirm with originatorD – Consider that transmission as not sent


Ans: C

3389. What does the word DISREGARD mean?

A – Consider that transmission as not sentB – An error has been made in this transmissionC – Annul the previously transmitted clearanceD – Wait and I will call you


Ans: A

3392. What does the word ACKNOWLEDGE mean?

A – Let me know that you have received and understood this messageB – Pass me the following informationC – Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as receivedD – Repeat all of your last transmission


Ans: A

3395. What does the term BROADCAST mean?

A – A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving stationB – A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flightC – A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not

addressed to a specific station or stationsD – A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to

aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.


Ans: C

3398. Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis?

A – I say againB – ConfirmC – Read backD – Verify


Ans: A

24680. The SELCAL system:

A – allows two way VHF data transmission between ATC and aircraftB – allows two way data transmission between operator and aircraftC – allows the aircraft to be contacted on VHF and HF frequencies that are not

being monitored by the flight crewD – allows satellite communication


Ans: C

24686. Which of the following are radar services?

(i) Radar Control(ii) Radar Advisory(iii) Flight Information Service(iv) Approach Control(v) An SRA(vi) A PAR(vii) A QGH(viii) An ILS

A – All areB – (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (viii)C – (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)D – (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (vi)


Ans: D

24687. A Flight Level is:

A – a height above 3000 ftB – a surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to a datum of 1013.2

HpaC – a surface of varying atmospheric pressure related to a datum of 1013.2

HpaD – an altitude of constant height related to 1013.2 Hpa


Ans: B

24693. The abbreviation HN means he facility described operates:

A – between sunrise and sunsetB – 24 hours a dayC – by prior NotificationD – between sunset and sunrise


Ans: D

24702. A “FINAL” call is made when the aircraft turns on to final approach within ____ from the landing threshold:

A – 8 nmB – 8 kmC – between 4 nm and 8 nmD – 4 nm


Ans: D

092-01-02 Air Traffic Control abbreviations

3334. What does the abbreviation SAR mean?

A – Surveillance airport radarB – Search and rescueC – Standard arrival routeD – Secondary altimeter responder


Ans: B

3337. An Automatic Terminal Information Service provides:

A – An Automatic Terminal Information Service provides:

A – Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation

B – Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast

C – Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR

D – Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)


Ans: B

3343. What does the abbreviation ATIS mean?

A – Air traffic information serviceB – Airport terminal information serviceC – Aircraft terminal information serviceD – Automatic terminal information service


Ans: D

3363. What does the abbreviation RVR mean?

A – Runway visibility reportB – Runway visual rangeC – Radar vectors requestedD – Recleared via route……


Ans: B

3365. What does the abbreviation SSR mean?

A – Standard snow reportB – Search and surveillance radarC – Surface strength of runwayD – Secondary surveillance radar


Ans: D

3370. What does the abbreviation IMC mean?

A – In most casesB – Instrument meteorological conditionsC – International meteorological channelD – In meteorological conditions


Ans: B

3371. What does the abbreviation H24 mean?

A – Sunset to sunriseB – Sunrise to sunsetC – Continuous day and night serviceD – No specific working hours


Ans: C

3376. What does the abbreviation INS mean?

A – Instrument navigation systemB – Inertial navigation systemC – International NOTAM systemD – International navigation service


Ans: B

3377. What does the term WAY POINT mean?

A – A general term meaning the taxiway-and the runway-system of an international airport

B – A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system

C – A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-useD – A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route

or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation


Ans: D

3382. What does the abbreviation AIS mean?

A – Airport information systemB – Aerodrome identification signal-areaC – Aeronautical information serviceD – Aerodrome information service


Ans: C

3385. What does the abbreviation MLS mean?

A – Microwave landing systemB – Minimum safe levelC – Radar aided navigationD – Radio navigation


Ans: A

15943. What does the abbreviation RNAV mean:

A – Area navigationB – Route navigationC – Radar aided navigationD – Radio navigation


Ans: A

24620. An air traffic radar service in which the controller will inform the pilot of the bearing, distance and, if known, the level of conflicting traffic, but in which no avoiding action is given is known as a:

A – RASB – RISC – FISD – RS


Ans: B

24624. What is SSR an abbreviation of?

A – Stationary Surveillance RadarB – Sector Surveillance RadarC – Secondary Sector RadarD – Secondary Surveillance Radar


Ans: D

24625. The abbreviation MLS is a shortened form of:

A – Military Light SignalsB – Mandatory Landing SystemC – Military Landing SystemD – Microwave Landing System


Ans: D

24643. What does “H24” mean?

A – Operates 24 hoursB – Sunrise to sunsetC – Available 24 hours a day by prior notice onlyD – Aircraft handling available 24 hours a day


Ans: A

092-01-03 Q-code groups commonly used in RTF air-ground communications

20868. QNH is the Q-code to indicate:

A – The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)B – The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point

(ARP)C – The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the

surface of an aerodromeC – The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground


Ans: D

20869. QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:

A – The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit heightB – The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datumC – The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)D – The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on

the surface of an aerodrome


Ans: C

24619. In relation to Direction Finding a QDM is:

A – A true bearing of the aircraft measured from the VDF stationB – A magnetic bearing of the aircraft measured from the VDF stationC – A true bearing of the aircraft measured to the VDF stationD – A magnetic heading for a pilot to steer to reach the VDF station


Ans: D

24697. The pressure at the aerodrome reduced to sea level with regard to international standard atmosphere conditions is:

A – QFEB – QFFC – QRMD – QNH


Ans: D

092-01-04 Categories of messages

24636. Which of the following statements relating to message categories is correct?

A – The lowest priority message category is MeteorologicalB – Urgency has greatest priority over everything except DistressC – Flight Safety messages have a higher priority than Direction Finding

messagesD – Flight Safety messages have a higher priority than Medical Urgency

messages


Ans: B

24683. The ATC message ‘G-XX, departing aircraft advise moderate turbulence present below FL50’ is a:

A – Flight Regularity messageB – Meteorological messageC – Flight Safety messageD – Urgency message


Ans: C

092-02 GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES

092-02-01 Transmission of letters

(No questions in this sub-chapter)

092-02-02 Transmission of numbers (including level information)

3544. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency?

A – one one eight decimal oneB – one eighteen oneC – one one eight oneD – one one eight point one


Ans: A

092-02-03 Transmission of Time

20870. The time is 4:15 pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?

A – Four fifteen in the afternoonB – One six one fiveC – Four fifteen PMD – Sixteen fifteen


Ans: B

24709. When indications of time are passed on the RT for position reports, ETAs and EATs RTF operators should employ:

A – GMTB – LMTC – UTCD – EST


Ans: C

092-02-04 Transmission technique

3477. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?

A – Aircraft identification, position, time, levelB – Aircraft identification, position, timeC – Aircraft identification, position, levelD – Aircraft identification, position, next position


Ans: B

20867. Before transmitting the pilot should…

A – Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same timeB – Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station

already transmitting will occurC – Make sure that the aircraft is levelled offD – Always write the message and read it during the transmission


Ans: B

24612. A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. Which air traffic service should normally be used for this purpose?

A – FIRB – RADARC – APPROACHD – TOWER


Ans: A

24616. On the first call to an Air Traffic Service Unit a pilot should pass:

A – call-sign, service requestedB – call-sign, aircraft type, position, heading, ETAC – call-sign, point of departure and current position, heading, level, intention,

type of service required D – call sign only


Ans: A

092-02-05 Standard words and phrases (relevant RTF phraseology included)

3324. What does the word CANCEL mean/

A – Wait and I will catch youB – A change has been made to your last clearanceC – Annul the previously transmitted clearanceD – Consider that transmission as not sent


Ans: C

3360. Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: CONSIDER THAT TRANSMISSION AS NOT SENT:

A – My last transmission is cancelledB – Cancel my last messageC – Forget itD – Disregard


Ans: D

3403. Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: REDUCE YOUR RATE OF SPEECH?

A – Speak slowerB – Words twiceC – RepeatD – Say again


Ans: A

3412. To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:

A – Runway vacatedB – Runway clearedC – Runway freeD – Clear of runway


Ans: A

3413. Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure:

A – Going aroundB – Missed approachC – Pulling upD – Overshooting


Ans: A

3415. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say COMMUNICATION IS DIFFICULT. PLEASE SEND EVERY WORD OR GROUP OF WORD TWICE?

A – Words twiceB – Say again, say againC – Repeat twiceD – Message second time


Ans: A

3424. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre:

A – StoppingB – Abandoning take-offC – Aborting take-offD – Cancelling take-off


Ans: A

3436. What does the instruction: FASTAIAR 345 STANDBY 118.9 FOR TOWER mean:

A – Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequencyB – Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9 on which aerodrome data are being broadcastC – Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9D – Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will

Initiate further communications


Ans: D

3438. Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out:

A – Unable to complyB – Negative instructionC – Impossible to make itD – Disregard


Ans: A

3445. Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof:

A – ReclearedB – ClearedC – ApprovedD – Break break


Ans: A

3451. Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message?

A – BreakB – StopC – I say againD – Over


Ans: A3453. Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message?

A – CorrectionB – CorrectC – NegativeD – Disregard


Ans: A

3454. What does the word Monitor mean:

A – Examine a system or procedureB – Wait and I will call youC – Establish radio contact with….D – Listen out on (frequency)


Ans: D

3459. Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?

A – ApprovedB – Go aheadC – ClearedD – I say again : proceed


Ans: C

20872. When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with:

A – “Message to all aircraft on this frequency”B – “Please listen”C – “All stations”D – “General broadcast”


Ans: C

24627. The instruction REPORT means:

A – pass me the following informationB – file an ATSU report on landingC – return to home baseD – read back this clearance


Ans: A

24639. What would you say if you are having trouble with communications and wish to have everything repeated twice?

A – I say againB – Words twiceC – Please repeatD – Speak twice


Ans: B

24640. For clarity or confirmation of a transmission you would use the phrase:

A – Words twiceB – I say againC – I repeatD – Encore


Ans: B

24644. Certain RT procedures require messages to be broadcast to all stations using a particular frequency. Such messages would be preceded with the phrase:

A – All aircraft on frequencyB – All aircraftC – Now hear thisD – All stations


Ans: D

24684. The phrase UNDER RADAR CONTROL means:

A – ATC instructions may be obeyed at the pilot’s discretionB – ATC instructions must be obeyed unless avoiding immediate dangerC – ATC information is advisoryD – ATC will provide information on other traffic but no avoiding action will

be given


Ans: B

24688. The correct way to say “yes” on the RT is:

A – AFFIRMATIVEB – AFFIRMC – YESD – ROGER


Ans: B

24705. Clearances relating to the runway in use shall be read back only if the aircraft is to:

A – Enter, land on, take off from, cross and backtrackB – Enter, cross and backtrackC – Land on and take off fromD – Enter, land on, take off from and backtrack


Ans: A

24711. In addition to aircraft identification, routine position reporting on HF or VHF must contain:

A – Position, time and heightB – Position, time, next reporting point and ETAC – Time, level, next reporting point and ETAD – Position, time, level, next position and ETA


Ans: D

092-02-06 Radiotelephony call signs for aeronautical stations

3396. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general)?

A – RADARB – CONTROLC – RADAR-CONTROLD – RADAR-SERVICE


Ans: A

3408. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery?

A – CLEARANCE DELIVERYB – CLEARANCEC – DELIVERYD – RADIO


Ans: C 3420. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures:

A – RADARB – CONTROLC – DEPARTURED – APPROACH


Ans: C

3425. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals:

A - …ARRIVALB - …APPROACHC - …RADARD - …DIRECTOR


Ans: A

3441. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station proiding approach control (no radar service)?

A – RADARB – ARRIVALC – APPROACHD – CONTROL


Ans: C

3442. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar):

A – APPROACHB – CENTREC – CONTROLD – RADAR


Ans: C

092-02-07 Radiotelephony call signs for aircraft

3414. What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take- off weight of more than 136 tonnes:

A – Fastair 345B – Heavy Fastair 345C – Fastair heavy 345D – Fastair 345 widebody


Ans: C

3481. What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345?

A – No abbreviated formB – Fastair 345C – Fastair 45D – 2345


Ans: A24695. The correct phonetic abbreviation for G-ZULU is:

A – GOLF ZULUB – GOLF LIME UNIFORMC – GOLF UNIFORM LIMA UNIFORMD – LIMA UNIFORM


Ans: B

24698. VIRGIN 1, an aircraft in the HEAVY weight category, should make first contact with an ATSU as follows:

A – HEAVY VIRGIN 1B – VIRGIN 1 HEAVYC – VIRGIN HEAVY 1D – HEAVY 1


Ans: B

092-02-08 Transfer of communication

3478. When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word HEAVY immediately after its call sign eg. Fastair 345 heavy:

A – In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit

B – NeverC – In all callsD – In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit


Ans: A

3479. When shall the phrase TAKE-OFF be used by a pilot:

A – Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runwayB – Never, it is used only by the control towerC – To inform TOWER when ready for departureD – To acknowledge take-off clearance only


Ans: D

3569. What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched on)?

A – The frequency can not be used by othersB – NoneC – Other stations will have to use the WORD TWICE techniqueD – Readability will improve for all stations


Ans: A

092-02-09 Test procedures including readability scale

3437. What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission?

A – Read you loud and clearB – Read backC – Report readabilityD – How do you read?


Ans: D

3536. What is meant by the phrase “READABILITY 4”?

A – Readable now and thenB – ReadableC – Perfectly readableD – Readable but with difficulty


Ans: B

3580. What is meant by the phrase “READABILITY 2”?

A – Readable but with difficultyB – ReadableC – UnreadableD – Readable now and then


Ans: D

20871. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean?

A – Readable but with difficultyB – UnreadableC – ReadableD – Perfectly readable


Ans: B

24703. A transmission given readability scale of 3 is defined as:

A – ReadableB – Readable now and thenC – Perfectly readableD – Readable but with difficulty


Ans: D

24707. Test transmissions should include the word(s):

A – “Test”B – “Radio check”C – “Test transmission”D – “Testing, testing”


Ans: B

092-02-10 Read back and acknowledgement requirements

2617. Must a general call be acknowledged?

A – Yes, but only from the station first calledB – NoC – Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressedD – Yes, from all stations in a random sequence


Ans: B

3409. What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received:

A – Information GolfB – Weather Golf receivedC – We have the InformationD – We have the ATIS Golf


Ans: A

3416. Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:

A – Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345B – Changing over Fastair 345C – 118.0 Fastair 345D – Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345


Ans: C

3419. Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc?

A – ConfirmB – CorrectC – AcknowledgeD – Verify


Ans: A

3427. During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360o. The correct read back of this instruction is:

A – A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identifiedB – Heading north, X-BCC – Heading three hundred sixty, X-BCD – Heading three six zero, X-BC


Ans: D

3428. What shall the pilots read back be for CLIMB TO FL 280:

A – Climbing to flight level two eightyB – Climbing to flight level two eight zeroC – Climbing two eight zeroD – Climbing to two eighty


Ans: B

3440. Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back?

1 – descend to (altitude) 3,000 feet2 – wind 240o, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots3 – turn right heading 2104 – reduce speed to 160 knots5 – squawk 17236 – braking action poor

A – 1, 2, 3, 5B – allC – 1, 3, 4, 5D – 1, 3, 4, 5, 6


Ans: C

3476. Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?

A – QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceabilityB – QNH, weather information, runway-in-useC – ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state informationD – SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions


Ans: D

3480. ATC clears Fastair 345 to descent from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot?

A – Descending to 80, Fastair 345B – Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345C – Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345D – Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345


Ans: B

24628. Which of the following instructions and information are required to be read back?

(i) Descend to altitude 2000 ft(ii) Wind 060/20 gusting 30 knots(iii) Heading instructions(iv) Speed control instructions(v) Squawk 2310(vi) Runway braking action

A – (i) (ii) and (iii)B – (i) (iii) (iv) and (v)C – (i) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi)D – All of them


Ans: B

24630. What is the correct reply to the instruction ‘Climb to FL 280’?

A – Recleared Level Two Eight ZeroB – Climb Two Eight ZeroC – Climb to Two Hundred and EightyD – Climb to Flight Level Two Eight Zero


Ans: D

24631. What is the correct reply to an ATC instruction which you can’t comply with?

A – Negative complyB – Negative instructionC – Negative complianceD – Unable to comply


Ans: D

24642. When receiving radar vectors an aircraft XY-ABC is told ‘turn right heading 360’, the correct reply is?

A – There is no need to respond as you have been identified as XY-ABCB – Heading north, X-BCC – Heading three hundred and sixty, X-BCD – Heading three six zero, X-BC


Ans: D

092-02-11 Radar procedural phraseology

24690. The correct phraseology to instruct an aircraft to cease the MODE C SSR reply because of incorrect indications is:

A – Climbing to two point fiveB – Up to two thousand five hundredC – Climbing to two thousand five hundred feetD – Climbing to two thousand five hundred


Ans: B

24692. Which of the following statements is true?

A – An IFR flight may be commenced if the SSR transponder is unserviceableB – If the SSR transponder becomes unserviceable during an IFR flight it must

be continued under VFRC – If the SSR transponder becomes unserviceable during an IFR flight ATC

must be informed as soon as possibleD – If the SSR transponder becomes unserviceable during an IFR flight it

must be continued under VMC


Ans: C092-02-12 Level changes and reports

3482. What shall the pilots read back be for CLIMB TO 2.500 FEET?

A – Climbing to two point fiveB – Up to two thousand five hundredC – Climbing to two thousand five hundred feetD – Climbing to two thousand five hundred


Ans: C

3484. If you are requested to REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS, what does that mean:

A – Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperatureB – Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMCC – Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landingD – Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR


Ans: B

24618. All messages relating to an aircraft’s climb or descent to a HEIGHT or ALTITUDE should:

A – employ the word “TO” followed immediately by the word HEIGHT or ALTITUDE

B – avoid using the word “TO” altogetherC – employ the word “TO” followed immediately by the QFE or QNHD – be preceded by the required altimeter subscale setting


Ans: A

092-03 ACTION REQUIRED TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF COMMUNICATION FAILURE

3140. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received):

A – After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledgedB – 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledgedC – Immediately after reaching in any caseD – At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan


Ans: D

3141. In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:

A – Inform FIS for relay to AISB – Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flightC – Insert under item 18 of the flight plan TRANSPONDER

UNSERVICEABLE and inform ATC after departureD – Cancel flight


Ans: B

3142. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:

A – 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledgedB – Under no circumstancesC – 5 minutes in any caseD – Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged


Ans: D

3144. In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:

A – Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repairB – Inform the competent ATC unit immediatelyC – Squawk 7600D – Continue the flight in VMC


Ans: B

3146. A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:

A – Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan

B – Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner

C – Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

D – Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way


Ans: B

3150. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:

A – 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is laterB – 30 minutes after noticing the radio failureC – 30 minutes after waiting for the EATD – 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer


Ans: A

3151. Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:

A – Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight planB – Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and

then climb in accordance with the flight planC – Land at the departure aerodrome in any caseD – Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and

then continue in accordance with the flight plan


Ans: B

3153. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:

A – Land at the destination aerodromeB – Return to the aerodrome of departureC – Land at the alternate aerodromeD – Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome


Ans: D

3155. An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:

A – Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

B – Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules

C – Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flightD – Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome


Ans: A

3158. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:

A – Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival

B – Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace

C – Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodromeD – Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case


Ans: A

24610. After suffering a radio receiver failure the pilots should make blind transmissions preceded by the phrase “Transmitting blind due to receiver failure” and subsequently:

A – hold for 5 minutesB – proceed to the pre-planned alternateC – enter the next en-route holding pattern encounteredD – advise the time of the next intended transmission


Ans: D

24632. What is the action required to be taken on an IFR flight after a transponder failure?

A – Inform ATC immediately and continue VFRB – Land immediatelyC – Inform ATC immediatelyD – Continue flight in VMC


Ans: C

24633. What is the correct action of a flight on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions if it experiences total communication failure?

A – Continue as filed to beacon over the destination airfield, squawk 7600B – Continue in VMCC – Continue as filed to beacon over the destination airfield, maintain assigned

squawkD – Leave controlled airspace


Ans: A

24682. On an IFR flight two way communications is lost as the aircraft is holding above the final destination. The expected approach time (EAT) was passed as 1420 UTC before communications was lost. The aircraft should squawk 7600 and make an approach to land at:

A – the EAT, plus or minus 10 minutesB – not before the EAT and no later than 10 minutes after EATC – not before the EAT and no later than 20 minutes after EATD – not before the EAT and no later than 30 minutes after EAT


Ans: D

24708. If an aircraft has had a radio failure, the SSR should be set to:

A – 7700B – 2000C – 7600D – 7500


Ans: C

092-04 DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES

092-04-01 PAN medical

2998. A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal:

A – MEDICAL TRANSPORTB – PAN PAN MEDICALC – PROTECTED TRANSPORTD – PAN PAN TRANSPORT


Ans: B

3004. What do the spoken words PAN PAN MEDICAL mean?

A – The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephonyB – The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to landC – The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination

airportD – The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport

operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation


Ans: D

24637. What is the initial message for an aircraft in a protected medical transportation flight?

A – PAN PAN MEDICALB – MEDICAL TRANSPORT C – TRANSPORTATION MEDICALD – MEDICAL PAN PAN


Ans: A

092-04-02 Distress

3000. The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?

A – Disregard distress communication, OUTB – Emergency communication finishedC – MAYDAY traffic endedD – Distress traffic ended


Ans: D

3002. When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?

A - …MAYDAY, resuming normal operationsB - …cancel distressC - …MAYDAY cancelledD - …distress condition terminated


Ans: B

3003. Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of:

A – Technical difficultiesB – Urgency communicationC – Overload of the frequencyD – Distress traffic


Ans: D

3005. Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?

A – Stop transmitting, EMERGENCYB – Stop transmitting, DISTRESSC – Stop transmitting, MAYDAYD – All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic


Ans: C

3007. A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means:

A – The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedureB – The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of

a ship, aircraft or vehicleC – The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather

conditions along its route of flightD – Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is

required


Ans: D

3008. When an aircraft station receives the call ALL STATIONS STEPHENVILLE RADAR, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED it is requested:

A – Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADARB – To impose silence to other stations in its vicinityC – Acknowledge receipt of this messageD – To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR


Ans: D

3009. The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on:

A – The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concernedB – The emergency frequency in any caseC – The regional guard frequencyD – The air-ground frequency in use at the time


Ans: D

3010. When an aircraft station receives the call ALL STATIONS STEPHENVILLE RADAR, STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY it is requested:

A – To continue normal communication on the frequency in useB – Not to interfere with the distress communicationC – To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress trafficD – To leave the frequency in use


Ans: B

24622. In a distress situation it may be necessary to impose silence either on all stations or on a particular station. This action of imposing silence may be performed:

A – only by the ground station controlling the frequencyB – by either the aircraft in distress or the station in control of the distress

incidentC – by any station who considers it necessary to impose silenceD – only by the distress and diversion cell at the Rescue Control Centre (RCC)


Ans: B

092-04-03 Urgency

2997. The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details:

A – Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance requiredB – Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flightC – Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilots intention, present

position, level and headingD – Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading


Ans: C

2999. Which of the following statements is correct?

A – The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications

B – The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distress

C – There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency communications

D – ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications


Ans: B

3001. On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:

A – Impose radio silence on the frequency in useB – Acknowledge the message immediatelyC – Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if requiredD – Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the

frequency in use


Ans: C

3006. A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:

A – An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedureB – Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is

requiredC – The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm

and asks for immediate re-clearanceD – The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of

a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required


Ans: D

092-05 RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION TERMS

092-05-01 Aerodrome weather

3127. When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase?

A – RVR runway 16 touchdown ___ metres, mid-point ___ metres, stop end ___ metres

B – The values of the transmissiometer are ___ metres and ___ metresC – RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ___ metresD – RVR runway 16 ___ metres diagonal ___ metres diagonal ___ metres


Ans: A

3135. What does FRICTION COEFFICIENT 20 in a runway report mean?

A – Braking action mediumB – Braking action poorC – Braking action goodD – Braking action unreliable


Ans: B

3136. What does FRICTION COEFFICIENT 45 in a runway report mean?

A – Braking action not measurableB – Braking action mediumC – Braking action poorD – Braking action good


Ans: D

3137. Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be UNRELIABLE?

A – Runway covered with dry snowB – Runway covered with iceC – Runway covered with wet snow and slushD – Runway conditions normal


Ans: C

24638. A braking coefficient of 0.45 indicates runway braking action:

A – poorB – mediumC – goodD – unmeasurable


Ans: C

24712. In a METAR, cloud reported as “broken” means:

A – 3 – 4 octasB – 2 – 3 octasC – 5-7 octasD – 4-6 octas


Ans: C

24715. CAVOK may be used in place of visibility, weather and cloud, provided that visibility is ___ or more; there is no cloud below ___ or MSA whichever is the ___ and no significant weather phenomena.

A – 10 km, 5000 ft AAL, lowerB – 10 nm, 5000 ft, AAL, higherC – 10 nm, 5000 ft, AGL lowerD – 10 km, 5000 ft, AAL, higher


Ans: D

092-05-02 Weather broadcast

24699. Weather information contained in the ATIS is updated every:

A – 30 minutesB – 20 minutesC – 60 minutesD – 50 minutes


Ans: A

24713. Meteorological information broadcast in VOLMET is the same as:

A – TAFsB – SPECI TAF sometimes with METARSC – SIGMETsD – METARs with TRENDS and sometimes TAFs


Ans: D

092-06 GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF PROPAGATION

24635. What are the consequences of an aircraft with a transmit button stuck on?

A – It improves readability for everyone elseB – It has no effect on other transmissionsC – It prevents other aircraft transmissions being heard but does not affect the readability of ATC transmissionsD – No one else can use the frequency


Ans: D

24694. The RTF band allocated to aviation VHF communications is:

A – 30MHz to 300MHzB – 108 MHz to 117.95MHzC – 118MHz to 136.95MHzD – 108MHz to 111.95MHz


Ans: C

24701. HF Frequency bands used for aviation are between:

A – 2850 to 22000 KHzB – 2850 to 25000 MHzC – 258 to 2500 MHzD – 2580 to 22000 KHz


Ans: A

24710. What is the expected range of VHF air to ground communications if an aircraft is flying 35,000 feet above the transmitter height?

A – 187 nmB – 234 nmC – 150 nmD – 267 nm


Ans: B

24716. The VHF aviation band channel spacing in upper airspace is:

A – 8.33 KHzB – 12.5 KHzC – 25.0 KHzD – 7.98 KHz


Ans: A

Vfr-Ifr Comm Questions

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