U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Q806 …Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam...

National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation’s Mariners

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

QMED

Q806 Fireman-Watertender

(Sample Examination)

of 22 Q806 Fireman-Watertender

8/28/2019

Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

1. If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is__________.

o (A) switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilationo (B) pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth-to-mouth

ventilation• (C) turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPRo (D) ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

2. What is the characteristic of the blood flow associated with venous bleeding?

o (A) Bright red blood flowing from the wound in spurts.• (B) Dark red blood flowing from the wound with a steady flow.o (C) Dark red blood flowing from the wound in spurts.o (D) Bright red blood flowing from the wound with a steady flow.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

3. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent orreduce __________.

o (A) asphyxia• (B) paino (C) disfiguremento (D) infection


4. In which of the following heat related illnesses is the individual most at risk for losing consciousness?

o (A) Heat prostrationo (B) Heat exhaustiono (C) Heat cramps• (D) Heat stroke

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

5. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.

o (A) apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover ito (B) apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops• (C) stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the woundo (D) lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 6. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?

• (A) Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. o (B) Relieve the pain of the injury. o (C) Keep the patient warm, but not hot. o (D) Have the injured person lie down.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

7. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering a closed compartment to fight a fire?

o (A) The fire produces smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause breathing difficulties and irritation of the respiratory tract.

o (B) The fire consumes oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation. o (C) The fire produces carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen deficiency in the brain and body,

leading quickly to death. • (D) All of the above.


8. The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

o (A) before you enter the water • (B) after you enter the water o (C) after one hour in the water o (D) after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy


9. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and __________.

• (A) drained into buckets or fuel tanks o (B) drained into the bilges and washed out o (C) draped over the fantail to dry out o (D) drained over the side and washed out


10. The designation 'schedule 80 extra strong' refers to __________.

o (A) tensile strength of bolts • (B) piping wall thickness o (C) weight of steel plate o (D) tubing bursting strength



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 11. Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the illustration? Illustration

GS-0047

• (A) The valve is a non-rising stem design. o (B) The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired. o (C) The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid. o (D) The valve only requires one turn of the handwheel to fully open.


12. Carbon deposits on the diffuser and register throat ring of a burner __________.

o (A) cause pre-ignition of the atomized fuel • (B) interfere with air flow around the burner o (C) allow heat loss to the boiler casing o (D) are of no consequence and may be left in place until a fireside inspection allows time for

removal


13. If an oil fire occurs in the double casing of a steaming boiler, you should __________.

o (A) increase the forced draft fan speed • (B) secure the fuel oil supply to the burners o (C) secure the feedwater supply to the boiler o (D) apply water with a smooth bore nozzle


14. Prior to relieving the watch you should first check the fireroom status by verifying the boiler steam drum level and _________.

o (A) stack temperature o (B) port and starboard settling tank levels o (C) preparing to blow tubes • (D) inspecting the fires and burners


15. To properly remove the burner tip nut from the burner barrel, the barrel should be __________.

o (A) fixed in the burner stowage rack o (B) clamped in a machinist's vice on the work bench o (C) removed from the gooseneck before removing the tip nut • (D) held by the fixture on the burner cleaning bench



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 16. To properly clean a burner tip, you should use __________.

o (A) a wire brush o (B) light sand blast grit o (C) a jack knife • (D) a soft metal tool


17. Air trapped within the main condenser shell is detrimental because it will __________.

o (A) cause heat to be transferred too rapidly o (B) decrease the turbine exhaust steam temperature • (C) decrease the vacuum in the main condenser o (D) cause the turbine casing to warp and bow


18. Which of the conditions listed could prevent a centrifugal condensate pump from developing its rated capacity?

o (A) Operating the pump with a positive suction head. o (B) Flooding of the main condenser hotwell. • (C) Closing the water seal line to the packing gland. o (D) Venting the pump to the vacuum side of the condenser.


19. When heated, fuel oil will __________.

o (A) increase in viscosity o (B) increase in specific gravity o (C) have a higher specific heat • (D) expand in volume


20. The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy, is known as its __________.

o (A) viscosity index o (B) cetane index • (C) heating value o (D) cetane number



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21. Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to __________.

• (A) allow turning with a wrench o (B) allow it to be used as a pry bar o (C) permit striking with a hammer o (D) prevent the shank from bending


22. A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the __________.

o (A) heat of friction • (B) blade from overheating o (C) cut from clogging o (D) blade from bending


23. At a minimum threshold, how many milliamps of current through the body produces a painful sensation that most people would perceive as an electric shock?

• (A) 3 to 7 mA o (B) 10 to 16 mA o (C) 30 mA o (D) 100 mA for 2.5 sec.


24. Which of the following devices would be forbidden to use as a primary means of electrical isolation?

• (A) start/stop push button station o (B) non-fused disconnect switch o (C) fused disconnect switch o (D) circuit breaker


25. In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? Illustration GS-0042

o (A) One • (B) Two o (C) Three o (D) Four



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 26. For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multi-stage air compressor, interstage

cooling will __________.

o (A) allow the compressed air volume to remain constant o (B) increase the power required for compression o (C) allow isothermal compression of the air charge • (D) decrease the power required for compression


27. Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?

o (A) Vacuum breaker o (B) Lubricator o (C) Non-return valve • (D) Moisture separator


28. One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.

• (A) minimize the system's line pulsations o (B) remove all traces of oil from the air o (C) dry the air discharged from the intercooler o (D) receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories


29. Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________.

o (A) allow impurities to settle out of the fuel o (B) allow for decanting of water o (C) make fuel available for immediate use • (D) all of the above


30. Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur as fuels are __________.

o (A) stored at the refinery o (B) stored on the vessel o (C) transported to the distribution sites • (D) all of the above are correct



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31. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.

o (A) placing floating booms around the shipo (B) thoroughly draining all bunkering hoseso (C) regularly emptying all drip pans• (D) plugging all scuppers and drains


32. Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat transfer?

o (A) Heat is given off from a high temperature region known as a heat sink.o (B) Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink involved.• (C) Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference between the heat source

and the heat sink.o (D) Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid substance.


33. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any physical contact between awarmer and a cooler substance?

• (A) Radiationo (B) Conductiono (C) Laminationo (D) All of the above


34. By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to another?

o (A) Conductiono (B) Convectiono (C) Radiation• (D) All of the above


35. An auxiliary turbine boiler feed pump should normally be stopped by __________.

o (A) increasing the load on the driven unit• (B) actuating the throttle hand tripping deviceo (C) closing the exhaust valve slightlyo (D) rotating the hand lube oil pump backwards



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 36. An excess pressure governor is a special type of control device which would normally be found on a

__________.

o (A) main circulator pump • (B) turbine-driven feed pump o (C) low-pressure propulsion turbine o (D) forced draft fan


37. The steam drum in a D-type marine boiler __________.

o (A) supports the superheater tube bank o (B) acts as a receptacle for heavy suspended solids in boiler feedwater o (C) maintains circulation by forcing steam bubbles downward in the generating tubes • (D) provides a space for moisture to separate from the steam


38. As shown in the illustrated D type single furnace boiler, what does item "F" represent? Illustration SG-0008

o (A) Screening tubes o (B) Superheater tubes • (C) Generating tubes o (D) Desuperheater tubes


39. While raising steam on a cold boiler, the air cock is to be closed after __________.

o (A) the economizer drain is closed o (B) all burners have been lit and firing normally • (C) steam has formed and all air is vented o (D) the boiler is cut in on the line


40. Which of the following statements about boilers is correct?

o (A) No boiler will continue to generate steam after the fires are secured. • (B) A hot boiler will continue to generate steam after the fires are secured. o (C) The water level in a properly operated boiler will not shrink or swell. o (D) Loss of water will not harm a boiler if the water level can be restored.



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 41. When raising steam on an idle boiler and the steam pressure has risen to about 5 pounds more than

the pressure of the boiler already on the line, you can __________.

• (A) put the boiler on the line o (B) close the superheater vent o (C) increase the boiler firing rate o (D) close the air cock


42. Which of the following types of bearings are used as line shaft bearings?

o (A) Tapered roller, split type radial o (B) Segmental, pivoted-shoe thrust • (C) Ring-oiled, babbitt-faced, spherical seat, shell o (D) Rigidly mounted, radial sleeve


43. Condensate return lines from tank heating coils are led to the __________.

o (A) main condenser o (B) atmospheric drain tank o (C) DC heater • (D) contaminated drain system


44. According to the illustration, bellows "I" in the gland seal regulator is actuated by ________. Illustration SE-0019

o (A) control air pressure • (B) gland seal steam pressure o (C) steam throttle pressure o (D) lube oil pressure


45. The cooling water flow from an air ejector intercondenser and aftercondenser is discharged directly into the __________.

• (A) condensate and feed system o (B) atmospheric drain tank o (C) main condenser hotwell o (D) auxiliary condenser hotwell



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 46. A main condenser utilizing a scoop for the circulation of sea water must be constructed as a

__________.

o (A) counterflow heat exchanger • (B) single-pass heat exchanger o (C) two-pass heat exchanger o (D) parallel flow heat exchanger


47. Condensate pumps have distinctly noticeable characteristics and can usually be recognized by their __________.

o (A) speed-limiting governors and closed impellers • (B) large suction chambers and impeller eyes o (C) open impellers and power ends o (D) multiple impellers and pump shaft positions


48. Cooling water to the vent condenser in a DC heater is supplied by the _______.

o (A) main feed pump • (B) main and/or auxiliary condensate pump o (C) feed booster pump o (D) salt water circulator


49. The pressure in the feedwater system must exceed boiler steam drum pressure in order to __________.

o (A) prevent air leakage into the feedwater system o (B) remove the steam from the steam drum • (C) force the feedwater into the boiler o (D) prevent water hammer in the lines


50. To prevent pulsations from developing in the boiler feedwater lines, the discharge side of a reciprocating feed pump is equipped with a/an __________.

• (A) air chamber o (B) relief valve o (C) reed valve o (D) feedwater regulator



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51. Under EMERGENCY operating conditions, the proper valve positions for controlling feedwater to theboiler should be the __________.

o (A) auxiliary stop-check valve fully open and the auxiliary stop valve regulated by the feedwaterregulator

o (B) auxiliary stop and stop-check valves fully open and the feed pump speed used to regulate theamount of flow

o (C) auxiliary stop-check valve fully open and the auxiliary stop valve used to regulate the amountof flow

• (D) auxiliary stop valve fully open and the auxiliary stop-check valve used to regulate the amountof flow


52. The main feed check valve functions to __________.

• (A) prevent backflow of water from the boiler in the event of a feed pump failureo (B) reduce feed pump discharge pressure loadingo (C) provide feed pump positive discharge heado (D) check pressure pulsations in the feed line


53. In addition to sensing steam drum water level, what additional sensing input does a two-elementfeedwater regulator control system utilize?

• (A) Boiler steam flowo (B) Boiler feed flowo (C) Boiler fuel flowo (D) Boiler air flow


54. When you are transferring fuel oil to the settling tanks, precautions to be observed should include__________.

o (A) maintaining a supply of chemical dispersant to cleanup minor oil spills adjacent to the ship• (B) sounding the tanks frequently and reducing the transfer rate as the level approaches

maximum fillo (C) plugging gooseneck tank vents to prevent accidental overflowo (D) maintaining a high transfer rate until a slight trickle of oil is observed flowing from the overflow

line



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Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Illustrations: 6 55. If a steam propulsion plant is provided with two main propulsion boilers, two fuel oil service heaters,

two fuel oil service pumps, and two fuel oil settling tanks, what is the capacity of each fuel oil service heater?

• (A) Each heater has the capacity to supply heated fuel to both boilers under full load with one service pump running.

o (B) Each heater has the capacity to supply heated fuel to just one boiler under full load with one service pump running.

o (C) Each heater has the capacity to supply heated fuel to both boilers under full load with both service pumps running.

o (D) Each heater has the capacity to supply heated fuel to just one boiler under full load with both service pumps running.


56. In a cross-compounded turbine propulsion plant, steam enters the __________.

o (A) high and low-pressure units simultaneously o (B) high-pressure unit and then cross-flows to the condenser • (C) high-pressure unit and then flows through a crossover to the low-pressure unit o (D) high-pressure, intermediate and low-pressure units simultaneously


57. The adjustable spherically seated self-aligning bearing housings used in main turbines are provided with oil deflector rings. The function of these rings is to __________.

o (A) prevent the leakage of main steam into the oil o (B) direct the flow of oil through the bearing o (C) ensure efficient lubrication of the bearing • (D) prevent the external leakage of oil out of the bearing housing


58. What statement is true concerning a propulsion steam turbine turning (jacking) gear?

o (A) The jacking gear splined clutch is associated with the high-pressure turbine second reduction pinion.

• (B) The jacking gear splined clutch is associated with the high-pressure turbine first reduction pinion.

o (C) The jacking gear splined clutch is associated with the low-pressure turbine second reduction pinion.

o (D) The jacking gear splined clutch is associated with the low-pressure turbine first reduction pinion.



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59. What will be the FIRST thing to occur if both the main and standby lube oil pumps failed to operateon a geared main propulsion steam turbine operating at full sea speed?

• (A) Ahead throttle will close.o (B) Shaft brake will engage.o (C) Vacuum will be lost.o (D) Lube oil sump will overflow.


60. After the steam leaves the low-pressure turbine, it enters the __________.

o (A) first-stage feedwater heater• (B) main condensero (C) feed and filter tanko (D) turbine extraction valve manifold


61. The primary source of steam to the auxiliary exhaust system is typically supplied directly from__________.

o (A) the turbine gland exhaust systemo (B) the main engine LP bleed• (C) turbine driven and reciprocating steam pumpso (D) all of the above


62. According to the illustrated diagram, what is the normal source of heat for the boiler air heaters whenthe vessel is underway under full power? Illustration SG-0024

o (A) Main boiler furnace.• (B) Intermediate pressure bleed steam.o (C) Deaerating feed tank.o (D) Main feed pump drive turbine exhaust.


63. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire fromrapidly spreading?

o (A) Keeping the duct exterior clean.• (B) Keeping the duct interior clean.o (C) Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening.o (D) Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.



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64. In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions will cause an indication of a fire tobe given in the annunciator cabinet?

o (A) A manual fire alarm box is activated.o (B) A rise in temperature activating a heat detector.o (C) The fire alarm test push button is operated.• (D) All of the above.


65. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only __________.

o (A) to prevent rekindlingo (B) if applied in connection with foam• (C) if applied promptlyo (D) if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed


66. A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator isprevented from rotating in the joint by __________.

o (A) a keeper screwo (B) water pressureo (C) a locknut• (D) a spring-loaded catch


67. If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room, you should __________.

• (A) leave the space immediatelyo (B) start the fire pumpo (C) immediately assist the fixed system by discharging all portable units as wello (D) make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space


68. The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is __________.

• (A) inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for extended periodso (B) displacement of oxygeno (C) skin irritationo (D) eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder



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69. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by____________.

• (A) convectiono (B) conductiono (C) ventilationo (D) radiation


70. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________. Illustration SF-0013

o (A) convection• (B) conductiono (C) impingemento (D) radiation



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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation's Mariners

9/24/2018

GS-0042

Adapted for testing purposes only from SEWARD, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1968 by The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 22 Q806 Fireman-Watertender

National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation's Mariners

9/24/2018

GS-0047

Adapted for testing purposes only from Machinist Mate 3 & 2

NAVEDTRA 14151

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 22



10/3/2018

SF-0013

Adapted for testing purposes only from Marine Fire Prevention, Firefighting and Fire Safety

U.S. Department of Transportation Maritime Administration




10/2/2018

SG-0008

Adapted for testing purposes only from Principles of Naval Engineering

NAVPERS 10788-B




10/2/2018

SG-0024

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARRINGTON, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1992 by The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers

Further reproduction prohibited without permission

Nominal System Pressures

Gauge psig

A

35 (in port) 67 (max. load

underway)

B 35

C 35

D 33

E 67

F 13.6 psia

G 5

H 8 psia

Device Settings

Valve Psig

1 150°F

2 35

3 34-38

4 33

5 5


U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Q806 …Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam...

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Transcript of U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam QMED Q806 …Q806 Fireman-Watertender U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam...