U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – OSV Q682 ...Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is...

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U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

Chief Engineer – OSV

Q682 General Subjects

(Sample Examination)

of 28 Q682 General Subjects

8/22/2019

Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

1. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant or increasing amplitude?

o (A) Deadband o (B) Error o (C) Saturation • (D) Instability

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

2. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?

o (A) Hysteresis o (B) Saturation o (C) Deadband • (D) Damping


3. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.

o (A) bleed-off circuit o (B) metered-out circuit o (C) bleed-in circuit • (D) metered-in circuit


4. In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should __________.

o (A) be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction line to prevent pump starvation should the strainer become fouled

o (B) be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vacuum o (C) be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers • (D) be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of mercury



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5. A hydraulic system flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0105

o (A) bleed-off circuit o (B) bleed-in circuit • (C) metered-in circuit o (D) metered-out circuit

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

6. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

o (A) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches being disengaged.

o (B) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with handwheel operated wildcat band brakes being set.

o (C) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in the neutral position.

• (D) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position.


7. As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?

o (A) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension.

o (B) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension.

o (C) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension.

• (D) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable tension limits.



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8. While a vessel is underway in periodically unmanned engine room condition, No.2 SSDG is to be down for repairs for at least the next 24 hours. Since the vessel is nearing US navigable waters, as chief engineer you wish the bridge be immediately informed of the availability of No.2 SSDG to support the electrical power requirements of maneuvering. How would you best insure that the bridge be so informed?

o (A) The request would be written as a note posted on the No.2 SSDG panel of the main switchboard.

• (B) The request would be written as a special instruction in the Chief Engineer's night order book. o (C) The request would be written as a note posted on the first assistant engineer's stateroom

door. o (D) The request would be made of the duty engineer orally assuming that the word shall be

passed on to his or her relief.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

9. When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be __________.

o (A) hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure o (B) cleaned using a water-based detergent • (C) descaled by using a pickling solution o (D) all of the above


10. Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the lint __________.

o (A) breaks down hydraulic fluid o (B) can cause rusting of internal parts o (C) solidifies and causes cracked lines • (D) can clog filters and promote component leakage


11. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure system, the oil __________.

• (A) viscosity will increase o (B) viscosity will decrease o (C) volume will increase o (D) floc point will increase

If choice A is selected set score to 1.


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Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9 12. A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abruptly slows towards the end of

its stroke, then continues to creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the probable cause?

• (A) The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently. o (B) The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far. o (C) The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear. o (D) The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose.


13. Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled, the __________.

o (A) actuator response time will be halved o (B) reservoir will become pressurized o (C) flow through the return lines will be stopped • (D) reservoir will be subjected to a partial vacuum


14. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused by a/an __________.

o (A) excessive discharge pressure from the pump o (B) hydraulic fluid low floc point • (C) clogged suction strainer in the reservoir o (D) high fluid level in the reservoir


15. The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______. Illustration GS-0175

o (A) processed water outlet line o (B) clean water inlet line o (C) waste oil outlet line • (D) oily bilge water inlet line



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16. Referring to the illustration, suppose while in the oil separation processing mode, the oil content detector display screen shows 17.9 ppm and the oily-water separator is discharging back to the bilge water holding tank for recirculation. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

o (A) The oily-water separator service pump is excessively worn. • (B) The bilge water holding tank contents is excessively contaminated with oil. o (C) The oily-water separator bilge suction strainer is excessively clogged. o (D) The bilge water holding tank level is excessively high resulting in a high level alarm.


17. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153

o (A) Coalescer beds are severely fouled. o (B) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open. • (C) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed. o (D) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is

to be measured.


18. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.

o (A) increase water flow through the system • (B) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump o (C) prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction o (D) provide a higher pressure in the system than the pump can deliver


19. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011

o (A) 45 1/4 inches o (B) 45 5/16 inches o (C) 53 5/8 inches • (D) 57 5/8 inches



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20. Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustration. Illustration GS-0003

o (A) 1 o (B) 2 o (C) 3 • (D) 4


21. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle input

o (A) I only o (B) II only • (C) Both I and II o (D) Neither I nor II


22. If oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the illustration __________. Illustration GS-0116

o (A) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I" o (B) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the

area between "M" and "I" • (C) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I" o (D) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"


23. The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________. Illustration GS-0116

o (A) all items, similar to "I" move as the rudder stock rotates • (B) all items, similar to "N" move as the rudder stock rotates o (C) both "I" and "N" move as the rudder stock rotates o (D) neither "I" nor "N" move as the rudder stock rotates



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24. A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $30,000(USD) damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.

o (A) engine manufacturer o (B) owner or his agent • (C) U.S. Coast Guard o (D) insurance underwriter


25. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?

o (A) Chief engineer o (B) Coast Guard o (C) Chief mate • (D) Master of the vessel


26. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?

o (A) In the captain's desk o (B) Official logbook o (C) Muster List ("Station Bill") • (D) Certificate of Inspection


27. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the setpoint. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. setpoint?

o (A) By decreasing reset, the system's oscillations should subside vs. setpoint after an upset. o (B) By increasing gain, the system's oscillations should subside vs. setpoint after an upset. o (C) By decreasing gain, the process should return to a straight line response vs. setpoint after an

upset. • (D) By decreasing gain gradually, the process should stabilize in a 'quarter wave' response to

system's upsets vs. the setpoint.



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28. Control system diagrams use standard symbols to describe the component function required for the system to achieve its intended control functions. Standard symbols are used to allow engineers to describe the logic and component functions. Define the function of symbol "I" as shown in the illustration. Illustration GS-0180

o (A) Difference Signal Processor. • (B) Low Select Signal Processor. o (C) High Select Signal Processor. o (D) Integral Processor.


29. The gas that exists in the stratosphere forming a protective shield that helps to protect the environment from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation is called what?

o (A) nitrogen o (B) oxygen • (C) ozone o (D) radon


30. Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary refrigerant?

o (A) Methyl alcohol • (B) Brine o (C) Cuprous chloride o (D) Carbon dioxide


31. If the discharge reed valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, what statement is true?

o (A) the low side pressure will indicate below normal o (B) the reed valves should be reground and relapped o (C) the high-pressure cutout setting should be lowered • (D) the reed valves should be replaced


32. A refrigeration unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under what conditions?

o (A) during hot gas defrost o (B) under heavy loads • (C) lack of refrigerant o (D) during starting conditions



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Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9 33. A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator superheat. Adjusting this valve to

lower the evaporator superheat setting will result in which of the following?

o (A) the evaporator pressure will decrease o (B) the expansion valve diaphragm will rupture o (C) the expansion valve will further close • (D) the evaporator feed will increase


34. Which of the following statements describes the accepted method for testing a thermostatic expansion valve?

• (A) Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. Observe flood-through and temperature change at the suction line.

o (B) Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe the valve stem movement. o (C) Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch while using a scale to

measure the distance the diaphragm has moved. o (D) Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an increase in suction pressure.


35. Vapor bubbles present in the liquid upon arrival to the thermal expansion valve in a refrigeration system may cause erosion of the expansion valve's needle and seat. This, in turn, could cause what condition?

• (A) TXV hunting o (B) TXV overheating o (C) TXV freezing shut o (D) TXV freezing open


36. If the superheat setting of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too low, what would be the result, assuming that the system has a single evaporator?

o (A) the suction line will be abnormally warm due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning back to the compressor

o (B) the box temperature will be pulled way down below the normal temperature range • (C) the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may flood back to the compressor o (D) the receiver level will be abnormally high due to a reduced amount of refrigerant returning

back to the compressor



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37. High suction pressure accompanied by low suction temperature to a refrigeration system compressor is caused by which of the following?

o (A) a clogged liquid-line strainer • (B) the expansion valve being open too wide o (C) the expansion valve is insufficiently opened o (D) the king valve is insufficiently open


38. Why is a purge recovery unit typically fitted on low-pressure centrifugal chillers?

o (A) low-pressure chillers are routinely opened for maintenance thus introducing air at each opening

o (B) evacuation of the air from a low-pressure chiller prior to charging with refrigerant is not possible

o (C) low-pressure chillers use extremely low boiling point refrigerants • (D) such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure on the low side thus

drawing in air through any low side leaks


39. Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the refrigeration system through the high side?

o (A) Dehydrator inlet valve o (B) Suction line valve o (C) Thermal expansion valve • (D) Liquid line king valve


40. For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant bottles should be exposed is what temperature?

o (A) 100°F • (B) 125°F o (C) 150°F o (D) 175°F



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41. Which of the following is true concerning the class "D" air conditioning system shown in the following illustration? Illustration RA-0042

o (A) System cooling is the direct result of the Freon circuit of a direct type air conditioning unit. o (B) The heat load will increase by increasing the amount of recirculated air. o (C) The room thermostat controls the wet bulb temperature of the air conditioned space. • (D) The duct thermostat determines the amount of water flow circulating through the cooling coil.


42. In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?

o (A) mercuric sulfate o (B) distilled water • (C) the same refrigerant as the system o (D) bees wax


43. Using the illustrated chart giving the boiling point of moisture at various depths of vacuum, with an ambient temperature of 72°F, what depth of vacuum would be associated with the BEST chance of achieving a dehydration evacuation with a deep vacuum pump? Illustration RA-0056

o (A) 28.75" Hg gauge or 31,750 microns of Hg absolute o (B) 29" Hg gauge or 25,400 microns of Hg absolute o (C) 29.20" Hg or 20,320 microns of Hg absolute • (D) 29.90" Hg or 500 microns of Hg absolute


44. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?

o (A) Conversing with the employee in your office with the employee sitting on the opposite side of the desk from you.

• (B) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area with privacy assured. o (C) Conversing with the employee in the ship's office with the employee sitting on the opposite

side of the desk from you. o (D) Conversing with the employee in his/her workspace or a neutral area without regard to being

interrupted.



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Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9 45. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the

following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?

o (A) Where the employees are unable but willing or confident. • (B) Where the employees are able and willing or confident. o (C) Where the employees are able but unwilling or insecure. o (D) Where the employees are unable and unwilling or insecure.


46. During the "forming" stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of the group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what should be done to help facilitate the "forming" process?

o (A) The group should not have a designated leader to promote equality. • (B) The group should have a designated leader to provide structure and guidance. o (C) The group members should be widely differing in background regardless of the degree of

complexity of the task. o (D) The group members should be similar in background regardless of the degree of complexity

of the task.


47. Of the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component when used with stability charts would be particularly useful in decision-making as it applies to the effect of water accumulated during firefighting efforts and the free surface effect?

• (A) Deadweight and capacity plan o (B) Pre-fire plan o (C) General arrangement plan o (D) Fire control plan


48. You are at a shipyard in dry-dock. New anodes for the impressed current system are being installed. The yard workers are installing the capastic layer on the hull. What is the primary function of the capastic epoxy?

o (A) It protects the anode from impact with foreign objects. o (B) It raises the anode off the hull so as to improve the range of the anode current. • (C) It prevents shorting of the anode current to the hull and aids in a wider current distribution to

the hull. o (D) It protects the hull coating from excessive current.



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Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9 49. What responsibilities does a Senior Officer have while on Builder's Sea Trials of a new vessel to

which one will be assigned?

o (A) Be involved operationally with the shipyard operating personnel, and assist in operations. o (B) Witness/observe operations and tests, report any perceived discrepancies to regulatory

bodies on board. • (C) None operationally, observe/witness tests and document any possible discrepancies to

owners' representatives. o (D) Be involved operationally with shipyard operators/crew, and report any possible deficiencies

to the owner's representatives.


50. During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel. Which of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?

o (A) The propeller flange must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing. o (B) The shaft weight must be checked prior to refitting. • (C) The tapered section must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing. o (D) The entire shaft must be checked for cracks using non-destructive testing.


51. If a vessel is to be laid up for an extended period of time with minimal utilities provided from ashore, what statement is true as it relates to preparing a refrigeration system for lay-up?

o (A) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a recovery unit so that the entire refrigerant charge is transferred to a recovery cylinder.

o (B) The refrigeration system should be evacuated with a deep-vacuum pump so that the entire refrigerant charge is transferred to the atmosphere.

• (C) The refrigeration system should be pumped down so that the entire refrigerant charge is stored and isolated in the receiver tank.

o (D) The refrigeration system should be left in an idle condition with the refrigerant charge dispersed throughout the system.


52. When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to the bearing __________.

• (A) inner race o (B) outer race o (C) raceway o (D) retainer plate



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53. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.

• (A) vibration while the bearing is not in operation o (B) dirt in the bearing o (C) water in the bearing o (D) abrasives in the lubricant


54. If a new assistant engineer reports onboard, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and watchkeeping duties?

o (A) First assistant engineer o (B) Chief engineer o (C) The designated ship's training officer • (D) The 3rd assistant engineer being relieved


55. As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?

o (A) Your authority is conferred upon you by the ship's master upon reporting aboard. o (B) Your authority is earned by you as a function of daily performance. • (C) Your authority is conferred upon you by the license you hold and maritime tradition. o (D) Your authority is bestowed upon you by its acceptance by your subordinates.


56. What maintenance management scheme does trend analysis support?

• (A) Predictive maintenance management. o (B) Run-to-failure maintenance management. o (C) Planned maintenance management. o (D) Preventive maintenance management.


57. As a management level engineering officer, you are apt to be the primary investigator investigating the root cause of the failure of a piece of machinery. In collecting the necessary data for the root cause analysis, what should be your FIRST priority?

o (A) Interviewing any directly involved watchstanding or maintenance personnel. o (B) Reviewing the historical watchkeeping and maintenance records. o (C) Consulting with other technical experts, suppliers, and manufacturers. • (D) Collecting and preserving the physical evidence of the failure.



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Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9 58. What is the critical first step that must be carried out before executing a plan?

o (A) Developing a systematic approach to achievement of the plan. o (B) Identifying present and future conditions affecting achievement of the plan. o (C) Assessing present and future conditions affecting achievement of the plan. • (D) Setting an objective or goal to be achieved by the plan.


59. What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag vessels?

• (A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) o (B) International Transport Workers' Federation (ITWF) o (C) U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) o (D) Maritime Administration (MARAD)


60. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is arbitration. What is meant by arbitration?

o (A) Negotiated settlement between company and union representatives facilitated by a mediator. • (B) Agreement to abide by a binding decision rendered by a company and union agreed-upon

impartial person. o (C) Settlement reached as the result of litigation as part of a judicial proceeding in court. o (D) Direct, in-house negotiated settlement between company and union representatives.


61. You are the Chief Engineer onboard a general cargo vessel in excess of 1600 gross tons. To remain in compliance with the 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), for non-tank vessel machinery space operations, which of the following requires an entry to be made in the Oil Record Book?

o (A) Retention onboard of oil residues. o (B) Discharge overboard of bilge water which has accumulated in cargo-holds. • (C) Discharge overboard of bilge water which has accumulated in machinery spaces. o (D) Internal transfers of fuel or lubricating oil.



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62. In accordance with 46 CFR Subchapter J (Electrical Engineering), which of the following electrical repairs is permitted?

o (A) Splice a flexible cord or cable with twist-on connectors if smaller than 18 AWG. • (B) Connect a flexible cord or cable to a fitting with so that tension is not transmitted to joints or

terminal screws. o (C) Extend the length of a circuit with twist-on connectors if in an enclosure and wrapped securely

with insulating tape. o (D) Splice a damaged conductor with twist-on connectors if the insulated cap is firmly secured to

prevent loosening due to vibration.


63. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Unmanned machinery space noise must not exceed which noise level?

o (A) 75 dB(A) o (B) 85 dB(A) o (C) 90 dB(A) • (D) 110 dB(A)


64. In accordance with 33 CFR-Subchapter O (Pollution), what is the definition of a "Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (A) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.

o (B) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids.

o (C) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters and no visible floating solids.

• (D) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage or any waste derived from sewage.


65. Prior to entering the navigable waters of the United States after an international voyage, your vessel must conduct drills according to 33 CFR regulations for ports and waterways safety that test steering system functionality and log that in the vessel logbook, unless the drill is conducted and logged on a regular basis at least once every three months. Within how many hours of arrival must these drills be performed?

o (A) 6 hours o (B) 12 hours o (C) 24 hours • (D) 48 hours



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Q682 General Subjects U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer-OSV Illustrations: 9 66. While examining results of vibration analysis of a rotating piece of machinery, you find very high

amplitude/displacement readings at a very high frequency at one measuring point. What would that indicate?

o (A) Misalignment between the prime mover and driven equipment. o (B) Looseness of equipment components at the measuring point. o (C) Imbalance between the prime mover and driven equipment. • (D) Degradation of a ball or a roller bearing.


67. With a machinery lubricating oil analysis program, it is important to monitor trends over time. What would be indicated by a sudden increase in metallic content of a recent sample of used diesel engine crankcase lubricating oil?

o (A) Depletion of lubricating oil additives. • (B) Increased wear rates of engine parts. o (C) Sudden contamination of the lubricating oil with coolant. o (D) Sudden dilution of the lubricating oil with fuel.


68. Compatibility of fuel is easily checked onboard ship to insure that serious problems do not result. What statement concerning fuel incompatibility is true?

o (A) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must be vigorously blended.

• (B) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to form sludge, and therefore must not be blended.

o (C) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and therefore must not be blended.

o (D) Incompatible fuels, if allowed to mix, have a tendency to separate out from one another, and therefore must be vigorously blended.


69. Which of the following types of maintenance would be considered a reactive approach to maintenance as opposed to proactive?

o (A) Condition-based maintenance o (B) Predictive maintenance • (C) Corrective maintenance o (D) Planned maintenance



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70. Which of the following condition-based maintenance data continuous monitoring techniques has thegreatest value in predicting wear?

o (A) Thermographyo (B) Lubricating oil analysiso (C) Acoustic analysis• (D) Vibration analysis



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National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation's Mariners

9/21/2018

GS-0003

Adapted for testing purposes only

Further reproduction prohibited without permission. of 28 Q682 General Subjects

National Maritime Center Serving Our Nation's Mariners

9/21/2018

GS-0011


Further reproduction prohibited without permission

MOTOR CHARACTERISTICS Characteristic Specification

Motor (A. C.) Electro Dynamic

Rating H. P. 25

Speed R. P. M. (SYN.) 1200

Frame 365 VY

Type TN

Volts 440

Cycles 60

Phase 3

PUMP CHARACTERISTICS Characteristic Specification

Capacity G. P. M. 400

Speed R. P. M. 1150

Suction Lift “HG 10

B, H, P. @ 1200 SSU-75° F 24.9

Oil viscosity Range, SSU 74-7000

Viscosity Normal SSU @ 140° F 155

Discharge Normal PSIG 55

Fluid Handled, Lube Oil 2190 TEP.

Navy Specification MIL-L-17331

Oil Temperature Range ° F

40-180

Illustration scale: 1” = 1’



2/2/2015

GS-0105

Adapted for testing purposes only from STUTMAN, Applied Marine Hydraulics

Copyright © 1988 by Cornell Maritime Press, Inc.

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 28 Q682 General Subjects


9/27/2018

GS-0153

Adapted for testing purposes only from Operator, Unit and Direct Support Maintenance Manual

Including Repair Parts and Special Tools List for Oil Water Separator

TM 55-1925-285-13 & P

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 28

Q682 General Subjects


9/27/2018

GS-0175

Adapted for testing purposes only from Heli-Sep Model 550/OCD Technical Manual

Copyright © by Coffin World Water Systems


National Maritime Center

Serving Our Nation's Mariners

9/18/2018

RA-0042

Adapted for testing purposes only from HARRINGTON, Marine Engineering

Copyright © 1992 by The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers


National Maritime Center

Serving Our Nation's Mariners

9/17/2018


Further reproduction prohibited without permission

RA-0056

Pressure Vacuum Equivalents

Absolute Pressure above zero base

(microns)

Vacuum below one atmosphere

(inches Hg)

Vaporization temperature of water at

each pressure (Fahrenheit)

0 50

100 150 200

29.921 29.92 29.92 29.92 29.91

- -50 -40-33-28

300 500

1,000 2,000 4,000

29.91 29.90 29.88 29.84 29.76

-21-12

11529

6,000 10,000 15,000 20,000 30,000

29.69 29.53 29.33 29.13 28.74

39 52 63 72 84

50,000 100,000 200,000 500,000 760,000

27.95 25.98 22.05 10.24

0

101 125 152 192 212


U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam Chief Engineer – OSV Q682 ...Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is...

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